Quantitative Analysis - images.static-collegedunia.com · Quantitative Analysis 1. When a company...

Quantitative Analysis

1. When a company decreased the price of refrigerator by 20%,the number of refrigerators sold increased by 20%. What

was the net effect on total sales?

(a) 6% decrease (b) 3% increase (c) 6% increase (d) 4% decrease

2. A dishonest milkman mixed 1 litre of water for every 4 litres of milk and thus made up 40 litres of milk . If he now adds

24 litres of milk to the mixture, find the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture.

(a)12:5 (b)14:3 (c)7:1 (d)9:4

3. Rohit and Dhawan have salaries that jointly amount to Rs. 10,000 per month. They spend the same amount monthly

and then it is found that the ratio of their savings is 5:3. Which of the following can be Rohit’s salary?

(a) Rs. 6000 (b) Rs. 5000 (c) Rs. 4000 (d)Rs. 3000

4. A manufacturer makes a profit of 12% by selling a colour TV for Rs. 5600. If the cost of manufacturing increases by

30% and the price paid by the retailer is increased by 20%, find the profit percent made by the manufacturer.

(a) 6(2/13)% (b)4(8/13)% (c) 6(1/13)% (d) 3(3/8)%

5. A and B start a business with investments of Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 9,000 respectively. After 4 months, A takes out half of

his capital. After two more months, B takes out one third of his capital while C joins them with a capital of Rs. 14000, At

the end of a year they earn a profit of Rs. 19,050. Find the share of C in the profit.

(a)Rs. 6500 (b) Rs. 6300 (c) Rs. 7500 (d) Rs. 8000

6. A man spends Rs. 1800 monthly on an average for the first four months and Rs. 2000 monthly for the next eight

months and saves Rs. 5600 a year. His average monthly income is

(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2200 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 2600

7. M,N and O enter into a partnership and their shares are in the ratio : 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5. “After 4 months, M withdraws

half of his capital and after 8 months, a profit of Rs. 2600 is divided among them, What is N’s share?

(a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs.1200 (c) Rs.1300 (d) Rs.900

8. In my office the average age of all the female employees is 21 years & that of male employees is 32 years, where the

average age of all the employees is 28 years. The no. of employees in my office could be.

(a)35 (b)78 (c)231 (d)90

9. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 :3. If 8 litres of this mixture be replaced by 4 litres of milk,

the ratio of milk to water in the new would be:

(a) 23 : 9 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 8 : 3 (d) 4 : 3

10. A certain sum amounts to Rs 18600 in 4 yr and Rs 20400 in 6 yr under simple interest. Find the sum

(a) Rs.16780 (b) Rs.15450 (c) Rs.16000 (d) Rs.15000

11. HCF of two numbers is 12 and their product is 3600. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed ?

(a) 0 (b)1 (c) 2 (d) 4

12. Find the LCM of 4/3, 8/9, 3/5

(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 1/24 (d) 1/20

13. Find the least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 24 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case.

(a) 122 (b) 120 (c) 124 (d) 126

14. Two trains running in the same direction at 80 kmph and 44 Kmph completely pass one another in, 2 min. If the

length of the first train is 250 m, the length of the second train is :

(a) 800 m (b) 850 m (c) 900 m (d) 950

15. A man can row a distance of 45 kms with the stream in 5 hours whereas it takes 9 hours to row the same distance

against the stream. What is the speed of the man in still water?

(a) 6 kms (b) 5 kms (c) 7 kms (d) 2 kms

16. A can complete a journey in 17 h. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 36 km/h and second half at the

rate of 24 km/h. Find the total journey in km.

(a) 449.2 km (b)432.4 km (c) 489.6 km (d) 207.2 km

17. Two pipes Arun and Bablu can separately fill a cistern in 45 minutes and 60 min respectively There is a third pipe in

the bottom of the cistern to empty it if all the three pipes are simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 40

minutes. In how much time, the third pipe alone can empty the cistern ?

