PMP Exam Cram Test Bank

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Transcript of PMP Exam Cram Test Bank

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. .Preface

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Preface

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Dear Reader -

www.pmptools is excited to have published PMP®: Exam Cram Test Bank, what we believe is the first of its kind in the field or project management.

Just as the project Management Institute is committed to establishing measurable standards for certifying project management professional with the PMP® Exam, www.pmptools.com is happy to help assist professionals with the knowledge needed to meet those standards.

This test bank assumes you have at least read the Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®) and the PMP Exam Cram and have some general project management skills. While this book will assist you in preparing for the PMP® Exam, it will not act as substitute to the PMBOK® only a complement. We highly recommend that you obtain the PMBOK® if you do not currently have a copy.

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Preface PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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Copyright 2002 www.pmptools.com. World rights reserved. No part of this publication may be stored in a retrieval system, transmitted, or reporduced in any way, including but not limited to photocopy, photographs, magnetic, or other record, without the prior agreement and written permission of the publisher.

The author and publisher have made their best efforts to prepare this book. The author and publisher make no representation or warranties of any kinf with regards to the completeness or accuracy of the contents herein and accept no liability of any kind including but not limited to performance, merchantability, fitness for any particular purpose, or any losses or damages of any kind caused or alleged to be caused directly or indirectly from this book.

Trademarks: www.pmptools.com has attempted throughout this book to distinguish propriety trademarks from descriptive terms by following the capitalization style used by the manufacturer.

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-1

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1. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impactB. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impactC. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stakeD. Occurrence, frequency and cost

2. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events.

A. AddressB. ClassifyC. AssignD. Resolve

3. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP® Professional Code of Conduct?

A. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in.

B. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision. C. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management

services are provided D. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of

impropriety.

4. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?A. Organizational proceduresB. Performance reportsC. Project plan updatesD. Performance measurement

5. _____________ invloves using statitical relationship between historical data and other variables .A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric estimatingD. Bottom up estimating

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1-2 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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6. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until your project is completed. You should:

A. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee's new management to develop a good transition plan

B. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed. C. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed D. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the

project will not suffer

7. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____________.

A. Magnitude of the impact on the projectB. Project manager's perception of riskC. Project manager's ability to influence the riskD. Use of more or less contractors

8. Which is an input to resource planning?A. Historical informationB. Cost baselineC. Cost management planD. Chart of accounts

9. _____________ involves allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.

A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

10. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should:

A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-3

11. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.A. ManagerB. DetrimentC. ScheduleD. Budget

12. _____________ /top-down estimating is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

13. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?A. MitigationB. AcceptanceC. TransferenceD. Avoidance

14. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities.

A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

15. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be:

A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract. B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost. C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.

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1-4 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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16. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken?

A. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices B. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address

interpretations and disputes C. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in

favor of the contractor D. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the

customer

17. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:A. Square foot estimatingB. Template estimatingC. Computerized estimatingD. Analogous estimating

18. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:

A. Compromise B. Forcing C. Controlling D. Confrontation

19. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should:

A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas

B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-5

20.An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you

personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company

strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.

21. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Planning include of the following except?A. Avoidance B. Expert judgmentC. TransferenceD. Acceptance

22. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as:

A. Sources of riskB. Potential risk eventsC. Stakeholder risk tolerancesD. Expected monetary value

23. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be:

A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

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1-6 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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25. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:A. ChecklistsB. Delphi techniqueC. TriggersD. Interviewing

26. What are the inputs to Project Plan Execution?A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and

corrective action.B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective

action.C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action.D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons

learned.

27. Change control requests:A. Must be relayed in writingB. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlledC. Are always initiated externallyD. Are inputs to integrated change control

28. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

29. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-7

30. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. Suppose your sponsor is also the vice president for engineering. You should:

A. Use the customer's test matrix.B. Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer.C. Use the engineering test matrix and inform the customer.D. Tell your sponsor that you want to set up a meeting with the customer to resolve the

conflict.

31. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives.

A. Likely eventsB. Complex activitiesC. Complex schedulesD. Uncertain occurrences

32. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs?A. EsteemB. Self-ActualizationC. PhysiologicalD. Social

33. Which of the following choices would indicate that your project was 10% under budget?A. The BCWS was 110, and the BCWP was 100B. The ACWP was 100, and the BCWP was 110C. The BCWS was 100, and the ACWP was 110D. The ACWP was 110, and the BCWP was 100

34. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal isA. Bidder NegotiationsB. Bidder AuctionC. Bidder ConferenceD. Bidder Selection

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1-8 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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35. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processesA. Planning core processesB. Planning facilitating processesC. Controlling core processesD. Controlling facilitating processes

36. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk assessmentD. Risk response planning

37. The project plan:A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an

approved scope changeB. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestonesC. Is used to manage project executionD. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

38. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. This is done as a tool and technique during?

A. Qualitative risk analysisB. Risk identificationC. Risk management planningD. Risk monitoring and control

39. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

40. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:A. CPPCB. FPIC. CPIFD. CPFF

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-9

41. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should:

A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.

42. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?

A. 216B. 225C. 246D. 400

43. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Gather requirements 40 45 80

Write specifications 35 50 100

Review specifications 10 15 30

Build model 18 25 50

Inspect model 10 20 40

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40

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1-10 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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44. The communication management plan is a document that provides:A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store informationB. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and

conventions/definitions to be usedC. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the

project progresses and developsD. All of the above

45. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

46. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur?A. Risk management planB. Project planC. Corrective action planD. Contingency plan

47. ____________ involves determing the information and communication of stakeholders.A. Communications planningB. Process controlC. project status reportsD. Information distribution planning

48. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structureB. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and historical informationC. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and the project planD. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-11

49. The objective with which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its execution of the risk response plan is based on the?

