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[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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PPAARRTT –– 11 ((OOnnee MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))
MATHS
1. If a, b, c are positive real numbers such that
a + b + c = 1, then prove that
2
3
ba
c
ac
b
cb
a.
(1) 2
9 (2)
6
9
(3) 12
9 (4)
4
9
Ans. (1)
2. Number of terms in (1 +x)101 (1 + x2 –x)100 is
(1) 302 (2) 301
(3) 202 (4) 101
Ans. (3)
3. A convex polygon has 44 diagonals. The
number of its sides is equal to:
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12
Ans. (3)
4. P (x, y) is called a good point if x, y N. Total
number of good points lying inside the
quadrilateral formed by the line
2x + y = 2, x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 5, is equal
to
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 1
Ans. (3)
5. Maximum number of common normal’s of
y2= 4ax and 2x = 4by can be equal to
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 5
Ans. (4)
6. A common tangent of
9x2 – 16y2 = 144 and x2 + y2 = 9 is
(1) y 7 3x 2 15
(2) y 7 3x 2 15
(3) y 2 3x 7 15
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
7. The value of b and c for which the identity
f(x + 1) – f(x) = 8x + 3 is satisfied, where
f(x) = bx2 + cx + d, are
(1) b = 2, c = 1 (2) b = 4, c = -1
(3) b = -1, c = 4 (4) None of these
Ans. (2)
8. limm
limn
(1+cos2m n!xπ) is equal to
(x is rational):
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 3
Ans. (1)
9. If nxxf )1()( then the value of
n
f '' 0 1f 0 f ' 0 ....... f 0
2! n!
is :
X X
Y
Y
(0, 0)
/4 5/6 5/3 2
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) n 12
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. If a, b, c, d are four positive real numbers such
that abcd =1, then minimum value of
(1+ a) (1 + b) (1 + c) (1 + d) is
(1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 20
Ans. (3)
11. Let f(x) = Max. {sinx, cos x, 2
1} then determine
the area of the region bounded by the curves
y = f(x), x-axis, y-axis and x = 2.
(1)
32
12
5 (2)
32
12
5
(3)
32
6
5 (4)
32
6
5
Ans. (1)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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12. The value of |a i |2 + |a j |2 + |a k |2 is
(1) a2 (2) 2a2
(3) 3a2 (4) none of these
Ans. (2)
13. From a set of 17 cards 1, 2, 3, ……16, 17, one
is drawn at random. Find the probability that
number on the drawn card would be divisible
by 3 or 7.
(1) 17
7 (2)
17
5
(3) 18
5 (4)
15
7
Ans. (1)
14. If A + B + C = 180othen the value of
tanA + tanB + tanC is :
(1) 3 3 (2) 2 3
(3) > 3 3 (4) > 2 3
Ans. (1)
15. If cos2 = )1(3
1 2 a and tan2
2
= tan2/3
, then
cos2/3 + sin2/3
=
(1) 2a2/3 (2)
3/22
a
(3)
3/12
a (4) 2a1/3
Ans. (2)
16. If f(x) = (x – a1)2 +(x – a2)
2 + ………. (x – an)2
find x where f(x) is minimum.
(1) (2)n
aaa n..............21
(3) n
aaa n ..............21 (4) –
Ans. (2)
17. The complex numbers z = x + iy which satisfy
the equation 15iz
5iz
lie on
(1) x–axis
(2) The straight line y=5
(3) A circle passing through the origin
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
18. If
cxxx
bxxx
axxx
43
32
21
= 0, then a, b, c are in
(1) A.P
(2) G.P
(3) H.P
(4) none of these
Ans. (1)