(a) 90min (b) 72min (c) 110min (d) 120min

18. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has the average

money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has

(a) Rs.55 (b) Rs.60 (c) Rs.180 (d) Rs 65

19. The sum of the ages of 7 children born at the intervals of 4 yrs each is 126 years. What is the age of the youngest

child:

(a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years

20. Find the amount on Rs 12000 at 10% per annum for 2 yr and 6 months, compounded annually:

(a) Rs 14675 (b) Rs 15246 (c) Rs 14850 (d) Rs 15940

Data Interpretation

Direction for (Qs.21-24): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follows:

Number of students (in thousands)appearing (A) for a Competitive exam from six different states & percentage passing

(P) the exam the years-

Year 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

States A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P

A 2.3 11 4.2 21 3.5 12 2.0 22 1.8 14 1.2 17

B 3.5 14 3.6 16 3.4 11 1.3 15 2.3 16 2.1 18

C 1.8 23 2.8 13 2.9 16 4.5 24 2.3 23 3.9 20

D 2.9 18 2.8 15 1.6 20 3.2 20 3.3 16 4.0 19

E 4.4 17 3.2 23 1.9 16 1.5 18 3.1 18 2.7 14

F 3.2 21 3.0 14 4.0 14 2.6 11 3.8 19 2.3 13

A= Appeared %P= Percentage passing

21. What is the total number of students passing in the exam from State B in the year 2002 & 2003 together?

(a) 1206 (b) 1068 (c) 1146 (d) none

22. What is the respective ratio of number of students passing in the exam from state C in the year 2004 to those

passing in the exam from state E in the year 2007?

(a) 232:189 (b) 117:248 (c) 248:117 (d) 189:232

23. Which state has the highest number of students appearing for the exam in all the years together?

(a) D (b) E (c) F (d) C

24. What is the total number of students passing in the exam in the year 2005from all states together?

(a)2836 (b) 2911 (c) 2624 (d) 2543

Direction for (Qs. 25-29): A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh

number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the following bar-graph. The questions given below are based n

this graph.

Sales(in lakh number of packs) of five different products of a Cosmetic Company during 1995 and 2000

25. The sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to 2000 in the case of

(a) Lipsticks (b) Nail enamels (c) Talcum powders (d) Shampoos

26. During the period 1995-2000, the minimum rate of increase in sales is in the case of

(a) Lipsticks (b) Nail enamels (c) Talcum powders (d) Shampoos

27. The sales of lipsticks in 2000 was by what percent more than the sales of nail enamels in 2000?(rounded off to the

nearest integer)

(a) 33% (b)31% (c) 28% (d) 22%

28. The sales of conditioners in 1995 was by what percent less than the sales of shampoos in 1995?(rounded off to the

nearest integer)

(a) 57% (b)36% (c) 29% (d) 25%

29. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of Talcum powders in 1995?

(a) 7:2 (b) 5:2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 2:1

Direction for (Qs. 30-34): The following line-graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an

examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a period of nine years from

1990 to 1998. Study the graph and answer the questions which are based on it.

60 48,17

40 37,76

29,14 1995

20,15 20 14,97

5,93 7,88 12,21

5,01 10,19

0 2000

Lipsticks Nail Enamels Talcum Powder Shampoos Conditioners

100

80

50 50 60 60 60

50 60

70

30

0

1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998

SALE

S (i

n L

akh

N

um

be

r o

f p

acks

) P

erc

en

tage

30. What was the number of candidates appeared in the year 1992, if the number of candidates qualified in that year

was 24720?

(a) 44300 (b)41200 (c)39100 (d)36500

31. The difference between the percentages of candidates qualjfied to appeared was maximum in which of the following

pairs of years?

