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NEET Phase 2 (2016)Question Paper - Code CC

NEET Phase 2 - 2016 Question Paper - Code CC

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Q.1 Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

(A) Sexual reproduction (B) Nucellar polyembryony

(C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Parthenogenesis

Q.2 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-IIa. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesisb. Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillatec. Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes (iii) Syncarpousd. Unisexual female flower (iv) Dikaryotic

Codes:

a b c d(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q.3 In majority of angiosperms

(A) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

(B) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac

(C) Egg has a filiform apparatus

(D) There are numerous antipodal cells

Q.4 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of

(A) Birds (B) Bats (C) Water (D) Insects or wind

Q.5 The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

(C) Megaspore mother cell (D) Megaspore

(A) Megasporangium (B) Megasporophyll


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Q.6 Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

(A) Drosophila melanogaster (B) E.Coli

(C) Vinca rosea (D) Vicia faba

Q.7 The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

(A) Translocation (B) Crossing-over (C) Inversion (D) Duplication

Q.8 The equivalent of a structural gene is

(A) Operon (B) Recon (C) Muton (D) Cistron

Q.9 A true breeding plant is

(A) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind

(B) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

(C) One that is able to breed on its own

(D) Produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants

Q.10 Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

(A) 23 S rRNA (B) 5.8 S rRNA (C) 5 S rRNA (D) 18 S rRNA

Q.11 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

(A) Availability of oxygen throughout the process

(B) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

(C) Purification of product

(D) Addition of preservatives to the product

Q.12 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

(A) Polymerase III (B) Ligase (C) Eco RI (D) Taq polymerase

Q.13 Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

(A) Preservation (B) Expression (C) Separation (D) Purification

Q.14 Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

(A) Xho I (B) Hind III (C) Sal I (D) Eco RV


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Q.15 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

(A) Immunotherapy (B) Radiation therapy

(C) Gene therapy (D) Chemotherapy

Q.16 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

(A) 34 (B) 43 (C) 17 (D) 25

Q.17 The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

(A) Blue-green algae (B) Coral reefs

(C) Green algae (D) Chemosynthetic bacteria

Q.18 Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?

(A) Small number of progeny with small size

(B) Small number of progeny with large size

(C) Large number of progeny with small size

(D) Large number of progeny with large size

Q.19 If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-’refers to

(A) Commensalism (B) Parasitism (C) Mutualism (D) Amensalism

Q.20 Which of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity

(B) Stratification – Population

(C) Aerenchyma - Opuntia

(D) Age pyramid – Biome

Q.21 Red List contains data or information on

(A) Threatened species

(B) Marine vertebrates only

(C) All economically important plants

(D) Plants whose products are in international trade


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Q.22 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

(A) They are heterotrophic

(B) They are both unicellular and multicellular

(C) They are eukaryotic

(D) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall

Q.23 Methanogens belong to

(A) Dinoflagellates (B) Slime moulds (C) Eubacteria (D) Archaebacteria

Q.24 Select the wrong statement

(A) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans

(B) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

(C) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

(D) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of diatoms

Q.25 The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

(A) Local names (B) Height of the plant

(C) Date of collection (D) Name of collector

Q.26 Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

(A) Thick cuticle (B) Presence of vessels

(C) Broad hardy leaves (D) Superficial stomata

Q.27 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.

(B) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food

(C) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

(D) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.

Q.28 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

(A) Corolla (B) Calyx (C) Gynoecium (D) Androecium

Q.29 How many plants among lndigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

(A) Five (B) Six (C) Three (D) Four


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Q.30 Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

(A) Pisum (B) Cassia (C) Brassica (D) Trifolium

Q.31 Free-central placentation is found in

(A) Brassica (B) Citrus (C) Dianthus (D) Argemone

Q.32 Cortex is the region found between

(A) Endodermis and pith (B) Endodermis and vascular bundle

(C) Epidermis and stele (D) Pericycle and endodermis

Q.33 The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

(A) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

(B) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels

(C) Originate in the lumen of vessels

(D) Characterize the sapwood

Q.34 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

(A) Ligase (B) Deoxyribonuclease (C) Lysozyme (D) Ribozyme

Q.35 Select the mismatch

(A) Protists-Eukaryotes (B) Methanogens-Prokaryotes

(C) Gas vacuoles-Green bacteria (D) Large central vacuoles-Animal cells

Q.36 Select the wrong statement.

