SBI CLERK MT – 05 - eenadupratibha.net 5.pdf · 6. 2014, CIF Chanchlani Global Indian Award...
Transcript of SBI CLERK MT – 05 - eenadupratibha.net 5.pdf · 6. 2014, CIF Chanchlani Global Indian Award...
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GENERAL AWARENESS1. The only Gorilla of India, died in Mysore Zoo, Name that Gorilla
1) Xolo 2) Polo 3) Nanu 4) Chimpker 5) None2. Who was named as Professional Footballer’s Association player of the year
2013 - 14 _______1) Robin Van Persie (Arsenal) 2) Gareth Bale (Tottenham)3) Luis Suarez (Liverpool) 4) Ryan Giggs (Manchester United) 5) None
3. Who won Goldman Environmental Prize 2014 ____1) Ramesh Agarwal 2) Ashish Mehta 3) Magasaysay4) Suresh Agarwal 5) None
4. Slovakia and Ukraine signed Framework Interconnection Agreement on ____supply?1) Gas 2) Oil 3) Gold 4) Water 5) None
5. Who was appointed as President and CEO of Nokia Corporation?1) Natarajan Chandrasekaran 2) Kazuo Hirai 3) Kwon Oh Hyun4) Rajeev Suri 5) None
6. 2014, CIF Chanchlani Global Indian Award presented to ____1) N.R. Narayana Murthy 2) Dr. L. Subramaniam3) Anoushka Shankar 4) Rachid Khan 5) None
7. Anirban Lahiri was ranked 67 in World Golf Ranking. He belongs to whichcountry____1) Russia 2) Australia 3) New Zealand 4) India 5) None
8. The European Union imposed temporary ban on Indian ____1) Bananas 2) Mangoes 3) Chillies 4) Tomotoes 5) None
9. Capital of South Sudan ____1) Mbabane 2) Dodoma 3) Juba 4) Kampala 5) None
10. Who won 2 Bronze, 1 Silver at IDM Berlin 2014 in Para Olympic swimming _____1) Tom Jagar 2) Alexander Popov 3) Lesar Cielo4) Roland Schoeman 5) Sharath Gayakwad
11. Scientists developed World’s First Solar Jet Fuel by using1) Sunlight, Water and Carbon dioxide (CO2) 2)Water, Power, Carbon Monoxide3)Power,Sunlight,Water,Kerosene 4) Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Power, Sunlight 5)None
12. “Broken Wings” written by _______1) Prem Bhatia 2) Sarojini Naidu 3) Maithili Sharan Gupta4) Swaraj Paul 5) None
13. Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana Scheme launched in ____1) Latvia 2) USSR 3) UAE 4) Syria 5) None
14. The 15th International Indian Film Academy Awards 2014 was held in ______1) Belarus, Belgium 2) Tampa Bay, US 3) Shillong, China4) Rhanat, UK 5) None
15. Currency of South Sudan ____1) Dollar 2) Pound 3) Krona 4) Riyal 5) None
16. Prime Minister of South Korea _____, Who has resigned recently?1) Hong-won 2) Ju-won 3) Ye-jue 4) Seo-hun 5) Min-yun
17. Who is the 41st Chief Justice of India ______1) R.C. Lahoti 2) S.H. Kapadia 3) P. Sathasivam 4) R.M. Lodha 5) None
18. Who won silver at Asian Continental Chess Championship?1) Adhiban 2) Bobby Fischer 3) Viswanathan Anand 4) Verdoni 5) None
19. India successfully test - fired new Interceptor Missile named ____1) Akash Missile System 2) Prithvi Defence Vehicle3) Agni Defence Vehicle 4) Trishul Missile System 5) None
SBI Clerks MODEL TEST - 05
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20. John Travolta honoured the most popular All Time International Star in India atIIFA awards, he belongs to _____1) Tollywood 2) Bollywood 3) Hollywood 4) Kollywood 5) None
21. Bihar Mahostav began in ______1) Bihar 2) Delhi 3) Mumbai 4) Bangalore 5) None
22. World Malaria Day observed across the world on ______1) April 7th 2) April 11th 3) April 25th 4) April 23rd 5) None
23. The US and Japan issued a joint statement emphasizing robust trilateral relationwith ____1) China 2) Bangladesh 3) Srilanka 4) India 5) None
24. Cadbury India Limited changed its name to ______1) Mondelez India Foods Limited 2) Fedex India Foods Limited3) Indian Cadbury 4) Mondelez Cadbury India 5) None
25. Chitra Magimairaj of India won the World Womens’ Senior Snooker Championshipon 22nd April 2014 at Leeds, Britain by defeating _____1) Rachidsen, Britain 2) Alena Asmolava, Belarus3) Umadevi Nagraj, India 4) Pre Bhatia, Venizula 5) None
26. Which of the following IT company has joined TOP 10 IT Service Companies clubrevealed by HFS Research Survey on Competitive Landscape for IT services in2013.1) Infosys 2) IBM 3) Tech Mahindra 4) Wipro 5) TCS
27. Who was the karnataka musician honoured by M.S. Subhalakshmi award?1) KPAC Lalitha 2) Mathangi Sathyamurthy 3) Sai Kumar4) O. Madhavan 5) None
28. International Mother Earth Day observed across the world ________1) On 22 April 2) On 23 April 3) On 25 April 4) On 15 April 5) On 27 April
29. “Hard Choices” authored by ________1) Isabel Allende 2) James Alan 3) Hillary Rodhan Clinton4) William Faulkner 5) None
30. Which bank set World Record for Blood Collection in a Single Day ______1) Union Bank 2) SBI 3) RBI 4) HDFC 5) ICICI
31. Shika Sharma is CEO of which Indian private sector bank as on Feb 2014?1) HDFC 2) IDBI 3) Axis Bank 4) Kotak Mahindra Bank 5) None