A. Overall risk ranking for the projectB. Probability ratingC. Risk assessment scoreD. Acceptable threshold for risk

50. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives. may be:

A. Instability of project progress informationB. Loss of focus on the work by line supervisorsC. Conflict between project manager and customerD. All of the above

51. Parametric cost estimating involves:A. Using the work breakdown structure as the basis for estimatingB. Defining the parameters of the project life cycleC. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work packageD. Using rates and other factors based on lesson learned/historical data to estimate costs

52. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information.

A. Project communication managementB. Quality standardsC. Process controlD. Project quality control

53. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of:

A. Risk management planB. Different project strategiesC. Different network pathsD. Individual activities

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1-12 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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54. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?A. Regression analysis on historical informationB. Intuitive expert opinionC. Simulation modelsD. Probabilistic sensitivity analysis

55. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skillsB. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other

planning outputsC. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requestsD. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail

56. Project Integration ManagementA. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work

required to complete the project successfullyB. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the projectC. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for

which it was undertakenD. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are

properly coordinated

57. To maintain the customer's schedule, massive overtime will be required between Christmas and New Years. Many of your team members have put in for vacation during this time. You should:

A. Let the schedule slip and inform the customer B. First give the employees the choice of working overtime C. Make the employees cancel their vacation plans and work overtime D. Hire temporary employees for the overtime

58. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation.

A. Operability and durabilityB. Lawful use of the product and safety of useC. Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollutionD. Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-13

59. Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a $10,000 bonus to be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should:

A. Provide everyone with an equal share B. Provide everyone a share based upon their performance C. Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided D. Ask the sponsor to make the decision

60. Inputs to risk quantification include which of the following?A. Stakeholder risk toleranceB. Sources of riskC. Potential risk eventsD. Historical data

61. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?A. FunctionalB. Weak MatrixC. ProjectizedD. Strong Matrix

62. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stake holder's personal concerns or grievances it may necessary to:

A. Ask for a written description of the problem and submit it through the project office B. Schedule a project review session with the entire project team C. Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder D. Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator

63. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:A. CPIFB. FPIC. FFPD. CPFF

64. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?A. IFQB. IFBC. RFPD. RFQ

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65. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

A. 20.0B. 22.5C. 25.0D. 27.5

66. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:

A. Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable lossesB. Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable lossesC. Depends upon the project's attitude toward riskD. Is indeterminable because of insufficient data

67. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by:

A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

68. The output from resource planning includes:A. Salary optionsB. Job descriptions and responsibilitiesC. Resources requiredD. Current job openings

69. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

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70. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____.A. Statistically dependentB. Variance distributedC. Statistically independentD. Deterministic

71. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:

A. High than the ACWPB. Higher than the BCWSC. Lower than the ACWPD. Lower than the BCWS

72. Project cost management includes all of the following functions except:A. Resource planningB. Resource levelingC. Cost estimatingD. Cost budgeting

73. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Qualitative risk analysisC. Quantitative risk analysisD. Risk control management

74. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:

A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific

communications infrastructure.

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75. The project is one with many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no method of avoiding potential for damages. The project manager should consider _____ as a means of deflecting the risk.

A. Abandoning the projectB. Buying insurance for personal bodily injuryC. Establishing a contingency fundD. Establishing a management reserve

76. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

77. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time.

A. Work-authorization systemB. Organizational proceduresC. Status reviewD. Project planning

78. Tools and techniques used in Quantitative Risk analysis include all of the following except? A. InterviewingB. Sensitivity analysisC. Decision tree analysisD. Avoidance

79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:

A. Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollarsB. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsC. Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsD. Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-17

80. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.

A. Letter, formalB. Fixed price, cost plusC. Cost plus, fixed priceD. No-fault, no obligation

81. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.

A. An automobile accidentB. An accident on commercial premisesC. Slander or libelD. All of the above

82. For Christmas, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the responsibility to:

A. Comply with the law. B. Comply with regulations.C. Provide accurate information.D. Protect conflict of interest.

83. Earned value can be described as:A. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current dateB. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project dateC. A method of measuring project performanceD. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date

84. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:

A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

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1-18 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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85. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?A. Cost management planB. Cost baselineC. Cost estimateD. Chart of accounts

86. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compressionB. CrashingC. Program evaluation and review techniqueD. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path

87. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?A. General management skillsB. Inputs to performance appraisalsC. Staffing pool descriptionD. External feedback

88. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project.

A. Researching, reviewing and acting onB. Identifying, analyzing and responding toC. Reviewing, monitoring and managingD. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding

89. Which is not another term for contract?A. AgreementB. Purchase OrderC. ProposalD. Memorandum of Understanding

90. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect:

A. Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damagesB. Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rightsC. Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patentD. All of the above

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91. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:

A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information

B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager

C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details

92. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should:

A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the

offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the

project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

93. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:A. Determine the risks associated with the violation B. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation C. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results D. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response

94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:A. Learning upgrades of new systemB. The immediacy of the need for informationC. The availability of technologyD. All of the above

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1-20 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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95. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring:

A. $3,500B. $4,000C. $5,000D. $7,500

96. Outputs to Risk Response Planning include all of the following except?A. Risk response planB. Corrective action planC. Contractual agreementsD. Residual risks

97. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion.

A. Project plan completion modelB. Performance reportingC. Administrative closureD. Process control

98. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion.

A. Retained at the remaining dollar levelB. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining workC. Decreased to reduce the accounting workD. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

99. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.

A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

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Answers

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-21

100. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated?