(A) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

(B) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism

(C) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.

(D) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.

Q.37 A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

(A) Ribosome (B) Mesosome (C) Lysosome (D) Microsome

Q.38 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

(A) G2 phase (B) M phase (C) S phase (D) G

1 phase


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Q.39 Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

(A) Pyruvic acid (B) Acetyl CoA

(C) Glucose-6-phosphate (D) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

Q.40 A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

(A) Low refractive index (B) Absence of sugar

(C) Acidic (D) Alkaline

Q.41 You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

(A) Auxin and abscisic acid (B) Gibberellin and abscisic acid

(C) IAA and gibberellin (D) Auxin and cytokinin

Q.42 Phytochrome is a

(A) Lipoprotein (B) Chromoprotein (C) Flavoprotein (D) Glycoprotein

Q.43 Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

(A) Ca (B) Mn (C) Zn (D) Fe

Q.44 The process which makes major difference between C3 and C

4 plants is

(A) Photorespiration (B) Respiration (C) Glycolysis (D) Calvin cycle

Q.45 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.

(B) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes

(C) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone.

(D) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores.

Q.46 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

(A) Bowman’s capsule (B) Descending limb of Henle’s loop

(C) Distal convoluted tubule (D) Proximal convoluted tubule


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Q.47 Which of the following is hormone - releasing IUD?

(A) Lippes loop (B) Cu7 (C) LNG-20 (D) Multiload 375

Q.48 Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

(A) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied (B) Irreversible sterility

(C) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (D) No sperm occurs in epididymis

Q.49 Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

(A) Fimbriae (B) Cervix (C) Uterus (D) Fallopian tube

Q.50 Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

(A) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis

(B) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis

(C) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

(D) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens

Q.51 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I Column-IIa. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formationb. Antrum (ii) Spermc. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitaliad. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

Codes:

a b c d(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Q.52 Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen progesterone are produced by

(A) Fallopian tube (B) Pituitary (C) Ovary (D) Placenta

Q.53 If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

(A) 0.75 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 0.5


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Q.54 Genetic drift operates in

(A) Non-reproductive population (B) Slow reproductive population

(C) Small isolated population (D) Large isolated population

Q.55 In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by

(A) pq (B) q2 (C) p2 (D) 2pq

Q.56 The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

(A) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

(B) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

(C) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

(D) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

Q.57 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I. Formation of protobionts II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(A) II, III, I, IV (B) II, III, IV, I (C) I, II, III, IV (D) I, III, II, IV

Q.58 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

(A) It should be unstable structurally and chemically

(B) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

(C) It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

(D) It should be able to generate its replica

Q.59 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

(A) Alpha strand (B) Antistrand (C) Template strand (D) Coding strand

Q.60 Interspecific hybridization is the mating of

(A) Superior males and females of different breeds

(B) More closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations

(C) Animals within same breed without having common ancestors

(D) Two different related species


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Q.61 Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

(A) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.

(B) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

(C) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.

(D) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.

Q.62 Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

(A) Mrigala (B) Mackerel (C) Mystus (D) Mangur

Q.63 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-IIa. Citric acid (i) Trichodermab. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridiumc. Statins (iii) Aspergillusd. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

Codes:

a b c d(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Q.64 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

(A) Petroleum industry (B) Sugar industry

(C) Domestic sewage (D) Dairy industry

Q.65 The principle of competetive exclusion was stated by

(A) MacArthur (B) Verhulst and Pearl (C) C. Darwin (D) G. F. Gause

Q.66 Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?

(A) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

(D) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh


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Q.67 A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

(A) Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients

(B) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen

(C) Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

(D) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom

Q.68 The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

(A) Crab (B) Eel (C) Phytoplankton (D) Seagull

Q.69 Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

(A) Tetanus and mumps (B) Herpes and influenza

(C) Cholera and tetanus (D) Typhoid and smallpox

Q.70 Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-IIa. Family (i) Dipterab. Order (ii) Arthropodac. Class (iii) Muscidaed. Phylum (iv) Insecta

Codes:

a b c d(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Q.71 Choose the correct statement.

