Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.: TYBBI Auditing I
Transcript of Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.: TYBBI Auditing I
Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.:
TYBBI – Auditing I
Sample Questions
1) Audit conducted between two annual audits is called as ____________.
a. Interim
b. Annual
c. final
d. Non-Statutory
2) ________________ means showing the books of accounts attractive
a. Secret reserve
b. window dressing
c. True and Fair
d. Genuine
3 Auditor must inform the registrar in writing of his acceptance or refusal of the appointment
within _______ from the days from the receipt of appointment of letter
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 35 days
d. 20 days
4 _______________ is a book, which is maintained by audit staff
a. Audit note
b. Working Paper
c. Audit Programme
d. Client’s book
4 _________% of total deposits should be covered under concurrent audit
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
5 _____________ is referred to record of observing, summaries, and comments of auditor
a. Working Paper
b. Audit Programme
c. Audit notebook
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d. Annual Report
6. Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?
a) To provide a basis for review of audit work
b) To provide a basis for subsequent audits
c) To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
d) To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
7. The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include
a) extracts from client’s bank statements
b) past year’s financial statements
c) attorney’s letters
b) debt agreements
8.When the same transaction is recorded twice in the book it is called as Error of ___________.
a. Commission
b. Duplication
c. Compensating
d. Omission
9. Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why the auditor should properly
plan engagements?
a. To enable proper on-the-job training of employees.
b. To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence.
c. To avoid misunderstandings with the client.
d. To help keep audit costs reasonable
10. Audit programme is prepared by
a) the auditor
b) the client
c) the audit assistants
d) the auditor and his audit assistants
11. The main object of an audit is ___
a) Expression of opinion
b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Depends on the type of audit.
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12. A sale of Rs. 50.000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of _
a) Error of omission
b) Error of commission
c) Compensating error
d) Error of principle
13. Tolerable error, is the maximum monetary error that the auditor is prepared to accept in the
population and still conclude that audit objective has been achieved, is directly related to
a) Sample size
b) Audit risk
c) Materiality
d) Expected error
14. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:
a) Related party purchases
b) Related party sales
c) The restatement of sales
d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded
15. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:
a) Related party purchases
b) Related party sales
c) The restatement of sales
d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded.
16.The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on___
a) Related party purchases
b) Related party sales
c) The restatement of sales
d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded
17. In India, balance sheet audit is synonymous to-
a) Annual audit
b) Continuous audit
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c) Detailed audit
d) Statutory audit
18. Test Checking refers to ____
A. Testing of accounts and records
B. Checking of selected number of transactions
C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries
D. Checking of all transactions record
19. Test checking should not be applied to _______
a. Sales book
b. Purchase book
c. Bank Reconciliation Statement
d. Bills book
20. Examples of non-sampling risk include _________
(a) inappropriate audit procedures
(b) misinterpretation of audit evidence
(c) failure to recognize a misstatement
(d) Audit procedures, Misinterpretation of audit evidence and failure to recognise
21.Which of the following factors is (are) considered in determining the sample size for tests of
control?
(a) Projected error
(b) Tolerable error
(c) Expected error
(d) Tolerable and Expected error
22. Which of the following is more scientific?
(a) Statistical
(b) Non- statistical
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(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Regression
23. Balance sheet audit includes verification of ______
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Income and expense accounts where appropriate
d) Assets, liabilities and Income and Expenses.
24. The audit engagement letter, generally, should include a reference to each of the following
except
a) limitations of auditing
b) responsibilities of management with respect to audit work
c) expectation of receiving a written management representation letter.
d) a description of the auditor’s method of sample selection.
25. If a casual vacancy in the office of auditor arises by his resignation it should only be filled by
the company in a…
a) Board meeting
b) extraordinary general meeting
c) General meeting
d) annual general meeting
26. The use of an audit engagement letter is the best method of assuring the auditor will have
which of the following?
a) Auditor will obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
b) Management representation letter
c) Access to all books, accounts and vouchers required for audit purpose
d) Cooperation from other auditors
27. Auditing ends when ______ starts
a. Selling
b. Inventory Valuation
c. Accounting
d. Purchases
28. ________ is the cash purchase related voucher.
a) Cash bill
b) Cash memo
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c) Goods inward book
d) Cash bill, Cash memo and Goods inward book
29.______ is a type of voucher.
a) Template voucher
b) Adjustment voucher
c) Reversal voucher
d) Template, Adjustment and Reversal
30. Misstatements can arise from ______.
a) Error
b) Fraud
c) Error and Fraud
d) None of the above
31.A reason to establish internal control is to_____________
a. Have a basis for planning the audit
b. Encourage compliance, reliability and timeless of information
c. Ensure the accuracy, reliability and timeless of information
d. Provide reasonable assurance that the objectives of the organizations are achieved.
32 The following is a component of Internal control
a. Legal environment
b. Organizational structure
c. Control Environment
d. Risk assessment process
33. The sequence of steps in the auditor’s consideration of internal control is as follows___
a) Obtain an understanding, design substantive test, perform tests of control, make a preliminary
assessment of control risk
b) Design substantive tests, obtain an understanding, perform tests of control, make a preliminary
assessment of control risk
c) Obtain an understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, perform tests of
control, design substantive procedures.
d) Perform tests of control, obtain and understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control
risk, design
34. In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned
with
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a) cost accounting system
b) internal control system
c) legal compliance
d) accounting system
35. The primary purpose of performing tests of control is to provide reasonable assurance
that____
a) there are no material misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement
b) accounting system is well documented
c) Written evidence is there to support transactions
d) if internal control is effective
(8
36. The objective of tax audit is to assist the ------ in making the correct income tax assessment of the
assessee concerned
a) Government
b) Commissioner of income
c) CBDT
d) Income tax authorities
37. Vouching helps the auditors to ascertain whether the entries in the book________________, this is the
basic objective of auditing.