19. The angle of elevation of the top of a T.V.
tower from three points A, B, C in a straight
line in the horizontal plane through the foot of
the tower are , 2, 3 respectively. If AB = a,
the height of the tower is
(1) a tan
(2) a sin
(3) a sin 2
(4) a sin 3
Ans. (3)
20. The range of the function f(x) = 34
12
2
XX
Xx
is
(1) (– 1, 2)
(2) (– 1, 3)
(3) (– 1, 4)
(4) none of these
Ans. (4)
PHYSICS
21. If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid
drop depends on surface tension (S), radius
(r) of the drop and density )( of the liquid,
then the expression of T is
(1) SrKT /3
(2) SrKT /32/1
(3) 2/13 / SrKT
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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22. In the given figure each plate of capacitance C
has partial value of charge
(1) CE (2) rR
CER
2
1
(3) rR
CER
2
2 (4) rR
CER
1
1
Ans. (3)
23. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed
cycle abc in which bc is an isothermal process
as shown in the figure. The gas absorbs 7000
J of heat as its temperature increases from
300 K to 1000 K in going from a to b. The
quantity of heat rejected by the gas during the
process ca is
(1) 4200 J (2) 5000 J
(3) 9000 J (4) 9800 J
Ans. (4)
24. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an
iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of
radius 4R is made from an iron plate of
thickness 4
t. Then the relation between the
moment of inertia IX and IY is
(1) IY = 64IX (2) IY = 32IX
(3) IY = 16IX (4) IY = IX
Ans. (1)
25. A projectile is projected with velocity ekv in
vertically upward direction from the ground
into the space. ( ev is escape velocity and k <
1). If air resistance is considered to be
negligible then the maximum height from the
centre of earth to which it can go, will be
(R = radius of earth)
(1) 12 k
R
(2)
12 k
R
(3) 21 k
R
(4)
1k
R
Ans. (3)
26. In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a
glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t
is introduced in the path of one of the
interfering beams (wavelength ), the intensity
at the position where the central maximum
occurred previously remains unchanged. The
minimum thickness of the glass-plate is
(1) 2
(2) 3
2
(3) 3
(4)
Ans. (1)
27. A particle of charge +q and mass m moving
under the influence of a uniform electric field
iEˆ and a uniform magnetic field kB ˆ follows
trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The
velocities at P and Q are ivˆ and jv2
respectively. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are INCorrect
(1) qa
mvE
2
4
3
(2) Rate of work done by electric field at P is
a
mv 3
4
3
(3) Rate of work done by electric field at P is
zero
(4) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is
zero
Ans. (3)
E r
R2
R1 C
P
O 2a
a
2v
Q X
Y v
E
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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28. A square metallic wire loop of side 0.1 m and
resistance of 1 is moved with a constant
velocity in a magnetic field of 2 wb/m2 as
shown in figure. The magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the loop, loop is
connected to a network of resistances. What
should be the velocity of loop so as to have a
steady current of 1mA in loop?
(1) 1 cm/sec (2) 2 cm/sec
(3) 3 cm/sec (4) 4 cm/sec
Ans. (2)
29. Two wires ‘A’ and ‘B’ of the same material
have their lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and radii in
the ratio 2 : 1. The two wires are connected in
parallel across a battery. The ratio of the heat
produced in ‘A’ to the heat produced in ‘B’ for
the same time is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
Ans. (4)
30. On sounding tuning fork A with another tuning
fork B of frequency 384 Hz, 6 beats are
produced per second. After loading the prongs
of A with wax and then sounding it again with
B, 4 Beats are produced per second what is
the frequency of the tuning fork A.
(1) 388 Hz (2) 80 Hz
(3) 378 Hz (4) 390 Hz
Ans. (3)
