PRINCE2.pdf

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PRINCE2 PRINCE2

PRINCE2 FoundationVersion: 3.1



Topic 1, Volume A

QUESTION NO: 1

In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,

continuation or termination of the project?

A. Project Initiation Document

B. Business Case

C. End Stage Approval

D. Project Brief

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2

Which product keeps track of Requests For Change?

A. Request Log

B. Daily Log

C. Quality Log

D. Issue Log

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and stage tolerances

B. Contingency plans

C. A Change Budget

D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4

Fill in the missing phrase from“a project is a management environment that is created for the

PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Exam

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purpose of delivering one or more business products according to……”

A. TheCustomer’sNeds

B. An Agreed Contract

C. The Project Plan

D. A specified Business Case

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5

In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the

Project Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?

A. a, b, c

B. b, c, a

C. c, a, b

D. c, b, a

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6

Which would require the production of an Exception Report?

A. When a Project Issue is received

B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint

C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received

D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerancebounds

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7

Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of“ Closing a Project”? “A clear end to a project”–

A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements





B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified

C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits

D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8

What is the more common term used in PRINCE2™ for“deliverable”?

A. Item

B. Package

C. Product

D. Component

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9

Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?

A. Exception Assessment

B. Highlight Reports

C. Project Closure

D. Work Package Authorisation

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10

What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting

to the Project Board?

A. Allowance

B. Contingency

C. ConcessionD. Tolerance





Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11

What other control is closely linked with configuration management?

A. Risk Management

B. Project Closure

C. Change Control

D. Project Initiation

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12

Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?

A. Starting Up a Project (SU)

B. Initiating a Project (IP)

C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)D. Controlling a Stage (CS)

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13

In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?

A. Quality

B. Specialist

C. Technical

D. Management

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14





If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be

taken?

A. An Exception Report is made

B. A Project Issue is raised

C. An Exception Memo is raised

D. The review is reconvened

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15

Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?

A. Has an organisation structure

B. Produces defined and measurable business products

C. Uses a defined amount of resources

D. Uses a defined set of techniques

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16

What environment does PRINCE2 assume?

A. A fixed-PRICE contract

B. A Customer/Supplier environment

C. A specialist environment

D. A third-party environment

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17

Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and

who is working on it?

A. Work Package





B. Product Description

C. Checkpoint Report

D. Configuration Management

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18

In “Closing a Project” (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?

A. To provide useful lessons to future projects

B. Never throw anything away.

C. This material may be needed by Programme Management

D. To permit any future audit of the project’s actions

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2™ are encouraged

to…

A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project

B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication

C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning

D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?

A. Prevention

B. Denial

C. ReductionD. Transference





Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21

Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?

A. Plans

B. Controls

C. Work Package

D. Configuration Management

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22

Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?

A. Product Outline

B. Product Breakdown Structure

C. Checkpoint ReportD. Product Checklist

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23

The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is –

A. The sum total of its products

B. The interim products

C. Its product description

D. The single end-product

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24





Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?

A. The change-over to operational use of the product

B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use

C. The specification of the product

D. Finalisation of the business case

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25

What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?

A. Allocation of priority

B. Logging

C. Decision on what type of issue

D. Impact Analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26

Which of these statements is FALSE?

A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.

B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.

C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.

D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process

“Starting Up a Project”

B. Acompany’sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2





C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company’s QMS

D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28

Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?

A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.

B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the

Customer.

C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.

D. To triger ‘Starting up a Project’.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29

How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?

A. Weekly

B. At Exception Assessments

C. At Checkpoint Meetings

D. On a regular basis

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30

What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project

Plan?

A. The Project Mandate

B. The Team Plan

C. The Risk LogD. The Project Brief





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 31

Why is a copy of the Project Issue always returned to the author?

A. The author owns it.

B. To acknowledge its receipt and entry into the system.

C. To elicit further information.

D. To notify rejection of the Issue.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32

Which of the options below reviews the benefits achieved by the project?

A. Post-Project Review

B. Post-Project Review Plan

C. End Project ReportD. Follow-on Action Recommendations

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33

Which of these statements is FALSE?

A. A PRINCE2™ project has a finite life span

B. A PRINCE2 project has a defined amount of resources

C. A PRINCE2 project may have only activities, i.e. no products

D. A PRINCE2 project has an organisation structure with defined responsibilities, to manage the

project

Answer: C

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 34

The person best situated to keep an eye on a risk is called its…?

A. Supporter

B. Monitor

C. OwnerD. Librarian

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35

Which document reviews actual achievements against the Project Initiation Document?

A. End Project Report

B. Post-Project Review

C. Lessons Learned Report

D. Follow-On Action Recommendations

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36

InPRINCE2alpotentialchangesaredealtwithas…?

A. Configuration items

B. Requests For Change

C. Project IssuesD. Exception Reports

E. Action items

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37

Which one of these is NOT a key criterion for producing a Product Flow Diagram?





A. Are the products clearly and unambiguously defined?

B. On what other products is each product dependent?

C. Is any product dependant on a product outside the scope of this plan?

D. Which products can be developed in parallel?

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38

For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers identified?

A. When the product is passed to configuration management

B. In the Project Quality Plan

C. During the QR preparation stepD. In planning the relevant stage

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39

The existence of what product is checked in “Starting up a Project” and its initial version finalizedin“Initiating a Project”?


