SECOND YEAR & ONE YEAR EXTENDED JEE MAINS … TEST 5 (HOME TEST) 31...FIITJEE KUKATPALLY CENTRE: #...

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST SECOND YEAR & ONE YEAR EXTENDED

JEE MAINS FULL TEST V (HOME TEST)

31 MARCH 2016 Chemistry:

Complete syllabus

Physics: Complete syllabus

Maths: Complete syllabus

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 360 INSTRUCTIONS:

Instructions to the Candidates 1. This Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.

Use Blue/Black ball Point Pen only for writing particulars. Use Pencil for all responses in OMR sheet.

2. For each correct answer 4 Marks will awarded and for each wrong answer 1 Mark will be deducted.

3. Attempt all questions.

4. In case you have not darkened any bubble you will be awarded 0 mark for that question.

5. Use of calculator/logarithmic table is not permitted. Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:


CHEMISTRY 1. The electron gain enthalpies of B, C, N and O with negative sign are in the order (A) B<C<N<O (B) B<C<O>N (C) B<C>O>N (D) B>C<O<N 2. NH2

CH3

Ac2O A Br2

CH3COOHB H2O

HC

Product (C) would be

NH2

COCH3

CH3

COCH3

Br

CH3

NH2

Br

CH3

NHCOCH3

Br

CH3 (A) (B) (C) (D)

3. An electron has a velocity of 50 m s–1 accurate up to 99.99%. The uncertainty in locating its position is (A) 5.684 10–4 m (B) 1.369 10–6m (C) 1.153 10–2 m (D) 4.523 10–5m 4. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions both the species are paramagnetic?

(A) C2, 3N (B) 22 2,O F (C) NO, CN (D) 2

2 , N NO

5. A compound with empirical formula CH2O has a vapour density of 30. Its molecular formula is (A) C2H2O2 (B) C2H4O2 (C) C3H6O3 (D) C6H12O6 6. If we add dilute aqueous solution of KI drop wise to AgNO3 aqueous solution, the Agl colloid formed will

have (A) negative charge (B) positive charge (C) neutral (D) nothing can be predicted 7. Which of the following compounds is not correctly named?

CH2 CH CH3

O1, 2-Epoxypropane

2 2 2 2 2Propane-1,3 diamine

NH CH CH CH NH CH3NH

NHCH3

3, 4'-bis(N-Methylamino)biphenyl

N(CH3)2

N-Phenyldimethylamine

(A) (B) (C) (D) 8. For H3PO3 and H3PO4, the correct choice is (A) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing (B) H3PO4 is dibasic and non-reducing (C) H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing (D) H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing 9. X, Y and Z are three elements forming a part of compound in oxidation states of +2, +5, and –2

respectively. What could be the compound? (A) X2(YZ)2 (B) X2(YZ)5 (C) X3(YZ4)2 (D) X(YZ)2


10. Which one of the following reacts fastest with Na metal?

C6H5 – CH2OH CH2OH

Cl

F3C – CH2OH CH2OH

O (A) (B) (C) (D)

11. The vapour pressures of ethanol and methanol are 42.0 mm Hg and 88.5 mm Hg respectively. An ideal

solution is formed at the same temperature by mixing 46.0 g of ethanol with 16.0 g of methanol. The mole fraction of methanol in the vapour phase is

(A) 0.334 (B) 0.662 (C) 0.513 (D) 0.483 12. The mass of molecule A is twice the mass of molecule B. The rms speed of A is twice the rms speed of B.

If two samples of A and B contain same number of molecules, the ratio of pressures of two samples A and B in separate containers of equal volume is

(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 2 13. The acid containing S–O–O–S bond is (A) H2SO5 (B) H2S2O7 (C) H2S2O6 (D) H2S2O8 14. An organic compound ‘X’ having molecular formula C2H3N on reduction gave another compound ‘Y’. Upon

treatment with nitrous acid, ‘Y’ gave ethyl alcohol. On warming with chloroform and alcoholic KOH, ‘Y’ formed an offensive smelling compound ‘z’. The compound ‘Z’ is

(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) CH3CH2N C (C) CH3C N (D) CH3CH2OH 15. E values for Ti2+/Ti, V2+/V, Mn3+/Mn2+, V3+/V2+ and Co3+/Co2+ are –1.63 V, –1.18 V, +1.57 V, –0.26 V and

+1.97 V respectively. Identify the incorrect statement. (A) Ti2+ and V2+ are strongest reducing agents and liberate hydrogen gas from dilute acids (B) Mn3+ and Co3+ are strongest oxidising agents in aqueous solution (C) Mn2+ is very stable due to the stable d5 configuration (D) V2+ is less stable than V3+ 16. When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot reduced copper, it gives an alkene. The alcohol is (A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) none of these 17. Identify the wrong statement among the following. (A) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur (B) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion. (C) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming. (D) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiations from the sun to reach the earth.

