Practice Set

Practice Set for SBI PO 2013

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WWW.JAGRANJOSH.COM PRACTICE SET FOR SBI PO 2013

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CONTENTS

Reasoning ........................................................................................................................................ 3

Data Interpretation ....................................................................................................................... 13

English Language ........................................................................................................................... 27

General Awareness ....................................................................................................................... 37

Answers ......................................................................................................................................... 46



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REASONING

1. How many such digits are there in the number 5237468 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

2. If ‘P’ denotes ‘×’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘R’ denotes ‘+’; and ‘S’ denotes ‘–‘; then 42 R 14 Q 2 S 15 P 3 is equal to (a) 11 (b) 51 (c) 49 (d) 4 (e) None of these

3. Ram correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is after 13th April but before 20th April whereas his sister correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 17th April but before 24th April. On which day in April was definitely their father’s birthday? (a) 17th (b) 18th (c) 19th (d) 20th (e) 18th or 19th

4. How many such pair of letters is there in the word SELECTION each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

5. In a certain code ‘RATE’ is written as ‘4358’ and ‘POOL’ is written as ‘2116’. How is PLATE written in that code? (a) 26358 (b) 26853 (c) 26385 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘AETL’ using each letter only once in each word? (a) None



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(b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) 85 (b) 187 (c) 357 (d) 363 (e) 425

8. In a certain code ‘LAPTOP’ is written as ‘OZKGLK’. How is ‘COMPUTER’ written in that code? (a) XLNKGFVI (b) XLNKGFUI (c) XLNKFGVI (d) XLNKGFVH (e) XLNKGFUH

Directions (Q. 9 – 12): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:

847, 729, 632, 945, 392 9. Which is of the following the sum of the first and the third digits of the second highest

number? (a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (e) None of these

10. If the positions of the first and second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest? (a) 653 (b) 365 (c) 470 (d) 568 (e) None of these

11. If the positions of the first and third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest? (a) 589 (b) 487 (c) 679 (d) 297 (e) None of these

12. If the positions of the second and third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest? (a) 589



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(b) 625 (c) 679 (d) 297 (e) None of these

13. What will be next term in the following series? A B B D C F D H E J (a) N (b) O (c) K (d) F (e) None of these

14. Shyam walked 6 m facing towards east, then took a right turn and walked a distance of 9 m. He then took a left turn and walked a distance of 6 m. How far is he from the starting point? (a) 15 m (b) 21 m (c) 18 m (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

15. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D? (a) Cousin (b) Nephew (c) Aunt (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 16 – 20): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below. K 5 D F $ 2 L @ M 3 7 N # A B 6 € E 1 I % 8 N µ 9 O © F U £ 0 16. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a letter and followed by a number? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

17. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and followed by a letter? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

18. Which of the following should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement? F $ L, M 3 N, A B €, ?



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(a) 1 I 8 (b) E 1 % (c) I % N (d) 1 % 8 (e) None of these

19. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by symbols and followed by numbers? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

20. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and followed by symbols? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

Directions (Q. 21 – 25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three different cars Alto, Punto and Vento and there are at least two persons in any of these cars. Each of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink, not necessarily in the same order. B likes yellow and is not travelling in Vento. The one who likes black is travelling in the same car in which E is travelling. C likes blue and is travelling in the same car in which G is travelling. D is going in Punto only with the one who likes pink. G is not travelling either in Punto or Vento. F does not like black. G does not like either green or white. D does not like green. E does not like pink.

21. Who likes Black? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these

22. Which of the following combinations is correct? (a) D – Vento – White (b) F – Alto – Pink (c) G – Alto – Red (d) B – Punto – Yellow



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(e) All are correct 23. What is E’s favourite colour?

(a) Red (b) Green (c) White (d) Either Black or Yellow (e) None of these

24. Which of the following person is travelling in Alto? (a) CD (b) BCE (c) DF (d) BCG (e) None of these

25. Who likes White? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 26 – 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six friends; A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a circular table. All the friends are facing the centre. All of them are working as a Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher, Shop keeper and Manager but not in the same order. The manager and the teacher are the immediate neighbour of the shop keeper. A is sitting second to the left of the shop keeper and second to the right of B who is a

lawyer. Teacher is not an immediate neighbour of A. Doctor is not the immediate neighbour of B. F is a manager. C is not an engineer. E is neither an engineer nor a shop keeper.

26. D is working as a/an (a) Doctor (b) Engineer (c) Teacher (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

27. Who are the immediate neighbours of the engineer? (a) Shop keeper and Lawyer (b) Doctor and Manager (c) Teacher and Lawyer (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these



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28. Who is sitting between A and C? (a) B (b) D (c) E (d) F (e) None of these

29. What is F’s position with respect to D? (a) Second to the right (b) Third to the right (c) Second to the left (d) Third to the left (e) None of these

30. Which of the following pairs is sitting opposite to each other? (a) AC (b) FE (c) DC (d) BD (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 31 – 35): In each question below, a group of digits/symbols is given followed by four combinations of letters options (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combination is the correct code on the following coding system and the conditions that follow. If none of the four correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as the answer.

Digits/Symbols 9 5 4 ^ 3 & 8 @ 2 7 % 1 $ * 6 #

Letter Codes K L O P W R T E X M N B Z Y S D

Conditions: i. If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both these are to

be coded as the code for the symbol. ii. If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is odd digit, there codes are

to be interchanged. iii. If both the first and the last units are symbols both these are to be coded as ‘Q’.