B. The Project Plan

C. The Project Brief

D. The Business Case

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40

Which does PRINCE2 regard as the third project interest, given user and supplier as the other

two?

A. TechnicalB. Management

C. Business





D. Quality

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41

PRINCE2 lists a number of reasons why it is seldom desirable or possible to plan an entire project

in detail at the start. Which of these is NOT one of these reasons?

A. A changing or uncertain environment

B. A PRINCE2 requirement

C. Difficulty in predicting business conditions in the future

D. Difficulty in predicting resource availability well into the future

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42

In which process is the Project Brief produced?

A. Starting Up a Project

B. Initiating a Project

C. Authorising Initiation

D. Authorising a Project

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43

When should a Product Description be baselined?

A. As soon as it is available in draft form

B. When the associated product has passed its quality check

C. When the plan containing its creation is baselined

D. As soon as it is written

Answer: C

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 44

An Exception Plan covers what period?

A. From the problem to the end of the project

B. From the problem to the end of a plan that will no longer finish within agreed tolerances

C. The work needed to put the project back within its tolerances

D. The time needed to produce an Exception Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45

There are several benefits that the end stage assessment brings to a project. Which one of the

following is NOT a benefit?

A. To enable the approval of an Exception Report

B. To provide a review of a risky project at key moments when new information about those risks

appears

C. To ensure that key decisions are made prior to the detailed work needed to implement themD. To provide a ‘fire break’ for the project by encouraging the Project Board to assess the project

viability at regular intervals

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46

The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other

product?

A. The Project Approach

B. The Project Initiation Document

C. The project start-up notification

D. The Project Mandate

Answer: AExplanation:





QUESTION NO: 47

Which document is a record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement?

A. Exception Report

B. Off-Specification

C. Follow-On Action RecommendationsD. Highlight Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48

If there is a request to change a baselined product, and the change can be done within the stageor Work Package tolerances, how can the decision to implement the change be made?

A. Project Manager’s decision

B. Team Manager’s decision

C. Team member’ s decision to whom the work has been allocated

D. formal change control

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49

“Controlling a Stage” drives which other process on a frequent, iterative basis?

A. Managing Stage Boundaries

B. Approving a Stage or Exception PlanC. Managing Product Delivery

D. Planning

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50

The Project Quality Plan is written in which process?





A. Initiating a Project

B. Starting up a Project

C. Managing Stage Boundaries

D. Directing a Project

Answer: A

Explanation:

Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 51

What are defined as “partitions of the project with decision points”?

A. Work Packages

B. Product Descriptions

C. Quality Reviews

D. Stages

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52

In which lower level process of “Controlling a Stage” is the Risk Log up dated?

A. Reporting Highlights

B. Assessing Progress

C. Capturing Project Issues

D. Examining Project Issues

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53

If a question arises on why a particular product was changed, which element of

PRINCE2 would be of most help in finding the information?

A. Issue Log





B. Quality Log

C. Configuration Management

D. Change Control

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54

In which sub-process is a Stage Plan updated with actuals?

A. Assessing Progress

B. Reviewing Stage Status

C. Planning a Stage

D. Reporting Highlights

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55

In which sub-process are Checkpoint Reports created?

A. Executing a Work Package


C. Reporting Highlights

D. Reviewing Stage Status

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56

Are the following statements true or false?

1 Delegated Project Assurance roles report directly to corporate or programme management

2 In PRINCE2 the Project Manager role must be full time

3 A project management structure is a temporary structure





A. All three are false

B. Only the third is true

C. Only the first is false

D. The second and third are true

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 57

The proces,“Directing a Project” begins when?

A. From“ Starting up a Project”

B. After the start-up of the project

C. At the end of the Initiation StageD. Before start-up of the project

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58

Apart from“Initiating a Project” in which process is the Business Caseupdated?

A. Managing Product Delivery

B. Controlling a Stage


D. Authorising a Stage

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59

The existence of what in formation is expected by the process “Starting Up a Project”?

A. A Project Plan

B. A Project Mandate

C. An appointed organisationD. Project Initiation Document





Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 60

In the PRINCE2 document management structure, how many types of file are recommended?

A. One for each Stage

B. Two, Management and Specialist

C. Just the Quality File

D. Three; project, stages and quality

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61

In a Quality Review which role does PRINCE2 suggest must ensure that all reviewers are

provided with the relevant review products?

A. Producer

B. ScribeC. Review Chairperson

D. Configuration Librarian

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62

Which of these is mandatory in a PRINCE2 project?

A. The use of Team Managers

B. The use of Exception Plans

C. The use of Stages

D. The use of Product Checklists

Answer: C

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 63

The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the management of risk. Which of the

following options is the FALSE one?

A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the project

B. Making decisions on recommended reactions to riskC. Identifying, recording and regularly reviewing risks

D. Striking a balance between levels of risk and potential benefits

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64

What function creates, maintains and monitors the use of a quality system?

A. Project Support

B. Quality Planning

C. Quality Control

D. Quality assurance

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 65

Which is NOT a purpose of configuration management?

A. To identify products

B. To create productsC. To track products

D. To protect products

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66

Which step is NOT part of “Accepting a Work Package”?





A. Understand the reporting requirements

B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package

C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package

D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the

constraints

Answer: CExplanation:

QUESTION NO: 67

Which process provides the information needed for the Project Board to assess the continuing

viability of the project?