(A) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart

(B) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

(C) All mammals are viviparous

(D) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins


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Q.72 Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

(a) Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.

(b) Photoperiod does not affect production in plants.

(c) Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker.

(d) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth

The two correct statements are

(A) a and d (B) a and b (C) b and c (D) c and d

Q.73 In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

(A) Testes (B) Vas deferens (C) Seminal vesicles (D) Mushroom glands

Q.74 Smooth muscles are

(A) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated (B) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate

(C) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated (D) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

Q.75 Oxidative phosphorylation is

(A) Addition of phosphate group to ATP

(B) Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

(C) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from substrate to ADP

(D) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

Q.76 Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of

most proteins?

(A) Hydrophobic interaction (B) Ester bonds

(C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Electrostatic interaction

Q.77 Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(A) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

(B) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

(C) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

(D) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

Substrate

Pote

ntia

l Ene

rgy

A

B

ReactionProduct


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Q.78 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

(A) M (B) Both G2 / M and M (C) G

1 / S (D) G

2 / M

Q.79 Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Columnn-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-IIa. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomesb. Metaphase I (ii) Terminalization of chiasmatac. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes placed. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

Codes:

a b c d(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Q.80 Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

(A) Cholecystokinin and secretin (B) Insulin and glucagon

(C) Angiotensin and epinephrine (D) Gastrin and insulin

Q.81 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

(A) Less than that in the blood (B) Less than that of carbon dioxide

(C) Equal to that in the blood (D) More than that in the blood

Q.82 Choose the correct statement.

(A) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus.

(B) Receptors do not produce graded potentials.

(C) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure.

(D) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermo receptors.

Q.83 Graves’ disease is caused due to

(A) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland (B) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland

(C) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland (D) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland


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Q.84 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction

(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Calcium (D) Magnesium

Q.85 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

(A) Neutrophils (B) Thrombocytes (C) Erythrocytes (D) Leucocytes

Q.86 Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization

(A) Secretin (B) Gastrin (C) Insulin (D) Glucagon

Q.87 Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

(A) Decreased level of estrogen

(B) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

(C) Immune disorder affecting neuro- muscular junction leading to fatigue

(D) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+

Q.88 Serum differs from blood in

(A) Lacking clotting factors (B) Lacking antibodies

(C) Lacking globulins (D) Lacking albumins

Q.89 Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

(A) There is a positive intrapleural pressure

(B) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

(C) There is a negative pressure in the lungs

(D) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

Q.90 The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because

(A) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus

(B) It secretes enzymes

(C) It is provided with a duct

(D) It only stores and releases hormones


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Q.91 A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants k

1, k

2, k

3 and k

4 as shown in the figure

below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

(A) = ++ +1 2 3 4

2 3 1

k k k k k (B) = + + +

1 2 3 4

1 1 1 1 3

k k k k 2k

(C) = + + +1 2 3 4k k k k 3k (D) ( )1 2 3 42k k k k 2k3

= + + +

Q.92 The potential difference (VA - V

B) between the points A and B in the given figure is

VA VB

A BI = 2 A

2 3 V 1 + -

(A) +6 V (B) +9 V (C) -3 V (D) +3 V

Q.93 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

(A) 26 Ω (B) 13 Ω (C) 230 Ω (D) 46 Ω

Q.94 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one tum. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

(A) 2nB (B) 2n2B (C) nB (D) n2B

Q.95 A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

(A) 3 W

2 (B)

2 W

3 (C)

W

3 (D) 3 W

Q.96 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10–2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 1011 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

(A) 62.8 MHz (B) 6.28 MHz (C) 1 GHz (D) 100 MHz

A/3 A/3A/3

k1 k2 k3

k4

d/2

d

A


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Q.97 Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

(A) R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30 µF (B) R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 µF

(C) R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35 µF (D) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 µF