31. 3^6&5 (a) LPSRW (b) LRSPW (c) LPSRL (d) QPSRQ (e) None of these

32. 7$81% (a) MZTBN (b) NZTBM (c) QZTBQ (d) NZTBN (e) None of these



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33. 4#9*8 (a) TDKYO (b) TDKYT (c) ODKYT (d) QDKYQ (e) None of these

34. 3@29$ (a) WEXKZ (b) ZEXKZ (c) ZEXKW (d) QEXKQ (e) None of these

35. ̂ 1#5* (a) QBDLQ (b) PBDLY (c) YBDLY (d) YBDLP (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 36 – 40): in the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, © and % are used with different meanings as follows: P @ Q means “P is not smaller than Q”. P # Q means “P is not greater than Q”. P $ Q means “P is neither greater than nor equal to Q”. P © Q means “P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q”. P % Q means “P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q”.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer

(a) If only conclusion I is true. (b) If only conclusion II is true. (c) If either conclusion I or II is true. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) If conclusions I and II both are true.

36. Statement: A @ B, B © C, C # D Conclusions: I. A © C II. B % D

37. Statement: A © B, B % C, C $ D Conclusions: I. A © C II. B $ D

38. Statement: A @ B, B @ C, C # D Conclusions: I. A © C II. A % C

39. Statement: A $ B, B # C, C % D Conclusions: I. D % B



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II. A # C 40. Statements: A $ B, B @ C, C # D

Conclusions: I. C © A II. B % D Direction (Q. 41 – 45): In each questions below there are two/three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming both the statements true, you have to decide which of the two conclusions logically follows the statements. Give your answer

(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

41. Statements: No plane is a river. All rivers are mountains. All planes are cities.

Conclusions: I. No plane is a mountain. II. Some rivers are cities.

42. Statements: Some planes are rivers. Some rivers are mountains. Some mountains are cities.

Conclusions: I. Some planes are mountains. II. Some rivers are cities.

43. Statements: All planes are rivers. All rivers are mountains. No mountain is a city.

Conclusions: I. Some cities are rivers. II. Some mountains are planes.

44. Statements: Some planes are rivers. Some rivers are mountains. No mountain is a city.

Conclusions: I. Some cities are planes. II. No city is a plane.

45. Statement: Some planes are rivers. No river is a mountain. No mountain is a city.

Conclusion: I. Some cities are rivers. II. No city is a river.

Directions (Q. 46 – 50): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

C is sitting third to the left of E.



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D and G are not the immediate neighbour C and E. A is second to the right of G and third to the left of H. F is not an immediate neighbour of E. 46. Who is third to the left of G?

(a) E (b) F (c) H (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

47. What is F’s position with respect to B? (a) Fourth to the right (b) Third to the left (c) Third to the right (d) Fourth to the left (e) None of these

48. Who is fourth to the right of A? (a) E (b) F (c) G (d) H (e) None of these

49. Who is second to the left of G? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these

50. Who are the immediate neighbours of C? (a) AB (b) AC (c) BF (d) AF (e) None of these



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DATA INTERPRETATION

Directions (Q. 51 to 55): Study the table below to answer these questions. The table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states A, B, C, D and E on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of gender.

State Percentage of population below the poverty

line

Proportion of Males and Females

Below Poverty

Line

Above Poverty

Line

M : F M : F

A 28% 3 : 4 4 : 5

B 27% 5 : 4 7 : 5

C 25% 3 : 2 2 : 3

D 21% 1 : 2 5 : 3

E 32% 5 : 3 9 : 8

51. If the male population above poverty line for state E is 3.6 million, then the total population of female for the state E below poverty line is? (a) 0.12 million (b) 0.012 million (c) 1.2 million (d) 3.2 million (e) None of these

52. What will be the population of males above poverty line in the state D if it is known that the population of the state is 8 million? (a) 0.395 million (b) 3.95 million (c) 6.32 million (d) 0.56 million (e) None of these

53. What will be approximately the male population above poverty line for the state B if the female population below poverty line for state B is 1.02 million? (a) 3.62 million (b) 0.362 million (c) 2.61 million (d) 0.261 million (e) None of these

54. If the population of males below poverty line for state A is 1.56 million and that for state C is 2.55 million, then the total populations of states A and C are in the ratio? (a) 12 : 13 (b) 13 : 12 (c) 17 : 13



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(d) 13 : 17 (e) None of these

55. If the population of females above poverty line for state B is 2.92 million and that for state D is 4.74 million, then the total population of states B and D is (a) 25 million (b) 24 million (c) 27 million (d) 28 million (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 56 to 60): Study the graph below to answer these questions.

The line graph gives the ratio of the amount of imports by a company to the amount of exports from that company over the period from 2005 to 2011.