A. Starting up a ProjectB. Closing a Project

C. Planning

D. Managing Stage Boundaries

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68

Which of the following are described in the Communication Plan?

1) Who needs information

2) What information they need

3) Why they need it

4) The format in which it should be presented.

A. The fourth is wrong

B. All four are correct

C. Only the first two are correct

D. The third is wrong.

Answer: D

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 69

In which process are decisions made on Exception Reports?


B. Closing a Project

C. Directing a ProjectD. Managing Product Delivery

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70

Which process checks for changes to the project management team?

A. Starting up a Project

B. Managing Stage Boundaries

C. Closing a Project


Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71

From the products listed, which one is produced during ‘Starting Up a Project’?

A. The Project Initiation Document

B. The Project Plan

C. The Project Quality PlanD. The Project Approach

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 72

Quality responsibilities, both within and external to the project, are defined in which process?









Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73

Acceptance for the completed products is obtained as part of which process?

A. Closing a Project

B. Managing Product Delivery


D. Controlling a Stage

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74

An Exception Report is produced in which sub-process?

A. Taking Corrective Action


C. Escalating Project Issues


Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 75

Which of the following are functions of the start-up process, SU?

1) Setting up the project management team

2) Developing the Project Mandate into the Project Brief

3) Confirming the Project Approach

4) Creating the Issue Log





A. All four

B. the first three

C. the first two

D. the third is wrong

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76

Which role from the following list does PRINCE2™ say cannot be delegated?

A. Team Manager

B. Project Assurance

C. Project Board MemberD. Project Support

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77

New versions of the Project Plan are produced at the end of each stage to reflect updatedinformation. Identify which option is FALSE.

A. Progress already made

B. Benefits already achieved

C. Any agreed changes in circumstances

D. Any revised forecast of cost

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 78

The decision on whether a project’s solution will be contracted to third parties is made in which

product?

A. The Project PlanB. The Project Approach






D. The Project Quality Plan

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 79

Apart from “Initiating a Project” in which process is the Business Case updated?




D. Authorising a Stage


QUESTION NO: 80

What does PRINCE2 suggest may assist in the ultimate acceptance of the project?

A. Identifying Risks associated with a planB. Agreeing the Quality Criteria for a product with the Customer

C. Establishing tolerance levels

D. Follow-on Action Recommendations

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 81

Which individual role is ultimately accountable for the project?

A. Project Manager

B. Senior Supplier

C. Executive

D. Senior User






QUESTION NO: 82

Who is responsible for the project producing a result that is capable of achieving the benefits

defined in the Business Case?

A. The Executive

B. The Project ManagerC. The Senior User

D. The entire Project Board

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83

In which document does PRINCE2™ look for the identification of the Chairman of a Quality

Review?

A. Project Plan

B. Stage Quality Plan

C. Project Quality Plan

D. Project Initiation Document

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 84

Which of the following quality measures is covered in the process “Initiating a Project” (IP)?

A. How quality will be achievedB. When each product will be tested

C. By whom each product will be tested

D. Options A, B and C

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85

In terms of configuration management what are described as the assets of a project?





A. The resources

B. The plans

C. The products

D. The business benefits

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 86

Which of the following products is NOT created during the PRINCE2™ process model?

A. Project Brief

B. Project Mandate

C. Project Initiation DocumentD. Project Plan

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 87

Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of “Closing a Project”?

A. A clear end to a project provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements and

experience

B. A clear end to a project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and

objectives are identified

C. A clear end to a project provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected

benefits

D. A clear end to a project is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into use

and subsequent modification of the product

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88

In which process are checks made for changes to the project management team?

A. Starting up a Project





B. Managing Stage Boundaries



Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and Stage Tolerances

B. A Change Budget

C. Contingency Plans

D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 90

Which option is NOT part of the Project Initiation Document?

A. Project Mandate

B. Initial Business Case


D. Communication Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 91

On behalf of whom do any appointed assurance jobs assure the project?

A. Project Manager

B. Corporate Management

C. Project Executive

D. One or more members of the Project Board

Answer: D





Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92

Which statement most accurately reflects the reason for an Exception Assessment in

PRINCE2™?

A. For the Project Manager to present an Exception Plan to the Project Board

B. The Project Manager delivers a progress report to the Project Board as a confidence boost

C. The Project Board meets to consider an Exception Report

D. The Project Manager reviews and revises the Risk Log with those with assurance roles

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 93

If a product is to be changed, what else must also pass through change control?

A. Stage Quality Plan

B. Product Breakdown Structure

C. Product DescriptionD. Quality Log

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 94

As part of “Assessing Progress” the Project Manager looks at Checkpoint Reports,

Work Packages status and what other product?

A. Highlight Reports

B. The Quality Log

C. The Business Case

D. Project Initiation Document

Answer: B

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 95

What document is input to the Project Board with a request to authorise the project?

A. The Project Brief

B. The Project Mandate

C. The Project Initiation DocumentD. An Implementation Plan

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 96

What is the first task in product-based planning?

A. Creating a Product Checklist

B. Creating a Product Description for the final product

C. Creating a Product Flow Diagram

D. Creating a Product Breakdown Structure

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 97

Which one of these is NOT a Project Issue?

A. Annotation of minor errors on a Quality Review product

B. Request to change the specification of requirements

C. Suggestion to improve a project productD. Record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98

Which role is suggested might act as Scribe to a Quality Review?

