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RBI RBI - ASSISTANTS – MODEL TEST Assistants

TEST OF REASONING1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—

(1) 45 (2) 14 (3) 42 (4) 38 (5) 472. What should come next in the following number sequence ?

2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6(1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 3 (5) None

3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the thirdfrom top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?

(1) R (2) P (3) S (4) Q (5) None4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metresand again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towardswhich direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?(1) South (2) South-West (3) South-East(4) Cannot be determined (5) None

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group ?(1) BD (2) CE (3) GI (4) FH (5) NL

6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which isimmediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?

2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3 5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits

of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number,which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit oddnumber ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if morethan one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer— (1) 2 (2) 9 (3) 3 (4) O (5) X

8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Whoamong them is the oldest ?(1) S (2) R (3) P (4) Data inadequate (5) None

9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’.

How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?(1) H A F $ (2) A F H $ (3) A D F $ (4) B H F $ (5) None

10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘ ’, ‘K, denotes ‘-’, ‘T’ denotes ‘x’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then— 20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?(1) 18 (2) -6 (3) - 12 (4) - 18 (5) None

11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How isthe boy related to Meena?(1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Uncle (4) Data inadequate (5) None

12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N is sister of M. How is B related to N ?(1) Sister (2) Aunt (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is

the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Fruit (2) Flower (3) Leaf (4) Petal (5) Tree

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14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group ?(1) 26 (2) 34 (3) 72 (4) 46 (5) 38

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Cuckoo (2) Crow (3) Bat (4) Parrot (5) Sparrow

16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of whichhas as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, thefifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of thefollowing will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as theanswer(1) E (2) A (3) M (4) X (5) YDirections (Q. 18 to 24): In each of the questions below are given three statementsfollowed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly knownfacts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements : Some blades are papers.Some papers are books.Some books are pens.

Conclusions: I. Some pens are papers.II. Some books are blades.III. Some pens are blades.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows

(4) None follows (5) Only II and III follow19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles.All marbles are buses.Some buses are trucks.

Conclusions: I. Some trucks are pencils.II. Some buses are pencils.III No truck is pencil.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows(3) Only either I or III and II follow(4) Only either I or III follows (5) None

20. Statements: Some trees are jungles.Some jungles are flowers.

All flowers are streets.Conclusions: I. Some streets are jungles.II. Some streets are trees.III. Some flowers are trees.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows(4) Only I and II follow (5) None

21. Statements: All desks are tables.All tables are chairs.Some chairs are sofas.

Conclusions: I. Some sofas are desks.II. Some chairs are desks.III. Some tables are desks.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II and III follow(3) Only I and III follow (4) All follow (5) None

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22. Statements: Some cycles are bikes.No bike is flower.All flowers are goats.

Conclusions: I. No goat is cycle.

II. Some flowers are cycles.III. Some goats are bikes.(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows(4) Only III follows (5) Only II and III follow

23. Statements : All rivers are hills.All hills are rocks.Some rocks are sticks.

Conclusions : I. Some sticks are hills.II. Some sticks are rivers.III. Some rocks are rivers.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows(4) Only III follows (5) Only II and III follow

24. Statements : All tyres are cars.All wheels are cars.All cars are trains.

Conclusions : I. All tyres are trains.II. Some trains are wheels.III. Some trains are cars.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only I and II follow(3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II and III follow (5) All followDirections (Q. 25 to 29): In each questions below is given a group of lettersfollowed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D).You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of

letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of thatcombination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly representsthe group of letters, mark (5) i.(5) ‘None’ as the answer.

Letter: B M K A T R E U N H F I W D P

Digit/SymbolCode:

6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 f& 4 7 % 5 ©

Conditions:

(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to becoded as the code for the vowel.

(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for thesetwo are to be interchanged.(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded asthe code for the last letter.Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in eachquestion.

25. RNWDEF

(1) 9 @ 3 f& 8 # (2) # @ 3 f& 8 # (3) # @ 3 f& 8 9(4) # 3 f& @ 8 # (5) None

26. MATRBW

(1) % © 6 9 7 3 (2) 3 © 6 9 7 3 (3) % © 6 9 7 % (4) 3 © 6 9 7 % (5) None

27. EDPKTA(1) 8 f& 4 5 6 ©(2) © f& 4 5 6 8(3) 8 f& 4 5 6 8 (4) 8 f& 5 4 6 © (5) None

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28. ABUHFI

(1) © 2 1 7 # $ (2) © 7 2 1 # © (3) $ 7 2 1 # $ (4) © 7 2 # 1 $ (5) None29. WPTMBI

(1) $ 4 6 % 7 3 (2) 3 4 6 % 7 $ (3) 3 4 6 % 7 3 (4) $ 4 6 % 7 $ (5) None30. The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the

consonants are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and thevowels are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the third letter from the left end of the new set of letters?(1) B (2) M (3) O (4) L (5) None

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Table (2) Desk (3) Wardrobe (4) Computer (5) Chair

32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Orange (2) Apple (3) Guava (4) Papaya (5) MangoDirections (Q. 33 to 35)— Study the following information carefully and answerthe given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of wordsand numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The followingis an illustration of input and rearrangement.Input: 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 houseStep I: 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 houseStep II: 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 houseStep III: 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 houseStep IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 houseStep V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now houseStep VI: 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house and step VI is the las t step of therearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the followingquestions the appropriate step for the given input.