32. Interest rate policy is declared as a part of ?1) Fiscal policy 2) Industrial Policy 3) Monetary Policy4) Taxation policy 5) None
33. India’s first Monorail service has been recently launched in _____1) Kolkata 2) Mumbai 3) New Delhi 4) Bangalore 5) None
34. As per Asian Development outlook 2014, released on 1st April 2014, Gross DomesticProduct (GDP) of India was forecasted to rise to _____ in 2014-15.1) 4.5% 2) 5.5% 3) 6.5% 4) 7.5% 5) None
35. Which is the below list in India release data on Balance of Payment (BOP)?1) CSO 2) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India 3) RBI4) SEBI 5) None
36. The deadline for implementation of Basel-III norms by the Indian banks was on27 March 2014 extended by how many years by the RBI from its earlier deadlineof 31st March 2018?1) Three years 2) Two years 3)Four years 4) One year 5) Five years
37. Where is the headquarters of SBI located?1) Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Bangalore 4) Allahabad 5) None
38. Which country is the largest producer of wheat in the world?1) India 2) USA 3) Russia 4) Peoples Republic of China 5) None
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39. Satyagraha, a Hindi film is directed by?1) Siddarth Roy Kapoor 2) Sujay Ghosh 3) Farhan Akhtar4) Prakash Jha 5) None
40. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted by which of thefollowing institutions with the sole objective of giving low-cost fund support tostate governments?1) RBI 2) EXIM Bank 3) IDBI Bank 4) NABARD 5) IFCI
GENERAL ENGLISHDirections(Q.No.41-55) Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locatethem while answering some of the questions.
PassageSeveral suggestions have been advanced to remove obstacles in
the way of fast agricultural growth. One such suggested policy measure is toaccord industry status to agriculture on the premise that it would lead toeradication of rural poverty through fuller utilisation of the vast potential ofagriculture to generate additional production, jobs and income. To what extentwould such a step serve the desired aim and what would be its implications?
Agriculture and industry differ significantly in some very importantaspects. These references are with regard to processes and techniques ofproduction and nature, marketing pattern and pricing of products.
All farm products are good media for bacteria and are, therefore,perishable. The life of industrial products, on the other hand, is relatively muchlonger as they are less perishable.
Most farm crops come to maturity during a relatively short andspecific period and are consumed throughout the year. Industrial production, onthe contrary, takes place throughout the year and is hence less seasonal. Thisand other special features of agriculture subject it to the problems of storage andtransportation.
In agriculture, supply of commodities is less controllable than inthe industrial sector. Industry attempts to gauge demand continuously and matchthe supply accordingly. In agriculture, the position is just the reverse.
The relationship between price and output is strikingly differentin the two sectors. Industrial output is directly related to price. In agriculture,the price is inversely related to production. Also industrial prices are generallymore stable than agricultural prices.
Some apprehensions have also been expressed that agriculturehas not been treated on par with industry in terms of prices. The main objectiveof the agricultural price policy in India’s to provide an inducement to the producerfor adopting improved technology and for maximum production and income. Theminimum support/procurement prices for major agricultural commoditiesnumbering about 20 are fixed each year on the basis of recommendations of theCommission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). They are meant to enablethe farmer to pursue his activities with the assurance that the price of his producewould not be allowed to fall below the minimum.
The aim of price policy in the industrial sector is not to support butcontrol prices. The industrial prices of certain selected products, particularlybasic consumer goods and important industrial and agricultural inputs, arecontrolled and regulated on the recommendations of an expert body like; theBureau of Industrial Costs and Prices (BICP) or inter-ministerial committees orgroups in the case of certain public enterprises. The factors taken into account inrecommending the prices include the cost of more efficient firms accounting for ahigh percentage of total output, the optimum norms of consumption of raw materialsand energy as well as capacity utilisation and a fair rate of return on net worth
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generally ranging between 10 to 14 per cent depending on risks, priorities, growthprospects etc.
