RUHS Pre PG 2014 MBBS Section I Question Paper and Answer Key

7/27/2019 RUHS Pre PG 2014 MBBS Section I Question Paper and Answer Key

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Pre PG-2014 MBBS

Section-I

Q. No. 1

0012001The carpal tunnel contains all the following important structures EXCEPT

Option 1 Flexor pollicis longus tendon

Option 2 Flexor digitorum profundus tendonOption 3 Median nerve

Option 4 Flexor carpi radialis tendon

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 20012002

In the female the inguinal canal does NOT contain which of the followingstructures

Option 1 Inferior epigastric artery

Option 2 Ilioinguinal nerve

Option 3 Round ligament of uterus

Option 4 Lymphatics from the fundus of uterus

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 30012003

While doing a pleural tap in the mid axillary line which of the following structureswill NOT be pierced

Option 1 Internal intercostal muscle

Option 2 Levatores costarum

Option 3 External intercostal muscle

Option 4 Parietal pleura

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 40012004

Which of the following muscles elevates the soft palate during the act ofswallowing

Option 1 Tensor veli palatine

Option 2 Palatoglossus

Option 3 Levator veli palatini

Option 4 Palatopharyngeus

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 50012005

While walking which of the following muscles raises the pelvis on thecontralateral side

Option 1 Gluteus maximus

Option 2 Gluteus medius

Option 3 Obturator externus

Option 4 Quadratus femoris

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 60012006

If the patient'seye sight is normal, which of the following cranial nerves is likelyto be damaged if both the direct and consensual light reflex is absent

Option 1 Optic nerve

Option 2 Oculomotor nerve

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Option 4 Abducent nerve

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 70012007

Which of the following arteries does not arise from the anterior surface of theaorta

Option 1 Celiac artery

Option 2 Superior mesenteric artery

Option 3 Inferior mesenteric artery

Option 4 Lumbar artery

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 8

0012008In the upper limb, the tendon that most commonly ruptures is

Option 1 Triceps

Option 2 Long head of biceps

Option 3 Brachioradialis

Option 4 Deltoid at insertion point.

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 90012009

Deep group of muscles in the posterior compartment of leg include all except

Option 1 Popliteus

Option 2 Plantaris

Option 3 Flexor hallucis longus

Option 4 Timialis posterion

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 100012010

Which of the following dural venous sinuses is not paired

Option 1 Inferior petrosal

Option 2 Transverse

Option 3 Cavernous

Option 4 Straight

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 110012011

Which of the following substances is most highly permeable across skeletalmuscle capillary pores

Option 1 Urea

Option 2 Glucose

Option 3 Sucrose

Option 4 Inulin

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 120012012

Relative taste indices of all of the following are 1 EXCEPT

Option 1 Quinine

Option 2 Chloracetic acid

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Option 4 Sodium chloride

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 130012013

All of the following are class II neurotransmitters EXCEPT

Option 1 Histamine

Option 2 Serotonin

Option 3 Dopamine

Option 4 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 14

0012014

During the middle trimester which is the following is the main site for production

of RBCs

Option 1 Liver

Option 2 Spleen

Option 3 Thymus

Option 4 Lymphnodes

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 150012015

Which one of the following conditions does NOT increase H+ ion secretion byrenal tubules