A. Project Assurance





B. Reviewer

C. Project Support

D. The Review Chairman

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99

What does PRINCE2™ say must drive the project?


B. The Project Initiation Document


D. The Business Case

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 100

Which phrase applies to the user representative in a PRINCE2 project management team?

A. They will be impacted by the outcome

B. May need to use both in-house and external teams to construct the final outcome

C. Representation from the business viewpoint

D. Will provide the funding

Answer: A

Explanation:

Topic 3, Volume C

QUESTION NO: 101

Which process covers overall direction and decision-making of the project?



C. Directing a Project

D. Managing Stage Boundaries





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 102

What is the fundamental principle behind the process “Managing Product Delivery”?

A. A controlled break between Project Manager and product creation/provision by third party

suppliers

B. Before a Work Package is allocated to the team, there should be agreement with the

Project Manager on what is to be delivered

C. Whatever the type of project, the actual task of creating the required products needs to be

managed

D. Work only commences and continues with the consent of the Project Manager

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103

The Product-based Planning technique is recommended for which plans?

A. Stage Plans only

B. Project and Stage Plans only

C. All levels of plan

D. All levels of plan except the Exception Plan

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 104

The use of which of these roles is OPTIONAL?

A. Executive

B. Project Manager

C. Senior User

D. Team Manager

Answer: D

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 105

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The two standard elements to tolerance are time and cost

B. Tolerance is the permissible deviation from plan without bringing the deviation to the attention

of the next higher authority.

C. Separate tolerance figures should be given for time and cost.

D. The Project Board has absolute discretion to set new tolerances at Project and Stage

Plan levels whenever it wishes to whatever levels it wishes.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 106

In which lower level process of Controlling a Stage is a Stage Plan updated with actuals?

A. Assessing Progress


C. Planning a StageD. Reporting Highlights

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 107

Which process produces operational and maintenance acceptance of products?





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 108





Who does PRINCE2™ say may re-evaluate the priority of an issue after impact analysis?

A. The Team Manager

B. Those with assurance responsibilities

C. The Author

D. The Project Board

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 109

Which report does the Project Manager receive on a regular basis?

A. Highlight Report

B. Checkpoint Report

C. Issue Report

D. Exception Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110

In PRINCE2 all potential changes are dealt with as …?

A. Requests For Change

B. Off-Specifications

C. Configuration Items

D. Project Issues

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111

Given that producing a Product Breakdown Structure and a Product Flow Diagram are two of the

steps of product-based planning, which is another?

A. Identifying activities and dependencies

B. Writing Product Descriptions





C. Scheduling

D. Defining and analysing products

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 112

In preparing for a Quality Review, who should distribute a copy of the product and Product

Description to the reviewers?

A. The Project Manager

B. the Scribe

C. the Team Manager

D. the Producer

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 113

What are described as “the backbone of the management information system required for any

project”?

A. Highlight Reports

B. Plans

C. The control points

D. End Stage Assessments

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 114

Which PRINCE2 technique helps to ensure that all personnel affected by a product have the same

understanding of the product’s purpose?

A. Quality Review

B. Configuration ManagementC. Product-based Planning

D. Change Control





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 115

If there were a need to know what the precise content of an old version of a product was, what

part of PRINCE2™ would most help us?

A. The Stage Plan

B. The Issue Log

C. Configuration Management

D. Work Package Authorisations

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 116

The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other

product?

A. The Project ApproachB. The Project Initiation Document

C. The project start-up notification

D. The Project Mandate

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 117

What is a concession?

A. A contract to a third party

B. An error found in a Quality Review which is not corrected

C. An Off-Specification accepted by the Project Board without corrective action

D. An allowance above and beyond tolerance levels






QUESTION NO: 118

Are the majority of PRINCE2™ controls described as…?

A. Event-driven

B. Time-driven

C. Ad hocD. Technique-based

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 119

Which product does PRINCE2 suggest should include the budget and schedule impact ofchanges?

A. Checkpoint Report

B. Exception Report

C. Highlight Report

D. Lessons Learned Report

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 120

What time-driven control ascertains the status of team members’ work?

A. Highlight Report

B. Checkpoint ReportC. Exception Report

D. End Stage Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 121

What plan identifies quality responsibilities for the project?





A. The Project Plan

B. a Stage Quality Plan

C. the Project Quality Plan

D. a Team Plan

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 122

In which process does the Project Manager ask the Project Board where the authority for making

change lies?

A. During Starting Up A Project

B. During Initiating a ProjectC. In Giving Ad Hoc Direction

D. When Authorising a Stage

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 123

Apart from the Issue Log, what else is updated by the lower level process “Examining Project

Issues”?

A. Lessons Learned Log

B. Business Case

C. Risk Log

D. Stage Plan

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 124

Closure of the project can only be authorised in which of these processes?

A. Initiating a ProjectB. Closing a Project







Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 125

Which report assesses what management processes worked well and what went badly?

A. Follow-on Action Recommendations

B. End Stage Report

C. Business Case review

D. Lessons Learned Report

Answer: DExplanation:

QUESTION NO: 126

What does PRINCE2™ suggest is a direct input to the Project Quality Plan?

A. ISO 9001B. Stage Quality Plan

C. The supplier quality policy

D. Customer Quality Expectations

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127

What name is given to the review that checks that the configuration management process is being

done to a standard?