33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will berequired to complete the rearrangement ?(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None

34. Input: 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete therearrangement ?(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None

35. Input: nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56 Which of the following will be step III?(1) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56(2) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56(3) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56(4) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56 (5) NoneDirections (36-40) Study the following information carefully to answer thesequestions

Seven members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different citiesAhmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai notnecessarily in the same order. Each one has a different mother tongue Tamil,Kannada, Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the sameorder. J works in Bengaluru and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi. K’smother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. L and M do not work inChennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I work in Hyderabad andhis mother tongue is Telugu. The one who works in Delhi has Bangla mothertongue. N works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work inKolkata.

36. What is J’s mother tongue?(1) Telugu (2) Hindi (3) Bangla (4) Kannada (5) None

37. Who works in Chennai?(1) H (2) L (3) M (4) L or M (5) None

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38. Which of the following combination is correct?(1) Marathi-1 - Hyderabad (2) Tamil - M - Kolkata(3) Marathi -1- Chennai (4) Punjabi - K - Delhi (5) None of the above

39. Who works in Delhi?(1) H (2) M (3) L (4) K (5) None

40. What is M’s mother tongue?(1) Bangla (2) Marathi (3) Telugu (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

ENGLISH LANGUAGEDirections (Q. 41 to 50) Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it.

Once upon a time, there lived a robber in a village. One day, he stole atemple bell and ran towards the forest. A Tiger heard the jingle of the bell andbecame curious to locate the sound. As soon as he saw the robber, he jumpedupon him and killed him at once. The bell fell on the ground. After a few days, agroup of monkeys passed through that way. They spotted the bell and carried it totheir home in the forest.

They found the jingle of the bell very interesting. Subsequently every one of them became very fond of the bell and started playing with it. After every tiringday, the monkeys would sit on the top of a hill in the forest in the night and enjoythe melodious sound of the bell. The people of the village were afraid of the noise.Soon afterwards, the people from the village found the body of the robber andproclaimed, “Certainly there is an evil spirit around here that kills human beingsand then rings the bell to celebrate”.

When the people heard this, they thought that a demon was haunting theirvillage. Without giving any second thought, people started leaving the village interror and settling in a new place. However, there was an intelligent and boldwoman in that village. She thought to herself, “I don’t believe that a demon is

haunting this village. I will find out who is ringing the bell”. Late in the night, shewent into the forest bravely and found that a group of monkeys was playing aboutand ringing the bell.

Now as the woman knew the secret of the bell, she went to the King andsaid, “Your Majesty ! I’m sure there is no evil spirit in the village and the cause of all the trouble lies somewhere else. If you grant me some money, I will get rid of it and bring happiness to the village.” The King, who was also terrified of the hoaxthat prevailed in the village, granted the request of the woman.

The woman bought as much peas, groundnuts and fruits with that money asshe could. She went into the forest, made a circle under a tree on the ground,placed all the eatables and hid herself at some distance. She kept a watch on themonkeys from a distance.

As and when the monkeys saw the eatables, they dropped the bell just asthe old woman had expected of them. They ran to pick the eatables. The womanpicked up the bell quickly and rushed towards the village. She gave the bell in thecourt of the King. The King was happy with the brave woman and everyone in thevillage admired her bravery. The pleased King rewarded the woman for her bravery.Since that day there was no sound of the bell in the village. People returned totheir village and lived happily ever after.

41. What did the group of monkeys do with the bell?(1) They used it to scare away the villagers(2) They enjoyed its pleasant sound every night(3) They returned it to the temple

(4) They gave it to the king as they feared him (5) None

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42. Why did the villagers move out of the village in search of a new place?(1) They were scared of frequent attacks of the man eating tiger(2) They were terrified of the king as he was an evil person(3) The village was cursed by Gods as the villagers could not find the lost bell of the temple

(4) They were fed up of frequent robberies in the village (5) None43. Why did the woman from the village go to the forest late in the night?