31. Rest mass energy of an electron is 0.54 MeV.
If velocity of the electron is 0.8 c, then K.E. of
the electron is
(1) 0.36 MeV (2) 0.41 MeV
(3) 0.48 MeV (4) 1.32 MeV
Ans. (1)
32. Three simple harmonic motions in the same
direction having the same amplitude a and
same period are superposed. If each differs in
phase from the next by o45 , then
(1) The resultant amplitude is a)21(
(2) The phase of the resultant motion relative to
the first is 90°
(3) The energy associated with the resulting
motion is )223( times the energy
associated with any single motion
(4)
Ans. (4)
33. Four rods of identical cross-sectional area and
made from the same metal form the sides of
square. The temperature of two diagonally
opposite points and T and 2 T respective in
the steady state. Assuming that only heat
conduction takes place, what will be the
temperature difference between other two
points
(1) T2
12 (2) T
12
2
(3) 0 (4) None of these
Ans. (3)
34. The potential energy between two atoms in a
molecule is given by 612
)(x
b
x
axU ; where a
and b are positive constants and x is the
distance between the atoms. The atom is in
stable equilibrium when
(1) 6
5
11
b
ax (2) 6
2b
ax
(3) 0x (4) 62
b
ax
Ans. (4)
35. The dimensions of hce 02 4/ , where he ,, 0
and c are electronic charge, electric
permittivity, Planck’s constant and velocity of
light in vacuum respectively
(1) ][ 000 TLM (2) ][ 001 TLM
(3) ][ 010 TLM (4) ][ 100 TLM
Ans. (1)
3 3
3 3
3
v l
B
P
Q
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36. A circular platform is free to rotate in a
horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing
through its center. A tortoise is sitting at the
edge of the platform. Now, the platform is
given an angular velocity 0. When the
tortoise moves along a chord of the platform
with a constant velocity (with respect to the
platform), the angular velocity of the platform
(t) will vary with time t as
(1) (2)
(3) (d
Ans. (2)
37. A small sphere of mass m is dropped from a
great height. After it has fallen 100 m, it has
attained its terminal velocity and continues to
fall at that speed. The work done by air friction
against the sphere during the first 100 m of fall
is
(1) Greater than the work done by air friction in
the second 100 m
(2) Less than the work done by air friction in
the second 100 m
(3) Equal to 100 mg
(4) Greater than 100 mg
Ans. (2)
38. A ball moving horizontally with speed v strikes
the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The
mass of the bob is equal to that of the ball. If
the collision is elastic the bob will rise to a
height
(1) g
v 2
(2) g
v
2
2
(3) g
v
4
2
(4) g
v
8
2
Ans. (2)
39. Half-life of a substance is 20 minutes. What is
the time between 33% decay and 67% decay
(1) 40 minutes (2) 20 minutes
(3) 30 minutes (4) 25 minutes
Ans. (2)
40. A 20 cm length of a certain solution causes
right-handed rotation of 38°. A 30cm length of
another solution causes left-handed rotation of
24°. The optical rotation caused by 30cm
length of a mixture of the above solutions in
the volume ratio 1 : 2 is
(1) Left handed rotation of 14°
(2) Right handed rotation of 14°
(3) Left handed rotation of 3°
(4) Right handed rotation of 3°
Ans. (4)
CHEMISTRY
41. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-
orbitals involved in d2 sp3 hybridisation is:
(1) 222 zyxd,,d
(2) 22 yxxz d,d
(3) xzzd,d 2 (4) yzxy d,d
Ans. (1)
42. Corundum is:
(1) SrO2 (2) Al2O3
(3) CaCl2 (4) Cu2Cl2
Ans. (2)
43. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both
reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated
system. If Ti is the initial temperature Tf is
the final temperature, which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev
(2) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti
for irreversible process
(3) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrv
(4) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible
processes
Ans. (1)
(t)
O
t
(t)
O
t
(t)
O
t
(t)
O
t
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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44. At 27°C, the osmotic pressure of a solution
containing 4.0 g solute (molar mass = 246)
per litre at 27°C is:
(1) 0.1 atm (2) 0.4 atm
(3) 0.2 atm (4) 0.8 atm
Ans. (2)
45. 2A → B + C; It would be a zero order
reaction when:
(1) The rate of reaction is proportional to
square of conc. of A
(2) The rate of reaction remains same at any
conc. of A
(3) The rate remains unchanged at any
conc. of B and C
(4) The rate of reaction doubles if conc. of B
is increased to double
Ans. (2)
46. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then
treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured
product. Its structure would be:
Ans. (4)
47. Select the strongest acid:
(1) CF3COOH
(2) CCl3COOH
(3) CH3COOH
(4) CBr3COOH
Ans. (1)
48. An isothermal process is associated with:
(1) Constant entropy
(2) Constant temperature
(3) Constant enthalpy
(4) Large change in heat content
Ans. (2)
49. Catalytic poisoners act by:
(1) Coagulating the catalyst
(2) Getting absorbed on the active centres
on the surface of catalyst
(3) Chemical combination with any one of
the reactants
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
50. Which of the following orders is wrong with
respect to property indicated?