18. 3.92 g/L of a sample of ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts completely with 50 mL of 410N KMnO solution.

The percentage purity of the sample is (A) 50.0 (B) 78.4 (C) 80.0 (D) 39.2 19. The geometry of [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] are (A) both square planar (B) tetrahedral and square planar respectively (C) both tetrahedral (D) square planar and tetrahedral respectively. 20. If the solubility of lithium sodium hexafluore aluminate, Li3Na3(AlF6)2 is ‘S’ mol/L, its solubility product is (A) S2 (B) 12 S2 (C) 18 S3 (D) 2916 S8


21. Consider a reaction: aP + bQ Products. When concentration of P is doubled keeping the concentration of Q fixed the rate increases 2 times.

When concentration of Q is doubled, keeping the concentration of P fixed, the rate increases 4 times. The overall order of the reaction is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2.5 22. The ionization energy of lithium is 520 kJ mol–1. The amount of energy required to convert 210 mg of

lithium atoms in gaseous state into Li+ ions is (A) –520 kJ (B) 15.60 kJ (C) 2.47 kJ (D) –173.3 kJ 23. Which of the following is most stable?

(A) Ph3C

(B) Ph2C

H (C) Ph3C

H2 (D) (CH3)3 C

24. Consider the following structures:

(I) CH2 = C

H (II) CH3 – C

H2

(III) CH2 = CH – C

H2 (IV) C6H5 – C

H – C6H5 (A) IV, III, II, I (B) I, II, III, IV (C) IV, II, III, I (D) I, III, II, IV

25. In 34PO , the formal charge on each oxygen atom and the P – O bond order respectively are

(A) –0.75, 1 (B) –2, 1.0 (C) –0.75, 1.25 (D) –3, 1.25 26. Which of the following alkyl halides is hydrolysed by SN2 mechanism? (A) C6H5CH2Br (B) CH3Br (C) CH2 = CHCH2Br (D) (CH3)3CBr 27. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are 23, 24, 25 and 26

respectively. Which one of the these may be expected to have the highest second ionisation enthalpy? (A) V (B) Cr (C) Mn (D) Fe 28. A molecule contains atoms P and Q so that P occurs at the corners of the cube while Q at the face centre.

The formula of the molecule can be (A) PQ3 (B) P3Q (C) PQ2 (D) P2Q 29. If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes feasible at its

boiling point, then (A) H is –ve, S is +ve (B) H and S both are +ve (C) H and S both are –ve (D) H is +ve, S is –ve. 30. The correct order of decreasing acid strengths

of different groups in the given amino acid is H3N

+

COOH

N+H3

Z Y

X

(A) X>Z>Y (B) Z>X>Y (C) X>Y>Z (D) Y>X>Z PHYSICS

31. Three charges Q0, q and q are placed at the vertices of an isosceles right angled triangle as in the figure. The net electrostatic potential energy is zero if Q0 is equal to

(A) q4

(B) 2q32

(C) 2q (D) +q

Q0 –q

–q


32. Compute the equivalent resistance of the net work shown in

figure and find the current I drawn from the battery. (A) 2A (B) 3A (C) 4A (D) 6A

6

I

18V

3

4

33. In a certain place, the horizontal component of magnetic field is 13

times the vertical component. The

angle of dip at this place is

(A)2 (B)

3 (C)

4 (D)

5

34. An alternating voltage e = 200 sin 100 t is applied to a series combination of R = 30 and an inductor of

400 mH. The power factor of the circuit is (A) 0.01 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.6 35. The flux linked with a circuit is given by = t3 + 3t – 7. The graph between time (x–axis) and induced emf

(y–axis) will be a (A) straight line through the origin (B) straight line with positive intercept (C) straight line with negative intercept (D) parabola not through the origin 36. A ray of light is incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.5. The angle of

deviation is (A) 30o (B) 45o (C) 60o (D) 75o

37. In Young’s experiment, the third bright band for light of wavelength 6000 Å coincides with the fourth bright

band for another source of light in the same arrangement. Then the wavelength of second source is (A) 3600 Å (B) 4000 Å (C) 5000 Å (D) 4500 Å 38. The radius of curvature of the convex face of a plano–convex lens is 15 cm and the refractive index of the

material is 1.4. Then the power of the lens in dioptre is (A) 1.6 (B) 1.66 (C) 2 (D) 2.66 39. For a nucleus to be stable the correct relation between neutron number N and proton number Z is (A) N > Z (B) N = Z (C) N < Z (D) N Z 40. Which one of the following statements is true, if half–life of a radioactive substance is 1 month?