(a) True and fair
(b) Only true
(c) Only fair
(d) Not fair and Not true
38. In case of unclaimed wages, the auditor should examine whether-
a) the amount has been deposited in a separate bank account
b) deposited with the cashier
c) held in a safe deposit box
d) Cash book
39. Which of the following is not true about verification of assets?
a) It invoices substantiation of occurrence of transactions
b) Its objective is to establish existence, ownership, possession, valuation, and disclosure of assets
c) The auditor must form an opinion on different aspects
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d) All are true
41. Which of the following assets is least likely to be subjected to lien?
a) Freehold land b) Plant and machinery
c) Leasehold property
d) Motor vehicles
42. -------------- of the companies Act 1956 prescribes the duty of preparing a report by an auditor
a. Sec-227(2)
b. Sec-273(1)
c. Sec-224(2)
d. Sec -225(3)
43. Which among the following is an example of intangible asset?
a. Goodwill
b. Land & Buildings
c. Outstanding wages
d. Loan
44. __________________section of Companies Act deals with share Capital
a. 69
b. 60
c. 50
d. 40
45. Verification of assets involves a critical examination of
a. Ownership
b. Valuation
c. Claims
d. Motor Vehicles.
46. KYC means
a) Know your customer
b) Know your character
c) Know your compliance
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d) Know your company
47. Reserve Capital is a part of:
(A) Paid-up Capital
(B) Forfeited Share Capital
(C) Assets
(D) Capital to be called up only on liquidation of company
48.Expenses incidental to purchase of fixed assets are_
a . Debited to fixed asset
a. Credited to fixed asset
b. Debited to plant & Machinery
c. Credited to Plant & Machinery
49. Realization from Debtor’s should be as per the ----------- of the concern
a. Credit policy
b. Debit policy
c. Purchase policy
d. Sales policy
50. Share call amount due is credited to ------------------ account
a. Share application account
b. Share allotment account
c. Share capital account
d. Reserve account
Financial Services management
TYBBI Sem V
Question Bank
1. There are _____ parties involved in the contract of pledge.
a. Two
b. Three
c. Five
d. Eight
2. The one who pledges the asset is called as _____.
a. Pawnee
b. Pawnor
c. Depository
d. None pf the given
3. The one who grants a loan against collateral is called as Pawnee :
a. Pawnee
b. Pawnor
c. Depository
d. None pf the given
4. A bank included in the _____ schedule of the RBI Act 1934, is eligible to become depository.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth
5. NSDL was inaugurated on November, 08 _____.
a. 1996
b. 1997
c. 1998
d. 2000
6. A depository system is governed by _____ act.
a. RBI
b. Banking
c. SEBI
d. IRDA
7. A depository company must have a minimum net worth of ` _____ crore.
a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
d. 300
8. Informal credit is type of
a. Long term credit
b. Conditional credit
c. Credit cards
d. Check trading
9. The person who is having goods in his/her possession known as
a. Middle mens
b. Brokers
c. Factors
d. Del crede agents
10. Cash and carry is the type of
a. Whole sellers
b. Departmental stores
c. Super markets
d. Retailers
11. The compensation given by the insurance company known as
a. Mark ups
b. Premium
c. Profits
d. Tax
12. The third copy of credit card is required to send to the
a. Credit card company
b. Cash account
c. Banks
d. Card holders
13. The entrance fee is necessary for
a. Charge Cards
b. Long term credit
c. Check trading
d. Hire Purchase agreement
14. The person who work on the behalf of a principle known as
a. Middlemen
b. Broker
c. Agent
d. Wholesaler
15. Breaking bulk is the function of
a. Retailers
b. House owners
c. Manufacturers
d. Whole sellers
16. NHB stands for
a. National Housing bank
b. National Housing business
c. Non Housing Business
d. Nagaland Housing Board
17. National Housing Bank was set up on _____.
a. 09 July 1986
b. 09 July 1987
c. 09 July 1988
d. 09 July 1989
18. National Housing Bank was set up on July 9, 1988 under which among the following acts
a. National Housing bank act 1985
b. National Housing bank act 1986
c. National Housing bank act 1987
d. National Housing bank act 1988
19. The National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of
1. State Bank of India
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Union Bank of India
4. LIC of India
Unit III
20. The markets in which the derivatives are traded are classified as
1. assets backed market
2. cash flow backed markets
3. mortgage backed markets
4. derivative securities markets
21. The situation in which the large portion of majority is borrowed from the broker of
1. future investment
2. forward investment
3. leveraged investment
4. non-leveraged investment
22. The type of contract which involves the future exchange of assets at a specified price is
classified as :
1. future contracts
2. present contract
3. spot contract
4. forward contract
23. The type of unit which guarantees that all the buying and selling will be made by traders of
exchange is called
1. trading house
2. guarantee house
3. clearing house
4. professional house
24. The example of derivative securities is :
1. return backed security
2. mortgage backed security
3. cash flow backed security
4. interest backed security
25. Financial derivatives include :
1. stocks
2. bonds
3. futures
4. none of the given
26. A contract that requires the investor to buy securities on a future date is called as :
1. short contract
2. long contract
3. hedge
4. cross
Unit II
27. Factoring service is considered only in respect of receivables on account of
1. Debit sales
2. Credit sales
3. Cash Sales
4. Sales returns
28. A mutual fund is not
1. owned jointly by all investors
2. a company that manages investment portfolios of high net worth individuals
3. a pool of funds used to purchase securities on behalf of investors
4. a collective investment vehicle
29. The NAV of each scheme should be updated on AMFI's website
1. every quarter
2. every month
3. every hour
4. every day
30. Mutual funds are allowed to borrow
1. freely to meet their requirements
2. for investment purposes
3. only to meet redemption demands
4. not allowed at all
31. Who among the following are not eligible to invest in MF
1. Indian Companies
2. Banks
3. Non Banking Finance Companies
4. Foreign Citizens
32. What document Mutual Fund distributors need to refer for finding out eligible category of
investors in a particular Mutual Fund Scheme
1. SEBI Regulations Manual
2. AMFI booklet
3. Offer document
4. RBI Guidelines
5.