56. If the imports in 2006 were Rs. 280 crores and the export in 2006 and 2007 were Rs. 860 crores, then the imports in 2007 were? (a) Rs. 325 crores (b) Rs. 345 crores (c) Rs. 365 crores (d) Rs. 385 crores (e) None of these

57. The exports were minimum proportionate to the imports of the company in the year? (a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2010 (d) 2011 (e) None of these

58. What was the percentage increase in exports from 2008 to 2009, if imports in 2008 were Rs. 360 crores and imports in 2009 was Rs. 550 crores? (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 33%



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(e) None of these 59. If the imports of the company in 2011 were Rs. 560 crores, the exports from the company in

2011 were? (a) Rs. 400 crores (b) Rs. 428 crores (c) Rs. 438 crores (d) Rs. 442 crores (e) Rs. 448 crores

60. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports? (a) More than three (b) Three (c) Two (d) One (e) Zero

Directions (Q. 61 to 65): Study the table below to answer these questions. The Expenditure of a Company (in ‘000’ rupees) per annum over the given years

Years Items of Expenditure

Salary Bonuses Travel Expenses Taxes Interest on Loans

2005 246 17 67 112 37

2006 264 23 78 125 45

2007 287 29 71 137 53

2008 301 33 82 129 49

2009 325 47 73 141 57

61. What is the average amount of bonuses per year paid by the company? (a) Rs. 30,000 (b) Rs. 2,98,000 (c) Rs. 29,800 (d) Rs. 3,00,000 (e) None of these

62. The total amount of travel expenses during the given period is approximately what percentage of the total amount of interest on loans during the given period? (a) 133% (b) 145%



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(c) 150% (d) 154% (e) 158%

63. Total expenditure on all these items in 2006 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2008? (a) 93% (b) 90% (c) 87% (d) 83% (e) 79%

64. Which type of expenditure is always increasing over the given period? (a) Salary (b) Travel Expenses (c) Taxes (d) Interest on Loans (e) None of these

65. What is the ratio between the total amount of travel expenses of 2006 and 2008 to the salary of 2009? (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 65 : 32 (e) 32 : 65

Directions (Q. 66 to 70): Study the following table and answer the questions.

Number of Candidates Appeared (App.) and Qualified (Qual.) in a Competitive Examination

from Different States over the Years.

State Years

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual.

A 5,600 520 6,300 580 6,700 605 6,500 590 6,800 615

B 7,400 690 7,600 730 7,200 745 7,500 730 7,800 765

C 6,200 710 5,900 690 6,300 715 6,700 745 6,800 770

D 3,400 360 3,800 390 4,100 415 4,600 445 5,100 480

E 4,600 580 4,900 610 5,300 640 5,100 620 5,500 670

F 8,200 790 8,500 810 7,900 795 8,300 825 8,700 870

66. Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 2005 is approximately

what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in

2008?

(a) 85% (b) 88%



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(c) 90% (d) 92% (e) 95%

67. What is the average candidates who appeared from State D during the given years? (a) 418 (b) 423 (c) 428 (d) 436 (e) 447

68. In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State C has maximum percentage of qualified candidates? (a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008 (e) 2009

69. What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State B for all the years together, over the candidates appeared from State B during all the years together? (a) 8.86% (b) 9.16% (c) 9.76% (d) 10.26% (e) None of these

70. During the given period in which state the number of the qualified candidates as well as the number of appeared candidates is increasing continuously? (a) A (b) B (c) E (d) F (e) None of these

Direction (Q. 71 – 75): The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in ‘000’) from six

branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2010 and 2011.

Sales of Books (in ‘000’) from Six Branches - A, B, C, D, E and F of a publishing Company in 2010

and 2011



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71. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch C for both years to the total sales of branch F

for both years? (a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 7 (e) 7 : 10

72. The total sale of branch E for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branches B for both the years? (a) 110% (b) 120% (c) 125% (d) 133% (e) None of these

73. Approximately what percentage of the average sales of branches A, C and E in 2010 is the average sale of branches B, D and F in 2000? (a) 65% (b) 70% (c) 75% (d) 80% (e) 90%

74. What is the average sale of all the branches for the year 2011? (a) 71,000 (b) 71,500 (c) 72,000 (d) 72,500 (e) None of these

75. Total sales of branches B, C, D and F together for both the years are? (a) 51 lakhs (b) 5.1 lakhs (c) 0.51 lakhs (d) 510 lakhs (e) None of these



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Directions (Q. 76 – 80): The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million US $) from 2001 – 2002 to 2008 – 2009. Foreign Exchange Reserves of a Country (in billion US $)

76. The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the

average reserves, to those in which the reserves are below the average reserves is? (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 7 (e) None of these

77. The foreign exchange reserve in 2005 – 06 was approximately how many times that in 2002 – 03? (a) 1.23 (b) 1.26 (c) 1.36 (d) 1.41 (e) 1.44

78. For which year, the percent increase or decrease of foreign exchange reserves over the previous year, is the highest? (a) 2002 – 03 (b) 2003 – 04 (c) 2004 – 05 (d) 2005 – 06 (e) None of these

79. The foreign exchange reserves in 2001 – 02 were approximately what percent of the average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review? (a) 63% (b) 69% (c) 77% (d) 81% (e) None of these



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80. What was the approximate percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 2008 – 09 over 2002 – 03? (a) 11.4% (b) 12.6% (c) 13.3% (d) 14.5% (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 81 – 85): The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the

expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions

based on it.

Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book

81. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 2,96,000 as transportation

cost, then what will be the amount of printing cost? (a) Rs. 5,56,000 (b) Rs. 6,88,000 (c) Rs. 7,42,000 (d) Rs. 8,14,000 (e) None of these

82. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on binding and Royalty? (a) 90° (b) 105° (c) 120° (d) 150° (e) None of these

83. The price of the book is marked 25% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 225, then what is the paper cost and promotion cost for a single copy of the book? (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 72 (c) Rs. 94 (d) Rs. 100 (e) None of these



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84. If 7500 copies are published and the printing cost and binding cost on them amounts to Rs. 4,27,500 then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 20%? (a) Rs. 120 (b) Rs. 90 (c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 187.50 (e) None of these

85. Promotion cost on the book is less than the binding cost by: (a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 33.33% (d) 4% (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 86 – 90): The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist

traffic from India. The two charts show the tourist distribution by country and the age profiles

of the tourists respectively.

