QUESTIONBANKMODULE13-236831813

7/28/2019 QUESTIONBANKMODULE13-236831813

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MODULE 13 QUESTION BANK

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1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed

b) decrease take off speed

# c) decrease landing speed

2. Lowering of the flaps

# a) increases drag and lift

b) increases drag

c) increases lift

3. Pushing the left rudder pedal

# a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise

b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise

c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing

4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

a) Check of aircraft structure

b) Bonding and insulation tests

# c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment

5. What do ruddervators do?

# a) Control pitch and yaw

b) Control pitch and roll

c) Control yaw and roll

6. On a helicopter what is dragging?


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a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges

# b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge

c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground

7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a) Elevators

b) Ailerons

# c) Elevons

8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

# a) an internal doubler

b) external doubler

c) an intercostals

9. What does a trim tab do?

# a) Eases control loading for pilot

b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit

c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot

10. How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

b) In the same direction a small amount

# c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to


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11. Satellite transmits updates on every

a) 13th orbit

b) 9th orbit

c) 2nd orbit

12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a) DC bus

b) AC bus

# c) GND services

13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a) modulator and power amp

# b) local oscillator and modulator

c) local oscillator and demodulator

14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to

a) 0

b) 090

# c) 180

15. What is power at pulse?

a) Peak power

b) Pulsed power

c) Average power


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16. What frequency increases radar relative range

a) Long

# b) Short

c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change

17. If radar pulse is reduced there is

a) increased relative range

b) reduced relative range

# c) no effect

18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be

a) 80 ohm

b) 160 ohm

c) 0 ohm

19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you

# a) 3 ft error

b) 6ft error

c) 12 foot error

20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a) widest width

# b) narrowest width

c) number of joints and bends


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21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?

# a) Left

b) Right

c) In-between legs

22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

# a) Increases lift

b) No effect

c) Increases thrust

23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

a) Pfifer damper

b) Swashplate

c) Scissor levers

24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

# a) Weight of blade

b) Engine and gearbox

c) Fineness ratio

25. Relative velocity of rotor

# a) increases at fwd travelling blade

b) increases at retreating blade

c) is equal for all blades


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26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?

a) Increase

# b) Decrease

c) No effect

27. How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8

# b) 4

c) 6 90o

apart

28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs

a) topping up with distilled water

b) replacing

# c) recharging

29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

# a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit

b) No effect

c) Electrical systems shut down

30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees

b) 15 degrees

c) 10 degrees


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31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected

b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure

32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a) QDH

# b) QDM

c) QDR

33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros

# b) radio altimeters

c) vertical accelerometers

34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from

a) roll errors

b) localiser deviation errors

# c) heading errors

35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure

b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate

# c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting


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36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when autopilot is engaged

# b) after glideslope capture

c) at any time

37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory tocontinue the approach to a landing is known as the

# a) decision height

b) intercept height

c) alert height

38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference

b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters

39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office

b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway

# c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway

40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which failoperational control and roll out guidance will have

a) a decision height of about 50 feet

# b) no decision height

c) a decision height depending upon the RVR


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41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

a) assist the aerodynamic response

b) produce a co-ordinated turn

# c) block the Dutch roll frequency

42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect

a) all channels

# b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland

c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach

43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal

b) integrating deviation signal

# c) integrating course error

44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are

a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD

# b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

c) V/S and ALT ARM

45. Which modes are incompatible

a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD

# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD

c) HDG + V/S HOLD


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46. To carry out an autopilot check first

a) switch off all power

# b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed

c) switch on NAV receivers

47. FAIL PASSIVE means

a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system

# b) system self monitors, failure does affect system

c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue

autoland

48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would

a) fly a circle

b) increase its drift angle

# c) fly parallel to the beam

49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in

# a) JAR AWO

b) CAIPs

c) BCARs

50. VOR capture can be determined by

a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial

# b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals

c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial


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51. Versine is generated by

a) torque receiver synchros

# b) synchros resolvers

c) control synchro transformers

52. Automatic trim is used to

# a) maintain level flight

b) prevents standing loads on the elevator

c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron

53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by

a) measured radio deviation

# b) rate of change of radio deviation

c) rate of change of course

54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement

# b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement

c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot isengaged

55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for

# a) maintaining a computed EPR

b) controlling to a maximum thrust

c) correction minor speed deviations


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62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms

b) 25 ohms

# c) 50 ohms

63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver)

a) scan at a lower rate

b) use shorter bursts

c) use longer bursts

64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator

# a) the resistor is in series with the field

b) parallel with the field

c) in series with the voltage coil

65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipmentshould be carried on an aircraft

# a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4

b) JAR OPS

c) Maintenance Manual

66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed

b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off

# c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed


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67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?

a) 180 degrees

b) 120 degrees

# c) 140 degrees

68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can bedone

# a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft

b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench

c) at the manufacturers only

69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid

battery?