33. Investments made by a mutual fund on behalf of investors are accounted as
1. Assets
2. liabilities
3. capital
4. Expenses
34. The type of funds whose main objective is to hold an optimal mix of investments among cash,
equities, and income-producing securities is called as
a. Bond Funds
b. Equity Funds
c. Balanced Funds
d. Money Market funds
35. The type of funds whose main objective is to concentrate its holdings in one particular sector,
geographic region, or in one capital market is called as
a. Bond Funds
b. Speciality Funds
c. Equity Funds
d. Balanced Funds
36. Mutual Fund organisation does not involve
a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. Register & transfer agent
d. Asset management companies
37. Which of the following is a type of Factoring
a. General
b. Recourse
c. Specific
d. None of the given
1. Balanced fund
2. Money Market Fund
3. Equity Fund
38. Mutual fund organisations include
1. RBI
2. Central Government
3. State Government
4. Asset management companies
39. Which of the following is a type of factoring
1. General
2. Specific
3. With recourse
4. None of the given
40. Following is a party to factoring transaction
1. Shareholder
2. Drawer
3. Drawee
4. Debtor
Unit I
41. A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities and
1. Lending
2. Underwriting and financial advice
3. Investment service
4. All of the given
42. Formal merchant banking activity in India was originated in _____.
1. 1969
2. 1979
3. 1989
4. 1999
43. State Bank of India started merchant banking in _____
1. 1973
2. 1974
3. 1975
4. 1976
44. _____% of the GDP is domestic consumption–based.
1. 34
2. 40
3. 50
4. 64
45. Following is importance of Financial services.
a. Maximizes Return
b. Minimises Risks
c. Promotes Savings
d. All of the given
46. Following is the Non fund based Service
a. Leasing
b. Factoring
c. Hire Purchase
d. Issue management
47. Following is a Fee based Service
a. Leasing
b. Hire purchase
c. Factoring
d. Issue management
48. A mutual fund scheme has INR 1 crore as total assets under management with zero liabilities.
It has a total of 1,00,000 unit outstanding as of 31st march 2020. Calculate the NAV as on 31st
march 2020.
a. INR 10
b. INR 0.10
c. INR 1
d. INR 100
49. Mr Natvarlal purchase 1000 units of a mutual fund scheme with INR 100 lakhs as total assets
under management and a NAV of INR 10. What will be the total AUM of the scheme after
the investment made by Mr. Natvarlal
a. INR 99 lakhs
b. INR 101 Lakhs
c. INR 100 Lakhs
d. INR 200 Lakhs
50. Mr A is 36 years of Age and is the only earning member of his family consisting of his
Parent ( father aged 64 years & mother aged 59 years ) , his wife Aarti aged 32 years. He also
has a son, Raul aged 8 years. His total Annual income is 10 lakh P.A. as per you what should
be the appropriate life Insurance cover Mr A should have
a. INR 10 lakhs
b. INR 100 Lakhs
c. INR 1 Lakhs
d. INR 0 lakhs
TYBBI SEMESTER V
International Banking and Finance
(Sample Questions)
1) The Gold Standard System was popularized by __________
a. Bank of England
b. Bank of America
c. Bank of London
d. Bank of India
2) The US Federal Reserve Bank gave a ____________ Clause which stated an
unconditional guarantee to buy and sell unlimited.
a. Currency Convertibility
b. Forex Convertibility
c. Purchase Power Parity
d. Gold Convertibility
3) IBM India, a software company, which is initially based in the United States, but has
opened its subsidiaries in different parts of India. This is an example of _________.
a. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
b. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
c. Debt Flows
d. All of them
4) Statement A - GDR holders do not acquire any voting rights.
Statement B - GDR eliminates the equity funding risk.
a. Statement A is true and B is false
b. Statement B is true and A is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
5) Which of the following is NOT a derivative?
a. Futures
b. Options
c. Spot
d. Swaps
6) Since gold is traded in both New York and Tokyo stock exchanges. As soon as gold
becomes cheaper in Japanese market, Mr.A buys it in Tokyo stock exchange and
straight away sells in New York stock exchange to make a profit. In this case, Mr.A
will be ___________
a. Speculator
b. Hedger
c. Arbitrager
d. Broker
7) __________ can be done through derivatives.
a. External hedging
b. Internal hedging
c. Speculation
d. Arbitrage
8) __________ refers to the risk that a government may default on its debt obligations. It
is based on a government’s inability to meet loan obligations.
a. Sovereign risk
b. Exchange risk
c. Location risk
d. Economic risk
9) Statement A: In International Trade, there is a wider choice available for selection of
product.
Statement B: No country is self-sufficient in its resources, it has to depend upon trade
with other countries.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
10) Bitcoin mining is the process of creating new bitcoin by solving a computational
puzzle, also called as ___________
a. Hashing
b. dry run
c. hexa decimal
d. proof of work
11) In BOP, the difference between merchandise trade and invisible trade is known as
___________________.
a. Balance of merchandise
b. Balance of invisible trade
c. Balance of trade
d. None of them
12) The Smithsonian Agreement was abandoned in March __________
a. 1978
b. 1973
c. 1971
d. 1970
13) Out of the total Eurocurrency transactions which happens in the world, almost 1/3rd
share of the Eurocurrency market is focused upon __________
a. Washington
b. London
c. New York
d. Tokyo
14) Kangaroo Bonds are the foreign bonds floated/issues in ___________.
a. USA
b. UK
c. Japan
d. Australia
15) All the contracts in the foreign exchange market, must bear the clause – “subject to
the rules and regulations of the ____________”
a. Foreign Exchange Management Act
b. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
c. Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India
d. World Bank
16) __________is a centralised establishment, usually of a commercial bank, which is
always willing to make/offer a two-way dealing price for different currencies
a. Clearing house
b. Dealing room
c. Authorised Dealer
d. Head office
17) Calculate the Cross quote for EUR-GBP if EUR/USD is 1.1740 and USD/GBP is
0.7815
a. 0.9177
b. 0.9174
c. 0.9213
d. 0.9166
18) Options which provide the buyer the right to sell the specified foreign currency are
called as __________
a. Put option
b. Call option
c. Throw option
d. Risk option
19) Statement A: A crypto currency implies a virtual or advanced cash utilizing
cryptography in order to guarantee security.
Statement B: Bitcoins can only be obtained by the process of mining.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
20) Statement A: NRE A/c is a Rupee denominated account, means funds are maintained
in INR
Statement B: Funds cannot be transferred from NRO A/c to NRE A/c
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
21) Statement A: A BOP is prepared according to the principles of double entry system of
book-keeping.