Q.98 A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with

time at a rate

dB

dt. Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses

the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the

region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

(A) − π

2dBR

dt in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (B) − π

2dBr

dt in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

(C) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (D) − π

2dBr

dt in loop 1 and − π

2dBr

dt in loop 2

Q.99 The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.5

Q.100 A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

(A) 4.4 A (B) 11 2 A (C) 2.2 A (D) 11 A

Q.101 Two identical glass (µg = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The

space between the two lenses is filled with water (µw = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

(A) 4f / 3 (B) 3f / 4 (C) f / 3 (D) f

Q.102 An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1·5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 10

1

R

2

R


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Q.103 The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the

interference pattern, the ratio −+

max min

max min

I I

I I will be

(A) ( )+ 2

n

n 1 (B)

( )+ 2

2 n

n 1 (C)

+n

n 1 (D)

+2 n

n 1

Q.104 A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

(A) Concave, -0.2 diopter (B) Convex, +0.15 diopter

(C) Convex, + 2.25 diopter (D) Concave, -0.25 diopter

Q.105 A linear aperture whose width is 0·02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60-cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

(A) 0.20 cm (B) 0.15 cm (C) 0.10 cm (D) 0.25 cm

Q.106 Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ

0) of the emitted X-ray is

(A) λ

λ =2 2 3

0 2

2m c

h (B) λ = λ0 (C)

λλ =

2

0

2mc

h (D) λ =0

2h

mc

Q.107 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is

(A) -1 V (B) -3 V (C) +3 V (D) +4 V

Q.108 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

(A) λ20

7 (B) λ

20

13 (C) λ

16

25 (D) λ

9

16


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Q.109 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is

(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.110 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k Ω is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 k Ω, then the input signal voltage is

(A) 30 mV (B) 15 mV (C) 10 mV (D) 20 mV

Q.111 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R

1 will be

10 V

2

2 3

R1 D1

R3

D2

R2

(A) 1.43 A (B) 3.13 A (C) 2.5 A (D) 10.0 A

Q.112 What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, Care first 0 and then 1?

ABC

PQ Y

(A) 1, 0 (B) 1, 1 (C) 0, 1 (D) 0, 0

Q.113 Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of lengths?

(A) hc

G (B)

3/2

Gc

h (C)

3/2

hG

c (D)

5/2

hG

c

Q.114 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by x

p (t) = at + bt2 and x

Q (t) = ft – t2. At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

(A) ( )

++

a f

2 1 b (B)

( )−+

f a

2 1 b (C)

−+

a f

1 b (D)

( )+−

a f

2 b 1

Q.115 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

(A) 5.7 m/s (B) 6.2 m/s (C) 4.5 m/s (D) 5.0 m/s

R

O30o


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Q.116 A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60°C and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown

in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

60o

60o

V

V

m

(A) mV

2 (B)

mV

3 (C) mV (D) 2mV

Q.117 A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally, with a velocity of 400 ms-1 strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

(A) 120 ms-1 (B) 160 ms-1 (C) 100 ms-1 (D) 80 ms-1

Q.118 Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

(A) -0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s (B) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

(C) -0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s (D) 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s

Q.119 A particle moves from a point ( )− +ˆ ˆ2 i 5 j to ( )+ˆ ˆ4 j 3 k when a force of ( )+ˆ ˆ4 i 3 j N is applied.

How much work has been done by the force?

(A) 5 J (B) 2 J (C) 8 J (D) 11 J

Q.120 Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and I

B (I

B > I

A) have

equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and L

B be their angular momenta respectively, then

(A) LB > L

A (B) L

A > L

B (C) =A

LL

2B (D) L

A = 2L

B

Q.121 A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (E

sphere/E

cylinder) will be

(A) 1:4 (B) 3: 1 (C) 2:3 (D) 1:5

Q.122 A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m

2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of

the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

(A) ( )+ 21 2m m l (B)

21 2m m l (C)

+21 2

1 2

m ml

m m (D)

+1 2 2

1 2

m ml

m m


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Q.123 Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

(A)

(A) g

O R r

(B) g

O R r

( ) g

O R r

(D)g

O R r

C (B)