# a) The temperature

b) The ambient pressure

c) The ambient humidity

70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

# a) to prevent precipitation static build up

b) to prevent the wire from corroding

c) to prevent the wire from chafing

71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

a) the use of special conductive paint

# b) bonding strips

c) special conducting or non-conducting grease


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72. An elevator tab moves down

# a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy

b) to make the nose go down

c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

# a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed

b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same

c) any single cell as all the others will be the same

74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet

a) 400ft

b) 160ft

c) 80ft

75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using

a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces

# b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by

a) the central warning computer (CWC)

b) the electronic interface units (EIU)

# c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)


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77. What type of memory do CMCs have?

a) Volatile

# b) Non-volatile

c) Hard

78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?

a) To provide a balance for CofG

# b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor

c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor

79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed?

# a) Higher than its IAS

b) Lower than its IAS

c) The same as its IAS

80. The stall margin is controlled by

# a) EPR limits

b) speed bug cursor

c) angle of attack and flap position

81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

a) only with the Flight Director selected

b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged

# c) only after take off


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82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of

a) electronic engine control unit only

# b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors

c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter

83. A FADEC system does not have the following system?

a) An automatic starting capability

b) Control of thrust reverser operation

# c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers

84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare

# b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare

c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold

85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to

continue the approach to a landing is know as the

# a) decision height

b) intercept height

c) alert height

86. The ICAO weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference

b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m

# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m

87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m

# b) 60 m

c) 0 m


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88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

# a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal

b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other

c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals

89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing

greater than

a) 1 x 10-6

# b) 1 x 10-7

c) 1 x 10-8

90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II

b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III

# c) ILS system must be working

91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is

a) mandatory

b) a matter of choice for the operator

c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed

92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

a) automatically

b) by a selector on the throttle control panel

# c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum

93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

a) 300 ft

b) the decrab phase

# c) start of flare phase

94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

# a) only when the autopilot is engaged

b) at any time after autoland has been engaged


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c) at any time

95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of

autoland

a) ILS localiser an IAS

b) IAS and glide slope

# c) IAS and steering or heading

96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will

a) increase speed

b) rotate nose up

# c) increase speed and rotate nose up

97. V NAV can be selected

a) alone

b) only if A/P and F/D selected

c) only if A/T selected

98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach

a) system degrade to CAT II

b) autoland is continued

# c) go-around is initiated

99. The order of autoland approach is

# a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE

b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE

c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD

100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

a) assist with localiser tracking

b) assist with glide slope tracking

# c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down

101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected


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b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure

102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

a) is increased as the aircraft descends

b) remains constant as the aircraft descends

# c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros

# b) radio altimeters

c) vertical accelerometers

104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

a) fail passive

# b) fail operational

c) fail redundant

105. on touchdown, auto pilot

# a) remains engaged ready for G/A

b) drives the throttles forward

c) disconnects after a short time

106. When will the decision height aural warning sound

a) at D.H.

# b) before D.H.

c) after D.H.

107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system

# b)the runway localiser

c) the airfield marker beacon


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108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from

# a) radio altimeter

b) the glide slope receiver

c) the localiser receiver

109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive

# b) fail operational

c) fail redundant

110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will

a) produce a significant out of trim condition

# b) produce no significant out of trim condition

c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a

a) simplex system

# b) duplex system

c) dual-dual system

112. The two parameters used for category classification are

a) radio height/runway visual range

b) localiser and glideslope

# c) decision height and runway visual range

113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

a) Decision height

# b) Radio altimeter

c) Glideslope signal

114. CAT-3b allows

a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR

# b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters

c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters


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115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim

# b) continue to control after any first fault

c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

# a) Nose down bias

b) Nose up bias

c) No signal

117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?

a) Ailerons

b) Throttles

# c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents

a) distance to go

# b) ground speed and distance to go

c) take off speed and distance to go

119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the

pitch movement?

a) Lateral

# b) Longitudinal

c) Normal

120. Versine is used in which channel?

# a) Pitch

b) Roll

c) Yaw


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121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command

means your speed has

a) increased

# b) decreased

c) is the same

122. A Master Warning is issued when

# a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs

b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

# a) 50 milliohms

b) 1 ohms

c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors

# b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead

c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by

# a) low spring tension

b) bedding of brushes

c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?