Statement B: In practice, a BOP will always tally.
a. Both statements are False
b. Both statements are True
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
22) The left-hand side of BOP shows the _________________ of the country
a. Payments
b. Receipts
c. Assets
d. Liabilities
23) __________ means the currency of a country can be freely converted into foreign
exchange at market determined rate of exchange that is, exchange rate as determined
by demand for and supply of a currency.
a. Currency Convertibility
b. BOP Equilibrium
c. BOP Disequilibrium
d. Fixed Exchange Rate System
24) The Bretton Woods System was used during the years __________
a. 1801-1815
b. 1816-1914
c. 1915-1944
d. 1945-1971
25) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Gold Standard System?
a. It is much easier to implement than any other standard system
b. Gold standard provides currency which is universally acceptable
c. Gold standard cannot be secretly tampered by the independent will of the
government
d. It is an expensive standard and a luxury which all the countries cannot afford
26) The __________ emerged from a 1944 conference attended by 40 nations and aims to
standardize international monetary exchanges and policies in a broader effort to
nurture post World War II economic stability.
a. Gold Standard System
b. Flexible Exchange Rate System
c. Bretton Woods system
d. Managed Flexibility
27) The joint venture between SBI and BNP Paribas to form SBI Life Insurance is an
example of __________
a. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
b. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
c. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII)
d. IPO
28) A foreign company invests in the shares of Infosys (based in India) is an example of
__________
a. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
b. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
c. Debt Flows
d. All of them
29) Statement A: Euro Dollar, Euro Yen, Euro Rupee etc. are examples of Eurocurrency
deposits
Statement B: Eurocurrency deposits are accepted only in European countries
a. Both statements are True
b. Both statements are False
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
30) The major participant in Eurocurrency market is ___________
a. Corporates
b. Commercial Bank
c. Private Individuals
d. Government
31) _______ can be described as a negotiable derivative instrument, traded on a US
exchange, issued by a US bank, representing specified number of shares of a foreign
company, always denominated in US dollars and are issued only to US residents.
a. GDR
b. IDR
c. ADR
d. None of them
32) LIBOR stands for _____________________________________
a. London Interbank Operating Rate
b. London Interbank Offer Rate
c. London International bank Operating Rate
d. London International Bank Offer Rate
33) The other name for foreign exchange market is ____________
a. Forex market
b. FX market
c. currency market
d. All of them
34) __________ are derivative instruments that give a choice to a foreign exchange
market operator to buy or sell a foreign currency on or up to a date (maturity date) at a
specified rate (strike price).
a. Options
b. Swaps
c. Futures
d. Forwards
35) FEMA came into effect from ________
a. June 1, 1998
b. June 1, 1999
c. June 1, 2000
d. June 1, 1973
36) The management of foreign exchange market becomes necessary in order to prevent
and avoid _______
a. Trade
b. Foreign Exchange
c. Risks
d. Hedging
37) In practice, the settlement of a transaction takes _______ days in a Spot market.
a. T+0
b. T+1
c. T+2
d. T+3
38) __________ is the simultaneous buying and selling of foreign currencies with
intention of making profits from the difference between the exchange rate prevailing
at the same time in different markets.
a. Swap
b. Option
c. Future
d. Arbitrage
39) __________ the risk, _______ is the returns
a. Higher, lower
b. Higher, higher
c. More, less
d. Greater, same
40) Translation risk is also called as __________
a. Balance sheet risk
b. Profit & Loss risk
c. Transaction risk
d. Economic risk
41) __________ can be defined as the business risk arising out of changes in the
economic environment.
a. Transaction risk
b. Economic risk
c. Position risk
d. Market risk
42) A ____________ can be stated as an agreement between a buyer and a seller in which
the buyer acquires a right but not a compulsion to buy or sell specific quantity of
foreign currency on or before a fixed future maturity date at a predetermined price.
a. Forward contract
b. Future contract
c. Option contract
d. Swaps contract
43) __________ identifies imbalances that exists in a cross-border investment. It monitors
the potential for these risks to decrease the expected return of a cross-border
investment.
a. Investment Risk Analysis
b. Potential Risk Analysis
c. Country Risk Analysis
d. Market Risk Analysis
44) __________ refers to the risk that a government may default on its debt obligations. It
is based on a government’s inability to meet loan obligations.
a. Sovereign risk
b. Exchange risk
c. Location risk
d. Economic risk
45) The risk arising on currency rate fluctuations adversely which might lead to loss to
either party in transaction is _____________
a. Economic risk
b. Tolerable risk
c. Handling risk
d. Currency risk
46) Statement A: There is a lot of competition for market share among International
Banks
Statement B: Globalisation of banks has paved the way for expanding business
horizons abroad
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
47) Which of the following is a fintech company in India?
a. Paytm
b. PhonePe
c. PolicyBazaar
d. All of them
48) Abbreviation of Bitcoin cryptocurrency is _________
a. BTC
b. BTS
c. CTC
d. OTC
49) __________ is a process used by companies to turn raw data into useful information
by using software to look for patterns in large batches of data.
a. Blockchain
b. Algorithm
c. Data mining
d. Cryptocurrency
50) Statement A: There are almost 88% of bitcoins issued in the world.
Statement B: Today almost 900 bitcoins are added every day.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement A is true and B is false
d. Statement B is true and A is false
Research Methodology
Research is search for __________
A. Solution
B. Answer
C. Knowledge
D. Fun
Applied research is ____________.
A. Result Oriented
B. Solution Oriented
C. Customer Oriented
D. Observation Oriented
___________ research establishes cause and effect relationship
A. Descriptive
B. Explanatory
C. Causal
D. Applied
Two variables are called __________ Variables.
A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Continuous
D. Distinct
Qualitative research is ______________
A. Economical
B. Costly
C. Profitable
D. Cheaper
Research design is a ____________ of the whole research activity.
A. Blueprint
B. Plan
C. Structure
D. Strategy
_____________ hypotheses establish no relationship among variables.
A. Complex
B. Null
C. Analytical
D. Causal
Sampling involves both design choice and ________ size.
A. Research
B. Sample
C. Qualitative
D. Design
In __________ sampling method, sample units are selected at random.
A. Probability
B. Non – probability
C. Snowball
D. Cluster
__________ is obtained by selecting ‘convenient’ population unit.
A. Judgment sample
B. Convenient sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Snowball Sampling
__________ is a type of non-random sampling and is also called purposive sampling or deliberate
sampling.
A. Judgment sample
B. Convenient sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Snowball Sampling
__________ is a non-probability samples in which selection of additional respondents is based on
referrals from the initial respondents.
A. Judgment sample
B. Convenient sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Snowball Sampling
__________ methods are those in which every item in the universe has a known chance, or
probability, of being chosen for the sample.