A. Product Status Account

B. Configuration audit

C. Quality Review

D. Quality Assurance

Answer: B

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 128

Who might receive completed products before the Team Manager reports that the

Work Package has been completed?

A. The Customer

B. The User

C. Configuration Librarian

D. The Project Board

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 129

In the suggested filing system, where is the Risk Log kept?

A. Quality File

B. Project File

C. Each Stage File

D. Specialist File

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 130

For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers selected?

A. When the product is passed to Configuration Management

B. In the Project Quality Plan

C. During the QR Preparation step

D. In planning the relevant stage

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 131





Which of these is NOT a specific objective of an end stage assessment?

A. Perform a risk analysis and management review of the project

B. Revise the Project Mandate

C. Review the tolerances set for the next Stage

D. Review the next Stage Plan against the Project Plan

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 132

Defining the stages of a project is fundamentally a process of balancing a number of parameters.

Which one of the following is NOT one of the parameters?

A. The availability of the project board for progress meetings

B. How far ahead in the project it is sensible to plan

C. Where the key decision points need to be on the project

D. Too many small stages versus too few big ones

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 133

In which sub-process of “Controlling a Stage” is the Risk Log updated?

A. Capturing Project Issues


C. Examining Project Issues


Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134

Which step is NOT part of “Accepting a Work Package”?

A. Understand the reporting requirements

B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package





C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package

D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the

constraints

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 135

The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is –

A. The single end product

B. The interim products

C. Its product description

D. The sum total of its products

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 136

In the PRINCE2™ document management structure, how many major types of file are

recommended?

A. Three-plans, risk and quality

B. Three-project, stage and quality

C. Just the Quality File

D. One per Project Issue

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 137

When is a Project Quality Plan created?

A. In 'Starting up a Project'

B. During Initiation

C. As part of 'Managing Stage Boundaries'D. As part of the Project Mandate





Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138

The following appears on the cover sheet of a PID: 'Version 1. 3 Draft'. Which

Component of PRINCE2 would be responsible for this entry?

A. Controls

B. Configuration Management

C. Quality in a Project Environment

D. Change Control

Answer: BExplanation:

QUESTION NO: 139

When should an initial examination of a Project Issue be performed?

A. As soon as it is loggedB. On a weekly basis

C. At the next execution of the sub-process, Reviewing Stage Status

D. At end stage assessment

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 140

In addition to the normal steps of a Quality Review an extra one, “Quality Review

Planning” is recommended. In which process does PRINCE2 suggest that this step should be

done?

A. Planning


C. Initiating a Project


Answer: A





Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 141

Quality management is …

A. The means of ensuring that products meet the quality criteria

B. The establishment of the objectives and requirements for quality

C. The creation and maintenance of a quality system

D. The process of ensuring that the quality expected by the customer is achieved

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 142

What should be reviewed as part of preparing a Work Package?

A. The Issue Log

B. The appropriate Product Descriptions

C. Project Board Authorisation to Proceed

D. Timesheets

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 143

The person operating the configuration management method is called

A. Configuration Librarian

B. Configuration Auditor

C. Product Assurance

D. Version Controller

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 144





Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged

to …

A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project

B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication

C. Ensure resource commitment from management is part of any approval to proceed

D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 145

The Quality File has seven divisions. Five of these are for customer’s quality expectations, Project

Quality Plan, Configuration Management Plan, Configuration Item Records and Quality inspectionrecords. Which of the following is another one?

A. Off-Specifications

B. Specialist Products

C. Acceptance Criteria

D. Stage Quality Plans

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 146

Which process covers the work required of people who may not be using PRINCE2?


B. Starting up a ProjectC. Directing a Project

D. Managing Product Delivery

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147

It would be chaotic to have the people who are working on the project starting activities whenever

they think fit. What product does PRINCE2 use to control this?





A. Project Issue

B. Work Package

C. Checkpoint Report

D. Risk Log

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 148

What element of PRINCE2 provides “an objective measurement for management progress

control”?

A. Quality Review

B. Checkpoint ReportC. Highlight Report

D. End Stage Report

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 149

What environment does PRINCE2 assume?

A. A fixed-price contract

B. A Customer/Supplier environment

C. A specialist environment

D. A third-party environment

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 150

The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the Management of Risk. Which of the

following options is the FALSE one?

A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the projectB. Ensuring that risks are identified, recorded and regularly reviewed

C. Making decisions on recommended reactions to risk





D. Striking a balance between level of risk and potential benefits

Answer: B

Explanation:

Topic 4, Volume D

QUESTION NO: 151

There are 6 variables involved in all projects. The first 5 are costs, timescales, quality, scope and

risk. What is the 6th?

A. Products

B. ManagementC. Outcomes

D. Benefits

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 152

In the “Plan the Next Stage” activity, which project role is responsible for reviewing the next Stage

Plan?

A. Project Manager

B. Project Assurance

C. Senior User

D. Corporate/Programme Management


QUESTION NO: 153

What is the first step in Product-based Planning?

A. Create a Product Breakdown Structure

B. Write a Project Product Description

C. Create a Product Flow Diagram

D. Write Product Descriptions





Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 154

Controlling a Stage describes the day-to-day work of the Project Manager. Which of the following

statements is false?