# a) Visual inspections

b) Insulation testing

c) CMC fault indications


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127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?

a) Short the terminals together

b) Put a set resistance across the terminals

# c) Leave the terminals open circuit

128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted

to 010 what happens to the pointer?

a) Move left

b) Move right

c) Moves left then hard right

129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a

a) Triplex system

b) Duplex system

# c) Simplex system

130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential

differences would be

# a) painted in a conductive paint

b) painted in a non-conductive paint

c) bonded to the primary structure

131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

# a) 50 ohms

b) 20 ohms

c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

132. TAS uses which inputs

a) Pitot and Static

b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature

# c) Mach and Temp


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133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

a) On the wing

b) Under the Fuselage

# c) Either side of the Fuselage

134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of

attack?

# a) Tend to increase

b) Tend to decrease

c) Stay the same

135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position

b) controls the aircraft in trim

c) remains in the previous position

136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

a) poor channel selectivity

b) poor audio output

c) poor volume output

137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a

warning?

a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

# b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft

c) A low range altimeter and GPS

138. Alert Height is when

a) a decision of whether to land is made

# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made

c) an alert of the ground proximity is made


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139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?

a) Placards in the cockpit

# b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding

c) Crew retraining

140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found

a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water

b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found

c) a leak test is never required

141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

# a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively

b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively

c) 1090 MHz

142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned

with an error of plus or minus

a) 1 degree

# b) 3 degree

c) 5 degree

143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

a) 000

# b) 045

c) 090

144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced

a) DC generators

# b) AC generators

c) AC & DC generators


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145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

# a) spoiler

b) leading edge flaps

c) trailing edge flaps

146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of

a) 10 degree

b) 110 degree

# c) 50 degree

147. Stall warning will be given at speeds

# a) that are higher than stall speed

b) that are lower than stall speed

c) at the actual stall speed

148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe toapproach the aircraft?

a) Turning on and off the NAV lights

# b) Turning off the anti-collision lights

c) Flashing the landing light

149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at

# a) 1500 ft

b) 2500 ft

c) 3500 ft

150. FADEC system gets its power supply from

a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator

# b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator

c) emergency Batt bus


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151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

# a) excessive charging current

b) insufficient charging current

c) excessive charging voltage

152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to

a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists

b) disconnect the system if a fault appears

# c) both a & b

153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a

a) green colour

# b) amber

c) red colour

154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is

a) 131.55

# b) 121.5

c) 118.00

155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out

a) on the ground only

b) continuously when the systems are working

c) only in the air

156. The electrical A/H has a movement of

a) 85 degree in pitch and roll

b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch

# c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to

# a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power

b) remove/disconnect electrical power

c) pull the appropriate CB


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158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in

a) CAAIPs

b) Maintenance Manual

# c) JAR OPS

159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance thatVHF Com cover?

a) 100 nm

# b) 120 nm

c) 140 nm

160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the

a) 180 degree radial

# b) 090 degree radial

c) 275 degree radial

161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

# a) an accelerometer

b) a gyroscope

c) a tachogenerator

162. The units of vibration are measured in

a) phons

b) decibels

# c) relative amplitude

163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for

a) maximum flow rate

b) minimum flow rate

c) cannot be adjusted


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171. During flare mode autothrottle will

# a) retard throttles to idle

b) disconnect autothrottle

c) select reverse thrust

172. A CSD is monitored for

a) low temp and high oil pressure

# b) high temp and low oil pressure

c)

173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades

pitch angle?

# a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) No change

174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring

b) its control is maintained by electric trim

c)

175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?

a) 115v ac

b) 200v ac

# c) High voltage stepped up

176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is

# a) zero

b) full scale deflection

c) centre scale


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177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would

a) increase capacitive reactance

# b) increase capacitance

c) decrease capacitance

178. Float fuel gauge system is

a) adjusted when tanks are full

b) adjusted when tanks are empty

c) cannot be adjusted

179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

# a) bulkheads

b) longerons

c) frame

180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by

# a) excessive electrical loading

b) high charge current

c) low charge current

181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.

a) This is normal

b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted

c) You would adjust the Tx

182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out

a) damping and periodicity checks

# b) damping and pivot friction check

c) damping and alignment checks


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183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows

substantially lower value.

a) Cell is defective

b) You top up the cell with distilled water

c) You replace the cell

184. Suppressor line is required for

a) ATC and DME only

b) TCAs only

# c) all L band equipments including TCAS

185. Differential GPS requires

a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters

b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters

c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters

186. GPS has

a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits

b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits

c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits

187. When the captain calls attendant

a) a high low chine and pink light comes on

b) a low chine and blue light comes on

c) a high chine and pink light comes on

188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received

a) a designated light comes on

b) a selcall light along with chine comes on

c) a chime sounds in the cockpit


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189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail

a) the authority of elevators not effected

# b) the up movement authority is effected

c) the down movement authority is effected

190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost

a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift

# b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway

c) aircraft moves in a circle

191. IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.

# b) voltage is regulated by GCU

c) voltage is regulated by IDG

192. The over-station sensor is activated by

a) radio deviation signal

# b) rate of radio deviation signal

c) deviation and course error

193. When moving the control column

# a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal

b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal

c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

---------194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown

a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force

b) there is an increases tail plane up-force

# c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

195. Equivalent airspeed is

a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE

b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility

# c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility


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196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

# a) after reverse thrust is applied

b) after affixed period of the time after landing

c) manually after landing

197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?