A. Judgment sample
B. Convenient sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Snowball Sampling
__________ creates the foundation of the entire research work.
A. Research design
B. Data collection
C. Sample Design
D. Research topic
__________ is determined before data are collected.
A. Research design
B. Data collection
C. Sample Design
D. Research topic
__________ is any process of preparing and collecting data.
A. Research design
B. Data collection
C. Sample Design
D. Research topic
__________ is research done simply to find out something by examining anything.
A. Basic or Pure research
B. Applied research
C. Descriptive research
D. Analytical research
___________ is a specific type of research that involves critical thinking skills and the evaluation of
facts and information relative to the research being conducted.
A. Basic or Pure research
B. Applied research
C. Descriptive research
D. Analytical research
Observation method gathers ___________ data.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Both Primary and Secondary
In _______________ observation subjects do not know they are being observed.
A. Disguised
B. Undisguised
C. Structured
D. Unstructured
______________ is the procedure to test questionnaire.
A. Editing
B. Piloting
C. Coding
D. Communicating
_______________ data is also known as recorded data from published sources.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Both Primary and Secondary
Response rate is __________ in personal interview technique.
A. Lowest
B. Highest
C. Limited
D. Restricted
Experimental method of data collection is ____________ and ___________.
A. Costly and lengthy
B. Quick and economical
C. Easy and safe
D. Accurate and speedy
Sample is a small representative of the _____________ population.
A. Total
B. Whole
C. Majority
D. Specific
In Multiple choice questions, choice given restricted to _____________.
A. Few alternatives
B. Large alternatives
C. Many alternatives
D. Unlimited alternatives
Pilot questionnaire is followed by _____________ questionnaire.
A. Final
B. First
C. Second
D. Second pilot
The method of collecting data through mailing of questionnaires to respondent is called
____________.
A. Mail survey
B. specific survey
C. general survey
D. Internet survey
___________ questionnaires are those in which the questions are definite.
A. Mixed
B. Structured
C. Unstructured
D. Open end
In __________ fixed alternatives answers are given so respondent can choose appropriate one.
A. Open end
B. Structured
C. Unstructured
D. Closed question
_____________ questions are designed to allow free response on the subject where the issue is
identified.
A. Mixed
B. Structured
C. Unstructured
D. Open end
Data processing does not consist of _____.
A. Editing
B. Coding
C. Tabulation
D. Analysis
While editing the following point must be scrutinized
A. Whether the data is reliable and accurate
B. Whether all questions have been answered
C. Whether all the schedules are uniform
D. Whether the data is reliable and accurate, whether all questions have been
answered, whether all the schedules are uniform.
One of the essentials of coding is __________
A. Table Number
B. Title of the Table
C. Sub-Title
D. One specific code
______________ refers to the task of drawing inferences from the collected facts after an
experimental study.
A. Analysis
B. Interpretation
C. Coding
D. Editing
Interpretation of the data has become a very important because of ________________.
A. More understanding
B. findings the reasons
C. in-depth knowledge
D. More understanding, findings the reasons, in-depth knowledge
______________ refers to statistically describing, aggregating, and presenting the constructs of
interest or associations between these constructs.
A. Qualitative Analysis
B. Quantitative Analysis
C. Descriptive Analysis
D. Inferential Analysis
Coded data can be entered into__________.
A. Spreadsheet
B. Database
C. Text file
D. Spreadsheet, Database, Text file
__________ examines how two variables are related to each other.
A. Univariate analysis
B. Bivariate analysis
C. Correlation Analysis
D. Causal Analysis
__________ compares a sample mean to a known population mean.
A. Paired Samples T-Test
B. One-Sample T-Test
C. ANOVA technique
D. F-test
__________ compares two sample means from the same population regarding the same variable at
two different times.
A. Paired Samples T-Test
B. One-Sample T-Test
C. ANOVA technique
D. F-test
Data processing is the conversion of ______________ to meaningful information.
A. Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Raw data
D. Statistical data
________________ is the process of eliminating errors.
A. Editing
B. Coding
C. Tabulation
D. Analysis
_________________ saves time during data analysis
A. Editing
B. Coding
C. Tabulation
D. Analysis
Editing of data is a ______________ job.
A. Research
B. Academic
C. Critical
D. Easy
Interpretation is the _____________ of the research process.
A. Basis
B. Climax
C. Ground
D. Start
_____________ is the middle value.
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Regression
A statistical tool with the help of which we can find the degree of relationship that exists between
two or more variables is technically called _____________.
A. Correlation
B. Regression
C. Causation
D. Coefficient of determination
The correlation of a sample is represented by the letter ______________.
A. q
B. r
C. m
D. x
If there is no correlation between the two variables, then it is called _______________.
A. Positive correlation
B. Negative correlation
C. Zero correlation
D. Weak correlation
The range of possible values for a correlation is between___________.
A. -1 to +1
B. 0 to + 1
C. -1 to + 0
D. -2 to +1
_____________is a statistical method with the help of which we can estimate value of one variable
for the given value of the other variable.
A. Digression
B. Correlation
C. Regression
D. Causation
Application of regression is found in _________________.
A. Predictive Analytics
B. Operation Efficiency
C. Supporting Decisions
D. Predictive Analytics, Operation Efficiency, Supporting Decisions
Factor analysis is a technique that requires a _______________________.
A. Large sample size
B. Small sample size
C. Medium sample size
D. Few samples size
_________________ is used when we believe that the sample units come from an unknown number
of distinct populations or sub-populations.
A. Factor Analysis
B. Cluster Analysis
C. Multidimensional Analysis
D. Predictive Analytics
_________________ is a multivariate method which aims to classify a sample of subjects.
A. Factor Analysis
B. Cluster Analysis
C. Multidimensional Analysis
D. Predictive Analytics
_____________________the last activity of the research process.
A. Research design
B. Sample design
C. Report writing
D. Drawing Conclusions
A research report provides _____________ about a particular matter or subject.
A. Consolidated
B. Factual
C. up-to-date information
D. Consolidated, Factual, up-to-date information
A written format of a research work is known as ________________.
A. Research design
B. Sample design
C. Research report
D. Drawing Conclusions
A main body of report includes _____________.
A. Bibliography
B. Appendix
C. Analysis of the problem
D. Copies of data collection instruments
Title page includes ________.
A. Name of the candidate
B. Submission Month & Year
C. Title of the thesis
D. Name of the candidate, Submission Month & Year, Title of the thesis
Reference material includes ________.