(1) Formic acid > Acetic acid > Propionic
acid (Acid strength)
(2) Fluoro acetic acid > Chloro acetic acid >
Bromo acetic acid (Acid strength)
(3) Benzoic acid > Phenol > Cyclohexanol
(Acid strength)
(4) Aniline > Cyclohexylamine > Benzamide
(Base strength)
Ans. (4)
51. X 2Cl Benzotrichloride Hydrolysis Y
X and Y respectively are
(1) Benzene, benzaldehyde
(2) Toluene, benzaldehyde
(3) Toluene, benzoic acid
(4) Benzene, benzoic acid
Ans. (3)
52. The standard electrode potential for the
change;
Sn(s) + 2Fe3+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) is:
(1) 0.63 V (2) 1.40 V
(3) 0.91 V (4) 1.68 V
Ans. (3)
53. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc
crystal with density d = 10 g cm–3 and cell
edge as 200 pm is equal to:
(1) 3 × 1025 (2) 0.5 × 1025
(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025
Ans. (2)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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54. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy
change for the oxidation of NH3 at 298 K, are
-382.64 kJ mol–1 and -145.6 J mol–1
respectively. Standard free energy change
for the same reaction at 298 K is:
(1) -221.1 kJ mol–1
(2) -339.3 kJ mol–1
(3) -439.3 kJ mol–1
(4) -523.2 kJ mol–1
Ans. (2)
55. Which one among the following is
Williamson’s synthesis?
(3) C2H5I + C2H5ONa → C2H2∙O∙C2H5 + NaI
(4) HCHO NaOH HCOONa + CH3OH
Ans. (3)
56. Which of the following reagents can convert
acetic acid into ethanol?
(1) Sn + HCl (2) H2 +Pt
(3) LiAlH4 + ether (4) Na + alcohol
Ans. (3)
57. A first order reaction has a half life period of
69.3 sec. At 0.10 mol litre–1 reactant
concentration, rate will be:
(1) 10–4 M sec–1 (2) 10–3 M sec–1
(3) 10–1 M sec–1 (4) 6.93 × 10–1 M sec–1
Ans. (2)
58. The catalyst iron, employed n the Haber’s
process, contains molybdenum, the function
of which is:
(1) To increase the rate of combination of
gases
(2) To counter balance for the presence of
impurities in the gases
(3) To act as a catalyst promoter and
increase activity of catalyst
(4) To make up for the adverse temperature
and pressure conditions
Ans. (3)
59. Formation of alkane by the action of Zn on
alkyl halide is called:
(1) Wurtz reaction
(2) Kolbe’s reaction
(3) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) Frankland’s reaction
Ans. (4)
60. Which of the following compounds has the
most acidic nature?
Ans. (2)
BIOLOGY
61. Myelin sheath mainly contains :
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Proteins
(3) Fats
(4) Ions
Ans. (3)
62. In which please of cell cycle DNA content
doubles?
(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S phase
(4) M phase
Ans. (3)
63. Erythropoetin release steps up :
(1) Hypoxia
(2) Anoxia
(3) Hyper capnia
(4) None of the above
Ans. (1)
64. In humans, the composition of a zygote that
will develop into a male is -
(1) 44A + XX (2) 44A + XY
(3) 22 + X (4) 23A
Ans. (2)
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65. DNA is present in which cell organelles?
(1) Golgi body
(2) Lysosome
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Nucleolus
Ans. (3)
66. Protein sequencing was devised by
(1) Edison
(2) Fleming
(3) Sanger
(4) Tansley
Ans. (3)
67. If the sequence of bases in DNA is 5׳-
GTACATAAGCTT-3 then the sequence of
bases in it transcript will be -
(1) 3AACAUGUAUUCG5
(2) 3AUAUUGAGAUAC5
(3) 3AUAUGUAUCUCA5
(4) 3TATACATAGAGT5
Ans. (1)
68. Which ion comes inside the neuron during
action potential?