# a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll

b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll

c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

198. Acceleration error produces

a) a false indication of left bank

# b) a false indication of right bank

c) a false indication of climb

199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through

a) the centre of rotor disc

b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis

c) a line parallel to rotor axis

200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100

a) Door

# b) Left wing

c) Right wing

201. Shock stall

a) is a flap down stall

# b) occurs at high speeds

c) occurs at low speeds

202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

a) flapping

b) dragging

# c) centrifugal force


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203. During a turn

a) left rudder to be used

b) right rudder to be used

# c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

204. Align light flashes during alignment

# a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off

b) It is attracting operators attention

c) It is indicating progress of alignment

205. During decent with power on in a helicopter

a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter

# b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter

c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter

206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wiresystem

# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability

b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll

c) Synchros are used

207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures

a) specific gravity of fuel

# b) K value of fuel

c) fuel quantity

208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force

a) Heading and Deviation

# b) Course error and Deviation

c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation

209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by

# a) BPCU

b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)


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c) SPCU

210. As you approach supersonic

# a) total drag is increased

b) lift is reduced

c) thrust is reduced

211. Range resolution is obtained by

a) High PRF

# b) Shorter pulse width

c) Shorter beam width

212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by

# a) Larger pulse width

b) Larger beam width

c) Larger frequency

213. When the trailing edge flap is

a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up

b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change

# c) CP move rearward

214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails

a) Auto throttle disengages

# b) Throttle hold is annunciated

c) Fail light illuminates

215. Flight director command bars indicate

# a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred

b) Direction in which aircraft is flying

c) Direction in which the beacon is

216. Mode S has

a) 12 address bits

# b) 24 address bits


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c) 36 address bits

217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are

a) In phase

b) Opposite phase

# c) Phase quadrature

218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is

a) 80 ft

b) 300 ft

c) 500 ft

219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3

inch the total correction factor is

a) 3 inch

b) 6 inch

# c) 9 inch

220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

a) tester reads zero

# b) tester reads full scale

c) tester would be zero centred

221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by

a) a thick metallic bonding strip

# b) a corrugated bonding jumper

c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends

222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which

may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system

a) 0.5 ohm

b) 1 ohm

# c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less

223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists

# a) longitudinal stability


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b) lateral stability

c) vertical stability

224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers andonly one computer is to be installed

# a) it must be installed on LH side

b) it must be installed on RH side

c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side

225. Main electric trim is controlled by

a) a switch on control wheel

b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel

c)

226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be

a) higher mach number

# b) lower mach number

c) not effected

227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective

a) one CDU blanks

b) both CDU blanks

# c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place

228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would

a) indicate climb

# b) indicate decent

c) not be affected

229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most

likely to be effected by over pressure?

a) ASI

b) VSI

c) Altimeter

230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass


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a) is to rotate clockwise

b) is to rotate anticlockwise

c) It may be rotated either direction

231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by

a) Having filters in power supply lines

b) Separating the affected and affecting cables

c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit

232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is

a) 1 degree

b) 5 degree

c) 10 degree

233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes

the decision?

a) The one with the higher address

b) The one with the smaller address

c) Neither changes the decision

234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?

# a) 10%

b) 50%

c) 100%

235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is

prevented by

a) synchros attached to the control

# b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control

c) a lock on the cockpit control

236. Helicopter blades are

a) highly cambered

b) reverse cambered

# c) Symmetrical


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237. GPS antenna is

a) vertically polarized

b) horizontally polarized

c) lincomp polarization

238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is

a) to the left

b) to the right

# c) in the centre

239. An autopilot computer

# a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR

b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS

c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS

--------240. What type of flap is this?