A. Bibliography
B. Appendix
C. Copies of data collection instruments
D. Bibliography, Appendix, Copies of data collection instruments
____________includes the acknowledgement to the persons and sources that have been helpful to
the investigator.
A. Preface
B. Table of Contents
C. List of Tables
D. Preface, Table of Contents, List of Tables
____________ lists all the main chapter headings and the essential sub-heading in each with the
appropriate page numbers against each.
A. Preface
B. Table of Contents
C. List of Tables
D. Preface, Table of Contents, List of Tables
____________ consists of the titles or captions of the tables included in the thesis along with the
page number where these can be located.
A. Preface
B. Table of Contents
C. List of Tables
D. Preface, Table of Contents, List of Tables
____________ is the last section of the research report.
A. Introduction
B. Review of literature
C. Analysis
D. Conclusion
Technical report is ________________.
A. Difficult to understand
B. Easy to understand
C. Complicated to understand
D. Lengthy to understand
_____________ is designed for publications in a professional journal.
A. Preface
B. Report
C. Research abstract
D. Research article
_________________ constitute the heart of research report.
A. Introduction
B. Recommendations
C. Findings
D. Conclusions
Research abstract is a summary of _______________ report.
A. Research
B. Technical
C. Audit
D. Popular
Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List - I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning)
(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach
(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be answered
(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience
(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question
(v) non-directive
a. a – iv b – i c – ii d – iii
b. a – ii b – iv c – i d – iii
c. a – v b – ii c – iv d – i
d. a – i b – iii c – v d – iv
. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?
(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.
(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with
objectivity.
a. IV, II and I
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II, III and IV
From the list given below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling
procedures’:
(i) Simple random sampling
(ii) Dimensional sampling
(iii) Snowball sampling
(iv) Cluster sampling
(v) Quota sampling
(vi) Stratified sampling
Choose the correct option
a. (i), (ii) and (iii)
b. (ii), (iv) and (V)
c. (i), (iii) and (V)
d. (ii). (iii) and (V)
The components of a research design are:
(a) Comparison
(b) Control
(c) Reactivity
(d) Manipulation
(e) Non representativeness
(f) Generalization
a. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
b. (a), (c), (e) and (f)
c. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
d. (a), (b), (d) and (f)
. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and
characteristics of research.
(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.
(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.
(iii) Research is creativity and charisma. www.netugc.com (iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.
(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.
(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
a. (ii), (iv) and (vi)
b. (i), (ii) and (iii)
c. (iv), (v) and (vi)
d. (i), (iii) and (v)
. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates
their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set – I (Research types) Set – II (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various
situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
a. a – ii b – iv c – iii d – i
b. a – v b – iv c – iii d – ii
c. a – i b – ii c – iii d – iv
d. a – ii b – iii c – iv d – v
Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is
relatively greater?
(1) Preparing research summary
(2) Presenting a seminar paper
(3) Participation in research conference
(4) Participation in a workshop
Which of the following is the most likely code book entry for a three point satisfaction scale?
a. 1= satisfied, 10= very satisfied, 100= extremely satisfied
b. 1= satisfied, 2= extremely satisfied, 3=extremely dissatisfied
c. 1= dissatisfied, 3= satisfied, 5= very dissatisfied
d. 1=dissatisfied, 2= neither dissatisfied or satisfied, 3= satisfied
‘Please circle your main mode of transport to university: 1: Walk, 2: Bicycle, 3: Bus; 4: Train;
5: Car, 6: Other’. This question is _________.
A. An open-ended quantitative question
b. A closed categorical question
c. An open-ended qualitative question
d. Neither open ended nor close ended
Strategic Management (Question Bank)
MCQ – 50
1) The process of collecting scrutinizing and providing information for strategic
purposes are called ----
a) Strategy Evaluation
b) Strategy Formulation
c) Environmental Scanning
d) Environmental Mapping
2) ____implies making a strategy work as intended or putting the organization’s
chosen strategy into action.
a) Strategy implementation
b) Environmental scanning
c) Strategy evaluation
d) Strategy formulation
3) ____refers to the organizational arrangements, formal relationships, and
hierarchy.
a) Systems
b) Structure
c) Shared values
d) Strategy
4) -------are units or products that have both a low market share and a low growth
rate.
a) Cash Cows
b) Question marks
c) Stars
d) Dogs
5) -------------is formulated at the top level by the top management.
a) Corporate level strategy
c) Business Level Strategy
b) Functional Level Strategy
d) Operational Level Strategy
6)____finance refers to all funds raised to promote party activity and promote candidates.
a) Political
b) Campaign
c) Marketing
d) Business
7) Making a proper use of funds is the social responsibility of business to _____
a) Shareholders
b) Suppliers
c) Customers
d) Government
8) _____ are the positive competencies of a firm as compared to its competitors in
different functional areas.
a) Profit margins
b) Goodwill
c) Capital
d) Strengths
9) ____is used to test the waters before continuing with a full-fledged strategy.
a) No change strategy
b) Profit strategy
c) Stability strategy
d)Pause/proceed with caution strategy
10) _____is selection of the best strategic option that helps to achieve organization’s
objectives.
a) Strategic choice
b) Strategic implementation
c) Strategic formulation
d) Strategic evaluation
11) Microenvironment does not include _____
a) mission
b) management structure
c) human resource
d) Customers
12) ______ is concerned with the managerial exercise of executing a chosen strategy
that is putting the strategy into action for achieving objectives.
a) Strategic analysis
b) Strategic Implementation
c) Strategic choice
d) Strategic analysis
13) By _____ managers ensure that the required actions are working as expected.
a) Strategic Articulation
b) Strategic Validation
c) Strategic Monitoring
d) Strategic engagement
14) ____indicates how much income should flow in each period.
a) Profitability standards
b) Market position standard
c) Productivity standards
d) Product leadership standards
15) ________ focusses on the set of interrelated activities performed in sequence for
producing and marketing a product and service.
a) Quantitative Analysis
b) Value chain analysis
c) Qualitative analysis
d) Comparative Analysis.