(A) g

O R r

(B) g

O R r

( ) g

O R r

(D)g

O R r

C (C) (A) g

O R r

(B) g

O R r

( ) g

O R r

(D)g

O R r

C

(D) (A) g

O R r

(B) g

O R r

( ) g

O R r

(D)g

O R r

C

Q.124 A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g

0, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, is

(A) +

202mg R

R h (B) −

+

202mg R

R h (C)

( )+

20mg R

2 R h (D)

( )−

+

20mg R

2 R h

Q.125 A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done is 3 × 10-4 J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(A) 0.2 N m-1 (B) 8.0 N m-1 (C) 0.250 N m-1 (D) 0.125 N m-1

Q.126 Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ

2 and ρ

3 (with ρ

1 > ρ

2 > ρ

3), having the same value of surface

tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2

and θ3

obey.

(A) π

< θ < θ < θ < π1 2 32

(B) π

π > θ > θ > θ >1 2 32

(C) π

> θ > θ > θ ≥1 2 3 02

(D) π

≤ θ < θ < θ <1 2 302

Q.127 Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100°C, while the other one is at 0°C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

(A) Less than 50°C but greater than 0°C

(B) 0°C

(C) 50°C

(D) More than 50°C

Q.128 A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be

(A) 4

T3

(B) T (C) 7

T4

(D) 3

T2


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Q.129 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV3 = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

(A) 2R (B) R (C) 3

R2

(D) 5

R2

Q.130 The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 °C and the room temperature is t

1 °C. The amount of heat

delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

(A) +−

2

1 2

t 273

t t (B)

++1 2

1

t t

t 273 (C)

−1

1 2

t

t t (D)

+−

1

1 2

t 273

t t

Q.131 A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?

(A) P / (kTV) (B) mkT (C) P / (kT) (D) Pm / (kT)

Q.132 A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is

(A) 16

9 (B)

9

16 (C)

3

4 (D)

4

3

Q.133 The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

(A) L

2 (B) 4 L (C) L (D) 2 L

Q.134 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n - 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of be produced per second will be

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4

Q.135 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30°C with an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

(A) 5 mC (B) 7µC (C) 8 mC (D) 2 mC


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Q.136 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?

(A) + → + +2 4 2 2 2C 2H SO CO 2SO 2H O (B) + → +2 2 4 4CaF H SO CaSO 2HF

(C) + → + +2 4 4 2 2Cu 2H SO CuSO SO 2H O (D) + → +2 4 2 23S 2H SO 3SO 2H O

Q.137 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

(A) −2 2 2z x yd , d (B) −2 2xy x y

d , d (C) 2 xzzd , d (D) xz yzd , d

Q.138 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are

(A) Planar triangle, sp3 d3 (B) Square planar, sp3 d2

(C) Octahedral, sp3 d2 (D) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3 d

Q.139 Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?

(A) SeF4 and CH

4 have same shape (B)

+3I has bent geometry

(C) PH5 and BiCl

5 do not exist (D) pπ – dπ bonds are present in SO

2

Q.140 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is

(A) − − −> > >3 6 5Br CN NH C H (B) − − −> > >6 5 3CN Br C H NH

(C) − − −> > >3 6 5NH CN Br C H (D) − − −> > >6 5 3CN C H Br NH

Q.141 Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?

(A) All the lanthanons are much reactive than aluminium.

(B) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent volumetric analysis.

(C) Europium shows +2 oxidation state

(D) The basicity decreases as the radius decreases from Pr to Lu.

Q.142 Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of

(A) d4 (B) d9 (C) d7 (D) d8

Q.143 Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?

(A) Chloroethene (B) Isopropyl chloride

(C) Chlorobenzene (D) Bromobenzene


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Q.144 In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar?