# a) Split flap

b) Fowler flap

c) Plain flap

241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to

a) transmit motion

# b) reverse direction and transmit motion

c) adjust friction

242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer

coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is

a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer

b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure

c) to minimise power losses

243. DH is based on

a) aircraft characteristics

b) experience of the crew


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c) RVR transmitted by ATC

244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by

a) mercury switches on the inner ring

b) mercury switches on the outer ring

c) flux valve slaving

245. Index error is

a) coefficient B

b) Coefficient P

# c) misalignment of compass lubber line

246. Helicopter derives its lift from

# a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it

b) rotor acts as a airscrew

c) air is pushed downward

247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

a) rigid rotor

# b) semi rigid rotor

c) fully articulated rotor

248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers

b) to amplify the RF signal

c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position

b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal

# c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal

250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives

a) excessive ground clutter

b) no signal


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c) excess signals

251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means

a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded

# b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot

c) maximum rudder deflection

252. Servo tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral

# b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface

c) provide artificial feel

253. Spring Tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral

# b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface

c) provide artificial feel

254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

a) 20 degrees per second

b) 30 degrees per second

c) 15 degrees per second

255. Omega ground stations

# a) transmit pulses of CW

b) carrier modulated by three audio tones

c) series of CW

256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set

a) 1013.25 mb

b) sea level pressure

c) prevailing pressure

257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact

a) before the primary stops

# b) after the primary stops


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c) at the same time as the primary stops

258. EICAS indicates

# a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions

b) engine performance only

c) engine performance and aircraft status

259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right

# a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another

c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

260. Magnetic heading errors will be

# a) positive if easterly

b) negative if easterly

c) negative if northerly

261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading

# b) It move as the aircraft moves

c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

# a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

c) If P2 is before P1

263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC

a) records all faults in volatile memory

# b) records all faults in non-volatile memory

c)

264. A helicopter autopilot uses

# a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold

b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold


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c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?

a) Radio deviation

b) Glideslope deviation

# c) Course deviation

266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a) Flare, attitude, rollout

# b) Attitude, flare, rollout

c) Rollout, attitude, flare

267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected?

a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft

b) When reached a desired altitude

c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?

a) No other pitch modes are available

b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

c) All are continuously available

269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch

input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?

a) In front of the lateral axis

# b) Right of the longitudinal axis

c) Left of the longitudinal axis

270. A spring balance control system you

# a) can move the control surface on the ground

b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab

c) cannot move the control surface on the ground

271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?

a) To prevent corrosion


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# b) To prevent precipitation static

c) To provide lightning protection

272. What is a versine signal attenuated with?

a) Increase in airspeed

b) Increase in altitude

c) Decrease in altitude

273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control

switch? Select it to

a) OFF

b) AM

c) either USB or LSB

274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2

pulse length?

a) 21 micro seconds

b) 8 micro seconds

c) 17 micro seconds

275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the

TO/FROM indicator indicate?

a) TO

b) FROM

# c) Neither

276. What does the Radar contour button do?

# a) Alter the beam shape

b) Alter the transmitter power

c) Alter the video amplifier

277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target?

a) 12 miles

b) 25 miles

c) 40 miles


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278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?

a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed

b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground

# c) Tip vortex build-up during hover

279. What controls are used in response to PVD display?

# a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals

b) Control wheel

c) PVD control unit

280. DME transponder transmits on receipt

a) of any interrogation

b) of pilot input command request

# c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P

# a) does not move

b) moves freely along the length of the blade

c) is insignificant

282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is

a) 16ft

b) 12ft

# c) 28ft

283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits

b) 64bits

# c) 24bits

284. The rotor cone is formed by

a) blade alignment

# b) centrifugal force and lift

c) centrifugal force only


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285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path

a) balance

b) restore

# c) align

286. Artificial feel is gained by using a

a) hydraulic damper

# b) spring bias unit

c) 'feel' generator

287. The ground run monitor presents information

# a) of distance to go and ground speed

b) duration of ground run

c) angle of crosstrack on ground

288. A mode C transponder

a) can be used for TCAS

# b) cannot be used for TCAS

c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only

289. The audio select panel allows the crew to

# a) transmit on one channel, listen on one

b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others

c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others

290. The crew select DH on

a) the altimeter

b) the DH annunciator panel

# c) the rad alt display

291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider

a) power requirements

# b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal

c) the diameter of cables


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292. GPS has

# a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4

b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6

c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

293. Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows voice ident of DME

# b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal

c) disables DME voice ident

294. GPS frequency is

a) 1575 GHz

# b) 1575 MHz

c) 1525 MHz

295. Radio switches are normally

# a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C

b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C

c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C

296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft

# a) systems is disabled

b) no traffic will be shown

c) all traffic produces aural alert

297. Mode S pulses. Which are used?

a) F1,F2,F4,F5

# b) s1,p1,p3,p4

c) s1,s2,p1,p2

298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

a) it amplifies output stages

# b) it improves signal to noise ratio

c) it couples noise factors


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299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from