A. 13 %B. 6 %C. 100 %D. 72%

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ANSWERS

1. C. PMBOK 2000, page 1342. A. PMBOK 2000, page 1433. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct4. D. PMBOK 2000, page 485. C. PMBOK 2000, page 2046. A. 7. C. 8. A. PMBOK 2000, page 849. C. PMBOK 2000, page 89

10. C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct11. B. PMBOK 2000, page 20712. C. PMBOK 2000, page 7213. C. PMBOK 2000, page 20714. B. PMBOK 2000, page 8615. A. PMBOK 2000, page 4816. B. 17. C. PMBOK 2000, page 8818. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-16219. B. 20. A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct21. B. PMBOK 2000, page 12822. C. 23. C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct24. B. PMBOK 2000, page 88

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1-22 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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25. C. PMBOK 2000, page 13226. B. PMBOK 2000, page 4227. D. PMBOK 2000, page 4828. A. PMBOK 2000, page 9029. A. PMBOK 2000, page 8830. D. 31. D. PMBOK 2000, page 12732. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-16533. B. PMBOK 2000, page 12334. C. PMBOK 2000, page 15435. B. PMBOK 2000, page 3336. C. PMBOK 2000, page 12837. C. PMBOK 2000, page 4238. A. PMBOK 2000, page 13439. B. PMBOK 2000, page 8840. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-22841. B. PMBOK 2000, page 8942. C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /3 = 138 + 200 + 400 /3 = 24643. D. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct44. D. PMBOK 2000, page 11745. A. PMBOK 2000, page 8546. D. PMBOK 2000, page 19947. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-18148. D. PMBOK 2000, page 4249. A. PMBOK 2000, page 13950. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 3-5851. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-10152. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-18153. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-21154. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-20555. B. PMBOK 2000, page 4256. C. PMBOK 2000, page 4157. B. 58. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-23659. C. 60. D. PMBOK 2000, page 12861. C. PMBOK 2000, page 1962. C.

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Sample Test 1 1-23

63. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-22864. A. PMBOK 2000, page 15365. C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /366. C. PMBOK 2000, page 14267. A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct68. C. PMBOK 2000, page 8469. D. PMBOK 2000, page 9070. C. 71. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-11072. B. PMBOK 2000, page 8473. C. PMBOK 2000, page 12774. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-18275. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-20276. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-10677. A. PMBOk 2000, page 4778. D. PMBOK 2000, page 12879. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-21180. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-22881. D. A tort is defined as damage, injury, or a wrongful act done willfully, negligently, or in

circumstances involving strict liability, but not involving breach of contract, for which a civil suit can be brought.

82. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct83. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-10784. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct85. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-10586. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 4-8287. D. PMBOK 2000, page 11588. B. PMBOK 2000, page 12789. C. PMBOK 2000, page 15690. D. PMBOK 2000, page 18391. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-18192. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct93. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct94. D. PMP Exam Cram, 8-18495. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-21096. B. PMBOK 2000, page 12897. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-19198. B. PMBOK 2000, page 73

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1-24 Sample Test 1 http://www.pmptools.com

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99. A. PMBOK 2000, page 88100. D. 85% scope change, 85% project not being terminated = .85 * .85 = .72 or 72%

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 2 2-31

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1. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

2. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

3. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.A. TrueB. False

4. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

5. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives.A. Likely eventsB. Complex activitiesC. Complex schedulesD. Uncertain occurrences

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2-32 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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6. _____________ is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

7. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:A. Start-to-startB. Finish-to-finishC. Start-to-finishD. None of the above

8. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion.A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining workB. Increased to meet the unidentified surprisesC. Decreased to reduce the accounting workD. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

9. Contract close-out contains:A. Contract documentationB. Procurement auditsC. Formal acceptance and closureD. All of the above

10. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-33

11. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individuallyB. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcomeC. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcomeD. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

12. Which process is not included in Project Time Management?A. Activity definitionB. Activity sequencingC. Schedule development & schedule controlD. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

13. Performance improvements include all but:A. Improvements in amount of overtime workedB. Improvements in individual skillsC. Improvements in team behaviorsD. Improvements in team capabilities

14. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?A. Cost management planB. Cost baselineC. Cost estimateD. Chart of accounts

15. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.A. Work Breakdown StructureB. Resource planningC. Resource levelingD. Executing process

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2-34 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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16. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:A. Procurement planningB. Source selectionC. Contract administrationD. Contract closeout

17. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule developmentB. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project durationC. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule developmentD. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates

18. The core planning processes are:A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definitionB. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk managementC. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk controlD. Scope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration

19. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

20. Key Management skills include:A. LeadingB. CommunicatingC. NegotiatingD. All of the above

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-35

21. The process that is not a part of time management is:A. Activity DefinitionB. Resource PlanningC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Activity Sequencing

22. The outputs from schedule control include all except:A. Schedule updatesB. RevisionsC. Corrective actionD. Lessons learned

23. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.A. Project plan updateB. Project scope managementC. Scope change controlD. Product description

24. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

25. A resource pool description provides:A. The unit cost for each resourceB. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patternsC. Performance of the pool resourcesD. Duration of the project

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2-36 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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26. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so.A. Initiating processB. Solicitation processC. Scoping processD. Planning process

27. An output of scope definition is:A. Work breakdown structureB. Scope statementC. Scope management planD. Corrective action

28. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.A. ManagerB. DetrimentC. ScheduleD. Budget

29. A RAM is defined as:A. Random access memoryB. Rapid air movementC. Responsibilities and methodsD. Responsibility assignment matrix

30. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-37

31. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events.A. AddressB. ClassifyC. AssignD. Resolve

32. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.A. Development processB. Scoping processC. Planning processD. Information development process

33. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

34. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____.A. Statistically dependentB. Variance distributedC. Statistically independentD. Deterministic

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2-38 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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35. Topics that deal with people include:A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with othersB. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with peopleC. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource functionD. All of the above

36. An output of the scope change control process is:A. Scope statementB. Lessons learnedC. Formal acceptanceD. Work breakdown structure

37. Constraints do not include:A. Impacts of weatherB. Organizational structure of the performing organizationC. Collective bargainingD. Expected staff assignments

38. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating

39. Operations and projects share many characteristics.A. TrueB. False

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-39

40. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests.A. TrueB. False

41. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create.A. Resource planB. Project charterC. Project descriptionD. Scope statement