41. According to the passage which of the following is the main purpose to give industrystatus to agriculture ?1) To improve conditions of rural poor.2) To produce more food.3) To create more jobs for rural population.4) To make the rural population economically sound. 5) All of these.
42. Which of the following according to the passage was the main factor of industrialprice policy set up by the Government ?1) Supporting the industry to attain an optimum price for its products2) Consumption of more raw material and higher return3) Controlling of new industrial units4) Providing a favoured status to industry 5) Higher output-input ratio.
43. What according to the passage, is the main reason for the absence of a fixedpricing policy of agricultural products ?1) Non-availability of structured marketing policy2) Lack of competition among producers3) Agricultural output is not related to demand4) Industrial outputs is directly related to price 5) None of these.
44. According to the passages which of the following is the most important hurdle ingiving industry status to agriculture ?1) Less durability of agricultural products.2) Difficult mode of transportation.3) High production cost.4) Involvement of comparatively large number of labourers. 5) None of these.
45. Which of the following is true according to the passage ?1) Agriculture sector involves more non-skilled workers.2) Agriculture is a priority sector.3) There is no definite market policy adopted by agriculture sector.4) Industrial sector is more organized than Agricultural sector.5) None of these.
46. Which of the following word has the same meaning as the word ‘gauge’ as used inthe passage ?1) obtain 2) qualify 3) assess 4) match 5) support.
47. What according to the passage is the concern expressed by some quarters ?1) Industry is preferred to agriculture in terms of prices2) Providing comparatively better facilities to industrial sfector3) Lack of necessary equipments in the agricultural sector4) Less flow of money in agricultural sector 5) None of these.
48. What step, according to the passage, is taken up by the government to improvethe situation of agricultural sector ?1) Providing better facilities to farmers2) Providing electricity at a lower rate to the farmers3) By giving industry status to agriculture4) Increasing the number of government controlled procurement centres5) Providing minimum support prices to a large number of agricultural products.
49. What according to the passage has the same meaning as the word “inducement”as used in the passage ?1) excitement 2) opportunity 3) obstacle 4) incentive 5) platform.
50. What according to the author is the main objective of price policy of agriculturalproducts ?1) To attain self-sufficiency in food production2) To march agriculture to industry3) To induce producers to adopt modern technology4) To help government in obtaining data 5) None of these.
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51. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘accord’ as used in thepassage ?(a) honour 2) offer 3) provide 4) bestow 5) define.
52. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘fair’ as used in thepassage ?1) bright 2) equal 2) considerable 4) just 5) extraordinary
53. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘premise’ as used inthe passage ?1) basis 2)assumption 3) argument 4) position 5) condition.
54. What according to the passage, is the main reason for a stable price for industrialproducts ?1) Its concentration in the urban sector 2) Its mode of transportation3) Ease in formulating marketing policy4) Its nature of products as regards non-perishability and un-seasonability5) Employment of more skilled labourers.
55. The author’s writing style is :1) argumentative 2) constructive 3) analytic 4) narrative 5) verbose.Directions (Q.No.56-60): Read each sentence to find out whether there is anyerror in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of thepart is the answer. It there is no error, the answer is (5).
56. Keeping in mind the rivalry (1) / between Tanoj and Ravi (2) / the manager hasassigned him (3) / to different teams. (4) / No error(5)
57. Inspite of the extreme cold (1) / she insisted on (2) / taking a trip to Shimla (3) /where is her birthplace (4) / No error(5)
58. There are very fewer hotels (1) / providing facilities for (2) / guests who want tobring their pets (3) / along with them. (4) / No error(5)
59. These rules were created (1) / to protect the interests of the student (2) / wholive away from home (3) / and have no local guardian. (4) / No error(5)
60. The government decision (1) / will benefit all (2) / the hardware companiesregistered (3) / under the scheme (4) / No error(5)Directions (Q.No.61-65) Which of the following phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given beloweach sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentencegrammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct, then opt for the mark (5) i.e.‘No correction Required’ as the answer.
61. Sudheer must be punished for action in opposite to my wishes.1) Opposite against 2) In opposition to 3) In opposite with4) Opposing to 5) No correction required
62. They lost the vote because they could not express clearly.1) Express each other clearly 2) Clearly express 3) Be clearly expressed4) Express themselves clearly 5) No correction required
63. The inquiry found that both the Secretary and the Treasurer had been negligentin their duties.1) Negligence for their duties 2) Neglected by their duties3) Neglecting his duty 4) Neglecting in their duty 5) No correction required
64. India is a diverse and breath taking country with many places worthwhile to see.1) Worth seeing 2) Worthy seeing 3) Worthwhile scene4) Worth sight 5) No correction required
65. I with my family have resided in a small village near the sea for the past twodecades.1) I together with my family has 2) My family along with I has3) My family and I have4) My family and me have 5) No correction required
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Directions (Q.No.66-70): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E andF in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer thequestions given below them.A) One day, they had a dispute among themselves regarding the mango tree.B) They went to the wise man in the village to solve their problem.C) Sudheer and Chakravarthy were best friends.D) The wise man told them to cut down the tree and divide the fruits betweenthemselves.E) Sudheer was very hurt, “He would let Chakravarthy take ownership of the treerather than cut it down”.F) On hearing this, the wise man declared Sudheer the rightful owner of themango tree.
66. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?1) C 2) E 3) D 4) F 5) A
67. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) F
68. Which of the following should be the F O U R T H sentence after the rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
69. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after therearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F
70. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?1) A 2) C 3) F 4) E 5) BDirections (Q.No.71-80) : In the following passages, there are blanks, each ofwhich has been numbered. These numbers have been printed below each passageand against each, three or four words are suggested, one of which fits the blankappropriately. Find the appropriate word.The remarkable thing about the (71)of women in India is that it has been asmooth and gradual process devoid of violence or hatred. Their once-honouredstatus was impaired by 300 B.C. when they were barred from studying the Vedas.The position of women continued to (72) steadily and their rigorous (73) becamethe rule, especially in medieval times. (74) their freedom was lost and theirsocial status lowered, women (75) their influence at home where they were stillregarded with (76) and veneration. The tide (77) to turn in the mid-nineteenthcentury when such practices as polygamy, child marriages, enforced widowhoodand ‘sati’ were vigorously (78) by (79). And the twentieth century saw the birth ofa strong women’s movement which became a spearhead in the struggle against(80) orthodoxy and discrimination.
71. 1) history 2) status 3) discrimination 4) emancipation 5) None72. 1) elevate 2) tarnish 3) deteriorate 4) contaminate 5) None73. 1) seclusion 2) hatred 3) worship 4) adherence 5) None74. 1) obviously 2) despite 3) because 4) although 5) None75. 1) lost 2) retained 3) restrained 4) aggravated 5) None76. 1) respect 2) humiliation 3) reluctance 4) indifference 5) None77. 1) failed 2) began 3) refused 4) resolved 5) None78. 1) discarded 2) supported 3) attacked 4) followed 5) None79. 1) foreigners 2) others 3) women 4) reformers 5) None80. 1) eternal 2) imposed 3) legitimate 4) irrational 5) None
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections(Q.No.81–100):What will come in place of the question mark (?) in thefollowing questions ?
81. 64 9121 64 ?
8 311 8
1) 2788
2) 3188
3) 344
4) 2988
5) None
82. 2 23 7
74 375 10
3112
10
1) 9
3610
2) 9
3510
3) 36 4) 7
3510
5) 3
3610
83.
1 22 1
5 718 81
21
66
1) 4 2) 2 3) 12 4) 14 5) None
84.3 5 4 1
1 1 2 _____4 8 5 2
1) 7
140
2) 3
240
3) 3
140
4) 7
240
5) 7
340
85.3 2 1
9 7 94 17 15
1) 719
71020
2) 817
91020
3) 719
91020
4) 817
71020
5) None
86. (1.65% of 8471) - (0.61% of 9326) = _____1) 42 2) 85 3) 88 4) 89 5) 83
87.6.4 8.5 2.5
?3.2 12.5
1) 3.2 2) 3.6 3) 3.4 4) 4.2 5) 4.488. 253 x 43 - 8002 = (?)2
1) 6000 2) 36000 3) 3600 4) 60000 5) None
89.5 11 6
8 10 1 ?6 36 7
1) 67
2) 137
3) 197
4) 3
27
5) None
90. 350% of 15 + 35% of 150 = ? - 57
of 49
1) 70 2) 90 3) 135 4) 140 5) None
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91.1 3 19
4 1 ? 45 5 32
1) 1
12
2) 3
14
3) 1
14
4) 1
24
5) None
92.3 5 7
15 11 ?14 21 42
1) 41
342
2) 5
442
3) 7
442
4) 1
47
5) None
93. 38% of 295 + 62% of 445 - 20% of 440 = ?1) 388 2) 496 3) 300 4) 344 5) None
94. 18.5% of 320 + 7.4% of 450 - 45% of 150 = _____1) 160 2) 50 3) 52.5 4) 24.5 5) 25
95. 444 37 15 11 ( ) 7x find x2
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 4 5) None96. Sum of three-tenth of a number and 1.8 times of another number is 21. If the
sum of these two numbers is 10, then find the least positive number among twonumbers?1) -2 2) 2 3) 3 4) 12 5) None
97. 27.831 - 31.425 + 18.749 - ? = 121) 3.255 2) 4.155 3) 3.105 4) 2.155 5) None
98. The sum of the five consecutive even numbers is equal to 170. What is the sum ofthe second largest amongst them and the square of the second smallest number?1) 1024 2) 936 3) 2024 4) 1060 5) None
99. The least number which when divided by 52 leaves 33 as remainder, when dividedby 78 leaves 59 and when divided by 117 leaves 98 is _____1) 468 2) 19 3) 449 4) 478 5) None