Distribution of Overseas Tourist Traffic from India



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The age groups of the tourists

86. If total number of tourist went from India is 3,50,00,000, then the number of tourists below

30 years are: (a) 105 lakhs (b) 119 lakhs (c) 127 lakhs (d) 133 lakhs (e) None of these

87. The ratio of the number of Indian tourists who went to Europe to the number of Indian tourists who were below 20 years of age is? (a) 5 : 4 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 7 : 4 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

88. If amongst other countries, Singapore accounted for 35% of the Indian tourist traffic, and it is known from official records of Singapore that a total of 1.26 lakhs Indian tourists had gone to Singapore, then find the number of 31 – 40 years old Indian tourists who went abroad in that year ? (a) 5.04 lakhs (b) 6.16 lakhs (c) 7.28 lakhs (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

89. The number of tourist went to USA is approximately what percentage of the number of tourist below 30 years? (a) 90% (b) 85% (c) 80% (d) 75% (e) None of these



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90. The ratio of the number of Indian tourists who went to Africa and Canada to the number of Indian tourists who were above 40 years of age is? (a) 2 : 3 (b) 13 : 17 (c) 13 : 19 (d) 14 : 19 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 91 – 95): Study the following line graph and answer the questions.

Exports from Three Companies A, B and C over the Years (in Rs. crore)

91. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies

together are equal? (a) 2005 and 2009 (b) 2004 and 2010 (c) 2006 and 2010 (d) 2006 and 2009 (e) None of these

92. The average annual export during the given period for Company A is approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company C? (a) 53% (b) 55% (c) 57% (d) 59% (e) 61%

93. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies A and B the maximum? (a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009



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(e) None of these 94. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 2004 and

the average exports in 2010? (a) Rs. 25 crores (b) Rs. 25.33 crores (c) Rs. 20 crores (d) Rs. 20.33 crores (e) None of these

95. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company B less than the average annual exports over the given years? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 96 – 100): Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it.

Number of Vehicles Manufactured by Two companies over the Years (Number in ‘000’)

96. What is the difference between the total productions of the two Companies in the given

years? (a) 0.21 lakhs (b) 2.1 lakhs (c) 0.11 lakhs (d) 1.1 lakhs (e) None of these

97. What is the average numbers of vehicles manufactured by Company Q over the given period? (a) 50,250 (b) 55,750 (c) 60,250 (d) 65,250



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(e) None of these 98. In which of the following years, the difference between the productions of Companies P and

Q was the maximum among the given years? (a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009 (e) 2010

99. The production of Company Q over the given years is approximately what percent of the production of Company P during the same period? (a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 65% (d) 80% (e) None of these

100. The ratio between the production of Company Q in the 2009 and 2011 to the production of the company P in 2008 and 2010 is:

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 2 : 3 (e) None of these



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ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Direction (Q. 101 – 110): Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

The cabinet of our country has banned on sale of cigarette to the minors (children below 18 years of age). Even the sale and storage of cigarettes, within the radius of 50 meters around school, colleges, and other educational institutions will not be allowed. These decisions were effected from January 1 2012. Both these norms have been made a penal offence and those caught violating them always face a fine of Rs. 500 and imprisonment up to three months. The complaints lodged against these cases are investigated by officers of the rank of sub inspector.

The health department has appointed the agency to implement the city cabinet’s decision. This decision of cabinet will take help from the local police in removing cigarettes shops near school and colleges. At present restrictions exist only on sale of liquor around schools and colleges. And it is for the first time that the government has focused its attention towards curbing sale of cigarettes near these institutions. Observers are skeptical about the success of the move to discourage smoking among minors. These resolutions will certainly help in controlling the smoking among youngsters.

Our cabinet was enforced to take these decisions as recent studies conducted by the health department revealed that a large number of youngsters, particularly those below the age of 18 are involved in smoking. Sources said the government is likely to take some more measures over next few months to check sale of cigarettes. In addition, some of the existing clauses of the anti smoking act including ban on smoking places will be more stringent.

101. What does the new ban imply? (a) To curb the storage of cigarette around school (b) To restrict the sale of cigarettes (c) To ban the sale of liquor around colleges (d) To ban the sale of cigarettes around educational institutions (e) All of above

102. What can substitute for “penal offence”? (a) Illegal activity (b) A sin (c) Fine of Rs 500 (d) Imprisonment (e) None of these

103. Why has the government focused its attention on smoking? (a) Smoking causes health hazards (b) Smoking is a penal offence. (c) There are many cigarette shops around schools. (d) It wants to control smoking among youngsters. (e) None of these

104. What is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?



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(a) Youngster below 18 years do smoke also (b) Some people are doubtful of ban’s success. (c) Smoking is injurious to health. (d) Local police will help the health department. (e) The ban will be imposed by Jan 2012.

105. Who will be imprisoned or fined Rs 500/-? (a) Those who smoke. (b) Those who sell cigarettes and liquor around schools. (c) Those who sells cigarettes. (d) Those who are arrested. (e) None of these

106. What is TRUE in context of the passage? (a) Smoking will be banned. (b) The present ban is on sale of liquor only. (c) An inspector will investigate the case. (d) Shops around schools should be removed. (e) Cigarettes in school will not be sold.