(1) To find out who was ringing the bell every night in the forest(2) To request the demon to leave the village and live somewhere else(3) In order to hide from the demon present in the village(4) To hunt down the evil monkeys who had been killing human beings (5) None

44. How did the robber who stole the bell from the temple die?(1) As the bell belonged to a temple, he was cursed by Gods and died(2) The group of monkeys killed him in order to take the bell from him(3) A tiger in the forest spotted the robber due to the ringing bell and killed him(4) The king had ordered the woman to find the robber and kill him (5) None

45. What did the villagers presume after finding the dead robber ?

(1) That monkeys in the forest had been killing human beings(2) That an evil spirit had been killing human beings and haunting the village(3) That there was a man-eating tiger in the forest(4) That the man had been killed of a curse as he had stolen a temple’s bell(5) None

46. Why is the woman referred to as intelligent and bold in the given story?(1) She was the only one in the entire village who had dared to confront the evilking(2) She killed the troublesome group of monkeys all by herself (3) She fooled the king and drew out a substantial amount of money from him(4) She was not frightened of the hoax and was brave enough to find out the truthbehind it (5) None

47. Why did the woman ask for some money from the king?(1) She needed money for moving away from the haunted village(2) In order to buy eatables to attract the monkeys(3) To pay the demon in exchange for leaving the village(4) In order to buy a new bell for the temple and end God’s curse (5) None

48. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?(1) The king of the village bravely fought against the robber and killed him(2) The monkeys informed the tiger that a robber had entered the forest(3) Finally, all the villagers returned to their homes(4) There was an evil spirit in the village which killed human beings(5) None is true

49. Why did the monkeys drop the bell before the woman picked it up and took it tothe village?

(1) They wanted to collect all the eatables kept under the tree(2) The woman threatened them to drop the bell or face the consequences(3) They were scared as the king had ordered them to return the bell to thetemple(4) The tiger threatened to kill them if they refused to return his bell (5) None

50. Which of the following best describes the woman as mentioned in the passage?(1) Evil (2) Cruel (3) Superstitious (4) Generous (5) CourageousDirections (Q. 51 to 53) Choose the word/group of words which is/are mostsimilar in meaning to the word in the passage.

51. SPOTTED

(1) Patched (2) Supplied (3) Spoiled (4) Noticed (5) Provided52. GRANT

(1) Assign (2) Reward (3) Give (4) Generate (5) Request

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53. WATCH

(1) Observation(2) Impression (3) Record (4) Period (5) TimepieceDirections (Q. 54 and 55) Choose the word/group of words which is/ are mostopposite in meaning to the word in the passage.

54. DROPPED(1) Selected (2) Raised (3) Increased (4) Maintained (5) Picked up

55. ADMIRED

(1) Neglected (2) Criticised (3) Disagreed (4) Punished (5) FearedDirections-(Q. 56 to 60) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below eachsentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make itgrammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correctionis required’, mark (5) as the answer.

56. I looked everywhere as my keys, but I couldn’t figure out where I had put them.(1) For my key (2) As mine keys (3) For my keys(4) Finding my key (5) No correction required

57. The new restaurant is doing good business becaue it serves food of good quality atlower rates than other restaurants in the area.(1) Of serving food in (2) It serves food for(3) They serve food of (4) It serves food in(5) No correction required

58. The president was extremely popular on the world stage but is dislike in his owncountry.(1) But was disliked (2) Rather is disliked(3) Because of dislike (4) But is liked (5) No correction required

59. In an attempt to change its oldfashioned image, the newspaper must created asection aimed at younger leaders.

(1) Will create few (2) Is creating few (3) Should creates a(4) Has created a (5) No correction required

60. As her neighbour have loud parties every night, she does not complain. She prefersto put up with it(1) Because her neighbour (2) Even though her neighbours(3) Despite of neighbours (4) Instead of her neighbour(5) No correction requiredDirections-(Q. 61 to 65) In each question below a sentence divided in four partsis given. These are lettered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four parts may beeither mis-spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the partwhich is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that part is your

answer. If all the part are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

61. Drivers (1) who exceed(2) the speed limit (3) are duly find (4) by the trafficpolice personnel. All correct (5)

62. This project (1) is in its final faze (2) of completion and is expected (3) to be ready(4) by the end of this year. All correct (5)

63. The bored (1) of governors meets (2) once every month to discuss (3) theorganisation’s policy, (4) All correct(5)

64. There was a slight (1) reduction (2) in his wait (3) after almost a week (4) of strictdieting. All correct (5)

65. He has flot been able to attend (1) the office (2) for last four (3) days because he is

suffering (4) from fever. All correct (5)

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Directions (Q. 66 to 70): Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Thenumber of that part is the answer. If there is no erro, the answer. Is (5) i.e. ‘NoError’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

66. The father divided (1)/ the property equally (2)/ between his son (3)/ and daughter(4)/ No error (5)67. I am thinking (1) / you were aware (2) / of the rules and regulation (3)/ before

joining (4)/ No error (5)68. I knows a very good doctor (1) / in my village (2) / who will be able to (3)/ cure

your disease (4)/ No error (5)69. I am not scared (1)/ to be travelling (2)/ in the dark (3)/ alonge at night (4)/ No

error (5)70. The elevator in the building (1) / is uner repair, (2) / we regret for (3)/ the

invonvenience caused (4)/ No error (5)Directions (Q. 71 to 75) In each of the following questions six words are givenwhich are denoted by (1), (2), (3) (4), (5) and (6). By using all the six words, each

only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, theone having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on theanswersheet.