42. Outputs from the initiation process are:A. Project manager identified/assignedB. ConstraintsC. AssumptionsD. All of the above

43. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart

44. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

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2-40 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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45. Project Scope Management includes which processes:A. InitiationB. Project Plan ExecutionC. Overall Change ControlD. Performance Reporting

46. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

47. Project Integration ManagementA. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfullyB. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the projectC. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertakenD. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated

48. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project.A. Researching, reviewing and acting onB. Identifying, analyzing and responding toC. Reviewing, monitoring and managingD. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-41

49. Inputs to contract administration do not include:A. ContractB. Change requestsC. Work resultsD. Market conditions

50. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned to them.A. TrueB. False

51. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called:A. Scope developmentB. Scope planningC. Project developmentD. Project selection

52. Project selection criteria cover management concerns such as:A. Financial returnB. Market shareC. Public perceptionD. All of the above

53. The WBS is:A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.B. A task oriented family tree of the project.C. A cost centered structure of the project.D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct.

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2-42 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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54. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?A. CloseoutB. EstimatingC. BudgetingD. Control

55. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

56. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning?A. Scope statementB. ContractC. Product designD. Market conditions

57. A project can best be defined as:A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point.C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources.D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."

58. Characteristics of project phases are:A. MilestonesB. DeliverablesC. ActivitiesD. All of the above

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-43

59. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

60. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impactB. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impactC. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stakeD. Occurrence, frequency and cost

61. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A process of considerable scope that implements a planB. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcomeC. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or serviceD. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

62. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement

63. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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2-44 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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64. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:A. Product analysisB. Project schedule developmentC. Expert judgmentD. Project budget

65. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except:A. Commercial duration databasesB. Project filesC. Project team knowledgeD. Outside consultants

66. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

67. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule controlD. Project controls

68. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or serviceA. Project scopeB. Project verificationC. Project controlD. Product scope

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-45

69. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:A. IdentificationB. SolicitationC. QuantificationD. Response Development

70. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is:A. Project scopeB. Project verificationC. Project controlD. Product scope

71. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.A. 20.0B. 22.5C. 25.0D. 27.5

72. The scope management provides:A. A basis for future decisions about the project.B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.D. All of the above.

73. Project Procurement Management includes:A. Procurement planningB. Solicitation planningC. SolicitationD. All of the above

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2-46 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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74. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory.A. TrueB. False

75. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:A. See what mistakes others have madeB. See how others have solved problemsC. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"D. All of the above

76. The major project scope management processes include:A. Change order controlB. InitiationC. Program evaluationD. Scope statement

77. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:A. Organizational chartB. Responsibility matrixC. WBSD. Histogram

78. Which is an input to resource planning?A. Historical informationB. Cost baselineC. Cost management planD. Chart of accounts

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-47

79. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing?A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)C. Expert judgmentD. Network templates

80. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

81. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

82. You have a choice of accepting a fixed price contract for $115,000 with a liquidated damages clause or $100,000 without the clause. There is a 60% chance your cost will be $90,000 and a 40% chance your cost will be $80,000. There is a 98% chance of meeting your schedule but the penalty if missed is $50,000. Which is the best contract choice and how much profit would you make?A. Contract without the clause; profit is $14,000B. Contract without the clause; profit is $27,980C. Contract with the clause; profit is $14,000D. None of the above

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2-48 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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83. An example of a project is:A. Billing customersB. Managing an organizationC. Constructing a building or facilityD. Providing technical support

84. Inputs to Team Development include all butA. Project staffB. Reward and recognition systemsC. Performance reportsD. Project plan

85. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

86. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependenciesA. Finish-to-startB. Start-to-startC. Finish-to-finishD. Start-to-finish

87. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection?A. Contract negotiationB. Weighting systemC. Payment systemD. Screening system

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-49

88. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?A. Staffing management planB. TemplatesC. Human resource practicesD. Organizational theory

89. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end.A. Punch listB. Closing processC. Project completion checklistD. Stakeholder buyoff

90. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

91. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first.A. TrueB. False

92. The closing process scope includes:A. Contract closeoutB. Final reportingC. Punch listD. Exit interview

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2-50 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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93. An input to the scope planning process is:A. Product descriptionB. Project scheduleC. Strategic planD. Historical information

94. Scope planning is:A. Developing a plan from major stakeholdersB. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisionsC. Formalizing acceptance of the project scopeD. Planning project milestones

95. Activity definition inputs include all except:A. Work breakdown structureB. Product descriptionC. ConstraintsD. Assumptions

96. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff?A. Previous experienceB. Staff ageC. AvailabilityD. Personal interest

97. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-51

98. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:A. Square foot estimatingB. Template estimatingC. Computerized estimatingD. Analogous estimating

99. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

100. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared?A. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope DefinitionD. Scope verification

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ANSWERS

2-52 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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1. B. Bottom up estimating2. B. False3. B. False4. C. Parametric modeling5. D. Uncertain occurrences6. C. Analogous estimating7. D. None of the above8. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work9. D. All of the above

10. D. Developing a new product or service11. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available

from managing them individually12. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)13. A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked14. A. Cost management plan15. D. Executing process16. A. Procurement planning17. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development18. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity

definition19. D. Cost control20. D. All of the above21. B. Resource Planning22. B. Lessons learned23. B. Project scope management24. B. False25. B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns26. A. Initiating process27. A. Work breakdown structure28. B. Detriment29. D. Responsibility assignment matrix30. A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.