Direction (Q. 7 – 8): Which of the following is most SIMILAR in the meaning as word printed in bold letters as used in contest of the passage? 107. Measures

(a) Lengths (b) Rules (c) Steps (d) Bans (e) None of these

108. Conducted (a) Made (b) Remarks (c) Do (d) Performed (e) Shown

Direction (Q 9 – 10): Which of the following is Opposite in the meaning as word printed in bold letters as used in contest of the passage? 109. Banned

(a) Allowance (b) Withdrawn (c) Permitted (d) Permission (e) None of these

110. Stringent (a) Free (b) Strict (c) Punishable (d) Critical



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(e) Withdrawn Direction (Q. 111 – 120): Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Price Rise is one of the crucial issues for country like India. Since many years, price rise has become a persistent woe in India's national life. It has given spread to widespread distress among the citizens, who are earning at the subsistence level and also have fixed earnings comprising labor class and salary earners. Due to continuous rises in prices of necessary products, the number of people below poverty line is increasing at an alarming rate. According to data, it has been observed that around 60 percent of our population is facing chronic problem of price rise in the country. There are varied factors that tremendously contribute to Price Rise in the country namely External Factors and Internal Factors. We have heard it many times that price rise in our country is due to impact of global inflation. Obviously, we cannot effort much for it as it is a matter of world economy. But at our end, we can identify and strive to mitigate the problems arise from internal factors which may be aggravating the situation. This signifies a state of imbalance in economy of the country, which arise due to distinctive factors; inadequate supply of goods, improper planning strategies, weaker export and import policies and so on. Thus, we concludes that there few internal factors precipitating increase in price, which are excess money supply, imbalance in production, selfishness among traders and undue increase in population. It is a high time for the government to take some concrete measure to manage the problem. 111. Price rise distress lives of

(a) Government Officials (b) Labors and salaried people (c) Only labor class (d) Only Salaried people (e) None of these

112. What is the reason behind increase in number of people below poverty line? (a) Subsistence level of income (b) Fixed earnings (c) High Population (d) All of these (e) None of them

113. Main impact of prices rises is considered as (a) Corruption (b) Unemployment (c) Global inflation (d) Only a and b (e) None of these

114. Which one of the following sentence is true in context of the passage? (a) Due to price rise, people below poverty line are decreasing. (b) Global deflation is main factor of price rise. (c) Price rise affects the lives of elite class and politicians.



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(d) Price rise is persistent issue of the country. (e) All are true

115. Factors responsible for hike in price of the country- (a) Improper supply of goods (b) Wrong planning strategies (c) Weak export and import policy (d) Global inflation (e) All of Above

116. Internal factors that leads to impetuous increase in price (a) Deficient money supply (b) Imbalance in production of the country (c) Cruelty and selfishness among suppliers (d) Tremendous decrease in population. (e) None of these

Direction (Q. 17 – 18): Which of the following is most SIMILAR in the meaning as word printed in bold letters as used in contest of the passage?

117. Mitigate (a) Aggravate (b) Incite (c) Increase (d) Intensify (e) Alleviate

118. Crucial (a) Trivial (b) Uncritical (c) decisive (d) Unimportant (e) None of these

Direction (Q. 19 – 20): Which of the following is Opposite in the meaning as word printed in bold letters as used in contest of the passage? 119. Subsistence

(a) Affluence (b) Ailment (c) Extinction (d) Nurture (e) None of these

120. Chronic (a) Persistent (b) Relieved (c) Continual (d) Constant (e) None of these



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Direction (Q. 121 – 130): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. We would (121) be introducing a new (122) called showrooms, for all mobile services like collections, complaints, handsets repairs, etc. Nine (123) outlets are planned in Lucknow to (124) the entire city. (125) being able to (126) enhanced facilities at the customer’s (127). We’d also be able to (128) just the sectors (129) want to (130). 121.

(a) Currently (b) Now (c) Shortly (d) Sooner (e) Them

122. (a) View (b) Fundamental (c) Shop (d) Concept (e) Ideas

123. (a) Another (b) Other (c) Such (d) New (e) Modern

124. (a) Cover (b) Stretch (c) Extend (d) Cater (e) Supply

125. (a) Also (b) Though (c) Besides (d) Despite (e) Similarly

126. (a) Give (b) Provide (c) Withdraw (d) Supply (e) Stop



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127. (a) Home (b) House (c) Residence (d) Doorstep (e) Request

128. (a) Aim (b) Target (c) Grab (d) Snatch (e) Pull

129. (a) We (b) They (c) Those (d) Customers (e) Dealers

130. (a) Carry (b) Provide (c) Focus (d) Save (e) Aim

Direction (Q. 131 – 135): Rearrange the following sentence in a proper sequence as to make meaning paragraph and answer the following question given below it. 1. The body was received at the airport with full military honoures. 2. Wreaths were laid on the martyr’s body by thousand of grief stricken mourners. 3. He is survived by his old parents and brothers. 4. The brave son of India laid down his life in Kashmir 5. The city came to a standstill as thousands joined the funeral procession. 131. Which of the above should be the SECOND sentence?