Option 1 PCO2

Option 2 Hypokalemia

Option 3 Angiotensin II

Option 4 Extracellular volume

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 160012016

All of the following increase renal calcium excretion EXCEPT

Option 1 Blood pressure

Option 2 Metabolic alkalosis

Option 3 PTH

Option 4 Vit D3

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 170012017

Which of the following does NOT increase thirst

Option 1 Plasma osmolarity

Option 2 Gastric distension

Option 3 ngiotensin II

Option 4 Blood volume

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 180012018

All of the following decrease glomerular filtration rate EXCEPT

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Option 2 Endothelin

Option 3 Nitric oxide

Option 4 Epinephrine

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 190012019

In terms of ml/min/100g of tissue weight, which organ has the highest bloodflow

Option 1 Kidney

Option 2 Liver

Option 3 Brain

Option 4 Heart

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 200012020

All of the factors listed below stimulate the growth hormone secretion EXCEPT

Option 1 Decreased blood glucose

Option 2 Obesity

Option 3 Exercise

Option 4 Ghrelin

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 210012021

Which of the following enzymes/proteins are NOT found in neutrophils

Option 1 Myeloperoxidase

Option 2 NADPH oxidase

Option 3 Defensins

Option 4 Catalase

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 220012022

Which one of the following reaction is of importance in oxidative stress in RBCs

Option 1 Fenton reaction

Option 2 Glutathione synthase

Option 3 Glutathione oxidase

Option 4 NADH oxidase

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 230012023

Which of the following is a complement fixing immunoglobulin

Option 1 IgA

Option 2 IgM

Option 3 IgD

Option 4 IgE

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 240012024

Which of the following sugars is not found in human glycoprotein

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Option 2 Fructose

Option 3 Galactose

Option 4 Mannose

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 250012025

Which of the following conditions is NOT due to Peroxisomal abnormalities

Option 1 Infantile Refsum disease

Option 2 Adrenoleukodystrophy

Option 3 Hyperoxaluria type I

Option 4 Maple syrup disease

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 260012026

Cholesterol is the main lipid component in

Option 1 Chylomicrons

Option 2 VLDL

Option 3 LDL

Option 4 HDL

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 270012027

Which of the following is not increased by Insulin

Option 1 Fatty acid synthesis

Option 2 Glycogen synthesis

Option 3 Protein synthesis

Option 4 Lipolysis

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 280012028

Hers' disease is caused due to deficiency of

Option 1 Glucose 6 phosphatase

Option 2 Liver debranching enzyme

Option 3 Acid maltase

Option 4 Liver phosphorylase

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 290012029

Lactate as a substrate can be utilized by all of the following organs EXCEPT

Option 1 Liver

Option 2 Brain

Option 3 Heart

Option 4 Kidney

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 300012030

Which one of the following minerals does not function as prosthetic groups inenzymes

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Option 2 Copper

Option 3 Selenium

Option 4 Magnesium

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 310012031

Which on of the following drugs is most likely to cause hypoglycaemia when usedto treat type 2 diabetes

Option 1 Metformin

Option 2 Glyburide

Option 3 Acarbose

Option 4 Meglitol

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 320012032

Benzodiazepine overdose is best treated with

Option 1 Flumazenil

Option 2 Naloxone

Option 3 Acetylcysteine

Option 4 Pancuronium

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 330012033

All of the following have been derived from plant extracts EXCEPT

Option 1 Etoposide

Option 2 Atropine

Option 3 Reserpine

Option 4 Chloroquin

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 340012034

Warfarin does not act on the post translational modification of which of thefollowing clotting factors

Option 1 Factor VII

Option 2 Factor VIII

Option 3 Factor IX

Option 4 Factor X

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 350012035

Which of the following agents acts through cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associatedantigen CTLA-4

Option 1 Rituximab

Option 2 Abatacept

Option 3 Muromonab

Option 4 Alefacept

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 360012036

If allopurinol is used as an adjunct in chemotherapy to offset hyperurecemia, thedose of which anti-cancer agent needs to be reduced to 25% of normal

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Option 2 Vincristine

Option 3 Mercaptopurine

Option 4 Fluorouracil

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 370012037

Which of the following is not an anti-tumor antibiotic

Option 1 Doxorubicin

Option 2 Bleomycin

Option 3 Mitomycin

Option 4 Daptomycin

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 380012038

Cyclosporine levels are increased by which of the following agents

Option 1 Ketoconazole

Option 2 Albendazole

Option 3 Metronidazole

Option 4 Phenobarbitone

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 390012039

Which of the following agents is active against Aspergillus sp

Option 1 Itraconazole

Option 2 Voriconazole

Option 3 Fluconazole

Option 4 Posaconazole

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 400012040

Which statement regarding ciprofloxacin is accurate

Option 1 It is a good agent against MRSA

Option 2 It belongs to the group macrolides

Option 3 It causes crystalluria

Option 4 It's use may cause tendinitis and tendon rupture

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 410012041

Withdrawal of which antiepileptic agent is least likely to cause recurrence ofseizures