a) 115 volts from ac bus

b) 200 volts from ac bus

# c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units

300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving

a) one moving in direction of relative air flow

b) highest blade

# c) one moving forward into relative airflow

301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar

signifies

a) speed increase

# b) speed decrease

c) height decrease

302. Back beam is captured

# a) by manually selecting the back beam mode

b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode

c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode

303. With an insulation tester

a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item

b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item

# c) it does not matter which lead goes where

304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

a) higher

b) lower

# c) higher or lower

305. Flight director incompatible modes are

a) VOR and glideslope

b) heading and altitude hold


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c) VOR and altitude hold

306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm

# b) 120 nm

c) 130 nm

307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

a) c/a code only

b) c/a code and P code

c) P code only

308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary

control method is

a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings

# b) design of engine and gearbox supports

c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft

309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

a) rad alt to barometric

b) rad alt decrease

c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold

310. on power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position

b) longitude from previous position

c) latitude and longitude from previous position

311. Krueger flaps make up part of the

a) wing upper surface leading edge

b) wing lower surface trailing edge

# c) wing lower surface leading edge

312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

# a) control column


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b) flight control panel

c) behind thrust levers

313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as

a) apparent A

b) real A

c) true A

314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in

a) BCARs

# b) JAR OPS subpart M

c) maintenance manual

315. Carbon microphones require

# a) DC supply

b) AC supply

c) no supply

316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with

a) FM

b) phase drift keying

c) Manchester code

317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable

a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined

b) flights must not continue after four days

# c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

a) +/- 35 degrees

# b) +/-40 degrees

c) +/-60 degrees

319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030

degrees. The RMI pointer indicates


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a) 30 degrees

b) 90 degrees

c) 60 degrees

320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by

a) non conductive paint

b) conductive paint

# c) earth primary conductors

321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information

b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function

c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is

a) the y code

b) the p code

# c) the c/a code

323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for goodpulse shape are

a) wide and narrow

b) narrow and wide

c) wide and wide

324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost

a) the aircraft flies in a circle

# b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading

c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle

325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires

a) pitot only

b) static only

# c) pitot and static


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326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to

# a) the right

b) the left

c) the left with some aileron assistance

327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance

b) attitude of aircraft

# c) rate of yaw

328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed

a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons

b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons

# c) to assist the up going aileron

329. Glideslope deviation signals are

# a) DC polarity sensitive

b) AC phase sensitive

c) DC positive going only

330. A triplex system loses one channel

# a) pilot can continue with autoland

b) pilot can use auto approach

c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has

a) full authority

b) 50% authority# c) 10% authority

332. Stall warning will be given

# a) before stall

b) after stall


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c) at stall

333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function

(CMF) is to

# a) log relevant maintenance data

b) transmits to the CMC

c) provides details of defect action

334. How are spoilers normally operated?

# a) Hydraulic actuator

b) Air pistons

c) Electrical motors

335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the

# a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the

opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces

b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change

c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered

336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time

b) one generator always comes on line before the other

# c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled

337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery

a) in the aircraft

b) when the battery is fully charged

# c) in the charging room only

338. When removing the load from a current transformer

# a) short the terminals

b) place a resistor across each terminal

c) leave the terminals open

339. Wing steady light must be visible through

a) 70 degrees


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# b) 110 degrees

c) 180 degrees

340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins

a) a and b

b) c and d

# c) e and f

341. When paralleling two AC generators

# a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC

b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA

c) they do not need to be in phase

342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that

# a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser

b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw

b) prevents slip and skid in yaw

# c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn

344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signals

b) integrating deviation signals

# c) integrating course error signals

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause

a) the pointer to read zero

b) the pointer to read mid scale

# c) the pointer to read full scale

346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to

# a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer


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b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent

c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g

347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will

a) increase with a higher rotor speed

# b) decrease with a higher rotor speed

c) decrease with a lower rotor speed

348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's

a) lateral axis

# b) longitudinal axis

c) vertical axis

349. The glideslope equipment operates in the

a) HF band

# b) UHF band

c) VHF band

350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause

a) aircraft to underbank

b) aircraft to overbank

# c) aircraft to remain in level flight

351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are

# a) DC

b) AC

c) pulsed DC

352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade

b) capacitance bridge

c) inductance decade

353. EICAS provides the following

a) engine parameters


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# b) engine parameters and system warnings