A. In Controlling a Stage, the Stage Plan is updated with actuals and progress is checked against

the plan

B. Controlling a Stage drives Managing Product Delivery

C. The Project Manager uses the process Controlling a Stage to manage any deviations from

Stage or Project Plans

D. All of Controlling a Stage is used in a time-driven manner

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 155

At which point should a project be terminated?

A. A project should be terminated once it is predicted to exceed the project tolerance

B. A project should be terminated if the Project Manager or a member of the Project

Board resigns

C. Once a project commences, it should continue to completion

D. A project should be terminated when the Project Board decides that the project is no longer

viable

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156

The Project Mandate is usually derived from:

A. A sketch on the back of an envelope?

B. The very first PRINCE2 process?

C. A PRINCE2 project think-tank of the Project Manager, other team members and the ProjectBoard?

D. Programme or corporate management?





Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 157

Which process is the Quality Register created?



C. Controlling a Stage

D. Starting Up a project

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 158

At which point does the PRINCE2 Project Board carry out its first major activity?

A. After Starting up a Project

B. Once corporate / programme management has given a Project Mandate

C. At the beginning of Starting up a ProjectD. Once the Project Mandate has been created

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 159

Which of the following does not aid the Project Manager in exerting control?

A. Project Initiation Documentation

B. Work Package

C. Exception Plan

D. Project Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 160





Which of the following is an in put to the “Plan the Next Stage” activity in the “Managing a Stage

Boundary” process?

A. Issue Register


C. Project Product Descriptions

D. Exception Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 161

Which of the following are produced during the Starting Up a Project stage?

A. Project Plan

B. Project Initiation Document


D. Project Brief

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 162

Which of the following is a trigger for the Project Manager to update the Stage Plan with actuals?

A. Once agreed, the Stage Plan never gets updated

B. Receipt of a Checkpoint Report from a team manager

C. Receipt of a Project Issue

D. An entry made into the daily log

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 163

A Project Mandate is turned into a Project Brief by which of the following processes?


B. Starting Up a Project





C. Initiating a Project

D. Authorising Initiation

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 164

Which product documents issues and should be monitored on a regular basis?

A. Daily Log

B. Issue Register

C. Lessons Log

D. Issue Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 165

Which of the following is NOT a step in PRINCE2 Risk Management?

A. Assess

B. Risk budget

C. Identify

D. Implement

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 166

Which Process is used to design the Project Management Team?


B. Authorising a Project

C. Starting Up a Project


Answer: C

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 167

Which of the following is not an objective of the process Initiating a Project?

A. It encourages the Project Board to take ownership of the project

B. It provides the benchmark for decision-making processes throughout the projects life

C. It confirms the existence of an acceptable Business Case justifying the project

D. It ensures that all project management authorities are appointed

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 168

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the process Controlling a Stage?

A. Ensure that quality is achieved as planned

B. Manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans

C. Identifying the key products that the project will deliver

D. Manage on-time delivery of products within agreed tolerances

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 169

Whose responsibility is it to supply the Customer’s quality expectations?

A. Project ManagerB. Senior User

C. Executive

D. Senior Supplier

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170

The Project Board keeps a control of the project through:





1. Highlight Reports

2. Checkpoint Reports

3. Exception assessment

4. Quality Log

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. All of the above

C. land 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 171

Which of the following is a stable element within the Project Initiation Document?

A. Business Case

B. Project Plan

C. Project tolerance

D. Risk Log

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 172

Which of the following are NOT covered in the management product ‘Project Approach’?

1. Whether the solution is to be bespoke

2. What quality levels the product must meet

3. Whether an off the shelf product will be used

A. 2

B. 2&3

C. None of the aboveD. 1&2





Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 173

Which of the following is an in put to the “Prepare the Communication Management Strategy”?

A. Stage Plan

B. Quality Management Strategy

C. Configuration Item Record

D. Benefits Review Plan

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174

Which of the following is the definition for an off-specification?

A. An issue the Project Manager needs to resolve or escalate

B. Something forecast or currently not meeting society

C. A proposal for a change to a basketD. A statement of concern

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175

In which strategy would the change control process be recorded?

A. Quay Management Strategy

B. Configuration Management Strategy

C. Risk Management Strategy

D. Communication Management Strategy

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 176





It me Project Board are too busy to authorize all change requests themsekes they can appoint....?

A. A Change Authority

B. A Change Board

C. A Change Committee

D. A Change Budget

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 177

What is the purpose of a Product Status Account?

A. A set of records that describe information about the project

B. A bg used to record problems or concerns about products

C. An aud( or review to compare actual status of products

D. A report covemg the status about the state of the projects products within

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 178

When examining a project issue, which three aspects should be considered?

1. Performance targets

2. Business Case

3. Resources

4. Risk

A. 1,3,4

B. 2,3,4

C. 1,2,4

D. 1,2,3

Answer: C

Explanation:





QUESTION NO: 179

Who would be responsible for maintaining the Configuration Item Records?

A. Project Manager

B. Project Support

C. Project Assurance

D. Team Manager

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 180

When does Directing a Project begin?

A. From the beginning of Starting up a Project

B. From the beginning of Initiating a Project

C. From the completion of Starting up a Project

D. From the completion of Starting a Project

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 181

Which management product do the Project Board use to decide whether to authorise initiation?

A. Project Brief

B. Business CaseC. Project Initiation Documentation

D. Project Product Description

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 182

Which of the following is NOT a trigger for the project manager to authorise a work package?