(a)1992 and 1993 (b)1994 and 1996 (c)1991 and 1997 (d)1993 and 1996

32. If the number of candidates qualified in the years 1991, 1993, 1995 and 1997 be 24102, 28080,27120 and 28680

respectively, then out of these four years, the number of candidates appeared was highest during the year

(a)1991 (b)1993 (c)1995 (d)1997

33. If the total number of candidates qualified in 1997 and 1998 together was 58920 and the number of candidates

appeared in 1997 was 47800, then what was the total number of candidates appeared in 1997 and 1998 together?

(a) 92600 (b) 91000 (c) 90646 (d) 88000

34. If the total number of candidates appeared in 1992 and 1993 together was 68700, then the total number of

candidates qualified in these two years together was

(a)48240 (b)48090 (c)47130 (d)Date inadequate

Logical Reasoning

Directions (Q. 35-39) : Read the following information and answer the questions :

(i) P, Q, R, S, T,U, V and W are sitting in a row facing North. (ii) P is fourth to the right of T. (iii) W is fourth to the left of S.

(iv) R and U, which are not at the ends, are neighbours of Q and T respectively, (v) W is next to the left of P and P is the

neighbour of Q.

35. What is the position of U ?

(a) Next to the right of T

(b) Next to the right of V

(c) Sixth to the right of S

(d) Between V and W

(e) None of these

36. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(a)V is the neighbour of W and U

(b)Q is next to the right of P

(c)T is at left end

(d)R is next to the right of Q

(e)None of these

37. Who is/are the neighbours of S ?

(a) U alone (b) R alone (c)Q and R (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

38. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(a)W is second to the right of U.

(b) T is fourth to the left of P.

(c)S is fourth to the right of W.

(d)P is third to the left of S.

(e)None of these

39. Who are sitting at the ends ?

(a) T and R (b) U and S (c) V and Q (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

Direction for Qs.(40-43):

(1) Six persons L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in two rows, three in each.

(2) P is not at the end of any row.

(3) O is second to the left of Q.

(4) N, the neighbour of P, is sitting diagonally opposite to O.

(5) M is the neighbour of Q.

40. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?

(a) Q and N (b) O and L (c) O and N (d) L and Q (e) L and M

41. Which of the following are in the same row?

(a) L and P (b) P and O (c) M and N (d) L and M (e) N and Q

42. Which of the following are in one of the two rows?

(a) QMN (b) NPM (c) OMQ (d) LPQ (e) LMQ

43. After interchanging seat with P, who will be the neighbor’s of O in the new position?

(a) N and L (b) Q and M (c) Only L (d) Only M (e) only N

44. Ranbir is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East and further 10 m towards the South, then he walks 35

m towards the West and further 5 m towards the North, then he walks 15 m towards the East. What is the straight

distance in metres between his starting point and the point where he reached last ?

(a) 0 (b) 5 (c)10 (d) 15 (e) None of these

45. In a certain code, SOCIAL is written as TQFMFR, then how you will code DIMPLE?

(a) EKPTQK (b) EKPQPJ (c) EKPSPJ (d) EKPSOH (e) None of these

46. 3, 128, 6, 64, 9,………...., 12, 16, 15, 8

(a) 32 (b) 12 (c) 108 (d) 72 (e) 64

Directions (Q. 47-50) : On the basis of the information given below, select the correct alternative as answer for the

questions which follow the information.

Six plays L, M, N, O, P and Q are to be staged, one on each day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to

be in accordance with the following information.

(I)L must be staged a day before P.

(II)N must not be staged on Tuesday.

(III) M must be staged on the day following the day on which Q is staged.

(IV) O must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by M.

(V)P must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.

47. Which of the following plays is staged immediately after P ?

(a) M (b) O (c) L (d) Q (e) None of these

48. Which of the following plays is played on Monday ?

(a) P (b) Q (c) N (d)M (e)L

49. Play O is between which of the following pair of plays ?

(a) M and P (b) P and Q (c) L and P (d) N and P (e) None of these

50. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?