c) engine warnings and engine parameters

354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when

# a) the flaps are moving down

b) the flap are moving up

c) the flap are moving up or down

355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system

a) operational

b) passive

# c) simplex

356. DSR TK (desired track) means

# a) the bearing to capture the track

b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points

c) distance left or right from desired track

357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from

# a) the barometric alt capsule

b) a rad alt output

c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height

358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is

a) FM Modulated

# b) AM Modulated

c) modulated with a 9960Hz

359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will

# a) retard the throttle

b) reverse thrust

c) control throttle for a IAS

360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the

a) amplitude


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b) frequency

# c) rate of frequency change

361. The normal axis on a helicopter is

# a) straight down the rotor head

b) at 90o

to the C of G

c) at 90o

to the rotor head

362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used

# a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX

b) make the audio signal clearer

c) an Americanisum for volume

363. A GPS aerial is polarised

a) vertically

b) horizontally

# c) right hand circular

364. Mach trim threshold are set by the

a) pilot

b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual

# c) manufacture

365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to

a) correct the VSWR

b) stop arcing between the wave guide

# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide

366. An RMI requires the following inputs:

# a) Heading and radio deviation

b) Course and radio deviation

c) Radio deviation only

367. The versine signal is used in the

# a) pitch channel only


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b) roll channel only

c) pitch and roll channel

368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called

# a) transient droop

b) static droop

c) under swing

369. Loran C Uses

a) 16 KHz

b) 20 Mhz

# c) 100 Khz

370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is

# a) 50% of control movement

b) 10% of control movement

c) full control movement

371. GPS Telemetry consists of

a) week number and time label

b) satellite position information

c) 8 bits of preamble and position information

372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at

# a) 90o

b) 180o

c) 0o

373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by

a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual

# b) JAR (OPS) M

c) BCAR A4-8

374. The rotor disc is

# a) the distance between tip to tip


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b) the rotor head hub

c) the ground cushion

375. A DME is in auto stand by when

a) the ATC transponder is transmitting

# b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second

c) the TCAS is transmitting

376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display?

a) 90o

b) 0o

# c) 180o

377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would

a) continue on flying on the localizer

# b) fly parallel to the localizer

c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading

378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are

# a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft

b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.

c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

a) not less than 100 ft.

# b) not less than 200 ft.

c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

380. When GA is initiated?

a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level

b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles

# c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust

381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are

# a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.


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b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.

c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation

382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by

a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering

b) visual indication and nosewheel steering

c) visual indication and rudder control

283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected

a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.

# b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.

c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will

a) disconnect all channels

# b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach

c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach

285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will

# a) retard throttle to idle.

b) disconnect autothrottle

c) select reverse thrust.

386. Roll out mode occurs

# a) after flare

b) before flare

c) at alert height

287. High and low signal to voter are

a) average

b) removed

c) added

388. Basic monitoring is function of

a) voting


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# b) signal comparison

c) signal summing

389. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system

# b) the pilot can input to the system

c) yaw damping is only possible signal input

390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that

a) the indicator is not serviceable

b) the control system is out of trim

c) the system is trimmed

391. in parallel rudder system,

a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals

# b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement

c) The rudder pedals are disconnected

292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is

a) AC

b) DC

# c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

393. An increase in mach number will cause the

# a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane

b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane

c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane

394. If one FMS fails in a duel system

a) system operation will not be affected

b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank

# c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS

# a) use database loader


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b) insert new EPROM

c) insert new data on CDU

396. To know the valid database on FMS

a) perform bite check

# b) call up relevant page on CDU

c) call up relevant current status

397. Magnetic heading errors will be

# a) positive if easterly

b) negative if easterly

c) negative if northerly

398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading

# b) Move as the aircraft moves

c) Stay fixed on magnetic north

399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

c) If P2 is before P1

400. A helicopter autopilot uses

# a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold

b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold

c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?

a) Height Deviation

b) Radio deviation

# c) Course deviation

402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a) Flare, attitude, rollout


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# b) Attitude, flare, rollout

c) Rollout, attitude, flare

403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected?

a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft

# b) When reached a desired altitude

c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?

a) No other pitch modes are available

b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

c) All are continuously available

405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch

input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?

a) In front of the lateral axis

# b) Right of the longitudinal axis

c) Left of the longitudinal axis

406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are

# a) lift, drag thrust, weight

b) lift, drag, thrust

c) weight, drag, lift

407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

# a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor

b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter

c) Provide directional control408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2pulse length?

# a) 21 micro seconds

b) 8 micro seconds


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c) 17 micro seconds

409. What does the Radar contour button do?

# a) Alter the beam shape

b) Alter the transmitter power

c) Alter the video amplifier

410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target?

a) 12 miles

# b) 25 miles

c) 40 miles

411. With a spring balance control system you can

a) move the control surface on the ground

b) move the control surface only by moving the tab

c) not move the control surface on the ground

412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

# a) 50 ohms

b) 20 ohms

c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively

413. Alert Height is when

a) a decision of whether to land is made

# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made

c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position

b) controls the aircraft in trim

c) remains in the previous position

415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the

pitch movement?

a) Lateral


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b) Longitudinal

c) Normal

416. Versine is used in which channel?

# a) Pitch

b) Roll

c) Yaw

417. A Master Warning is issued when

# a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs

b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?