(A) 78

th part of the substance will disintegrate in 3 months

(B) 18

th part of the substance will remain undecayed at the end of 4 months

(C) the substance will disintegrate completely in 4 months

(D) 116

th part of the substance will remain undecayed at the end of 3 months

41. The current I through 15 resistor in circuit given below is (A) 2 A (B) 4 A (C) 6 A (D) 1 A

15 V

15

20

D1

D2

42. The resonance frequency of the tank circuit of an oscillator when 2

10L mH

and C = 0.04 F are

connected in parallel is (A) 250 kHz (B) 25 kHz (C) 2.5 kHz (D) 25 MHz


43. A uniform electric field of magnitude E = 100 kV/m is directed upward Perpendicular to E and directed into the page there exists uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.5T. A beam of particles of charge + q enters this region. The chosen speed of the particles for which the particles will not be deflected by the crossed electric and magnetic field.

(A) 2 x 105 m/s (B) 4 x 105 m/s (C) 5 x 105m/s (D) 8 x 105 m/s 44. If C is the capacitance and V is the potential, the dimensional formula for CV2 is (A) ML2T–1 (B) ML2T–3 (C) ML2T –2 (D) ML–2T–2

45. An object is dropped from rest. Its v–t graph is

v

t

v

t

v

t

v

t (A) (B) (C) (D)

46. At what angle to the horizontal, should a ball be projected so that the horizontal range is equal to the

maximum height? (A) = cot1(1/4) (B) = cos1(4) (C) = sin1(13) (D) = cos1(9) 47. Find the angle between the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆP 6i 3 j 2k

and ˆ ˆ ˆQ 2i j 2k

.

(A) 1 5cos21

(B) 1 5sin21

(C) 1 5tan21

(D) None of these

48. A particle of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. A force acts on it

whose magnitude changes with time. The force time graph is shown below. The velocity of the particle after 10 s is

(A) 20 ms–1 (B) 30 ms–1

(C) 40 ms–1 (D) 25 ms–1

F(N)

0 2 4 6 10 t(s)

5

10

49. A particle is moving under the influence of a force given by F = kx where k is a constant and x is the

distance moved. The energy (in joules) gained by the particle in moving from x = 0 to x = 3 is (A) 2.5 k (B) 3.5 k (C) 4.5 k (D) 9 k 50. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R rotates about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to its

plane, with a constant angular velocity . Four small spheres each of mass m (negligible radius) are kept gently to the opposite ends of two mutually perpendicular diameters of the ring. The new angular velocity of the ring will be

(A) M 4mM

(B) M

4m (C) M

M 4m

(D) MM 4m

51. The angular velocity of a wheel increases from 100 rps to 300 rps in 10 seconds. The number of

revolutions made during that time is (A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 1500 (D) 2000 52. Three identical bodies of mass M are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side L. They

revolve under the effect of mutual gravitational force in a circular orbit, circumscribing the triangle while preserving the equilateral triangle. Their orbital velocity is

(A) GML

(B) 3GM2L

(C) 3GML

(D) 2GM3L

53. A uniform rod of length 2 is placed with one end in contact with the horizontal table and is then inclined

at an angle to the horizontal and allowed to fall. When it becomes horizontal, its angular velocity will be

(A) = 3 g sin

2 (B) =

23 g sin

(C) =

g sin (D) =

g sin


54. The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three times that inside a second soap bubble, then the ratio of their surface areas is

(A) 1 : 9 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 9 : 1 55. The area of cross–section of one limb of an U–tube is twice that of the other. Both the limbs contain

mercury at the same level. Water is poured in the wider tube so that mercury level in it goes down by 1 cm. The height of water column is (density of water = 103 kg m–3, density of mercury = 13.6 x 10–3 kg m–3)