(A)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)CH3

CH3C C=

CN

CN (B)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)CH3

CH3C C=

CN

CN (C)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)CH3

CH3C C=

CN

CN

(D) (1) (2)

(3) (4)CH3

CH3C C=

CN

CN

Q.145 Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2 CH3( (

66

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

66

(1)

(2)

NH2

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

6

(3)

Cl

( (CH2 H

C CH2 H

C6

CH3 COOH

( CO

( ( NCH2

H2CO

H ( CH )2 6 NH (n

(4) C 2

(A)

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2 CH3( (

66

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

66

(1)

(2)

NH2

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

6

(3)

Cl

( (CH2 H

C CH2 H

C6

CH3 COOH

( CO

( ( NCH2

H2CO

H ( CH )2 6 NH (n

(4) C 2(B)

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2 CH3( (

66

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

66

(1)

(2)

NH2

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

6

(3)

Cl

( (CH2 H

C CH2 H

C6

CH3 COOH

( CO

( ( NCH2

H2CO

H ( CH )2 6 NH (n

(4) C 2

(C)CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2 CH3( (

66

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

66

(1)

(2)

NH2

CH2 H

H2

C CCH

NH2( (

6

(3)

Cl

( (CH2 H

C CH2 H

C6

CH3 COOH

( CO

( ( NCH2

H2CO

H ( CH )2 6 NH (n

(4) C 2

(D)

Q.146 In pyrrole 5N

:

H1

2

34

the electron density is maximum on

(A) 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 5 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

Q.147 Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction?

(A) = =2H C C O (B) − −2

3 2

HH C C CH Br

(C) H C2 CH2

CH2

(D) − −2

3 2

HH C C CH OH


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Q.148 Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

(A)

H C3 CH2

CH2

NO2

H C3CH

CH2

NO2

H C3

H C3

H C3

H C3

C NO2

H C3

CH3

CH

O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) NO2

(B)

H C3 CH2

CH2

NO2

H C3CH

CH2

NO2

H C3

H C3

H C3

H C3

C NO2

H C3

CH3

CH

O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) NO2

(C) H C3 CH2

CH2

NO2

H C3CH

CH2

NO2

H C3

H C3

H C3

H C3

C NO2

H C3

CH3

CH

O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) NO2

(D)

H C3 CH2

CH2

NO2

H C3CH

CH2

NO2

H C3

H C3

H C3

H C3

C NO2

H C3

CH3

CH

O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) NO2

Q.149 The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

(A) DNA → RNA → Proteins

(B) DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates

(C) Amino acids → Proteins → DNA

(D) DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins

Q.150 The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below

CHO

HH

CH OH2

OHOH

CHOHO

HHOH

CH OH2

HOHO

HH

CHO

CH OH2

HOHO

HH

CHO

CH OH2

Respectively, is

(A) L- erythrose, L- threose, D- erythrose, D- threose

(B) D- erythrose, D- threose, L- erythrose, L- threose

(C) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose

(D) D-threose, D- erythrose, L- threose, L- erythrose

Q.151 In the given reaction +0 Co

pHF

The product P is

(A)

FF(1)

(3)

(2)

(4) (B)

FF(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(C) FF(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(D) F

F(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)


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Q.152 A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an

unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C

12H

10N

2O. The structure of compound A is

(A)

(1)NH2

(3)CN

(2)NO2

(3)CONH2

(B)

(1)NH2

(3)CN

(2)NO2

(3)CONH2

(C) (1)NH2

(3)CN

(2)NO2

(3)CONH2

(D) (1)NH2

(3)CN

(2)NO2

(3)CONH2

Q.153 Consider the reaction CH3CH

2CH

2Br + NaCN → CH

3CH

2CH

2CN + NaBr

This reaction will be the latest in

(A) N, N’ – dimethylformamide (DMF) (B) Water

(C) Ethanol (D) Methanol

Q.154 The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction

O

H (gas, i atmosphere)2

Pd/carnon, ethanolA

(A)

OH

OH

O

OH

(B)

OH

OH

O

OH

(C)

OH

OH

O

OH

(D)

OH

OH

O

OH

Q.155 Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

O

O

PhPh

O

I II III

(A) Both I and II (B) Both II and III (C) III only (D) Both I and III

Q.156 The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids

COOH

I

COOH

IIO

COOH

O

III

Is

(A) III > II > I (B) II > I > III (C) I > II > III (D) II > III > I

Q.157 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula

(A) C4H

10 (B) C

2H

4 (C) C

3H

6 (D) C

2H

2


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Q.158 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