(a)P, L, M, Q, O, N (b)L, Q, M, P, O, N (c)L, Q, M, N, O, P (d)Q, L, M, P, O, N (e) None

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Q.Darwin provided the profound understanding that evolution has influenced the shape of our minds as strongly as it

has the shape of our bodies. Since humans evolved from the same primate ancestor as modern chimpanzees or gorillas,

he suggested one could learn more by comparing human instincts, emotions, and behaviors to those of animals than

one can surmise from subjective speculation. As he put it, “he who understands baboon would do more towards

metaphysics than Locke.” Philosophy is inadequate to understand the roots of human psychology, because self-

reflection does not make us aware of the forces that drive most of our reactions to the environment. Rather, we are

subject to inborn tendencies, which develop through the reciprocally influential forces of natural and sexual selection.

Natural selection is the process by which the variants within a species that are best adapted to survive in their

environment win the reproductive contest – at least until an even better-adapted variant comes along. The traits that

enable people to feed and protect themselves increase the likelihood that they will live long enough to produce

offspring, whom they will be able to feed and protect until maturity. In a sense, sexual selection is the psychological

extension of natural selection. But, instead of gaining an advantage from traits that enhance one’s ability to survive, one

gains an advantage from qualities that potential mates have evolved to find appealing.

51. How did evolution affect individuals according to Darwin?

1)Mentally and emotionally 2)Psychologically and physiologically

3)Sharpened human instincts 4)Provided long life and expands memory

52. By “primate” what does the author mean?

1)Insects 2)Amphibians 3)Mammals 4)Fish

53. What is the tone of the passage?

1)Social 2)Educational 3)Psychological 4)Philosophical

54. The most suitable title for the pasaage is:

1)Charles Darwin and his Work 2)Human Evolution

3)Darwin's Theory of Evolution 4)Darwin's Theory of Trait Development in Humans

55. By “surmise” the author means:

1) to opine 2) to govern 3) to explain 4) to monitor

56. What is natural selection?

1) It is the process of development of human traits.

2) It is a contest for reproduction.

3) It is the gradual process by which biological traits become more or less common in a population.

4) It is the process of psychological development of a group of species

Direction (Q 57 – 58): Give the Synonym

57. PROBITY

(a) Courtesy

(b) Promptness

(c) Efficiency

(d) Uprightness

58. GARISH

(a) Beautifully decorated

(b) Boldly arranged

(c) Unpleasantly gaudy

(d) Carefully prepared

Direction (Q 59 – 60): Give the Antonym

59. INQUISITIVE

(a) inadequate

(b) immature

(c) uncomfortable

(d) unconcerned

60. SOBRIETY

(a) moderation

(b) drunkenness

(c) dizziness

(d) stupidity

Direction (Q 61-66) Give the correct preposition

61. It is surprising indeed that he has an access all the important leaders of the country.

(a) about (b) by (c) to (d) of

62. The trouble originated a petty quarrel.

(a) in (b) about (c) to (d) beside

63. It is due to their lethargy that the plan fell .

(a) through (b) out (c) away (d) apart

64. He felt very much grateful his boss for the kindness he had shown in granting him leave.

(a) to (b) for (c) with (d) on

65. Every one of us will have to atone his or her misdeeds.

(a) of (b) for (c) by (d) with

66. The consequences of his haughtiness were that his services were dispensed by his master.

(a) with (b) about (c) from (d) up

Direction (Q 67-71) In the given sentence replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.

67. The orator had been left the auditorium before the audience stood up.

(a) Had been leaving

(b) Was left

(c) Had left

(d) Would leave

(e) No correction required

68. He dislikes the word dislike, isn't he

(a) Didn’t he

(b) Doesn’t he

(c) Hasn’t he

(d) Does he


69. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today's function.