(A) 13.6 cm (B) 40.8 cm (C) 27.2 cm (D) 54.5 cm 56. The plots of intensity of radiation versus wavelength of three

black bodies at temperatures T1, T2 and T3 are shown. Then, (A) T3 > T2 > T1 (B) T1 > T2 > T3 (C) T3 > T1 > T2 (D) T1 > T3 > T2

I

T1 T3

T2

57. Three rods made of same material and having same cross sections

have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of same length. The temperature at the junction of the three rods is

(A) 45o (B) 60o (C) 90o (D) 180o

0oC

90oC

90oC 58. The P–V diagram of a gas undergoing a cycle process

(ABCDA) is shown in the graph where P is in units of N/m2 and V in cm3. Identify the incorrect statement

(A) 0.4 J of work is done by the gas from A to B (B) 0.2 J of work is done on the gas from C to D (C) no work is done by the gas from B to C (D) work is done by the gas in going from D to A

P

V

2x105

2.0 4.0

C

B

D

A

1x105

59. A non – uniform electric field given by ˆ ˆE 3xi 4 j

(N/C) pierces the Gaussian cube shown in figure. What

is the electric flux through the right face (A) 12 Nm2/C (B) 36 Nm2/C (C) 6 Nm2/C (D) zero 60. The network shown in figure is a part of a circuit. What is the

potential difference VB – VA when current I is 5A and is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s.

(A) 10 V (B) 5 V (C) 15 V (D) 20 V

5mH

B A I 15V 1

MATHEMATICS

61. The image of the line x 1 y 3 z 43 1 5

in the plane 2x-y+z+3=0 is the line

(A) x 3 y 5 z 23 1 5

(B) x 3 y 5 z 23 1 5

(C) x 3 y 5 z 23 1 5

(D) x 3 y 5 z 23 1 5

62. If the coefficients of 3x and 4x in the expansion 21 ax bx 181 2x are both zero then (a,b) is equal

to

(A) 25116,3

(B) 25114,3

(C) 27214,3

(D) 27216,3

63. If 2

a b b c c a

abc

= , then is equal to

(A)2 (B)3 (C)1 (D)0


64. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is

(A) 8334

(B) 833 (C)437 (D) 4374

65. The statement ~ (~p q) is (A) a tautology (B) a fallacy (C) equivalent to p q (D) equivalent to p ~ q 66. If a is an 3 x 3 non singular matrix such that T TAA A A and 1 TB A .A , then TB.B equals

(A) +B (B) (C) 1B (D) T1B

67. If 4z 2z

then the greatest value of |z| is

(A) 2 1 (B) 2 2 (C) 3 1 (D) 5 1

68. If g is the inverse of a function f and 51f '(x)

1 x

, then g (x) is equal to

(A) 51 x (B) 45x (C) 5

11 g(x)

(D) 51 g(x)

69. Let , be the roots of equation 2px qx r 0 , p 0 . If p,q,r are in A.P and 1 1

=4, then =

(A) 619

(B) 2 179

(C) 349

(D) 2 139

70. If the point of intersection of the lines 4ax+2ay+c=0 and 5bx+2by+d=0 lies in the fourth quadrant and is

equidistant from the two axes, then (A) 2bc-3ad=0 (B)2bc+3ad=0 (C)3bc-2ad=0 (D)3bc+2ad=0 71. Let PS be median of triangle with vertices p(2,2) Q(6,-1) and R(7,3) . the equation of line passing through

(1,-1) and parallel to to PS is (A) 4x-7y-11=0 (B) 4x+7y+3=0 (C)2x+9y+7=0 (D)2x-9y-11=0

72. 2

2x 0

sin cos xlim

x

=

(A) 2 (B)1 (C) (D)

73. The locus of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the centre of the ellipse 2 2x 3y 6 on any tangent

to it is

(A) 22 2 2 2x y 6x 2y (B) 22 2 2 2x y 6x 2y

(C) 22 2 2 2x y 6x 2y (D) 22 2 2x y 6x 2y

74. Three positive numbers from an increasing G.P. If the middle term in G.P. is doubled, the new numbers

are in A.P. The common ratio of G.P. is (A) 2 3 (B) 3 2 (C) 2 3 (D) 2 3


75. If 9 8 2 7 9 910 2.11.10 3.11 .10 ..... 10.11 k.10 , then k is equal to

(A) 12110

(B) 441100

(C)100 (D)110

76. The slope of the line touching both 2y 4x and 2x 32y is

(A) 12

(B) 32

(C) 18

(D) 23

77. The function f x is defined in 1,1 then the domain of sinf x

a) 0,2 b) 1,1 c) ,2 2

d)

78. tan sec 1tan sec 1

= ……………..