(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 1

132. Which of the above should be FIRST sentence? (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3 (e) 5

133. Which of the above should be LAST sentence?



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(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5 (e) 1

134. Which of the above should be FOURTH sentence? (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 (e) 2

135. Which of the above should be THIRD sentence? (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2 (e) 4

Direction (Q. 136 – 137): In each of the following sentence, one word has been printed in BOLD. Below the sentence, five words are suggested, one of which can replace the word printed in BOLD without changing the meaning of the sentence. Find out appropriate word in each case. 136. The garage is at the rear part of his house

(a) Home (b) Unusual (c) Invisible (d) Back (e) Adjacent

137. Revati is so intelligent that she stands first in all examinations. (a) Complete (b) Ranks (c) Scores (d) Establishes (e) Ends

138. We all tried to prevent him from leaving this job. (a) Control (b) Persuade (c) Stop (d) Resist (e) Deny

139. He has a genuine desire to help the poor people. (a) Accurate (b) Maximum (c) Selfish (d) Right (e) Real



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140. The function was attended by some eminent persons. (a) Important (b) Rich (c) Cultured (d) Related (e) Intelligent

Direction (Q. 141 – 145): Pick out the most appropriate part which can meaningfully complete the given incomplete sentence. 141. After his recovery, he is……………….. a normal life.

(a) Lived (b) Living for (c) To be living (d) On be living (e) Living

142. ……………………..at a friend’s house in New Delhi. (a) Our marriage took place (b) Our marriage taken place (c) Ours marriage took place (d) Ours marriage was taken place (e) Our marriage taking place

143. They want us to…………………. (a) Look at the matter quickly (b) Look upon matter sympathetically (c) Have a took off the matter urgently (d) Look over the matter individually (e) Look into the matter personally

144. The proposal came from the Ministry…………………………… (a) Herself (b) Himself (c) Itself (d) Themselves (e) Themselves

145. Their second son Milan……………. (a) Was born in Luck now (b) Were born in Luck now (c) Did born on Luck now (d) Have born in Luck now (e) Has to born in Luck now

Direction (Q. 146 – 150): In each of the following questions, five words are given. By using all five words, frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. 146. 1) villages 2) population 3) of India’s 4) a majority 5) in 6) Lives

(a) 346251 (b) 432561 (c) 342651



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(d) 432651 (e) None of these

147. 1) Indians may 2) at heart 3) poor 4) be financially 5) but they 6) are rich (a) 521346 (b) 143546 (c) 143562 (d) 134562 (e) None of these

148. 1) notebook 2) what you 3) write in 4) learned 5) your 6) have (a) 352146 (b) 513246 (c) 351264 (d) 513264 (e) None of these

149. 1) between the 2) much essential 3) is very 4) mutual understanding 5) the employer 6) employees and

(a) 425631 (b) 514326 (c) 516423 (d) 642315 (e) None of these

150. 1) the situation 2) efforts are 3) to improve 4) by the 5) government 6) being made (a) 264135 (b) 264531 (c) 264351 (d) 164231 (e) None of These



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GENERAL AWARENESS

151. Out of following institutions, which one is considered as Umbrella Institutions for all the Retail Payment System in the country?

(a) SEBI (b) NPCI (c) IFCI (d) NABARD (e) None of These

152. Government’s credit creation power relies on (a) M1 (b) M2 (c) M3 (d) M0 (e) None of these

153. Microfinance of the country is regulated which of the following body? (a) SIDBI (b) Indian Banking Association (c) Central Bank of India (d) NABARD (e) None of These

154. Which one of them is not related to Banking? (a) Drawing Power (b) SME Finance (c) Overdraft (d) Sanctioning Authority (e) Equinox

155. Banking Ombudsmen Scheme has been introduced under the provision of (a) RBI Act (b) Banking Regulation Act (c) Indian Contract Act (d) Consumer Protection Act (e) None of these

156. The financial institutions and banks in India are required to maintain certain amount of Liquid Assets comprising cash and short term securities as a reserve. What is the name given to it in the Banking World?

(a) CRR (b) Fixed Assets (c) PLR (d) SLR



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(e) None of these 157. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Bank cannot accept demand and time deposit from public (b) Bank can accept demand and time deposits only from public (c) Bank can accept both time and demand deposit from public (d) Bank can accept both time and demand deposit from Government (e) All are True

158. Which one of the following is considered as Cross Selling by bank? 1. Issue of cash against cheque presented by third party 2. Selling of insurance policy to a depositor 3. Selling of debit card to a credit card holder (a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 & 3 (e) None of these

159. Wholesale Banking meets the needs of----------- 1. Large Institutions 2. Self Help Groups 3. Corporate Entities (a) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 1 (e) None of these

160. Which one of the following is largest shareholder of nationalized banks? (a) RBI (b) NABARD (c) LIC (d) Government of India (e) IBA

161. Which of the following is a programming language used for creation of programs like applets

(a) COBOL (b) Java (c) Domain (d) C (e) C++

162. PHP programming language is used in a--------------- (a) Website Designing (b) Antivirus Designing (c) OS Designing (d) All (e) None of These



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163. Which one of the following is multiuser OS? (a) Window XP (b) Window Me (c) Linux (d) All of Above (e) None of these

164. PPTX is extension of ………………..File. (a) MS Word 2003 (b) MS Powerpoint (c) Adobe Reader (d) All (e) None of these

165. Bas, .doc, and .htm are example of? (a) Data bases (b) Domains (c) Extension (d) Protocol (e) URLS

166. Whose content is completely erased when the system power is turned off? (a) Output (b) Input (c) Storage (d) Memory (e) CD-Rom