Option 1 Clonazepam

Option 2 Phenobarbitone

Option 3 Diazepam

Option 4 Ethosuximide

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 420012042

Peripheral neuritis due to INH may be alleviated with the concomitant us of whichof the following agents

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Option 2 Carbamazepine

Option 3 Pyridoxine

Option 4 Methylcobalamine

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 430012043

Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs has the longest half life

Option 1 Amodiarone

Option 2 Mexiletine

Option 3 Lidocaine

Option 4 Procainamide

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 440012044

The drug of choice for the treatment of Strongyloides stercoralis is

Option 1 Albendazone

Option 2 Piperacine

Option 3 Ivermectin

Option 4 Praziquantel

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 450012045

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor induced cough is attributable toincreased levels of

Option 1 Bradykinin

Option 2 Somatostatin

Option 3 Histamine

Option 4 Angiotensin

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 460012046

Under which Section of the IPC is medical negligence punishable?

Option 1 304

Option 2 304 A

Option 3 304 B

Option 4 304 C

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 470012047

In deaths due to Asphyxia, the last structure to be dissected should be

Option 1 Head

Option 2 Neck

Option 3 Thorax

Option 4 Abdomen

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 480012048

All of the following are true except Incised wounds EXCEPT

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Option 2 Bleeding is generally less than that in cases of laceration

Option 3 Tailing is present

Option 4 Length of injury has no correlation with the length of weapon

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 490012049

A sample of gastric lavage from a patient of poisoning turned black when treatedwith Silver Nitrate and heated. The most probable poison is

Option 1 Pyrethrin

Option 2 Malathion

Option 3 Aluminium sulphide

Option 4 Parathion

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 500012050

A dead body was found to have marks like branches of a tree on the trunk. Themost likely cause of death could be

Option 1 Firearm injury

Option 2 Bomb blast injury

Option 3 Lightening injury

Option 4 Transportation injury (road side accident)

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 510012051

The difference in concentration of H+ ion in a solution of pH 2.0 compared withsolution of pH 7.0 is

Option 1 5 fold

Option 2 1/5thas much

Option 3 105 fold

Option 4 10-5as much

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 520012052

Which of the following has the fastest conduction velocity

Option 1 A fibres

Option 2 A fibres

Option 3 A fibres

Option 4 A fibres

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 530012053

Which of the following statement is FALSE in case of Type 2B skeletal musclefibres

Option 1 It is red in colour

Option 2 It is large in diameter

Option 3 Oxidative capacity is low

Option 4 Myosin ATPase activity is fast

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 54All f th f ll i i id tid EXCEPT

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Option 1 Endorphin

Option 2 Octapeptide

Option 3 Substance P

Option 4 Metenkephalin

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 550012055

Which of the following statements regarding temperature regulating mechanismsactivated by cold is FALSE

Option 1 Shivering

Option 2 Hunger

Option 3 Horripilation

Option 4 Cutaneous vasodilation

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 560012056

Which of the following is the highest in the hierarchy of evidence

Option 1 Case series

Option 2 Cohort studies

Option 3 Case control study

Option 4 Randomised control study

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 570012057

All of the following are examples of contagious diseases EXCEPT

Option 1 Scabies

Option 2 Trachoma

Option 3 Syphilis

Option 4 Schistosomiasis

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 580012058

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine

Option 1 Yellow fever

Option 2 Hepatitis B

Option 3 InfluenzaOption 4 Rabies

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 590012059

Isolation of a measles patient is recommended

Option 1 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 1stday of rash

Option 2 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 3rd day of rash

Option 3 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 5thday of rash

Option 4 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 7th

day of rash

Correct Option 2

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0012060

Option 1 Bleaching powder

Option 2 Crude phenol

Option 3 Formalin

Option 4 Cetrimide

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 610012061

All of the following are absolute contraindication for insertion of IUD EXCEPT

Option 1 Suspected pregnancy

Option 2 Cancer of cervix

Option 3 Congenital malformations of uterus

Option 4 Previous ectopic pregnancy

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 620012062 All of the following are measures of dispersion EXCEPT