(a) Take it for granted

(b) Taking it granted

(c) Took it as granted

(d) Have it granted


70. My doctor knew that I would eventually recover and do kind of work I would be doing before

(a) Would have been doing

(b) Would have done

(c) Had been done

(d) Had been doing


71. Later he became unpopular because he tried to lord it on his followers.

(a) To lord it for

(b) To lord over

(c) To lord it over

(d) To lord it over on


Verbal reasoning

Direction (Q 72-75) In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by

two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

72. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions: 1. All the trucks are scooters.

2. Some scooters are trucks.

(a) Only (1) conclusion follows

(b) Only (2) conclusion follows

(c) Either (1) or (2) follows

(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows

(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

73. Statements: All cups are books. All books are shirts.

Conclusions: 1. Some cups are not shirts.

2.Some shirts are cups.






74. Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants.

Conclusions: 1. Some cows are elephants.

2. All crows are elephants.






75. Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks.

Conclusions: 1. All the pencils are inks.

2. Some inks are pencils.






Direction (Q 76-78) In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You

have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of

them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

76. Statements: This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.

Conclusions: 1. Some people find this world quite good.

2. Some people find this world quite bad.

(a) Only conclusion 1 follows

(b) Only conclusion 2 follows

(c) Either 1 or 2 follows

(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows

(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

77. Statements: The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class Master's degree. However, the

candidates who have appeared for the final year examination of Master's degree can also apply.

Conclusions: 1. All candidates who have yet to get their Master's degree will be there in the list of selected

candidates.

2. All candidates having obtained second class Master's degree will be there in the list of selected

candidates.






78. Statements: Any student who does not behave properly while in the school brings bad name to himself and

also for the school.

Conclusions: 1. Such student should be removed from the school.

2. Stricter discipline does not improve behaviour of the students.






Direction (Q 79-81) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.

You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.

79. Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?

Arguments: 1. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money;

2. No. Bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.

(a) Only argument I is strong

(b) Only argument II is strong

(c) Either I or II is strong

(d) Neither I or II is strong

(e) Both I and II are strong

80. Statement: Should Government close down loss-making public sector enterprises?

Arguments: 1. No. All employees will lose their jobs, security and earning, what would they do?

2. Yes. In a competitive world the rule is 'survival of the fittest'.






81. Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?

Arguments: 1. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.

2. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So ? Why offer

extra incentives!





Direction (Q 82-85) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.

You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,

decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

82. Statement: A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination due to faulty

questions in one of the subjects.

Courses of Action: 1. All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary

examination.

2. All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be initiated to find out the

facts.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I or II follows

(e) Both I and II follows

83. Statement: A large number of engineering graduates in the country are not in a position to have gainful employment

at present and the number of such engineers is likely to grow in the future.

Courses of Action: 1. The government should launch attractive employment generation schemes and encourage

these graduates to opt for such schemes to use their expertise and knowledge effectively.

2. This happened due to proliferation of engineering colleges in the country and thereby lowered the quality of the

engineering graduates. Those colleges which are not equipped to impart quality education

should be closed down.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows




84. Statement: Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some cases of conjunctivitis,

but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly four years.

Courses of Action: 1. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check this epidemic.

2. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy season.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows




85. Statement: Every year large number of devotees dies due to severe cold on their way to the shrine located at

the top of the mountain range.

Courses of Action: 1. The devotees should be discouraged to visit the shrine without having proper warm clothes and

other amenities.

2. The government should provide warm clothes and shelter to all the devotees visiting the shrine.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows



Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. Pen Holder grip is used in which of the following sports ?