71. (1) WAS (2) HER (3) IMPRESSED(4) I (5) HONESTY (6) BY(1) 412635 (2) 615324 (3) 316425 (4) 413625 (5) 642351

72. (1) ABANDON (2) WE (3) SHIP(4) TO (5) THE (6) HAD(1) 264153 (2) 213645 (3) 261354 (4) 546132 (5) 513642

73. (l)TO(2) WAS (3) LEAVE (4) IMMEDIATELY

(5) TOLD (6) SHE(1) 621543 (2) 351642 (3) 164253 (4) 351624 (5) 625134

74. (1) WEATHER (2) TODAY (3) IS (4) HOT (5) THE (6) VERY(1) 416352 (2) 513642 (3) 512436 (4) 541632 (5) 412356

75. (1) IGNORED (2) WARNING (3) MANY (4) SIGNS(5) PEOPLE (6) THE(1) 351462 (2) 326154 (3) 351624 (4) 254361 (5) 261345Directions (Q. 76 to 80) Pick out the most effective word from the given words tofill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Sadly, tomorrow’s cricket match will have to be ...............due to bad weather.

(1) played (2) unorganised (3) cancelled (4) won (5) rained77. The dumping of waste products is carefully done by the company in orderto............any harm to the environment.(1) avoid (2) cause (3) expect (4) intend (5) do

78. No matter where that prisoner tries to............, the police will find him sooner orlater.(1) imprison (2) arrest (3) find (4) stops (5) hide

79. I do not know where Neha lives because we have been ............of touch for quitesome time.(1) not (2) out (3) hardly (4) never (5) ever

80. It is a shame that many people in the world have to live......basic necessities such

as food and shelter.(1) along (2) including (3) despite (4) without (5) short

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE81. If 20% of 40% of a = 25% of a% of b, then what is b?

(1) 8/5 (2) 16/25 (3) 8/25 (4) 2/5 (5) None82. By what % is 200 more than 50?

(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 250 (5) None83. A value changes from 30 to 80. What is the change?(1) 125 (2) 166.66 (3) 156 (4) 135 (5) None

84. The population of a city is increased by 30% and thus became 78000. What is theoriginal population?(1) 76000 (2) 64200 (3) 60000 (4) 52000 (5) None

85. In a theatre, the number of seats is increased by 20% and the price per ticket isincreased by 10% but the public response decreased by 30%. What is the neteffect on the economy of the theatre?(1) 10% rise (2) 7% fall (3) 7% rise (4) 10% fall (5) None

86. A saves 20% of his incom(5) His income is increased by 20% and so he increasedhis expenditure by 30%. What is the percentage change in his savings?(1) 20% fall (2) 4% fall (3) 20% rise (4) 4% rise (5) none of these

87. The price of petrol is increased by 25%. By what percent the consumption bereduced to make the expenditure remain the same?(1) 25% (2) 33.33% (3) 20% (4) 23% (5) None

88. The side of a square is increased by 20%. The percentage change in its area is_ (1) 20% (2) 44% (3) 36% (4) 31% (5) None

89. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 33.33%, by what percentage shouldthe breadth be reduced to make the area same?(1) 20% (2) 33.33% (3) 25% (4) 19% (5) None these

90. In an election between two candidates, A and B, A secured 56% of the votes andwon by 48000 votes. Find the total number of votes polled if 20% of the votes were

declared invalid(1) 500000 (2) 400000 (3) 600000 (4) 700000 (5) None

91. A reduction of 10% in price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 5 kg more for Rs.300/-. Find the reduced price per kg of sugar.(1) 5/- (2) 4.5/- (3) 6/- (4) 7/- (5) None

92. From a 20lt solution of alt and water with 20% salt, 21t of water is evaporate(4)Find the new % concentration of salt.(1) 20% (2) 23% (3) 25% (4) 31% (5) None

93. In a list of weights of candidates appearing for police selections, the weight of A ismarked as 58 kg instead of 46.4 kg. Find the percentage of correction required(1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 24 (4) 32 (5) None

94. A person spends 20% of his income on rent, 20% of the rest on food, 10% of theremaining on clothes and 10% on groceries. If he is left with Rs. 9520/- find hisincome(1) 10000/- (2) 15000/- (3) 20000/- (4) 25000/- (5) None