16) -------------is formulated at the middle level by the heads of various departments.
management.
a) Corporate level strategy
b) Business Level Strategy
c) Functional Level Strategy
d) Operational Level Strategy
17) _____strategies are pursued when a company’s product lines are performing
poorly because of weak competitive position or general decline in industry or
markets.
a) Retrenchment
b) Expansion
c) Combination
d)Stability
18) -------is a process of systematically surveys and interprets relevant data to
identify external opportunities and threats
a) Strategy Evaluation
b) Strategy Formulation
c) Environmental Scanning
d) Environmental Mapping
19) ____involves sale of same products in new market.
a) Market penetration
b) Market development
c) Product development
d) Product introduction
20)) ------ is a law to protect employee.
a) The MRTP Act
b) Consumer Credit Act
c) The Factory Act
d) The competition Act
21) The beliefs customs practices and behaviours of people comes under ------
environment
a) Ecological
b) Social
c) Legal
d) Economic
22) Evolution of the software and the rapid advances in field of telecommunication is
a part of ------environment
a) Ecological
b) Social
c) Legal
d) Technological
23)_____is building consensus within the team responsible for delivery of the
strategy about the outcomes to be achieved.
a) Strategic Articulation
b) Strategic Validation
c) Strategic communication
d) Strategic engagement
24) Avoiding artificial scarcity of products is a part of social responsibility of
business to _____
a) Employees
b) Suppliers
c) Customers
d) Government
25) Expansion through _______strategy requires a lot of cash.
a) Concentration
b) Integration
c) Digitalization
d) Diversification
26) _____involves the integration of businesses operating at the same level or
acquisition of one or more competitors.
a) Backward integration
b) Horizontal integration
c) Vertical integration
d) Forward integration
27) ______is an association of business units from the same or different industries
with a view to accomplish certain well-defined objectives like market control,
creation of monopoly, elimination of competition.
a) Concentration
b) Integration
c) Digitalization
d) Diversification
28) Anything that a firm does especially well compared to rival firms is referred to as
a) Competitive advantage
b) Comparative advantage
c) An external opportunity
d) Opportunity cost
29) _____ is an analytic tool to determine those organizations in an industry who
have a similar strategic characteristic, follow similar strategies.
a) Strategic group analysis
b) Experience curve analysis
c) Corporate parenting analysis
d) Life cycle analysis
30) Effective ____is essential for accomplishing the organisational goals.
a) teamwork
b) results
c) sales
d) actions
31) _____is the capacity, location, layout, and service design etc.
a) Production system
b) Operation planning
c) Research and development
d) Operational level
32) ____structure is set up so that each portion of the organization is grouped
according to its purpose.
a) Functional
b) Divisional
c) Strategic Business Unit
d) Matrix
33) The problem of limited resources within a firm makes _____ particularly important as
the firm decides how to allocate its resources.
a) Long-range planning
b) Short-term planning
c) Strategy formulation
d) Strategy implementation
34) Formal systems are adopted to bring _____ & amalgamation of decentralized units into
product groups.
a) Manpower
b) Co-ordination
c) Production
d) Recruitment
35) The two most critical questions that _____ strategy must address are how a company
will achieve its objectives today, when other firms may be competing to satisfy the same
customer's needs and how the firm plans to compete in the future.
a) Corporate
b) Functional
c) Operational
d) Business
36) Leader as a _____ is responsible to provide strategic direction to the organization.
a) decision maker
b) organizer
c) guide
d)motivator
37) Which environment is special teams, political issues, legal changes, macro, and
technology trends?
a) Internal
b) Industry
c) General external
d)Global
38) Leader as a _____ does the basic function of planning and working of strategies.
a) decision maker
b) organizer
c) guide
d)motivator
39) Leader as a _____ has the responsibility to study the situation and find the gap
between current and desired state.
a) decision maker
b) analyst
c) guide
d)motivator
40)______is the correct order of steps in the strategic control process.
a) Taking corrective action, determine what to control, Set standards, Measurement
of standards and Analysis of Variance
b) Determine what to control, set standards, Measurement of standards, Analysis of
Variance and Taking corrective action.
c) Determine what to control, taking corrective action, Set standards, Measurement
of standards and Analysis of Variance
d) Set standards, taking corrective action, determine what to control, Measurement
of standards and Analysis of Variance
41) ___________Benchmarking involves businesses or operations from within the
same organization.
a) External
c) Performance
b) Process
d) Internal
42) ___________Benchmarking is used by successful high performers to improve a
business’s high performance.
a) External
c) Performance
b) Strategic
d)Process
43) Which level is the lowest level of strategy?
a) CEO
b) Business
c) Functional
d) Operations
44) ________aims at evaluating whether the plans, programmes and projects are
guiding the organizations towards the predetermined objectives or not.
a) Implementation Control
b) Premise Control
c) Strategic Surveillance
d) Special Alert control
45) ___________Benchmarking involves comparison of organizational performance
of industry with other organization in the similar industry.
a) External
c) Performance
b) Process
d) Internal
46) ___________Benchmarking involves identifying how other organizations perform
same functional task.
a) External
c) Performance
b) Strategic
d)Process
47) ___________Benchmarking involves identification and analyses of the best
practitioners elsewhere in the world.
a) Domestic
c) Performance
b) International
d) Internal
48) _______provides information and experience to the strategist to prepare new
plans.
a) Benchmarking
b) Strategic Evaluation
c) Gap analysis
d) Strategy Formulation
49) _________control is concerned with whether the organization is doing the right
thing.
a) Traditional control
b) Informational control
c) Behavioural control
d) Contemporary control
50) ______is designed to observe wide range of events within and outside the
organization that are likely to affect the organization’s strategy.
a) Implementation Control
b) Premise Control
c) Strategic Surveillance
d) Special Alert control
TY BBI
Semester V
Business Ethics and Corporate Governance
Sample Question Paper
1. ________ refer to person’s personal or self created values and code of conduct. a) Personal ethics b) Professional ethics
c) Managerial ethics d) Business ethics
2. ________ is the principles and rules dictated by upper management in an organization
a) Personal ethics
b) Professional ethics c) Managerial ethics
d) Business ethics
3. ________ is a code of conduct in dealing of one person with another person a) Regulatory ethics
b) Transaction ethics c) Recognition ethics
d) Social ethics
4. ________ is applicable for an organisation engaged in foreign trade. a) International Trade
b) Domestic Trade c) Local Trade
d) Country Trade
5. _______ is a free market in which many buyers and sellers are present. a) Oligopoly
b) Monopoly c) Monopolistic
d) Perfect competition
6. Information technology act has been introduced in _____
a) 2001 b) 2205
c) 2000 d) 2006
7. ______ is the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty 2013 for Access to copy
right works for visually impaired person. a) China
b) India c) Japan
d) USA
8. Ethical practice goes beyond obeying the ______
a) Values b) Principles
c) Virtues d) Law
9. Which ethics affect family, relations, and finances ?
a. Personal
b. Managerial
c. Professional
d. Management
10. For business________, business ethics is compulsory.
a. Survival
b. Leader
c. Satisfaction
d. Growth
11. ________ theory based on Consequences of happiness
a) Utilitarian b) Fairness
c) Deontological d) Emotional
12. The term deontology derived from Greek word deon means______
a) Goodness b) Happiness
c) Duty d) Moral
13. ______ approach treat everyone equally regardless of their status
a) Common good b) Fairness
c) Virtual d) Utilitarian
14. ______ theory is consequences based.