(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton

87. In which of the following sports Decision Referral System is used?

(a) Hockey (b) Tennis (c) Chess (d) Cricket

88. Benson Hedges Cup is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Hockey (b) Cricket (c) Football (d) Basket Ball

89. WISPA is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Football (b) Chess (c) Cricket (d) Squash

90. Which among the following is not a trophy or cup related to Hockey?

(a) Bombay Gold Cup (b) Gurmeet Trophy (c) Indira Gold Cup (d) Narang Cup

91. Who among the following served as India’s first Test Captain?

(a) Nawab of Pataudi Senior (b) Nawab Mansoor Ali Khan (c) C. K. Nayudu (d) Lala Amarna

92. What is the other name of Salt Lake Stadium ?

(a) Yuba Bharti Stadium (b) Bharat Bharti Stadium (c) Eden Gardens (d) Kolkata Stadium

93. Ezat Cup is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Polo (b) Tennis (c) Lawn Tennis (d) Cricket

94. What is the approximate maximum weight of Golf Ball as per Rules of Golf?

(a) 20 gms (b) 25 gms (c) 40 gms (d) 45 gms

95. Which among the following team was first winner of “World Cup Hockey” ?

(a) Spain (b) France (c) UK (d) Pakistan

96. With Which of the following sports M Vijayakrishna Memorial Cup is related to ?

(a) Badminton (b) Table Tennis (c) Horse Races (d) Polo

97. For how many times ” Undivided India” was part / member of summer Olympics?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

98. Which among the following sports have largest number of participants in teams of either side?

(a) Rugby Football (b) Water polo (c) Baseball (d) Soccer

99. With which of the following sports “Agakhan trophy” is related to ?

(a) Field Hockey (b) Horse Racing (c) Table Tennis (d) Show Jumping

100. In context of the Indian awards and honors in sports, which among the following is given as Life Time achievement

award?

(a) Dronacharya Award (b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

(c) Dhyan Chand Award (d) Arjuna Award

101. For which of the following games / sports the term Ring is not used for ground/ space?

(a) Boxing (b) Gymnastics (c) Ice Hockey (d) Baseball

102. “Prince of Wales Cup ” is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Boxinng (b) Golf (c) Hockey (d) Tennis

103. The ”Marquess of Queensberry rules” is a code of generally accepted rules in which of the following sports?

(a) Chess (b) Boxing (c) Hockey (d) Tennis

104. Since which of the following year Winter Olympics are held ?

(a) 1896 (b) 1900 (c) 1888 (d) 1924

105. Where were the 2018 Asian Games held?

(a) Manila (b) Doha (c) Bangkok (d) Jakarta

106. How many times has India won the gold medal in men’s hockey at the Asian Games?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

107. How many countries participated at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) 45 (B)51 (c) 42 (d) 37

108. From which city did the torch relay for the 2018 Asian Games begin on 15 July 2018?

(a) Incheon (b) Hangzhou (c) New Delhi (d) Olympia

109. In which event did India win the maximum number of medals at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Shooting (b) Athletics (c) Archery (d) Boxing

110. Which country won the gold medal in men's hockey at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) South Korea (b) Japan (c) Pakistan (d) Malaysia

111. Who was the flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the opening ceremony of Asian Games 2018?

(a) Saina Nehwal (b) Neeraj Chopra (c) PV Sindhu (d) Bajrang Poonia

112. Who was the flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the closing ceremony of Asian Games 2018?

(a) Rani Rampal (b) Rahi Sarnobat (c) Swapna Barman (d) Hima Das

113. What was the rank of India in the final medals tally at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c) Seventh (d) Eighth

114. To which team did Indian women's hockey team lose in the finals to win the silver at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Japan (b) South Korea (c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia

115. Which city in China will be the host for 2022 Asian Games?

(a) Shanghai (b) Guangzhou (c) Hangzhou (d) Shenzhen

116. Which of the following is the medals tally in gold, silver, bronze order of India at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) 15, 24, 30 (b) 14, 25, 30 (c) 15, 23, 31 (d) 14, 22, 35

117. Which country topped the medal tally at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) China (b) Indonesia (c) Japan (d) Korea

118. Which of the following is not a mascot of 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Kaka (b) Amni (c) Atung (d) Bhin Bhin

119. How many new games were introduced in 2018 Asian Games?

(a) 12 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 8

120. Amit Panghal is related to which sports?

(a) Wrestling (b) Boxing (c) Shooting (d) Tennis

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