A. Stage Authorisation

B. Corrective Action

C. Exception plan approved

D. Reporting hjhkjhts

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 183

Which activity is responsible for updating the stage plan with actual during Controlling a Stage?

A. Review the stage status

B. Review work package status

C. Repot HighlightsD. Take corrective action

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184

During Executing a Work package, specialist products are created and quality reviews are carriedout which management product captures the details of these reviews?

A. Team Plan


C. Quay Register

D. Configuration Item Record

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 185

During a work package the Team manager needs to keep the project manager informed, which

management product is used for this?

A. Highlight reportB. Checkpoint Report

C. Issue Report





D. End Stage Report

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 186

When updating the project plan as part of Managing a stage boundary, what else might be

updated?

A. Exception Plan

B. Project Management team

C. Business Case

D. Project Initiation Documentation

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 187

Which of the following management products is NOT updated as part of Managing a stage

boundary?

1. Business Case

2 Benefits Review Plan

3. Configuration Item Records

4. Project Brief

A. 1,2,3B. 1,3,4

C. 1,2,4

D. 23,4

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 188

Which of the following activities could trigger the production of an exception plan?





A. Review Stage status

B. Giving ad hoc direction

C. Escalating a project issue

D. Report stage end

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 189

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?

A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project.

B. The justification for the project should remain valid.

C. The justification for the project may change.D. If the project is no longer justified t should be stopped.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 190

Which of the following activities is NOT an action of preparing for planned closure?

A. Update the project plan with actual

B. Update the Project Management Team

C. Request a product status account

D. Confirm project has delivered what defined Project Product Desecration

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 191

Which principle Is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project9

A. Continued Business Justification

B. Defied roles and responsible

C. Learn from experienceD. Manage by stages





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 192

Which of the following is False? A Successful project management team should

A. Have business, user and suppler stakeholders representation

B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration

C. Ensure appropriate governance by defiling responsive for directing, managing and delving the

project and clearly defining accountable at all levels

D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from stakeholders

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 193

Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project?

A. Ensures the project provides value for money

B. Ensures the requirements for the project are definedC. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality

D. Represents the users of the product

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 194

Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board should be

splay?

A. Authority, Credulity, Ointment, Availably

B. Authority, Credulity, Delegation, Availably

C. Authority, Availably, Connections, Delegation

D. Authority, Crudity, Connections, Delegation






QUESTION NO: 195

In which Management product would the Project Board specify where the authority for change

requests lies?

A. Risk Management Strategy

B. Quaky Management StrategyC. Communication Strategy

D. Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 196

Who is responsible for ensuring That Communication Management Strategy is appropriate and

that planned communication activities actually take place?

A. Project Assurance

B. Project Manager

C. Corporate or Programme Management

D. Project Support

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 197

Which of the following roles cannot be combined?

A. Executive and Senior UserB. Project Manager and Project Support

C. Project Assurance and Team Manager

D. Senior Supplier and Supplier Assurance

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 198

PRINCE2 proposes 3 levels of Plan, which are they?





A. Initiation, Project and Stage Plans

B. Project, Stage and Exception Plans

C. I Initiation, Project and Benefit Review Plans

D. Project, Stage and Team Plans

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 199

Having completed designing the plan, in which order should the next steps take place to produce a

plan?

1 Prepare Estimates

2 Define and analyze Products

3. Prepare the schedule

4. Identify activities and dependencies

A. 2,4,3,1

B. 4,2,1,3

C. 4,3,2,1D. 2,4,1,3

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 200

Product based planning focuses on which of the following

1. Creating product descriptions

2. Identifying activities

3 Creating a Product hierarchy

4. Creating a Product sequence

A. 1,2,3

B. 2,3,4

C. 1,3,4





D. 1,2,4

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 201

Who sets the tolerances for a work package?

A. The project board

B. The project manager

C. The team manager

D. Corporate or programme management


QUESTION NO: 202

Which of the following is not part of the composition of a Plan?

A. Pre-requestsB. Assumptions

C. Quality responsibilities

D. Product descriptions

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203

Who is responsible for committing user resources to the project?

A. Senior User

B. Senior Suppler

C. Executive

D. Project Board






QUESTION NO: 204

Which of the following statements describes an outcome?

A. Any of the projects specialist products

B. A result of the change derived from using the project’s products

C. A measurable improvement resulting from a changeD. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeho¼ier

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 205

Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case?

A. Reasons

B. Major Risks

C. Business options

D. Business approach

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206

When considering the business options in the business case, which of these is NOT an option?

A. Do nothing

B. Do the maximum

C. Do the minimumD. Do something

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 207

Which of the following statements s TRUE with regard to expected benefits?

A. They cannot be assented





B. They don’t need to follow corporate objectives

C. They should be measured

D. Tolerances cannot be set against expected benefits

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208

Who is responsible for ensuring that the value-for- money solution is constantly reassessed?

A. Business Assurance

B. Senior User

C. Corporate or Programme Management

D. Project Support

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 209

Which of the following activities is the Executive responsible for?

A. Ensure the desired

B. Responsible for the

C. Assess and update

D. Responsible for the

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 210

Which of the following principles describes this statement’? xxx defines tolerances for each project

objective to establish limits of delegated authority

A. Manage by stages

B. Focus on products

C. Manage by exceptionD. Learn from experience





Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 211

Which of the following statements is NOT correct The Learn from Experience principle suggests

that lessons should be actively sought..