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PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-53

31. A. Address32. C. Planning process33. D. What type of resource planning is required34. C. Statistically independent35. D. All of the above36. B. Lessons learned37. A. Impacts of weather38. B. Contract negotiation39. A. True40. A. True41. C. Project description42. D. All of the above43. B. Process44. A. Resource planning45. A. Initiation46. A. Analogous estimating47. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for

which it was undertaken48. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to49. D. Market conditions50. A. True51. B. Scope planning52. D. All of the above53. B. A task oriented family tree of the project.54. A. Closeout55. C. Cost budgeting56. B. Contract57. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes

both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."58. D. All of the above59. A. Cost baseline60. C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake61. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service62. A. A strong matrix organization63. D. All of the above

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ANSWERS

2-54 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

2

64. C. Expert judgment65. D. Outside consultants66. B. Cost estimating67. B. Project performance68. B. Project verification69. B. Solicitation70. A. Project scope71. C. 25.072. D. All of the above.73. D. All of the above74. A. True75. D. All of the above76. B. Initiation77. D. Histogram78. A. Historical information79. C. Expert judgment80. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by

PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.81. B. Controlling process82. D. None of the above83. C. Constructing a building or facility84. B. Reward and recognition systems85. D. Dedicated project team

86. A. Finish-to-start87. C. Payment system88. A. Staffing management plan89. B. Closing process90. A. Managing changes when they occur91. A. True92. A. Contract closeout93. A. Product description94. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions95. B. Product description96. B. Staff age97. B. Bottom up estimating

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ANSWERS

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank Test 2 2-55

98. C. Computerized estimating99. A. Analogous estimating100. B. Scope Planning

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ANSWERS

2-56 Test 2 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 3 3-57

. . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .SAMPLE TEST 3 3

1. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring:A. $3,500B. $4,000C. $5,000D. $7,500

2. Project Procurement Management includes:A. Procurement planningB. Solicitation planningC. SolicitationD. All of the above

3. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives.A. Monthly update reportsB. Executive top-down reportingC. Performance reviewsD. Performance reporting

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3-58 Test 3 PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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4. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the _____________ of the project.A. Quality, scheduleB. Objectives, organizationC. Management, productD. Customer requirements stakeholders

5. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

6. Key Management skills include:A. LeadingB. CommunicatingC. NegotiatingD. All of the above

7. The Risk Management Plan does not include:A. Risk management proceduresB. Risk identificationC. Alternative strategiesD. Allocation of reserves

8. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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9. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur:A. Risk management planB. Project planC. Corrective action planD. Contingency plan

10. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:A. ReservesB. Corrective action planC. Contractual agreementsD. Risk management plan

11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?A. Staffing management planB. TemplatesC. Human resource practicesD. Organizational theory

12. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A process of considerable scope that implements a planB. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcomeC. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or serviceD. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

13. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following:A. Probability that the risk event will occurB. Alternative possible outcomesC. Expected timing of the eventD. All of the above

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14. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:A. Contract negotiationB. Weighting systemC. Payment systemD. Screening system

15. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.A. Process control modelB. Work breakdown structureC. ChecklistD. Project plan

16. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the project objectives is:A. Control chartsB. Quality tolerance checklistC. Scope statementD. Product description

17. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.A. Quality planning B. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

18. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

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19. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:A. IdentificationB. SolicitationC. QuantificationD. Response Development

20. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

21. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how it is measured by the quality control process.A. OperationalB. Process controlC. Quality policyD. Hierarchical system model

22. Topics that deal with people include:A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with othersB. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with peopleC. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource functionD. All of the above

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23. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandarsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

25. An example of a project is:A. Billing customersB. Managing an organizationC. Constructing a building or facilityD. Providing technical support

26. Which is not input to Risk Identification:A. Historical informationB. Cost estimatesC. Product informationD. Checklists

27. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome.A. Critical path methodB. Contemporaneous schedulingC. Design of experimentsD. Benchmarking

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28. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

29. A RAM is defined as:A. Random access memoryB. Rapid air movementC. Responsibilities and methodsD. Responsibility assignment matrix

30. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called:A. Project controlsB. Project information management systems (PIMS)C. Informational distribution systemsD. Project distribution systems

31. The process that is not a part of time management is:A. Activity DefinitionB. Resource PlanningC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Activity Sequencing

32. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule controlD. Project controls

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33. Inputs to Team Development include all butA. Project staffB. Reward and recognition systemsC. Performance reportsD. Project plan

34. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects.A. TrueB. False

35. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

36. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include:A. ProcurementB. Expert judgmentC. InsuranceD. Alternative strategies

37. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated?A. 13 %B. 6 %C. 100 %D. 72 %

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38. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:A. Procurement planningB. Source selectionC. Contract administrationD. Contract closeout

39. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

40. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.A. Executive management updatesB. Project status reportsC. Information distributionD. Process control

41. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of:A. Risk management planB. Different project strategiesC. Different network pathsD. Individual activities

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42. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality, as formally expressed by top management.A. Top-down reportingB. Project management procedureC. Quality policyD. Quality assurance

43. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

44. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as:A. Sources of riskB. Potential risk eventsC. Stakeholder risk tolerancesD. Expected monetary value

45. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.A. Work Breakdown StructureB. Resource planningC. Resource levelingD. Executing process

46. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

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47. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning:A. Scope statementB. ContractC. Product designD. Market conditions

48. The core planning processes are:A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definitionB. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk managementC. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk controlD. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration

49. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff?A. Previous experienceB. Staff ageC. AvailabilityD. Personal interest

50. Constraints do not include:A. Impacts of weatherB. Organizational structure of the performing organizationC. Collective bargainingD. Expected staff assignments

51. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:A. Team-building activitiesB. General management skillsC. Role and responsibility assignmentsD. Rewards and recognition systems

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52. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion.A. Project plan completion modelB. Performance reportingC. Administrative closureD. Process control

53. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individuallyB. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcomeC. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcomeD. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

54. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but:A. Comprehensive checklistsB. Benefit/cost analysisC. FlowchartingD. Benchmarking

55. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

56. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.A. Performance reviewsB. Status reviewsC. Weekly progress meetingsD. Progress informational update meetings

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57. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory.A. TrueB. False

58. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.A. Development processB. Scoping processC. Planning processD. Information development process

59. Performance improvements include all but:A. Improvements in amount of overtime workedB. Improvements in individual skillsC. Improvements in team behaviorsD. Improvements in team capabilities

60. Project management process can be organized into:A. Initiating processB. Planning processC. Controlling and executing processD. All of the above

61. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade is:A. A system to measure operational planning techniquesB. A category for quality improvementC. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for qualityD. A check list for quality management techniques

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62. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?A. CloseoutB. EstimatingC. BudgetingD. Control

63. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by:A. Planning it into the project.B. Developing final inspections for quality.C. Striving to do the best job possible.D. Conducting quality circle activities.

64. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:A. Organizational chartB. Responsibility matrixC. WBSD. Histogram

65. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

66. _____________ is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

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67. Inputs to risk quantification do not include:A. Stakeholder risk toleranceB. Sources of riskC. Potential risk eventsD. Historical data

68. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and determines how to satisfy them.A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

69. An input to the quality assurance process is:A. Customer satisfactionB. Quality management planC. Product descriptionD. Standards and regulations

70. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests.A. TrueB. False

71. Operations and projects share many characteristics.A. TrueB. False

72. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.A. TrueB. False

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73. Contract close-out contains:A. Contract documentationB. Procurement auditsC. Formal acceptance and closureD. All of the above

74. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information.A. Project communication managementB. Quality standardsC. Process controlD. Project quality control

75. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement

76. Quality is defined as:A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needsB. Verifying the customers requirements are metC. Meeting the project quality checklist without flawsD. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget

77. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:A. ChecklistsB. Risk assessmentC. FlowchartingD. Interviewing

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78. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk qualificationD. Risk response development

79. The quality management processes do not include:A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Overall change control

80. The communication management plan is a document that provides:A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store informationB. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and conventions/definitions to be usedC. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and developsD. All of the above

81. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is:A. CPMB. FlowchartC. Bar chartD. Network diagram

82. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are:A. Performance reviewsB. Earned value analysisC. Trend analysisD. All of the above

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83. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include:A. Expected monetary valueB. Decision treesC. SimulationD. All of the above

84. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating

85. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:

A. 216B. 225C. 246D. 400

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Gather requirements 40 45 80

Write specifications 35 50 100

Review specifications 10 15 30

Build model 18 25 50

Inspect model 10 20 40

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40

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86. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to measure performance.A. Process adjustmentsB. Operational definitionsC. Benchline parametersD. Benchmarking

87. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

88. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.A. Informational retrieval systemsB. Informational distribution systemsC. Project recordsD. Project informational systems

89. Project Scope Management includes which processes:A. InitiationB. Project Plan ExecutionC. Overall Change ControlD. Performance Reporting

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90. An outputs from the quality planning process is:A. Quality improvementsB. Quality management planC. Acceptance decisionsD. Process adjustments

91. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

92. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

93. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:A. Learning upgrades of new systemB. The immediacy of the need for informationC. The availability of technologyD. All of the above

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95. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.A. Quality planningB. Quality standardsC. Process controlD. Project quality management

96. Characteristics of project phases are:A. MilestonesB. DeliverablesC. ActivitiesD. All of the above

97. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart

98. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so.A. Initiating processB. Solicitation processC. Scoping processD. Planning process

99. Inputs to contract administration do not include:A. ContractB. Change requestsC. Work resultsD. Market conditions

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100. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project:A. OwnerB. BuyerC. SellerD. Stakeholder and the vendor

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ANSWERS

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 3 3-79

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1. C. $5,0002. D. All of the above3. D. Performance reporting4. C. Management, product5. D. What type of resource planning is required6. D. All of the above7. C. Alternative strategies8. D. All of the above9. D. Contingency plan

10. B. Corrective action plan11. A. Staffing management plan12. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service13. D. All of the above14. C. Payment system15. C. Checklist16. C. Scope statement17. B. Quality assurance18. A. Managing changes when they occur19. B. Solicitation20. C. Quality control21. A. Operational22. D. All of the above23. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by

PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.24. B. Bottom up estimating25. C. Constructing a building or facility26. D. Checklists27. C. Design of experiments28. B. Controlling process29. D. Responsibility assignment matrix30. C. Informational distribution systems

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31. B. Resource Planning32. B. Project performance33. B. Reward and recognition systems34. B. False35. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.36. B. Expert judgment37. D. 72 %38. A. Procurement planning39. A. Cost baseline40. C. Information distribution41. A. Risk management plan42. C. Quality policy43. B. False44. C. Stakeholder risk tolerances45. D. Executing process46. D. Dedicated project team47. B. Contract48. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity

definition49. B. Staff age50. A. Impacts of weather51. C. Role and responsibility assignments52. C. Administrative closure53. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available

from managing them individually54. A. Comprehensive checklists55. C. Parametric modeling56. A. Performance reviews57. A. True58. C. Planning process59. A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked60. D. All of the above61. C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for

quality62. A. Closeout

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 3 3-81

63. A. Planning it into the project.64. D. Histogram65. D. Cost control66. C. Analogous estimating67. D. Historical data68. A. Quality planning69. B. Quality management plan70. A. True71. A. True72. B. False73. D. All of the above74. A. Project communication management75. A. A strong matrix organization76. A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or

implied needs77. D. Interviewing78. C. Risk qualification79. C. Quality control80. D. All of the above81. B. Flowchart82. D. All of the above83. D. All of the above84. B. Contract negotiation85. C. 24686. D. Benchmarking87. C. Cost budgeting88. A. Informational retrieval systems89. A. Initiation90. B. Quality management plan91. D. Developing a new product or service92. B. False93. C. The overlapping of project phases94. D. All of the above95. D. Project quality management96. D. All of the above

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97. B. Process98. B. Solicitation process99. D. Market conditions

100. B. Buyer

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1. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?