(1) Na+
(2) K+
(3) Ca2+
(4) Mg2
Ans. (1)
69. Least amount of CO2 is carried by
(1) RBC
(2) Blood plasma
(3) By plasma proteins
(4) In cytoplasm of WBC
Ans. (2)
70. Patients who have undergone organ
transplants are given anti-rejection
medications to -
(1) Minimize infection
(2) Suppress humoral immunity
(3) Suppress cell mediated immunity
(4) Adopt the HLA of donor
Ans. (3)
71. ‘Rice water diarrhoea’ is a symptom of -
(1) Cholera
(2) Typhoid
(3) Jaundice
(4) Dysentery
Ans. (1)
72. Water has maximum of _________ H-bonds
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans. (4)
73. Circadian Rhythm is an endogenously driven
cycle for biochemical, physiological and
behavioral processes. In humans, the
approximate duration of this 'biological clock'
is-
(1) 1 Hour
(2) 6 Hours
(3) 12 Hours
(4) 24 Hours
Ans. (4)
74. Which one of the following stated “Nothing in
Biology makes sense except in light of
evolution?
(1) Charles Darwin
(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Theodosius Dobzhansky
(4) Lamarck
Ans. (3)
75. Soon after the three germ layers are formed in
a developing embryo, the process of
organogenesis starts. The human brain is
formed from the-
(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) Partly endoderm and partly mesoderm
Ans. (1)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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76. Two genetic disease namely phenylketonurea
and haemophilia are to be tested in two
different individuals. Both these techniques
will involve the use of :
(1) Autosomes
(2) Sex chromosomes
(3) Restriction enzymes
(4) Pedigree analysis
Ans. (3)
77. The process of cell death involving DNA
cleavage in cells is known as-
(1) Necrosis
(2) Apoptosis
(3) Cytokinesis
(4) Endocytosis
Ans. (2)
78. Watson and crick proposed which DNA
model?
(1) B
(2) A
(3) Z
(4) D
Ans. (1)
79. At which stage of Meiosis I does crossing over
occur?
(1) Lepoptene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
Ans. (3)
80. An electrode is placed in the axioplasm of a
mammalian axon and another electrode is
placed just outside the axon. The potential
difference measured will be-
(1) 0
(2) –70 mV
(3) –70 μV
(4) +70 Μv
Ans. (2)
PPAARRTT –– 22 ((TTwwoo MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))
MATHS
81. The function
1,
2sin
1,][|32|
)(x
x
xxx
xf
(1) Is continuous at 2x
(2) Is differentiable at 1x
(3) Is continuous but not differentiable at 1x
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
82. The points of extremum of the function
dttexx
t)1()(
2
1
2/2
are
(1) 0x (2) 1x
(3) 2
1x (4) 1x
Ans. (2, 4)
83. Let Rf ),0(: and
adxxf )( . If
ka dxxf
k)(lim
then f (4) equals
(1) 5/4 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) 2
Ans. (3)
84. If !1983n , then the value of expression
nnnn1983432
log
1.......
log
1
log
1
log
1 is equal to
(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
Ans. (3)
85. Two common tangents to the circle
2222ayx and parabola axy 8
2 are
(1) )2( ayx
(2) )2( axy
(3) )( ayx
(4) )( axy
Ans. (2)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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86. If ,3tan
tan
sin
sin2
then the value of and
are
(1) 6
,3
nn
(2) 6
,3
nn
(3) 3
,2
nn
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
87. If three non-zero vectors are ,321kjia aaa
kjib321
bbb and .321kjic ccc If c is
the unit vector perpendicular to the vectors a
and b and the angle between a and b is ,6
then
2
321
321
321
ccc
bbb
aaa
is equal to
(1) 0
(2) 4
)()()(32
1
2
1
2
1cba
(3) 1
(4) 4
)()(2
1
2
1ba
Ans. (4)
88. The locus of the points z which satisfy the
condition arg 31
1
z
z is
(1) A straight line
(2) A circle
(3) A parabola
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
89. If )1(3
1)(....)2()1(
22
2
2
1
2 nntntt
n ,
then n
t is
(1) 2
n (2) 1n
(3) 1n (4) n
Ans. (4)
90. The coefficient of 25
x in 1432
)1(
xxxx
is
(1) 25 (2) – 25
(3) 1 (4) – 1
Ans. (3)
PHYSICS
91. If there are no heat losses, the heat released
by the condensation of x gm of steam at
100°C into water at 100°C can be used to
convert y gm of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C.