167. Microsoft messenger enable users to (a) Create a blog (b) Do designing (c) Identify and eliminate spam (d) Communicate via direct live communication (e) None of these

168. Which one of the following is called main circuit board of system unit? (a) Computer program (b) Control Unit (c) Mother Unit (d) RAM (e) None of these

169. Which is the shortcut to delete the file permanently? (a) Shift + Ctrl + Del (b) Ctrl + Del (c) Shift + Del (d) Ctrl + Alt + Del (e) None of these

170. Q20. Router is a --------------- (a) Route Ways



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(b) Path (c) Software Set (d) Networking Device (e) None of These

171. Marketing starts from (a) Customer Need and Want (b) Customer (c) Promotion (d) Lead Generation (e) Product

172. EMI could be a marketing tool if (a) It is increasing (b) It is low (c) EMI has no impact on marketing (d) EMI is flat rate (e) None of these

173. USP of saving bank account is (a) Flexible operations (b) High rate of interest (c) Restricted balances (d) Liquidity (e) All of these

174. Bancassurance stands for 1. Life insurance by bank 2. Insurance of property by bank 3. Selling insurance policies by bank 4. Insurance of bank property 5. None of these

175. Which one of the following is factor of banking environment? (a) Market (b) Staff (c) Customer (d) All of Above (e) None of these

176. Marketing Channel stands for (a) Delivery outlets (b) Sales target (c) Delivery boys (d) Sales teams (e) Delivery Objects

177. Service marketing is similar to (a) Relationship marketing (b) Telemarketing (c) Internet marketing



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(d) Internal Marketing (e) Transaction Marketing

178. What is the key challenge to market driven strategy is (a) Selling maximum products (b) Delivering superior products (c) Rigid to changes (d) Adoption of short vision (e) Employing maximum products

179. Debit Card can be issued to which of the following persons? (a) All professional (b) All farmers (c) All current account holders (d) All saving account holders (e) Only salaried persons

180. Marketing Research is essential for (a) Proper marketing decision (b) Selection of right sales person (c) Choosing the right product (d) None of these (e) All of these

181. The Union Government of India in the Month of November 2012 announced a revised Minimum Support Price (MSP) for cotton and this would help in inducing stabilisation in cotton price. Cotton has witnessed a sharp decline in the past and remained operational round about its minimum support price. The previous minimum support price of medium staple cotton was 2800 rupees per quintal. What is the revised price for the same?

(a) 3000 rupees per quintal (b) 3600 rupees per quintal (c) 3200 rupees per quintal (d) 4300 rupees per quintal (e) None of these

182. The GAIL Gas Limited and a State Petroleum Corporation Limited recently in November 2012 signed an agreement for a Joint Venture to lay down the natural gas supply pipeline in the state. Name the state petroleum corporation with which GAIL inked the agreement?

(a) Gujarat State Petroleum Corporation Limited (b) Maharashtra State Petroleum Corporation Limited (c) Andhra Pradesh State Petroleum Corporation Limited (d) Rajasthan State Petroleum Corporation Limited (e) None of these

183. The South African Reserve Bank in November 2012 rolled out new bank notes bearing the face of the country’s iconic personality of the nation, marking it as a tribute to him. Name the person, whose face was introduced in the currency notes?

(a) Marais Viljoen (b) Nelson Mandela (c) Frederik Willem de Klerk



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(d) Kgalema Petrus Motlanthe (e) None of them

184. The Ministry for Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA) raised the income criterion for EWS (Economically Weaker Sections) housings from 60000 Rupees per year to a particular level. What is the new declared for EWS?

(a) 80,000 rupees per year (b) 1 lakh rupees per year (c) 50,000 lakh rupees per year (d) 1.80 lakh rupees per year (e) None of These

185. Petrol Prices in Indian market was slashed for the second time since October 2012 and the decision of slashing down the rates of petrol came in response to the weakening of the petrol rates per barrel in the international market. In October there was a cut of 56 paise per liter in the price of petrol. What was the cost cut per liter in November 2012?

(a) 90 paise (b) 95 paise (c) 25 paise (d) 94 paise (e) None of these

186. The Reserve Bank of India, in its notification released in November 2012 directed banks not to provide loans to its customers for purchase of all types of gold, which includes primary gold, jewellery, bullion, gold coins, units of Gold Exchange Traded Funds (ETF) and units of gold mutual funds. Which of the statements mentioned below is false in case of the notification released?

1. The order was directed for discouraging people from getting involved in speculative activities

2. The notification from the Reserve Bank of India also directed the banks not to grant advances against gold bullion to traders or dealers

3. This decision of RBI came up in response to the significant growth in the imports of the gold in past few years that has created pressure on the current account deficit. in 2011-12 that stood up at 60 billion dollar

4. The decision of RBI came up in response to the suggestion of the working Group constituted after the announcement if the Monetary Policy Statement of April 2011

(a) Statement 3 is false (b) Statement 1 and 2 are false (c) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are false (d) All the above mentioned statements are false (e) All the Statement are false

187. Government of India in November 2012 signed a 70-million US Dollar loan agreement with World Bank. The agreement was signed for?