a) Utilitarian b) Fairness
c) Deontological d) Emotional
15. _______ objectives are given importance than lower order objectives.
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Middle d) Higher and Middle
16. Gandhian trusteeship aimed at reforming_______ society
a) Socialist b) Capitalist
c) Economist d) Democratic
17. Puffery advertisement are ______ a) ethical
b) unethical c) Neither ethical nor unethical
d) Accepted by Advertising council of India 18. _______ practice is unfair in International Trade
a) Dumping
b) Trade fair c) Promotional
d) Technological transfer. 19. Picturing women as a home maker in advertisement
is an example of _________
a) Surrogate advertisement
b) Puffery advertisement c) Stereotype advertisement
d) Exaggeration
20. Marketing Mix means__________
a. Product, Price , Promotion , Place
b. Product , Plan, Price, Promotion
c. Praise, Product, Place , Promotion
d. Promotion, Place . Praise, Praise
21. Considering the rights of all stake holders and giving equal treatment is called
_______ feature of Corporate Governance a) Accountability
b) Fairness c) Responsibility d) transparency
22. _________ helps to avoid scam
a) Corporate Governance b) Management Committee c) Internal Audit
d) Board of Directors 23. Which is not the core principles of Corporate Governance ________
a) Accountability b) Fairness c) Responsibility
d) Planning of strategy 24. Deceptive price is ________________
a) Trade practice b) Ethical c) Unethical
d) Immoral
25. ______ theory of CG based on the principle of self motivation and self interest.
a) Agency b) Shareholder theory
c) Stakeholder theory d) Stewardship theory
26. Intrinsic values are the values which are related to _____ a) goals of an individual
b) goals of society c) goal of the group, d) goal of an organisation)
27. Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a
business organization?
a. To make a profit
b. To procure resources
c. To communicate with shareholders
d. To meditate between the Organization and the environment.
28. Ethics in Free and Perfect Market means_________.
a. Anybody can dominate the market
b. No single buyer or seller can dominate the market
c. Powerful organizations can take hold of small organizations
d. There is no Freedom of opportunity and consent for buyers and sellers
29. The full form of CII is _______ _____________ _______. a. Configuration of Indian Industries
b. Constituents of Indian Industries
c. Consolidation of Indian Industries
d. Confederation of Indian Industries
30. Which one of the following is termed as ethical practice in marketing.
a. Misinterpretation
b. Exaggeration
c. Omission
d. Disclosure of facts
31. _____ values help an individual to achieve intrinsic value.
a) Higher order
b) Instrumental value
c) Motivating
d) Ethical
32. ________ values are higher order value
a) Intrinsic
b) extrinsic
c) instrumental
d) Ethical
33. Bible, Quran, Geeta are called as _______
a) Religious text
b) Epics of India
c) Scriptures
d) manuscripts
34. Audit committee consists of ______directors.
a) dependent directors,
b) independent
c) executive
d) non – executive
35.Board of directors are responsible for implementing________ responsibility.
a) economical
b) social
c) fiduciary
d) welfare
36. Dividend is declared in _______
a) Annual General Meeting b) class meeting c) Statutory meeting
d) special Annual General Meeting 37. Securities and Exchange Board of India has been set up in ______
a) 1990
b)1988
c) 1992,
d) 1995
38. Securities and Exchange Board of India has been set up to protect the interest of issuers,
intermediaries and ________.
(a)company
b) investors,
c) brokers
d) society
39. Prohibition of price rigging is one of the ________ function of SEBI
a) developmental,
b) regulatory
c) protective,
d) administering)
40.SEBI framed code of conduct as a ________function.
a) developmental,
b) regulatory
c) protective,
d) administering)
41. Government of India has introduced the negotiable Instruments Act1881, which
provides for provisions to deal with cases of _________under section 138 to 142.
a. Cheque bounce
b. Check bounce
c. Take Bounce
d. Ted Bounce
42. _________ is defined as any behaviour by which a person intended to gain a dishonest
advantage over another. a. Trend
b. Fraud
c. Scam
d. distrust
43. Cut the Red Tape’- is one of the measures to overcome __________.
a. Poverty
b. Corruption
c. Malpractices
d. Corelation
44. To ensure best practice , organizations need both to measure their ______________
performance and to foster open______.
a. Ethical, Discussion
b. Unethical, Discussion
c. Brain storming , Discussion
d. Ethical dilemma, Discussion
44.____________ is a widely publicized allegation or set of allegations that damage ( or
tries to damage ) the reputation of an Institution ., individual or creed .
a. Scam
b. Scandal
c. Scan
d. Sham
45. During __________ the politicians try to lure the people by offering money and other
things.
a. Festivals
b. Elections
c. Recession
d. Selection
46. Business is extremely a wide term in the business world at _______ as well as ______
level.
a. National ,State
b. State ,District
c. National, International
d. International, Inter-global
47. Ethics are important not only in business but in all aspects of life because it is an
essential part of the foundation on which a _______society is build
a. Uncivilized
b. Civilized
c. Civilian
d. Non –Civilian
48. ___________ business is the oldest and most common mode of economic organization.
a. Private
b. Family
c. Public
d. Corporate
49. India has no _______ detective agency which can investigate with full power and freedom
to expose the corrupt individuals.
a. Dependant
b. Independent
c. Separate
d. Special
50.Punishing corruption is a vital component of any effective ____________ effort.
a. Pro corruption
b. Anti corruption
c. Corruption
d. Co-operative
___________________________________________________________________________