(A) Cellulose (B) Concentrated acetic acid

(C) H2O

2 (D) HCN

Q.159 The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol / dm3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of

5.76 × 10–3 S cm–1 at 298 K is

(A) 0.086 S cm2/mol (B) 28.8 S cm2/mol

(C) 2.88 S cm2/mol (D) 11.52 S cm2/mol

Q.160 The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is

because the

(C) Rate is independent of the surface coverage

(D) Rate of decomposition is very slow

(A) Rate of proportional to the surface coverage

(B) Rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage

Q.161 The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S

3

are given below:

I. (NaCl) = 52, II. (BaCl2) = 0.69, III. (MgSO

4) = 0.22

The correct order of their coagulating power is

(A) III > II > I (B) III > I > II (C) I > II > III (D) II > I > III

Q.162 During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

(A) 220 minutes (B) 330 minutes (C) 55 minutes (D) 110 minutes

Q.163 How many electrons can it in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 2 (D) 6

Q.164 For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pi to p

f, the entropy

change is given by

(A)

∆ =

f

i

pS nRT ln

p (B)

∆ =

i

f

pS RT ln

p

(C) f

i

pS nR ln

p

∆ =

(D) i

f

pS nR ln

p

∆ =


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Q.165 The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1

Q.166 The percentage of pyramid (C5H

5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C

5H

5N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous

pyridine solution (Kb for C

5H

5N = 1.7 × 10–9) is

(A) 0.77 % (B) 1.6 % (C) 0.0060 % (D) 0.013 %

Q.167 In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and fluoride ion (F–) are

(A) 8 and 4 (B) 4 and 8 (C) 4 and 2 (D) 6 and 6

Q.168 If the ocellE for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct

relationships for the values of ∆G° and Keq

?

(A) ∆G° < 0; Keq

> 1 (B) ∆G° < 0; Keq

< 1

(C) ∆G° > 0; Keq

< 1

(D) ∆G° > 0; Keq

> 1

Q.169 Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

(A) ∆P = Pobs

– Pcalculated by Raoult’s law

= 0 (B) ∆Gmix

= 0

(C) ∆Hmix

= 0 (D) ∆Umix

= 0

Q.170 The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

(A) 1.6 × 10–11 (B) Zero (C) 1.26 × 10–5 (D) 1.6 × 10–9

Q.171 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X

3Y

2. When 0.1 mole of

XY2 weights 10 g and 0.05 mole of X

3Y

2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

(A) 20, 30 (B) 30, 20 (C) 40, 30 (D) 60, 40

Q.172 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron 1.60 × 10–19 C)

(A) 3.75 × 1020

(B) 7.48 × 1023 (C) 6 × 1023 (D) 6 × 1020

Q.173 Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

(A) Accepts OH– from water releasing proton (B) Combines with proton from water molecule

(C) Contains replaceable H+ ion (D) Gives up a proton


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Q.174 AIF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

(A) AIH3 (B) K[AIF

3H] (C) K

3[AIF

3H

3] (D) K

3[AIF

6]

Q.175 Zinc can be coated on iron produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

(A) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron

(B) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

(C) Zinc is lighter than iron

(D) Zinc has lower melting point than iron

Q.176 The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

(A) Milk of lime (B) Aqueous solution of slaked lime

(C) Limewater (D) Quicklime

Q.177 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in + −2 3NO ,NO and +

4NH respectively are

(A) sp, sp2 and sp3 (B) sp2, sp and sp3

(C) sp, sp3 and sp2 (D) sp2, sp3 and sp

Q.178 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

(A) CF4 (B) SiF

4 (C) BF

3 (D) PF

3

Q.179 Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostrucfural?

(A) − −23 3SO , NO (B) − −2

3 3ClO , SO (C) − −23 3CO , NO (D) − −2

3 3ClO , CO

Q.180 In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Its salts rarely hydrolyze (B) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

(C) It is rendered passive by nitric acid (D) It forms Be2C

Question Paper - Code CC - Plancess Edusolutions Pvt. Ltd. · NEET Phase 2 - 2016 Question Paper -...

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