A. 216B. 225C. 246D. 400

2. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end.A. Punch listB. Closing processC. Project completion checklistD. Stakeholder buyoff

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Gather requirements 40 45 80

Write specifications 35 50 100

Review specifications 10 15 30

Build model 18 25 50

Inspect model 10 20 40

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40

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3. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structureB. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical informationC. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project planD. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

4. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____.A) Magnitude of the impact on the projectB) Project manager's perception of riskC) Project manager's ability to influence the riskD) Use of more or less contractors

5. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion.A) Retained at the remaining dollar levelB) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining workC) Decreased to reduce the accounting workD) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

6. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:A. Team-building activitiesB. General management skillsC. Role and responsibility assignmentsD. Rewards and recognition systems

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7. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan, performance reports and change requestB. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learnedC. Project plan, project reports and change requestD. Product plan, performance reports and change request

8. Project Scope Management is:A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or serviceC. Is synonymous with change control managementD. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders

9. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

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10. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

11. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?A. Project ScheduleB. Cost estimatesC. Resource requirementsD. WBS

12. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

13. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

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14. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution?A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresB. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresC. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresD. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information

15. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

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16. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?

A. -$3,000B. $5,000C. $3,000D. -$2,000

17. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

18. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk assessmentD. Risk response planning

PV EV AC

$10,000 $12,000 $15,000

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 4 4-89

19. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project B. Developing final inspections for quality C. Striving to do the best job possible D. Conducting quality circle activities

20. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X?A. TrustB. SafetyC. Self EsteemD. Self Actualization

21. Cost estimating is:A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or serviceB. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or serviceC. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performanceD. Analyzing positive and negative variances

22. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?A. Supporting plan and the WBSB. Project plan and historical informationC. Project Plan and supporting detailD. Supporting detail and lessons learned

23. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli?A. Pretending to show interest in the other sideB. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn'tC. Means the same as acting in good faithD. Compromised agreement

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24. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that: A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditionsD. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance

25. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?A) Regression analysis on historical informationB) Intuitive expert opinionC) Simulation modelsD) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis

26. Which is not a facilitating process?A. Solicitation planningB. Quality planningC. Communications planningD. Resource planning

27. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Company? A. $22.40B. $26.60 C. $29.12 D. $30.33

28. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12 % interest is:A. $4,702B. $4,982C. $5,287D. $5,394

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29. Outputs of organizational planning are:A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templatesB. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balancesC. Project organization charts and lessons learnedD. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned

30. Which scope management process creates the WBS?A. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope definition D. Scope verification

31. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

32. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

33. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

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34. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: A. When a problem surfacesB. After the schedule is published C. During the close-out phase D. During the planning phase

35. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?A. Performance standard is zero defectsB. Quality must be inspected inC. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the workerD. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act

36. An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.

37. Core processes:A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the projectB. Have clear dependenciesC. Must be preformed simultaneouslyD. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project

38. Poor scope definition may cause all but:A. ReworkB. Increased productivityC. Schedule delaysD. Low morale

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39. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project

40. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method of scheduling is the:A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate methodB. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate methodC. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram lineD. There is no difference

41. Collocation can mean:A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the teamB. Team members work better at different locationsC. Multiple locations are connected by local area networksD. None of the above

42. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method:A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the scheduleB. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculationsC. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic tiesD. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration

43. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

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44. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?A. Communications ManagementB. Procurement ManagementC. Change Control ManagementD. Project Integration Management

45. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.A) An automobile accidentB) An accident on commercial premisesC) Slander or libelD) All of the above

46. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learnedB. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learnedC. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structureD. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

47. The role of advertising in the solicitation process:A. Is required by state lawB. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential biddersC. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputesD. Finds the cheapest contractor available

48. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.A. Formal procedureB. Informal procedureC. Exchange procedureD. Monitoring procedure

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49. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

50. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to: A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made publicB. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomesC. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budgetD. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget

51. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project includeA. Budgetary considerationsB. InternationalizationC. Activity based costingD. Matrix organization

52. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.A) Letter, formalB) Fixed price, cost plusC) Cost plus, fixed priceD) No-fault, no obligation

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53. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk qualificationD. Risk response development

54. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to: A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details

55. Procurement documents should be structured to:A. Describe the desired form of responseB. Include a complete statement of workC. Outline cost criteriaD. A and B

56. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable lossesB) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable lossesC) Depends upon the project's attitude toward riskD) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data

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57. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include:A. Economic models & comparative approachesB. Economic models & linear programming methodsC. Linear programming methods & cost basis modelsD. Linear programming models & economic models

58. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces?A. 31.74B. 34.13C. 68.26D. 95.46

59. Characteristics of a code of account are:A. It includes work packagesB. It is a numbering systemC. It is the same as a cost accountD. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS

60. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____.A) ContractB) SpecificationC) Statement of workD) Work breakdown structure

61. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution?A. Work results and status review meetingsB. Work results, change requests and lessons learnedC. Work results and project knowledgeD. Work results and change requests

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62. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:A. High than the ACWPB. Higher than the BCWSC. Lower than the ACWPD. Lower than the BCWS

63. Which is not another term for contract?A. AgreementB. Purchase OrderC. ProposalD. Memorandum of Understanding

64. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process?A. Project charterB. ConstraintsC. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM

65. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to: A. Revise project plan B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis C. Conduct a needs analysisD. Increase the estimated cost

66. A precise description of a deliverable includes a: A. Specification B. Baseline C. Work package D. WBS element

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67. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management processA. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope Change ControlD. Scope verification

68. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

69. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal isA. Bidder NegotiationsB. Bidder AuctionC. Bidder ConferenceD. Bidder Selection

70. The lowest level of the WBS is:A. Control accountB. Code of accountsC. Work Package D. Deliverable

71. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are:A. Fringe benefitsB. More vacation timeC. Completion bonusD. A sense of personal achievement