A. When Starting a Project

B. When initiating a Project

C. As the project progresses

D. As the project doses

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212

Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each

products purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?

A. Tailor to suit the project environmentB. Focus on products

C. Manage by stages

D. Continued business justification

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 213

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?

A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project

B. The justification for the project should remain valid

C. The justification for the project may change

D. If the project is no longer justified t. should be stopped






QUESTION NO: 214

The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time,

Cost and Qualities are three of them, what are the other three?

A. Scope, People & Resources, BenefitB. Scope, Risk, Product

C. Risk, Benefit, Product

D. Scope, Risk. Benefit

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 215

Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?

A. Ensure project controls are based on project’s scab, complexity, repentance, capably and risk

B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project

C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project

D. To pick which PRTNCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out


QUESTION NO: 216

If Project tolerances were threatened, who needs to be notified?

A. Project Board

B. Project Manager

C. Corporate or Programmer Management

D. Executive

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 217

During which process would the stage tolerances be set?





A. Controlling a Stage

B. initiating a Project

C. Managing a Stage Boundary


Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 218

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining the length of a stage?

A. The amount of resources available in the short term

B. How far ahead you can sens plan in detail

C. The technical stages within the projectD. The amount of r6k associated with the project

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 219

Which statement is TRUE with regard to technical stages?

A. technical stages can on’ occur sequenta1y

B. Technical stages define where management deacons are appointee

C. Technical stages often overlap

D. Technical stages define the commitment of resources and authority to spend

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 220

There are two time driven controls in PRINCE2, which are they’?

A. Highlight and End Stage Reports

B. Highlight and Checkpoint Reports

C. Checkpoint and End Project ReportsD. Highlight and Lessons Reports





Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 221

Who is responsible for confirming stage and project progress against agreed tolerances?

A. Project Support

B. Executive


D. Project Manager

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 222

Which principle is central to the quality theme and provides explicit understanding of what the

project will create?

A. Manage by stages

B. Focus on productsC. Manage by exceptions

D. Learn from experience

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 223

Which of the following statements are True

1. Quality management is the complete set of quality standards. Procedures and responsibilities

for a site or organization

2 Quality planning is about defining products required of the protect with their respective quality

criteria methods and responsibilities.

3. Quality control focuses on the op rational techniques and activities used to carry out quality

inspections.

4 Quality assurance ensures that quality methods are being correctly followed





A. 1,2&3

B. 1,3&4

C. 1.2&4

D. 2.3&4

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 224

Which of the following statements would NOT be included in the Project Product Description?

A. Purpose of the product

B. Composition

C. Project level tolerancesD. Quality criteria

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 225

In the PRINCE2 Quality review technique, who would most likely carry out the role ofadministrator?

A. Project manager

B. Project support

C. Team Manager

D. Project Assurance

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 226

Which role is responsible for providing the customers quality expectations and acceptance criteria

for the project?

A. ExecutiveB. Corporate or Programmer Management

C. Senior User






Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 227

Which management product defines the detailed nature purpose and function of a product?

A. Plan

B. Quality Register

C. Project Product Description

D. Product Description


QUESTION NO: 228

Which of the following statements is False regarding the Risk Management Strategy’?

A. It captures and maintains al relevant informant on identified threats and opportunistsB. It documents the r6k tolerances

C. It documents the approach to risk

D. It identifies responsible towards risk for the project

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 229

There are four steps in the Risk Management procedure, what are they?

A. Identify, Assess, Resource, Implement

B. Identify, Evaluate, Resource, Implement

C. Identify, Assess, Plan, Implement

D. Identify, Evaluate, Plan, Implement






QUESTION NO: 230

Which of the following risk responses can be used for either an opportunity or a threat’?

A. Reduce

B. Share

C. RejectD. Enhance

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 231

Which of the following reports does not contain any information on risk?

A. Issue Report

B. Highlight report

C. Lessons Report

D. End Stage Report

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 232

Which of the following statements best describes what a risk owner is?

A. Best placed to keep an eye on the risk

B. Carry out the response actions to a risk

C. Responsible for management, mentoring and control of al aspects of a riskD. Reports to the project manager regularly on the status of a risk

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 233

Who is responsible for reviewing the risk management practices to ensure they are in line with theproject’s risk management strategy?





A. Project Support

B. Project Manager

C. Team Manager


Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234

Starting Up a project is triggered by which of the following?

A. Legislation

B. Corporate Strategy

C. RisksD. Mandate

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 235

Who is responsible for appointing the Project Manager?

A. Corporate or Programmer Management

B. The Project Board

C. The Executive


Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 236

During which of the following activities is the Project Product Description created?

A. Design and appoint the Project Management Team

B. Prepare the outline business case

C. Select the project approach and assemble the project briefD. Plan the initiation stage





Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 237

Winch of the following is NOT an objective of Initiating a Project?

A. Understanding the scope of what is to be done and the products to be delivered

B. Understanding the roles and responsible of the Project Management Team

C. Understand how quality required will be achieved

D. Understand how progress will be monitored and controlled

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 238

Which other management product is created when the Business case is updated during

Initiating a Project’?

A. Post project review planB. Risk Register

C. Benefits Review plan

D. Issue Register

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 239

Who is responsible for the initial creation of the Configuration Item records?

A. Project Manager

B. Team Manager


D. Project Support




PRINCE2.pdf

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Transcript of PRINCE2.pdf