(A) cos1 sin

(B) 1 cos

sin

(C)

1 sincos

(D) none of these.

79. The general solution of sin100 x – cos100 x = 1

(A) 2n + 3 , n Z (B) n +

4 , n Z (C) n +

2 , n Z (D) 2n –

3 , n Z

80. If A b ccot2 2

, then the ABC is

(A) isosceles (B) equilateral (C) right angled (D) none of these 81. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points then (A) 2 < r < 8 (B) r < 2 (C) r = 2 (D) r > 2

82. For hyperbola 2 2

2 2

x y 1cos sin

which of the following remains constant with change in '':

(A) abscissa of vertices (B) abscissa of foci (C) eccentricity (D) directrix 83. The maximum number of points of intersection of 8 circles is _________.

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 28 (D) 56

84. The area enclosed in the region 2 2

2 2x y x y1 and 1

a ba b is

(A) ab 1ab4 2

(B) ab

4 (C) ab (D) none of these

85. If A and B are any two sets, then )( BAA is equal to

(A) A (B) B (C) cA (D) cB

86. The equation of motion of a particle moving along a straight line is 2s ttt 129 23 , where the units of s and t are cm and sec. The acceleration of the particle will be zero after

(A) ecs23 (B) ecs

32 (C) ecs

21 (D) Never

87. If cxkdxxx

x

4costancos

14cos then

(A) 2/1k (B) 8/1k (C) 4/1k (D) None of these


88. The solution of 0)0(, yeydxdy x , is

(A) )1( xey x (B) xxey (C) 1 xxey (D) xxey

89. If

1when,1

10when,1)(

2

xxxx

xf , then

(A) 0)(lim1

xfx

(B) 2)(lim1

xfx

(C) )(xf is discontinuous at 1x (D) None of these

90.

23

sin2

sin 1

(A) 23 (B)

23

(C) 21 (D)

21

Wish You all the Best


FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST SECOND YEAR & ONE YEAR EXTENDED

JEE MAINS (FULL TEST V) 31 MARCH 2016

CHEMISTRY 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A PHYSICS

31. B 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. A 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. D 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. C

MATHS

61. A 62. D 63. C 64. B 65. C 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. C 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. B 88. D 89. C 90. C


31. B

32. B

32. The 6 and 3 resistances are in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is

P

1 1 1R 6 3

RP = 2.

Now, Rp and 4 resistances are in series and their equivalent resistance is Rs = RP+4 = 2+4 = 6 .

Current drawn from battery is s

net emf 18I 3AR 6

33. B 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. D

39. For stability in case of lighter nuclei N 1Z and for heavier nuclei N 1

Z .

40. A 41. D 42. B 43. A 43. The charged particle in the electric field experiences a force qE in the direction of the electric field. This

force is directed upward. The purpose of the crossed electric and magnetic field is to cancel each other’s effect, on the charged particle. Force ‘qVB’ is downward.

qE qVB V EB

V m V m s, /.

/ .100 1000 5

2 105

44. C 45. A 46. (A) R = Hmax

2 2 2u sin 4 sin2

2g g

sin 2cos2

1cot4

1 1cot4

47. A


47. ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆP Q 6i 3 j 2k 2i j 2k = 12 – 3 – 4 = 5.

2 2 2P 6 3 2 7

2 2 2Q 2 1 2 3

If is the angle between P

and Q

then

P Q 5 5cos7x3 21P Q

1 5cos

21

48. D 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. A 53. A 53. loss in GPE = gain in rotational K.E.

2

221mg sin m2 3

3gsin2

mg

2

54. A 55. B 56. D 57. B 58. D 59. B 59. Electric field at right face ˆ ˆE 3 3i 4 j

= E.A

= (9 i + 4j) . (4 i) = 36 Nm2/C 60. C

60. Clearly, A BdIV IR E L Vdt

(Conventional current inside a cell is taken from ve to +ve terminal) since I is given to be decreasing dI/dt is negative so 3 3

B AV V 5 1 15 5 10 10

= 5 15 5 15V .

SECOND YEAR & ONE YEAR EXTENDED JEE MAINS … TEST 5 (HOME TEST) 31...FIITJEE KUKATPALLY CENTRE: #...

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