100. Which one of the following has fraction in descending order?
1) 8 9 4 3
, , ,9 11 7 5
2) 4 3 9 8
, , ,7 5 11 9
3) 3 4 9 8
, , ,5 7 11 9
4) 8 9 3 4
, , ,9 11 5 7
5) 9 3 8 4
, , ,11 5 9 7
101. From a tank of milk containing 40 litres, 8 litres are drawn out and the tank isfilled up with water. If the same process is repeated a second time then a thirdtime. Then what will be the number of litres of milk left in the tank?1) 20.24 2) 20 3) 19.48 4) 20.48 5) None
102. A dishonest shop-keeper sells his goods at cost price, but uses a weight of 875grams for a kilogram weight. Find his gain percent?
1) 2
14 %7
2) 2
16 %3
3) 15% 4) 1
14 %7
5) None
103. A fan is listed at Rs.1500 and a discount of 20% is offered on the list price. Whatadditional discount must be offered to the customer to bring the net price toRs.1104?1) 6% 2) 7% 3) 8% 4) 10% 5) None
104. On selling 17 pencils at Rs.720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 pencils.The cost price of a pencil is1) 60 2) 55 3) 70 4) 65 5) None
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105. Rs.793 is divided into three parts such that their amounts after 2,3 and 4 years isequal, the rate of interest being 5%. Find the ratio between these parts.
1) 1 1 1
: :110 115 120
2) 1 1 1
: :11 15 12
3) 110 : 115 : 120
4) 11 : 15 : 12 5) None106. The annual payment of Rs.80 in 5 years at 5% p.a., simple interest will discharge
a debt of1) Rs.400 2) Rs.440 3) Rs.420 4) Rs.450 5) None
107. Out of certain amount, 13
rd is invested at 3%, 16
th at 6%, and the rest at 8%. If
the simple interest for 2 years from all these investments amounts to Rs.600, theoriginal sum is (in Rs.)1) 4112 2) 4182 3) 4056 4) 992 5) 5000
108. Radha’s age is 50% of what it was 10 years ago, but 25% of what it will be after 10years. What is his present age?1) 25 2) 20 3) 30 4) 28 5) 32
109. Anusha, Suma and Malli enter into partnership. Anusha puts in 12
of the whole
capital for 14
of the time, Suma puts 13
rd of the capital for 13
rd of the total time
and Malli puts the remaining capital for whole time. Find the share of Malli outof the net profits Rs.1450?1) 450 2) 400 3) 600 4) 650 5) None
110. In an alloy the ratio of copper to Zinc is 5 : 1. In another alloy, this ratio is 7 : 2.In what ratio these two alloys should be melted and mixed together. So, as tomake up a new mass with 80% of the copper?1) 1 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 2: 5 4) 2 : 3 5) None
111. A can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone can do it in 8 days. A and Btogether worked on it and took Rs.640. With the help of C, they finished in 3days. How much is paid to C?1) 240 2) 320 3) 160 4) 80 5) None
112. A cistern is normally filled in 8 hours but takes two hours longer to fill because ofleak in its bottom. From the full cistern, how many hours does leak takes toempty it?1) 20 hrs 2) 30 hrs 3) 15 hrs 4) 40 hrs 5) None
113. Sudheer goes to office at the speed of 1
22
kmph and reaches 6 minutes late. If he
travels at the speed of 3 kmph, he is 10 minutes early. What is the distance tohis office?1) 3 km 2) 4 km 3) 6 km 4) 8 km 5) 2 km
114. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at a speed of 60 kmph and 40 kmphrespectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds),which they take to cross each other is1) 9.6 2) 9 3) 9.8 4) 10 5) 10.8
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115. Price of sugar increases by 50%, by what percentage must a family reduce theirconsumption so as not to increase expenditure on this account?
1) 2
16 %3
2) 1
33 %3
3) 1
12 %2
4) 1
37 %2
5) 50%
Directions (Q.No.116 - 120): Based on the graph.The following graph shows profit percent gained by A and B over the variousyears.