Option 1 Range

Option 2 Modal deviation

Option 3 Mean deviation

Option 4 Standard deviation

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 630012063

Waste sharps come under which category of biomedical waste

Option 1 Category 1

Option 2 Category 2

Option 3 Category 3

Option 4 Category 4

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 640012064

Which of the following toxicants are suitable as larvicides in mosquito control

Option 1 Abate

Option 2 Lindane

Option 3 DDT

Option 4 OMS-33

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 650012065

Culex mosquito is a vector for all of the following diseases EXCEPT

Option 1 Brugian filariasis

Option 2 Japanese encephalitis

Option 3 West Nile fever

Option 4 Viral arthritis

Correct Option 1

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0012066 Endemic ascites is cause by

Option 1 Beta oxalyl amino-alanine

Option 2 Pyrrolizidine alkaloids

Option 3 Aflatoxin

Option 4 Argemone Mexicana

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 670012067

Orange red colour on Nitric acid test indicates the presence of

Option 1 Fusarium toxins

Option 2 Claviceps fusiformis

Option 3 Argemone mexicana

Option 4 Crotolaria alkaloids

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 680012068 Which of the following vegetables is the richest source of dietary iron

Option 1 Cabbage

Option 2 Cauliflower

Option 3 Spinach

Option 4 Tomato

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 690012069

Overweight is defined as BMI more than or equal to( )

Option 1 20

Option 2 25

Option 3 30

Option 4 35

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 700012070

Which of the following diseases does NOT come under "spotted fever group"

Option 1 Indian tick typhus

Option 2 Rocky mountain fever

Option 3 Rickettsial pox

Option 4 Q fever

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 710012071

Nonspecific esterase is positive in all the cat of AML EXCEPT

Option 1 M3

Option 2 M4

Option 3 M5

Option 4 M6

Correct Option 4

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0012072 The following protein defects can cause hereditary sphero EXCEPT

Option 1 Ankyrin

Option 2 Paladin

Option 3 Glycophorin C

Option 4 Anion transport protein

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 730012073

Mantle cell lymphoma is positive for all of the following EXCEPT

Option 1 CD 5

Option 2 CD 20

Option 3 CD 23

Option 4 CD 43

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 740012074 which of the following are characteristic markers of HL

Option 1 CD 15 AND CD 30




Correct Option 1

Q. No. 750012075

Which of the following statement is incorrect about PV

Option 1 Characterized by Hb> 18.5 gm/dl in males and 16.5 g/dl in females

Option 2 Serum erythropoietin is below ref range

Option 3 Hypercellular marrow with micromegakaryocytes

Option 4 JAK2V617F mutation

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 760012076

The finnish type of nephrotic syndrome occurs fue to the gene mutation affectingthe following protein

Option 1 Podocin

Option 2 Alfa actinin

Option 3 Nephrin

Option 4 CD 2 activated protein

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 770012077

Which of the following statement about graft Vs host disease (GVHD) is leastappropriate

Option 1 Occurs when host is immunocompropmised

Option 2 Occurs when donor cells are immunocompromised

Option 3 Is also called Runt disease

Option 4 Common cause is stem cell transplantation

Correct Option 2

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0012078 Flexner Wintersteinar rosettes are characteristically seen in

Option 1 Retinoblastoma

Option 2 Melanoma

Option 3 Neuroblastoma

Option 4 Dysgerminoma

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 790012079

Reactive oxygen intermediates are released by

Option 1 Catalase

Option 2 NADP oxidase

Option 3 Glutathione peroxidase

Option 4 Superoxide dismutase

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 800012080 Ca stomach developing secondary to perniciuous anemia in occurs in the

Option 1 Prepyloric region

Option 2 Pyloric region

Option 3 Body

Option 4 Fundus

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 810012081

Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of MEN 2A

Option 1 Point mutation in RET proto-oncogene: extra cellular domain

Option 2 Point mutation in RET proto oncogene: cytoplasmic catalytic domain

Option 3 Point mutation in BRCA 1 gene

Option 4 Point mutation in Rb gene

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 820012082

Which of the following is a procoagulant protein

Option 1 Thrombomodulin

Option 2 Protein C

Option 3 Protein S

Option 4 Thrombin

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 830012083

All of the following features are seen in viral pneumonias EXCEPT

Option 1 Presence of interstitial inflammatory infiltrate

Option 2 Predominance of alveolar exudate

Option 3 Bronchiolitis

Option 4 Multi nucleated giant cell in the alveolar wall

Correct Option 2

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0012084 fibrosis (NCPF)