(a) Financing the Kerala Health Systems Development as well as Reform Project (b) Financing the Karnataka Health Systems Development as well as Reform Project (c) Financing the Odisha Health Systems Development as well as Reform Project (d) Financing the Bihar Health Systems Development as well as Reform Project



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(e) All of them 188. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the disinvestment of a

certain percent of Government Stake in the Maharatna PSU-National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) in November 2012 from its present holding of 84.50 percent. What is the percentage of holding that CCEA has agreed on disinvestment?

(a) 9.5 percent (b) 9.43 percent (c) 9.99 percent (d) 7.6 percent (e) None of these

189. Which of the following statements in relation to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs decision for approval 9.5 percent Stake Disinvestment in NTPC is correct?

1. With this equity disinvestment of NTPC would bring back a sum of about 13000 crore rupees.

2. With this disinvestment the governments holding on NTPC would fall down from present 84.5 percent to 75 percent

3. This will adhere to the minimum public shareholding norms that was stipulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the market regulators

4. At present Government holding on the NTPC was 84. 5 percent (a) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false (b) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true (c) Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true (d) Statement 2 is false (e) None of these

190. In the Forbes Global 2000 ranking list of the World’s biggest companies, NTPC was ranked at which position in 2012?

(a) 337th position (b) 200th Position (c) 90th position (d) 11th Position (e) None of these

191. The Union Government of India on 24 November 2012 announced to set up a National Cancer Institute (NCI) and a National Cardio Care Centre (NCCC) at the second campus of All-India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) at?

(a) Milakpur village of Bhiwani (b) Khairi Gaoin village in Hisar (c) Kheri Sher Khan village in Kaithal (d) Badhsa village of Jhajjar, Haryana (e) None of these

192. The Reserve Bank of India asked Banks not to Provide Loans for Purchase of Gold but allowed the banks to sanction loans as per the general working capital requirements to one section of the business market. Name the section that has been kept aside from the cover of no loan policy for purchase of gold?

(a) Gold Merchants



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(b) Normal people buying gold for household purposes and celebrations (c) Jewelers (d) Common man from buying gold for making investments in the share market (e) All of them

193. Which of the following statements mentioned below is/are incorrect? 1. Global Gasoline Rates helps in creating a benchmark in fixing the price of petrol in the

domestic market. 2. Oman that is the biggest egg export market of India issued the ban following the

recommendations of the World Organisation for Animal Health about the outbreak of bird-flu was confirmed by the Government run Turkey Farm at Hesaraghatta, Karnataka in the month of October.

3. Petrol Prices in Indian market on 15 November 2012 was slashed by 95 paise per litre. The decision came up as a result of the fall in oil prices in the International Market.

4. The Union Government of India in June 2010 deregulated the prices of petrol by offering freedom to the oil companies for fixing the petrol rates following the costs prevalent in the international market.

(a) All the four statements are true (b) Statement 1 is true (c) Statement 1 and 2 are true (d) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true (e) None of these

194. Which of the following statements is/are False? 1. The GAIL Gas Limited and the Rajasthan State Petroleum Corporation Limited (RSPCL)

signed an agreement of Joint Venture on 5 November 2012 to lay down the natural gas supply pipeline in the state. Both the bodies will together formulate a long-term plan on commercial, domestic as well as industrial consumption of the gas.

2. The Union Government in November 2012 announced a revised Minimum Support Price (MSP) for cotton and this would help in inducing stabilisation in cotton price

3. The South African Reserve Bank in November 2012 rolled out new bank notes bearing the face of the country’s first black President Nelson Mandela marking it as a tribute to him.

4. The Civil Aviation Ministry in the first week of November 2012 disapproved new traffic rights to Indian carriers for the next three seasons to expand international air travel out of the country. The new cities include Rome, Madrid, Barcelona, Sydney, Melbourne, Nairobi, Al Najaf in Iraq, Moscow, Zurich, Macau, Tashkent and Ho Chi Minh City

(a) Statement 1 and 4 are false (b) Statement 2 and 3 are false (c) Statement 4 is false (d) Statement 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false (e) None of these

195. Name the Indian Oil's Refinery that was awarded the Platinum Award in the 13th Annual Greentech Environment Awards.

(a) Indian Oil's Jaipur Refinery (b) Indian Oil's Mathura Refinery



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(c) Indian Oil's Digboi Refinery (d) Indian Oil's Panipat Refinery (e) None of these

196. The World Development Report 2013: Jobs was released by the a particular organization that stressed upon the role of strong private sector in creation of jobs, outlining the facts that how can the jobs encourage development and incite an honest cycle. Name the organization that issued the report?

(a) World Bank (b) UNESCO (c) World Economic Forum (d) UNO (e) None of these

197. What was the theme of the 14 days India International Trade Fair that was celebrated in Delhi in November 2012?

(a) Environment management (b) Looking at future endeavours (c) India and holistic vision to fine arts (d) Skilling India (e) None of these

198. The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) published its annual publication- India’s external debt: a status report 2011-12. As per the published report, India’s external debt in the end of March 2012 was?

(a) $345.8 billion (b) $ 250 billion (c) $ 362.7 billion (d) $450 billion (e) None of these

199. The reserve bank of India reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR) by (a) 0.5 percent (b) 0.25 percent (c) 0.75 percent (d) 1 percent (e) None of these

200. The Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited introduced a system for making the payment of the bookings via mobile phones. What is the name of that system?

(a) Interbank Mobile Payment System (IMPS) (b) Sybase mobile banking System (c) Railway mobile banking system (d) PNB mobile banking System (e) None of these



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ANSWERS

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