95. A shopkeeper offers three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% to a customer.If the actual price of the item is Rs. 10000, find the price the custome has to payto the shopkeeper.(1) 5040/- (2) 4000/- (3) 6000/- (4) 7000/- (5) None

96. If 10 lt solution of water and alcohol containing 10% alcohol is to be made 20%alcohol solution, find the volume of alcohol to be added(1) 1 lt (2) 1.25 lt (3) 1.5 lt (4) 2 lt (5) 2.5 lt

97. A is twice B and B is 200% more than C. By what percent is A more than C?(1) 400 (2) 600 (3) 500 (4) 200 (5) 150

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98. In an examination, a student secures 40% and fails by 10 marks. If he scored50%, he would pass by 15 marks. Find the minimum marks required to pass theexam.(1) 250 (2) 100 (3) 110 (4) 125 (5) 138

99. If A is 20% taller than B, by what percent is B shorter than A?

(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 16.66% (4) 23% (5) None100. The population of a town increases at a rate of 10% for every year. If the present

population is 12100, find the population two years ago.(1) 11000 (2) 9800 (3) 10000 (4) 11125 (5) 10120

101. A solution of salt and water contains 15% salt. If 30 lt water is evaporated fromthe solution the concentration becomes 20% salt. Find the original volume of theliquid before water evaporate(4)(1) 100 lt (2) 120 lt (3) 200 lt (4) 300 lt (5) None

102. If 240 It of oil is poured into a tank, it is still 20% empty. How much more oil is tobe poured to fill the tank?(1) 300 It (2) 60 It (3) 120 It (4) 251t (5) None

103. A and B were hired for the same salary. A got two 40% hikes whereas B got a 90%

hike. What is the percentage difference in the hikes they got?(1) 16% (2) 6% (3) 10% (4) 8% (5) 2%104. The population of a town doubled every 5 years from 1960 to 1975. What is the

increase in population in this period?(1) 800 (2) 200 (3) 400 (4) 700 (5) 600

105. In a test of 80 questions, Jyothsna answered 75% of the first 60 questions correctly.What % of the remaining questions she has to answer correctly so that she cansecure an overall percentage of 80 in the test?(1) 80% (2) 90% (3) 85% (4) 95% (5) 75%

106. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25%of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?(1) 1835 (2) 1722 (3) 2050 (4) 4428 (5) None

107. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘WEDDING’ be arranged?(1) 5040 (2) 2500 (3) 2520 (4) 5000 (5) None

108. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the carcovers 2 km?(1) 1000 metres (2) 600 metres (3) 650 metres (4) 750 metres (5) None

109. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed 1Q cowsfor 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6 months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months.If A’s share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C’s share of rent?(1) Rs 1,836 (2) Rs 1,360 (3) Rs 816(4) Cannot be determined (5) NoneDirections (Q.110-116): Study the following data carefully and answer the

questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 %of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the totalnumber of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the totalnumber of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of studentshave majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored inboth ‘Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majoredin History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students havemajored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of studentshave majored in Psychology and English Literature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

110. What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the numberof students majoring only in Psychology ?(1) 4:5 (2) 5:6 (3) 6:7 (4) 7:8 (5) None

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111. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total numberof students majoring in Politics?(1) 48 (2) 61 (3) 52 (4) 57 (5) 45

112. How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1) 650 (2) 975 (3) 780 (4) 455 (5) None113. What is the total number of students majoring in English Literature?(1) 780 (2) 1495 (3) 1300 (4) 2050 (5) None

114. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?(1) History (2) Philosophy (3) Politics(4) English Literature (5) Psychology

115. 9654 / 21 + 7638 / 44 =?(1) 633 (2) 600 (3) 643 (4) 621 (5) 598

116. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?(1) 902 (2) 893 (3) 871 (4) 888 (5) 880Directions (Q. 117-118): What approximate value should come in place of thequestion mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate

the exact value.)117. 635 x 455 403 = ?

(1) 735 (2)795 (3) 695 (4) 685 (5)715118. 2.5 x 0.08 (1.9)2 =?

(1) 1.5 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.010 (4) 0.06 (5)2.1Directions (Q. 119-120): Each question below is followed by two statements 1and 2. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficientto answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.Give answer (1), if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, butthe Statement A alone is not sufficient

Give answer (2). if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, butthe statement A alone is not sufficient.Give answer (3). if both statements A and B together are needed to answer thequestion.Give answer (4). if either the statement A alone or the statement B alone ISsufficient to-answer the question.Give answer (5). if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and Btogether, but need even more data.

119. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?1. 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.2. 10 men can complete the same piece of work in 12 days.

120. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in abank?1. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs172.80.2. The simple interest for two years is Rs 2,880

GENERAL AWARENESS121. While dining at a restaurant, you’re asked to pay your bill in shekels. What

country are you in?1) Serbia 2) Saint Lucia 3) San Marino 4) Israel 5) None

122. The quantity for which orders are placed when stock reaches the re-order level iscalled

1) EOQ 2) EPQ 3) DOQ 4) MOQ 5) None

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123. The missile test fired by Indian Army in very low altitude is _____.1) Helina 2) Nirbhay 3) Akash 4) Prahaar 5) None

124. Banking ombudsman scheme is applicable to the business of ____ 1) Only public sector banks 2) All banking companies

3) All scheduled banks except Private banks4) All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs5) All scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs

125. Tax Administration Reform Commission is headed by ______.1) Vineeta Rai 2) Jayaprakash Narayan3) Parthasarathi Shome 4) All of these 5) None

126. The committee on review of National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was headedby____ 1) Dr. C.R. Rangarajan 2) UK Sinha 3) Dr. Y.V. Reddy4) Shyamala Gopinath 5) Dr. Usha Thorat

127. Vice Chairman of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), who resignedrecently is _____.

1) K Salim Ali 2) KN Shrivastava3) Muzaffar Ahmed 4) M Shashidhar Reddy 5) None

128. Consider the following statementsA) A person saves money from his regular incomeB) He want to save the money in an account which Permits withdrawls any timewith rational rate of interestC) He also want to isuse cheque in favour of otherD) He wants to use ATM Card also.What is the type of account ?1) Recurring account 2) Fixed Deposit3) Saving account 4) Current account 5) None

129. What is the capital of Ethiopia?1) Addis Ababa 2) Santo Domingo3) Port-au-Prince 4) New Delhi 5) None

130. Debenture holders of a company are its.....1) Shareholders 2) Creditors3) Debtors 4) Directors 5) None

131. The National Industrial Corridor (NIC) that was proposed to be established in theUnion Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city? – 1) Chenai 2) Pune 3) Ahemadabad 4) Mumbai 5) None

132. Data compiled inside or outside the organisation for some purpose other than thecurrent research investigation are termed data:

1) organisational 2) primary3) secondary 4) exploratory 5) descriptive133. First Indian Shooter to win 3 medals in successive ISSF Shooting World C is ____.

1) Naveen Jindal 2) Jitu Rai3) Abhinav Bindra 4) Moraad Ali Khan 5) None

134. Consider the following statements :A) The joint sitting of the two houses of the parliament in India is sanctionedunder Article 108 of the constitutionB) The first joint sitting of Loksabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961C) The second joint sitting of the two houses of Indian Parliament was held topass Banking Service Comission (Repeal) Bill

which of these statements are correct ?1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C 4) A,B and C 5) None

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135. Author of the book "Gujarat's Success" is ____.1) Sudha Murthy 2) Sriram Vedire3) Nirmal Verma 4) Samit Basu 5) None

136. Priority sector Lendingby banks in India Constitutes the lending to____

1) Agriculture 2) Micro small enterprises3) Weaker Sections 4) All of the above 5) None137. Arjuna Awards Selection Committee was headed by ____.

1) Rajesh Chauhan 2) Vinod Kambli3) Sunil Joshi 4) Kapil Dev 5) None

138. Whcih among the following finance companies has received RBI approvals to setup a minimum of Rs. 9,000 white lavel ATMS(WLAs) in the next 3 years in ruralIndia ?(1) SVI (2) Muthoot Finance(3) TCPSL (4) SREI Infrastructure Finance Ltd. 5) None

139. US President Obama announced to create World's biggest Marine Protected Area(MPA) in ______.

1) Atlantic Ocean 2) Antarctic Ocean3) Pacific Ocean 4) Arctic Ocean 5) None

140. Which of the following is India’s highest honour given for achievement in sports ?1) Arjuna Award 2) Other than those given as options3) Dhyan Chand Award 4) Dronacharya Award5) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna

141. Head Quaters of United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF)is located in1) Newyork 2) Brussels 3) Alaska 4) California 5) None

142. Raut Nacha is a folk dance from1) karnataka 2) Kerala 3) Bihar 4) Tamil Naidu 5) Chhattisgarh

143. The Swadhar scheme is targeted to benefit____

1) Anganwadi workers2) Farmers living below natinoality defined poverty lines3) Naxal Affected Villages4) Juvenlle Delinquents5) Women in difficult circumstances

144. Uber Cup is associated With?1) Golf 2) Basket Ball 3)Badminton 4) FootBall 5) None

145. Who has written the book ‘Harry Potter and the Goblet of the Fire’ ?1) Francis Bacon 2) J K Rowling 3) Lan Fleming4) Mario Puzo 5) Agatha Christie

146. Jnanpith Award 2013 is won by ____.

1) Kedarnath Singh 2) Kumwar Narayan3) Mahadevi Varma 4) Nirmal Verma 5) None147. As per 2011 census, which State of India has got the highest Urban Population ?