# a) Visual inspections

b) Insulation testing

c) CMC fault indications

419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted

to 010 what happens to the pointer?

a) Move left

b) Move right

c) Moves left then hard right

420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft,

what is the ADF pointer indicating?

a) 030

b) 060

c) 090

421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?

a) 12,000ft

b) 5,000ft

# c) 18,000ft


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422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed

be?

# a) Left Rudder

b) Right Rudder

c) No Rudder

423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?

a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface

b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface

# c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface

424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

# a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe

b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe

c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber

425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

# a) Stick Shaker

b) Stick Nudger

c) EICAS warning

426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to

a) nose up

b) go one wing down

c) nose down

427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?

# a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift

b) It will fly in circles

c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation

a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount

# b) it will fly in circles


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c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess

deviation?

a) Red

b) Amber

c) White

430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?

# a) FM

b) Pulse

c) FM and Pulse

431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?

a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal

b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete

c) They Disappear out of view

432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?

# a) Normal

b) Longitudinal

c) Lateral

433. The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabiliser

# b) elevator

c) spoilers

434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes

# a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up

b) all the elevators on each wing to move up

c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

435. What are ground spoilers used for?

# a) To dump lift


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b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop

c) To slow the aircraft

436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command?

# a) Control Wheel

b) Control Column

c) Rudder Pedals

437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

# a) 3000 psi

b) 1000 psi

c) 300 psi

438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must

# a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger

b) defer the defect until correct spares are available

c) splice the broken lead

439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary

structure?

a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable

b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable

c) No smaller than 18AWG

440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a) 0.5

# b) 1 ohm

c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000

441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

# a) Drag Strut

b) Drag Wire

c) Shock Absorber

442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?


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# a) Increasing in lift

b) Going to the highest point

c) Increasing in drag

443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have?

# a) 10% approximately

b) 100%

c) 50%

444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?

a) Polarity sensitive AC

# b) Polarity sensitive DC

c) Either

445. What does an INS calculate on power up?

a) Last Known Longitude

# b) Last Known Latitude

c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will anautopilot input have?

a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input

# b) The cyclic lever will not move

c) The flight director bars only will move

447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages?

# a) Through the ground test function

b) Through the Existing faults function

c) Through the Present Leg faults function

448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?

# a) The voltage activity in the servo amp

b) Trim tab position

c) Control surface position


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449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?

a) 62

# b) 42

c) 20

450. When using a bonding tester you

# a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points

b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points

c) use either leads for the testing

451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?

# a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades

b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades

c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades

452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?

a) Disturbances

b) Velocity

# c) Pressure changes

453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is

moved?

a) It remains in the neutral position

b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface

c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface

454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces?

# a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off

b) Pull & tag circuit breakers

c) Wear ear protection

455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by

# a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer

b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator


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c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer

456. What is the glide slope frequency range?

a) 108 - 112 Mhz

b) 108 - 112 Ghz

# c) 329 - 335 Mhz

457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?

a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte

# b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte

c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage

458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in

a) increase in lift without an increase in power

b) decrease in lift

c) decrease in speed

459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?

a) Bell sound

# b) Clacking sound

c) Horn sound

460. What is a slot used for?

# a) To reinforce the boundary layer

b) Increased angle of attack during approach

c) Increase the speed of the airflow

461. ADF is

a) Rho

b) Theta

c) Rho-Theta

462. A Boost Gauge reads

a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure

# b) absolute pressure


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c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure

463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

# a) relative air flow

b) tip path plane

c) horizontal axis

464. If cyclic is moved to the right

a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another

b) the rotor blades on the right flap down

c) the rotor blades on the left flap down

465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system

a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz

b) 2 - 6 GHz

# c) 100 KHz

466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going

down?

a) Decrease stall speed

b) Increase stall speed

c) Have no effect on the stall speed

467. A high lift device is used for

# a) take off and landing

b) take off only

c) landing only

468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the

structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?

a) Frame

b) Bulkhead

c) Stringer

469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

# a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission


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b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area

c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area

470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

a) 100

b) 50

c) 20

471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?

a) Material of the coil

b) Material of the sensing element

c) Material of the indicator needle

472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would

a) roll back to the horizontal

b) continue to roll further

c) remain at the position that it had rolled to

473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

a) Spoiler to aileron

b) Spoiler to flap

c) Spoiler to elevator

474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

a) To enable vowels to be heard better

b) To enable consonants to be heard better

c) To enable numbers to be heard better

475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

# a) underswing

b) overswing

c) a hole in one

476. If a QF

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