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
Percentage
Profit
Company A Company B
Pr % 100Income Expenditure
ofitExpenditure
116. If the income of company A in 1998 was equal to its expenditure in 2000, whatwas the ratio between company’s expenditure in the years 1998 and 2000respectively?1) 29:20 2) 20: 29 3) 19:20 4) Can’t be determined 5) None
117. If the income of company B in 1999 was 18.6 lakhs and the ratio of incomes ofcompanies A & B in 1999 was 2:3, what was the expenditure of company A in 1999(in Rs. Lakhs)?1) 12 2) 12.4 3) 7.75 4) 9.75 5) None
118. If the income of company A in 1999 was equal to the expenditure of company B in2000, then what was the ratio of expenditure of company A in 1999 to the incomeof company B in 2000?1) 25:66 2) 66:25 3) 10:13 4) 13:10 5) None
119. If the total expenditure of the two companies in 2001 was Rs.18 lakhs andexpenditure of companies A & B in that year were in the ratio of 4:5 respectively,then what was the income of company B in that year (in Rs. Lakh)?1) 8 2) 10 3) 10.4 4) None 5) Can’t be determined
120. If the total income of comapny A in all the years together was equal to the totalexpenditure of company B in all the years together, which was Rs.265 lakhs,what was the total percentage profit earned by company A for all the years together?1) 45 2) 37 3) 52 4) None 5) Can’t be determined
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TEST OF REASONING121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREDITABLE each of which
has as many letters between them as they have in english alphabet?1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) more than four
122. If + means - , - means , means x and x means +, what is the value of125 - 5 x 10 13 + 28 = ?1) 149.15 2) 150 3) 127 4) 129 5) None
123. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group?1) Stone 2) Sand 3) Cement 4) Rock 5) Pebble
124. If it is possible to make only one meaningful english word with the fourth, thesixth, the ninth and the eleventh letters of the word QUALIFICATION, which ofthe following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word canbe formed, give ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed given ‘N’ asthe answer.1) A 2) I 3) L 4) M 5) N
125. In a certain code KINGDOM is written as JMCLJHP. How is QUANTUM written inthat code?1) VOLVPZS 2) SZPLOVV 3) RVBOUVN 4) PZSLVOV 5) None
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group?1) 93 2) 26 3) 34 4) 69 5) 42
127. ‘MP’ is related to ‘OR’ and ‘DG’ is related to ‘FI’ in the same way as ‘RU’ is relatedto1) TX 2) TW 3) TY 4) UW 5) None
128. The positions of how many digits in the number 7136985 will remain unchangedwhen the digits are rearranged in ascending order?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
129. How many meaning full words can be made from the letters ADEL using eachletter only once?1) None 2) Two 3)Three 4) One 5) More than three
130. In a certain code FUEL is written as $%#6 and KITE is written @ 7#. How is LIFEwritten in that code?1) 6%$# 2) 6$%# 3) 6 $# 4) 6% # 5) NoneDirections(Q.No. 131-135): Read the following information carefully to answerthese questions.(i) ‘A$B’ means ‘A is mother of B’(ii) ‘A#B’ means ‘A is father of B’(iii) ‘A@B’ means ‘A is husband of B’(iv) ‘A%B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
131. ‘P@Q$M#T’ indicates what relationship of P with T?1) Paternal grand mother 2) Maternal grand mother3) Paternal grand father 4) Maternal grand father 5) None
132. Which of the following expressions indicates ‘R’ is the sister of ‘H’?1) H$D@F#R 2) R%D@F$H 3) R$D@F#H 4) H%D@F$R 5) None
133. If F@D%K#H, then, how is F related to H ?1) Brother - in - law 2) Sister 3) Sister-in-law4) Cannot be determined 5) None
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134. Which of the following expressions indicates ‘H is the brother of N’?1)H#R$D$N 2) N%F@D$H#R3) N%F@D$H 4) N%F@D%H 5) None
135. If G$M@K, how is K related to G?1) Daughter-in-law 2) Mother-in-law 3) Daughter 4) Aunt 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.136-140): In each of the questions below are given fourstatements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to takethe given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonlyknown facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the givenconclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonlyknown facts.
136. Statements: All flowers are fruitsNo fruit is juiceSome jucies are proteinsAll proteins are vitamins
Conclusions: I. Some vitamins are fruitsII. Some juices are vitaminsIII. No flower is juice
1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I and III follow3) All I, II and III follow 4) Only II and III follow 5) None
137. Statements: Some bags are suitsAll suits are trousersSome trousers are shirtsAll shirts are coats
Conclusions: I. Some trousers are coatsII. Some bags are trousersIII. Some suits are coats
1) Only I and II follows 2) Only I follows3) Only II and III follows 4) All follow 5) None of the above
138. Statements: All books are novelsSome novels are poemsSome poems are storiesNo story is a movie
Conclusions: I. Some books are poemsII. Some movies are novelsIII. No movie is a novel
1) Only I follows 2) Only I and II follows3) Only either II or III follows 4) None follows 5) None
139. Statements: All cups are bowlsAll bowls are traysSome trays are platesNo plate is spoon
Conclusions: I. Some bowls are platesII. Some cups are spoonsIII. No cup is spoon
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows3) Only II and III folows 4) None follows 5) None