Option 1 Fibrosis in and around portal tract

Option 2 Thrombosis of medium an d small portal vein branches

Option 3 Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrate in the portal tracts

Option 4 Bridging fibrosis

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 850012085

The following statement is INCORRECT about tumor suppressor NF2 gene

Option 1Germ like mutation in the NF2 gene predisposed to the development of neurofibromatosis

type 2

Option 2 Patients with NF2 deficiency develop benign bilateral shwannomas of acoustic nerve

Option 3 Located on chromosome no 21q12

Option 4Product of NF2 gene, Merlin shows a great homology with the red cell membrane cytosolicprotein 4.1

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 86

0012086Which is the first human disease proved to be of viral origin ?

Option 1 Japanese encephalitis

Option 2 Yellow fever

Option 3 Dengue

Option 4 Small pox

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 87

0012087

Which of the following is used commercially for sterilisation of disposable plastic

items

Option 1 Ethylene oxide

Option 2 Autoclave

Option 3 Glutaraldehyde

Option 4 Ethyl alcohol

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 880012088

Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to

Option 1 TransformationOption 2 Transduction

Option 3 Conjugation

Option 4 Mutation

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 890012089

Direct immunofluorescence test may be used for detection of

Option 1 Rabies virus antigen

Option 2 Antibodies in syphilis

Option 3 Malaria antibodies

Option 4 Complement levels

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Q. No. 900012090

Chediak- Higashi syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to

Option 1 T cell defects

Option 2 B cell defects

Option 3 Complement disorder

Option 4 Diminished phagocytic activity

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 910012091

Sensitivity to bacitracin can be used to identify

Option 1 Streptococcus pyogenes

Option 2 Str. agalactiae

Option 3 Str. equisimilis

Option 4 Str. Mitis

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 920012092

Which biotype of Corynebacterium diphtheria ferments starch and glycogen

Option 1 Gravis

Option 2 Intermedius

Option 3 Mitis

Option 4 All of the above

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 930012093

MacConkey's medium with sorbitol instead of lactose is used for detection of E colistrains

Option 1 O15 : B11

Option 2 O55 : B5

Option 3 O8 : B70

Option 4 None of the above

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 940012094

Which is the selective media for growing Yersinia enterocolitica from faeces

Option 1 Cycloserine - cefoxitin - sucrose agar

Option 2 Butzler's selective medium

Option 3 Cefsulodin iirgasan novobiocin agar

Option 4 Tinsdale agar

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 950012095

Which of the following bacteria is/are also named T strains

Option 1 Ureaplasma urealyticum

Option 2 Mycolplasma hominis

Option 3 Mycolplasma pneumoniaeOption 4 Acholeplasma

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Q. No. 960012096

"Owl' eye" appearance inclusions can be demonstrated in laboratory diagnosis of

Option 1 Herpes simplex virus infections

Option 2 Epstein - Barr virus infections

Option 3 Cytomegalovirus infections

Option 4 Measles virus infection

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 970012097

Which of the following viral markers is/are positive in super carriers of HepatitisB

Option 1 HBsAg & HBeAg

Option 2 HBsAg & anti HBc

Option 3 HBeAg & anti HBe

Option 4 HBcAg & HBeAg

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 980012098

Which fungus contains highly infectious arthrospores

Option 1 Histoplasma capsulatam

Option 2 Blastomyces dermatidis

Option 3 Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Option 4 Coccidioides immitis

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 990012099

Ergot alkaloids are toxins produced by

Option 1 Apergillus flavus

Option 2 Fusarium nivale

Option 3 Claviceps pupurea

Option 4 Penicillium rubrum

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 1000012100

Pseudotubercles may be formed around the eggs of

Option 1 Schistosoma haematobium

Option 2 Wuchereria bancrofti

Option 3 Clonorchis sinensis

Option 4 Fasciolopsis buski

Correct Option 1

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RUHS Pre PG 2014 MBBS Section I Question Paper and Answer Key

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