1) Karnataka 2) Maharashtra3) Tamilnadu 4) West bengal 5) None

148. Which bank organized the “The Banking and Economics Conclave 2014” during June 2014?1) Bank of Baroda (BOB) 2) Punjab National Bank (PNB)3) SBI 4) IDBI 5) None

149. “The Theory of Everythis: The Origin and Fate of the Universe” is written by ?1) Peter Higgs 2) Stephen Hawking

3) David Wineland 4) Serge harosche 5) None

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150. The attorney General of India is appointed by the ?

1) Chief Justice of India 2) Prime Minister

3) Law Minister 4) President 5) Speaker of Lok sabha151. Nivea's first manufacturing plant in India will be set up in ______.

1) Nashik, Maharashtra 2) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu3) Sanand, Gujarat 4) Mangalore, Karnataka 5) None

152. What is the expansion for the Government of India’s welfare scheme ‘NREGA’ ?1) The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

2) The National Resources Employment Grameen Act

3) The Nominal Rural Employment Guide Act4) The Natural Resources Employment Guarantee Act

5) Other than those given as options

153. World Refugee Day was observed on _____.

1) June 20 2) January 20 3) November 20 4) August 20 5) None

154. Certificates of Deposits have to be of a minimum value of 1) Rs. 1 lakh 2) Rs. 10 lakh 3) Rs. 25 lakh 4) Rs. 1 crore 5) None

155. India won many medals overall in 20th Commonwealth Games?

1) 54 2) 61 3) 64 4) 68 5) None

156. NABARD refinance for financing self-help groups is to the extent of...1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100% 5) None

157. A customer can approach banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactor

response to his grievance from the bank within how many days.

1) 10 days 2) 20 days 3) 8 days 4) 30 days 5) 60 days

158. The monetary and credit policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of....1) one year 2) one month 3) two years 4) five years 5) None

159. The RBI regulates the commercial banks for matter of (A) liquidity of assets (B) branch expansion(C) merger of banks (D) windingup of banks

select the correct answer using the codes given below(1) A and D only (2) B,C and D only

(3) A,B and C only (4) A,B,C and D 5) None

160. The first site from Myanmar to be inscribed in the list of UNESCO's World Heritagesite is _____.

1) Ancient Pyu Cities 2) Kanpetlet3) Haigyi Island 4) Dagon Myothit 5) None

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE161. Fifth generation computers may have -as main electronic component(1) Integrated circuit (2) Microprocessor(3) Transistor (4) Optical fibre (5) None

162. Super computer PACE was developed by— (1) BARC,Mumbai (2) III,Mumbai(3) II, Bangalore (4) NAL, Bangalore (5) None

163. The super computer developed by C-DAC, Pune— (1) Anupam (2) Param (3) Flosover (4) Mach (5) None

164. The computers which measures physical quantities like temperature, heath etc.(1) Digital (2) Hybrid (3) Analogue (4) all of these (5) None

165. In computers the data and instructions of users are received by-(1) Input unit (2) Output unit(3) ALU (4) CPU (5) None

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166. It is considered as brain of the computer-(1) ALU (2) UAM (3) UOM (4) CPU (5) None

167. The instructions give by the computer operator are called-(1) Data (2) Instructions (3) Command (4) Processing

(5) All of these168. A program which is performed for a definite work is called-(1) Application program (2) Utility program(3) Operating system (4) All of these (5) None

169. Error in the computer program or system is called-(1) Virus (2) bug (3) both (1) & (2) (4) corruption (5) None

170. It controls the internal operations of the computer— (1) System software (2) Application software(3) Utility software (4) All of these (5) None

171. It converts high level programs into machine language program(1) Assemble (2) Interpreter (3) Compiler (4) Utility software (5) None

172. The work done by operating system to bring the computer in full working conditionis called:(1) Activation (2) boot (3) Cache (4) Backup (5) None

173. Collection of data, saved by a special name is caved:(1) File (2) Folder (3) Database (4) Directory (5) None

174. Visual interface in which files, commands, Software’s etc. are displayed in theform of icon:(1) Internet (2) LAN (3) GUI (4) WAN (5) None

175. A software fabricated to damage data by any means is called(1) Bug (2) insect (3) Virus (4) error (5) None

176. Optical character reader is a -

(1) Input device (2) Output device(3) Software (4) Scanner (5) None

177. ALU stands for(1) Arithmetic long unit (2) Arithmetic and logical unit(3) All logical unit (4) Arithmetic or logical unit. (5) None