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140. Statements: Some towers are pillarsSome pillars are buildingsAll buildings are flatsNo flat is house
Conclusion: I. No building is houseII. Some towers are housesIII. Some towers are flats
1) None follows 2) Only I follows3) Only II and III follows 4) All follow 5) NoneDirections (Q.No. 141-145): Read the following information carefully and answerthe questions given below.(i) Naved, Leela, Neelu, Madhu, Prasad, Wahid, Chaya, Ajay, Babloo, Firoz, Ektaand Rita all live in the same six floor building. There are two apartments perfloor. Not more than 2 persons live in any apartment. Some apartments may beempty.(ii) Leela and roommate live two floors above Ajay and his roommate Chaya.(iii) Naved lives alone, three floors below Wahid and two floors below Ekta.(iv) Madhu lives one floor below Ajay and Chaya(v) Neelu lives three floors above the floor on which Babloo and Firoz have singleapartments.(vi) Rita and Prasad live in single apartments two floors below Madhu
141. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going fromthe bottom floor to the top?1) Rita, Babloo, Madhu, Ajay, Leela, Neelu2) Rita, Firoz, Neelu, Ekta, Leela, Chaya3) Prasad, Babloo, Naved, Chaya, Neelu, Leela4) Leela, Ekta, Ajay, Madhu, Firoz, Rita 5) None
142. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor?I. Neelu, Ekta II. Naved, Madhu III. Ajay, Leela1) I only 2) III only 3) I and II only 4) II and III only 5) None
143. Leela’s roomate, assuming that he/she is one of the person mentioned is1) Ekta 2) Wahid 3) Madhu 4) Neelu 5) None
144. Rita lives on the1) First floor, below Babloo or Firoz2) Second floor, below Naved or Ajay and Chaya3) Third floor, above Madhu or Ekta4) Fourth floor, opposite Ajay and Chaya 5) None
145. An empty apartment or empty apartments may be found on the1) Second floor only 2) Fourth floor only 3) Fifth floor only4) Fourth or sixth floor or both 5) Can’t be determinedDirections (Q.No. 146-150): Study the following information to answer the givenquestions(i) There are 8 friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H seated in a circle facing the centre.(ii)AC, DG, HE & FB are seated adjacent to each other. A is seated adjacent to H.(iii) B is 4th to the right of C(iv) E is 3rd to the right of C
146. Who is 2nd to the left of A?1) D 2) G 3) F 4) None 5) Can’t be determined
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147. Who is 3rd to the left of C?1) G 2) D 3) B 4) None 5) Can’t be determined
148. What is C’s position with reference to E?1) 5th to the right 2) 4th to the left 3) 4th to the right4) 3rd to the right 5) None
149. Who is 2nd to the right of A?1) B 2) E 3) F 4) Can’t be determined 5) None
150. Who among the following pairs may not be seated adjacent to each other?1) AH 2) DC 3) EB 4) Can’t be determined 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.151-155): Study the following arrangement carefully and answerthe questions below.4 K @ I E F © 2 H D % 3 8 B I M 6 U W V 5 $ 9 G J # 7 A
151. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the nineteenth from the left endof the above arrangement?1) % 2) U 3) D 4) # 5) None
152. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangment, each of which isimmediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?1) None 2) One 3) Three 4) Two 5) Five
153. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in theabove arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong tothat group?1) F2© 2) JG$ 3) W5V 4) D3% 5) None
154. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the followingwill be the fourteenth from the left end?1) M 2) % 3) D 4) U 5) None
155. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which isimmediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?1) None 2) Can’t be determined 3) One4) Two 5) More than threeDirections (Q.No.156-160): A number arrangment machine when given an inputof numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step as shown.Input: 48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297S1: 542 48 245 182 26 99 378 297S2: 542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297S3: 542 26 378 48 245 182 99 267S4: 542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99S5: 542 26 378 48 297 99 245 182This is the final arrangement and step V is the last step for this input
156. What will be the fourth step for an input whose second step is given below?Step : 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 3501) 765 42 542 350 183 289 65 1102) 765 42 542 65 110 183 289 3503) 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 3504) None 5) Can’t be determined
157. What should be the third step of the following input?Input: 239 123 58 361 495 371) 495 37 361 123 239 58 2) 495 37 58 361 123 2393) 495 37 58 123 361 239 4) 495 37 361 239 123 58 5) None
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158. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input?Input : 39 88 162 450 386 72 291) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Can’t be determined 5) None
159. What should be the last step of following input?Input : 158 279 348 28 326 2361) 348 28 326 158 279 236 2) 348 28 326 236 158 2793) 348 28 236 158 279 326 4) 348 28 158 326 236 2795) None
160. If the first step of an input is “785 198 32 426 373 96 49” then, which of thefollowing steps will be “785 32 426 49 198 373 96” ?1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2 5) None
MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
161. The advantages of telephone-interview are1) Securing co-operation which is not always possible2) relatively low cost per interview3) good for reaching important people who are inaccessible4) All of the above 5) Only 1 and 2