Then the ratio y : x is nearly
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2.5 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
Ans. (4)
92. A body is imparted a velocity v from the
surface of the earth. If v0 is orbital velocity and
ve be the escape velocity then which is correct
(1) v = v0, the body follows a circular track
around the earth.
(2) v > v0 but < ve, the body follows elliptical
path around the earth.
(3) v < v0, the body follows elliptical path and
returns to surface of earth.
(4) v > ve, the body follows hyperbolic path
and escapes the gravitational pull of the
earth.
(1) A, B (2) B, C
(3) A, B, C (4) A, B, C, D
Ans. (4)
93. If mass of proton = 1.008 amu and mass of
neutron = 1.009 amu, then the binding energy
per nucleon for 4Be9 (mass = 9.012 amu) will
be –
(1) 0.0672 MeV
(2) 0.672 MeV
(3) 6.72 MeV
(4) 67.2 MeV
Ans. (3)
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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94. The minimum intensity of light to be detected
by human eye is 210 /10 mW . The number of
photons of wavelength m7106.5 entering the
eye, with pupil area 2610 m , per second for
vision will be nearly
(1) 100 (2) 200
(3) 300 (4) 400
Ans. (3)
95. The charge flowing across the cell on closing
the key k is equal to
V
C
2
C
1
(1) CV (2) CV/2
(3) 2CV (4) zero
Ans. (2)
96. A concave mirror is placed at the bottom of an
empty tank with face upwards and axis vertical.
When sunlight falls normally on the mirror, it is
focussed at distance of 32 cm from the mirror.
If the tank filled with water
3
4 upto a
height of 20 cm, then the sunlight will now get
focussed at
(1) 16 cm above water level
(2) 9 cm above water level
(3) 24 cm below water level
(4) 9 cm below water level
Ans. (2)
97. In the following star circuit diagram (figure),
the equivalent resistance between the points A
and H will be
(1) 1.944 r (2) 0.973 r
(3) 0.486 r (4) 0.243 r
Ans. (2)
98. An engine approaches a hill with a constant
speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km it
blows a whistle, whose echo is heard by the
driver after 5 sec. If speed of sound in air is
330 m/s, the speed of engine is
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
Ans. (3)
99. Two masses M and m are connected by the
arrangement shown in figure. What is the
downward acceleration of mass M.
m
M
(1) 2M m
g3M m
(2) 2M m
2g4M m
(3) M m
gM m
(4)
Mg
2M m
Ans. (2)
100. A block of mass m = 2kg is attached to two
unscratched springs of force constant k1 = 100
N/m and k2 = 125 N/m.
125 N/m
2kg 100 N/m
0.1m
The block is displaced towards left through a
distance of 10 cm and released. Find the
speed of the block as it passes through the
mean position.
(1) 1.06 m/s (2) 1.02 m/s
(3) 1.04 m/s (4) 1.05 m/s
Ans. (1)
C r B
r
A
r
D E r
r J
r
I r
H
r r
G
r F
i
72°
[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 2 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)
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CHEMISTRY
101. Tetracyanonickelete (II) ion has ____
geometry
(1) Linear (2) Tetrahderal
(3) Square planer (4) None of these
Ans. (3)
102. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was
prepared in 2 litre of solution.
1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3 → Y
1 litre of mixture X + excess BaCl2 → Z.
No. of moles of Y and Z are:
(1) 0.01, 0.01 (2) 0.02, 0.01
(3) 0.01, 0.02 (4) 0.02, 0.02
Ans. (1)
103. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen
electrode at pH = 10 and 2HP = 1 is:
(1) 0.51 V (2) 0.00 V
(3) +0.59 V (4) 0.059 V
Ans. (3)
104. The wavelength of radiation emitted when
electron falls from 4th Bohr’s orbit to 2nd in H
atom is:
(1) 972 nm (2) 486 nm
(3) 243 nm (4) 182 nm
Ans. (2)
105. Aniline in a set of the following reactions
yielded a coloured compound Y:
Ans. (1)
106. Consider the following reaction,
ethanol 2PBr X alc.KOH
YheatO,(ii)H
etemperatur roomSOH (i)
2
42 Z;
The product Z is:
(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3CH2―O―CH2―CH3
(4) CH3―CH2―O―SO3H
Ans. (1)
107. The major organic product formed in the
following reaction is:
Ans. (4)
108. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol
has vapour pressure of 290 nm at 300. The
vapour pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 nm.
If mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6 its
vapour pressure at same temperature will
be:
(1) 360
(2) 350
(3) 300
(4) 700
Ans. (2)
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109. In the species O2, ,O2
2O and ,2
2O the
correct decreasing order of bond strength is:
(1) 2O >
2O >
2O > 2
2O
(2)
2O > 2O >
2O > 2
2O
(3) 2
2O >
2O >
2O > 2O
(4) 2
2O >
2O > 2O >
2O
Ans. (4)
110. In Zeigler-Natta adsorbed strongly by
charcoal?
(1) CO
(2) N2
(3) H2
(4) NH3
Ans. (3)
BIOLOGY
111. Which sequence of events gives rise to flaccid
guard cells and stomatal closure at night?
(1) low [Glucose] low osmotic pressure
low pH high pCO2
(2) low pH high pCO2 low [Glucose]
low osmotic pressure
(3) low osmotic pressure high pCO2 low
pH low [Glucose]
(4) high pCO2 low pH low [Glucose]
low osmotic pressure
Ans. (4)
112. When a yellow mouse was crossed to another
yellow mouse, the F1 generation produces
yellow and brown black mice in the ratio 2 : 1.
The yellow mice are never homozygous. The
reason is :
(1) Homozygous yellow cannot survive due to
lethal effect of genes
(2) yellow mice are not very suitable to live
(3) There is no formation of zygote with
homozygous yellow constitution
(4) None of the above
Ans. (2)
113. Rodents can distinguish between many
different types of odours. The basis for odour
discrimination is that-
(1) They have a small number of odorant
receptors that bind to many different
odorant molecules
(2) The mechanoreceptors in the nasal cavity
are activated by different odorant
molecules found in the air passing
through the nostrils
(3) The part of the brain that processes the
sense of smell has many different
receptors for odorant molecules
(4) A large number of different
chemoreceptors are present in the nasal
cavity that binds a variety of odorant
molecules
Ans. (4)
114. There are three alleles at the ABO antigen
locus in humans. The A and B alleles
produces A and B antigens, respectively,
while the O allele produces no antigen. For
which of the following phenotypes could you
be certain that an individual (with that
phenotype) a homozygote?
(1) type A only
(2) type B only
(3) type O only
(4) type A, B and O
Ans. (3)
115. E. coli about to replicate was pulsed with
tritiated thymidine for 5 min and then
transferred to normal medium. After one cell
division which one of the following
observations would be correct?
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive
(2) One strand of DNA will be radioactive
(3) None of the strands will be radioactive
(4) Half of one strand of DNA will be
radioactive
Ans. (2)
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116. Selection of lysine auxotroph (bacteria which
requires lysine for growth) from a mixed
population of bacteria can be done by growing
the bacterial population in the presence of-
(1) Lysine
(2) Penicillin
(3) Lysine and penicillin
(4) Glucose
Ans. (2)
117. Increasing the number of measurements of an
experimental variable will-
(1) Increase the standard error of the sample
(2) Increase the mean of the sample
(3) Decrease the standard error of the sample
(4) Result in all of the above
Ans. (3)
118. For a human male what is the probability that
all the maternal chromosomes will end up in
the same gamete?
(1) 1/23
(2) 223
(3) 246
(4) (1/2)23
Ans. (4)
119. The most important factor regulating seasonal
migration is :
(1) The change in average air temperature
(2) The change in day length
(3) The reduced availability of food
(4) The increased predator pressure
Ans. (2)
120. Distance between two consecutive base pairs
of DNA is __________
(1) 34oA
(2) 0.34 nm
(3) 20 oA
(4) 4 nm
Ans. (2)