178. MICR stands for:(1) Magnetic Ink computer Reading(2) Magnetic Ink character Recorder(3) Magnetic Ink character recognition(4) Magnetic Ink and color Reader (5) None

179. Which of these is not an input device:

(1) scanner (2) OCR (3) OMR (4) Projector (5) None180. IBM stands for:

(1) International Business Management(2) International Business Machine(3) Indian Business Machine (4) Indian Business Model (5) None

181. Network of computers that connects the people all over the world is called:(1) Web (2) Internet (3) LAN (4) WAN (5) None

182. CD is a data storage of the type(1) Optical (2) electrical (3) Mechanical (4) Magnetic (5) None

183. CD-ROM drive is used to:(1) Install software (2) Play CD

(3) Play music (4) play games (5) None

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184. Eradication of error from the computer program or system is called:

(1) Compile (2) Interpret (3) Debug (4) DSS (5) None

185. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software

is called—

(1) Input (2) Output (3) Throughput (4) Reports (5) None186. With a CD you can—

(1) Read (2) Write (3) Neither Read nor Write

(4) Both Read and Write (5) None

187. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—

(1) Bugs (2) Mistakes (3) Item overlooked (4) Blunders (5) None

188. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?

(1) Laptops (2) Supercomputers (3) PCs

(4) Minicomputers (5) None

189. What menu is selected to change font and style ?

(1) Tools (2) File (3) Format (4) Edit (5) None190. Where is the disk put in a computer ?

(1) In the hard drive (2) In the disk drive

(3) Into the CPU (4) In the modem(5) None

191. A computer’s hard disk is—

(1) An arithmetic and logical unit (2) Computer software

(3) Operating system (4) Computer hardware (5) None

192. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—

(1) A low level language (2) A high level language

(3) Assembly language (4) Machine language (5) None

193. In programming, you use the following keys—

(1) Arrow keys (2) Function keys (3) Alpha keys

(4) Page up and Page Down keys (5) None

194. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?

(1) Function keys (2) The numeric keypad

(3) Ctrl, shift and alt (4) Arrow keys (5) None

195. Files are organized by storing them in—

(1) Tables (2) Databases (3) Folders (4) Graphs (5) None

196. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—

(1) Entry-code (2) Passport (3) Password (4) Access-code (5) None

197. Advertisements are not required in—

(1) Public Sector banks (2) Private Sector banks

(3) Government concerns (4) Profit making companies (5) None

198. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer

system is through the use of a—

(1) Plotter (2) Scanner (3) Printer (4) Keyboard (5) None

199. Computer programs are also known as—

(1) Operating systems (2) Documents

(3) Peripherals (4) Applications (5) None

200. A collection of unprocessed items is.........(1) Information (2) Data (3) Memory (4) Reports (5) None

***

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RBI ASSISTANTS - MODEL TEST: KEY

1.1 2.2 3.3 4.1 5.5 6.3 7.1 8.4 9.5 10.2 11.1 12.2 13.5 14.3 15.3

16.3 17.5 18.4 19.3 20.1 21.2 22.1 23.4 24.5 25.2 26.2 27.1 28.5 29.1 30.2

31.4 32.4 33.3 34.4 35.1 36.4 37.1 38.2 39.3 40.5 41.2 42.5 43.1 44.3 45.2

46.4 47.2 48.3 49.1 50.5 51.4 52.3 53.1 54.5 55.2 56.3 57.5 58.1 59.4 60.2

61.2 62.2 63.1 64.3 65.5 66.5 67.1 68.1 69.1 70.5 71.4 72.1 73.5 74.2 75.3

76.3 77.1 78.5 79.2 80.4 81.3 82.3 83.2 84.3 85.2 86.1 87.3 88.2 89.1 90.1

91.3 92.5 93.2 94.3 95.1 96.2 97.3 98.3 99.3 100.3 101.2 102.2 103.2 104.4 105.4

106.4 107.5 108.1 109.3 110.4 111.2 112.5 113.1 114.3 115.5 116.4 117.1 118.1 119.3 120.5

121.4 122.1 123.3 124.4 125.3 126.4 127.4 128.3 129.1 130.2 131.2 132.3 133.2 134.4 135.2

136.4 137.4 138.4 139.3 140.5 141.1 142.5 143.5 144.3 145.2 146.1 147.2 148.3 149.2 150.4

151.3 152.1 153.1 154.1 155.3 156.4 157.4 158.5 159.4 160.1 161.4 162.1 163.2 164.3 165.1

166.4 167.3 168.1 169.2 170.1 171.2 172.2 173.1 174.3 175.3 176.1 177.2 178.3 179.4 180.2

181.2 182.4 183.1 184.3 185.1 186.4 187.1 188.1 189.3 190.2 191.4 192.2 193.1 194.2 195.3

196.3 197.3 198.4 199.4 200.2

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