162. Objective of Digital Marketing are1) Cold - Calling 2) Anticipating the market3) Outdoor marketing 4) Online marketing 5) Web-designing
163. A call means1) To make telephone calls 2) Calling on relatives3) Calling on Bank employees 4) Calling on friends5) Calling on prospective customers
164. Mutual Fund business from existing customer can be canvassed by1) Outdoor marketing 2) Coercion 3) Cross - Selling4) Internal marketing 5) Road - Shows
165. In market segmentation, which among the following is not an EconomicComponent?1) Sex 2) Age 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Income Level 5) Taxes
166. A person who ultimately determines any part or whole of the buying decision iscalled?1) Initiator 2) User 3) Buyer 4) Decider 5) Influencer
167. In the era of globalisation of business, M & A means1) Means & Acquisition 2) Markets & Acquisitions3) Money & Assets 4) Marketing & Alliances5) Mergers & Acquisitions
168. The need or want for a particular product becomes a demand, when1) It is backed by buying power 2) A product represents that particular need3) The product / service is available 4) All of the above 5) None
169. Warehousing is synonymous to1) Selling 2) Transportation 3) Production 4) Storage 5) None
170. Occupation is an element of1) Economic environment 2) Socio-cultural environment3) Demographic environment 4) All of the above 5) None
171. Which one of the following is NOT a ‘Target Group’ for Saving Bank Account ?1) Government Servants 2) Loss Incurring Companies3) Doctors 4) Salaried persons 5) Insurance Agent
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172. Modern methods of marketing include1) Soliciting business through e-mails 2) Telemarketing3) Advertisement on the net 4) Publicity on the net 5) All of the above
173. The sales process begins with1) Sales Closure 2) Sales Presentation3) Lead Generation 4) Sales Meet 5)Customer Identification
174. A bed in a hotel for night haulting is an example of1) Potential product 2) Expected product 3) Core product4) Augmented product 5) MAIN product
175. The best promotional tool in any marketing is1) Public relations 2) e-promotion3) Word of mouth publicity 4) Viral marketing 5) None
176. Marketing and selling are1) Not required in monopolistic conditions 2) Not required if sales are high3) Not required if profit is high 4) All of the above 5) None
177. Macros are automatically set to use1) absolute references 2) mixed references3) relative reference 4) All of the above 5) None
178. Which of the following forms the highest share in household savings in India?1) Real estate 2) Currency 3) Share and Debentures4) Physical asset 5) Deposits
179. “To close a call” means1) To clinch the sale 2) To close the business3) To put the phone down 4) To end the conversation 5) To close the doors
180. Advertising for _____ is not allowed on T.V.1) Cigarattes 2) Liquor 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2 5) Biscuits
181. The internet allows you to _____1) View web pages 2) Send electronic mail3) Connect to servers all around the world 4) All of these 5) None
182. Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known by the name1) Domain name 2) Modems 3) Processors4) Operating System 5) None
183. The other word for CPU is ______1) Execute 2) Microchip 3) Decode 4) Microprocessor 5) None
184. A computer system which contains one CPU is called1) Uni processor system 2) Multi processor system3) Swapping system 4) Batch processing system 5) None
185. Any program not written in machine language has to be translated before it isexecuted by the computer is called1) Translator 2) Assembler 3) Source program 4) Compiler 5) None
186. The speed represented with which data can be transferred from the disk to CPUis1) Rational delay 2) Transfer rate 3) Access time4) Seek time 5) None
187. The most commonly used error detecting code is1) Parity Check Code 2) Error code 3) RAID 4) PCI 5) None
188. Certain problems could not be solved by computers are called1) Dynamic problems 2) Normal problems3) Intractable problems 4) Tough problems 5) None
189. The basic components of a modern digital computer are1) Output device 2) Input device3) Central processor 4) All of the above 5) None
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190. Keyboards, Monitors and Printers are example of1) Processors 2) Hardware 3) Tele communication devices4) Software 5) None
191. Nibble means1) Half byte 2) A key in keyboard 3) Memory chip 4) Booting 5) None
192. UPS means1) Uniform Program Signal 2) Uniform Power Supplies3) Uninterrupted Power Supply 4) Unified Program System 5) None
193. The hardware used to store the data electronically is1) Database 2) RAM chip 3) Monitor 4) Loader 5) None
194. Formatting a disk means1) To prepare the disk for use 2) To format the data on the disk3) To format the size of the disk 4) To make the disk as write protected 5) None
195. PDA stands for1) Personal Digital Assistant 2) Personal Digital Access3) Parallel Digital Adapter 4) Parallel Digital Access 5) None
196. The main purpose of off-line devices is1) to save floor space in the computer centre 2) to save computer time3) to reduce the number of operations 4) All of the above 5) None
197. Which of the following wired transmission media is fastest1) Coaxial 2) Twisted-pair 3) Fiber Optics 4) Cellular telephone 5) None
198. The language specially developed for children is1) APL 2) ADA 3) LISP 4) LOGO 5) None
199. Databus is a group of directioned lines used to transfer data between ____ and_______1) CPU, memory 2) CPU, Peripherals 3) Both 1 and 24) CPU, device 5) None
200. What is A in BASIC?1) Algol 2) All 3) Arithmetic 4) Access 5) None