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72. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: A. ConstraintsB. Project charterC. Product description D. Budget/cost analysis

73. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compressionB. CrashingC. Program evaluation and review techniqueD. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path

74. Change control requests:A. Must be relayed in writingB. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlledC. Are always initiated externallyD. Are inputs to integrated change control

75. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:A. Behind scheduleB. Over budgetC. Ahead of scheduleD. Under budget

76. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skillsB. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputsC. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requestsD. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail

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77. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the project during the: A. Closeout phase B. Development phase C. Execution phase D. Concept phase

78. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except: A. Product analysisB. Status reportingC. Progress reporting D. Forecasting

79. The primary outputs of team development are:A. Improved project performanceB. Improved team moraleC. Better performance appraisalsD. Better working conditions

80. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

81. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation.A) Operability and durabilityB) Lawful use of the product and safety of useC) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollutionD) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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82. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

83. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

84. The scope management plan includes:A. An assessment of the stability of the project scopeB. How changes will be integrated into the projectC. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classifiedD. All of the above

85. Scope change is defined as:A. Change in project personnelB. Change in technical specificationsC. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBSD. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB

86. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be:A) Instability of project progress informationB) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisorsC) Conflict between project manager and customerD) All of the above

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87. Contract closeout documentation includes:A. Technical documentationB. Financial documentationC. All of the aboveD. None of the above

88. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage?A. Initial phase(s)B. Intermediate phase(s)C. Closing phase(s)D. Staffing phase(s)

89. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollarsB) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsC) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsD) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

90. The project plan:A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope changeB. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestonesC. Is used to manage project executionD. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

91. Earned Value is:A. The amount future value of a present investmentB. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rateC. Budgeted value of work actually accomplishedD. PV-AC

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92. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?A. Operational definitionsB. Quality policyC. Quality auditsD. Quality improvement

93. The project schedule is not used to determine:A. The project's budgetB. The float of the projectC. Occasional changes to the activity listingD. The starting and finishing dates of the activities

94. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect:A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damagesB) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rightsC) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patentD) All of the above

95. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service.A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessaryC. Organized, profitableD. Temporary, unique

96. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?A. ReworkB. TrainingC. Rejects D. Scrap

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97. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should: A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.

98. Constructive team roles include: A. Investigator, clarifier, and closerB. Compromiser, blocker, and closer C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer

99. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionB. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionC. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective actionD. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned

100. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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1. C. 2462. B. Closing process3. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)4. C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk5. B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work6. C. Role and responsibility assignments7. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request8. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in

order to complete the project successfully9. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider

the offer.10. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program11. C. Resource requirements12. B. Controlling process13. D. What type of resource planning is required14. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,

status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures

15. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.16. A. -$3,00017. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input18. C. Risk assessment19. A. Planning it into the project20. B. Safety21. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service22. C. Project plan and supporting detail23. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't24. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance25. B) Intuitive expert opinion26. D. Resource planning27. C. $29.12

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28. C. $5,28729. A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates30. C. Scope definition31. A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process32. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by

PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.33. D. Developing a new product or service34. D. During the planning phase35. B. Quality must be inspected in36. A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you

personally37. B. Have clear dependencies38. B. Increased productivity39. C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action40. C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line41. A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team42. D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration43. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.44. C. Change Control Management45. D) All of the above46. A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned47. B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders48. A. Formal procedure49. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated50. B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes51. B. Internationalization52. B) Fixed price, cost plus53. C. Risk qualification54. A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before

transmitting information55. D. A and B56. C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk57. A. Economic models & comparative approaches58. B. 34.1359. D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS

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60. D) Work breakdown structure61. D. Work results and change requests62. D. Lower than the BCWS63. C. Proposal64. C. Alternatives identification65. D. Increase the estimated cost66. A. Specification67. D. Scope verification68. D. Dedicated project team69. C. Solicitation selection70. C. Work Package71. D. A sense of personal achievement72. D. Budget/cost analysis73. B. Crashing74. D. Are inputs to integrated change control75. C. Ahead of schedule76. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other

planning outputs77. D. Concept phase78. A. Product analysis79. A. Improved project performance80. B. False81. D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose82. C. The overlapping of project phases83. B. False84. D. All of the above85. C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS86. D) All of the above87. C. All of the above88. B. Intermediate phase(s)89. B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars90. C. Is used to manage project execution91. C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished92. B. Quality policy93. A. The project's budget

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94. D) All of the above95. D. Temporary, unique96. B. Training97. B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.98. C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper99. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and

corrective action100. D. All of the above

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1. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end.A. Punch listB. Closing processC. Project completion checklistD. Stakeholder buyoff

2. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:A. Procurement planningB. Source selectionC. Contract administrationD. Contract closeout

3. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:A. Square foot estimatingB. Template estimatingC. Computerized estimatingD. Analogous estimating

4. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:A. IdentificationB. SolicitationC. QuantificationD. Response Development

5. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned to them.A. TrueB. False

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6. A resource pool description provides:A. The unit cost for each resourceB. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patternsC. Performance of the pool resourcesD. Duration of the project

7. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared?A. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope DefinitionD. Scope verification

8. Project Procurement Management includes:A. Procurement planningB. Solicitation planningC. SolicitationD. All of the above

9. Outputs from the initiation process are:A. Project manager identified/assignedB. ConstraintsC. AssumptionsD. All of the above

10. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:A. See what mistakes others have madeB. See how others have solved problemsC. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"D. All of the above

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11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?A. Staffing management planB. TemplatesC. Human resource practicesD. Organizational theory

12. Performance improvements include all but:A. Improvements in amount of overtime workedB. Improvements in individual skillsC. Improvements in team behaviorsD. Improvements in team capabilities

13. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects.A. TrueB. False

14. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impactB. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impactC. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stakeD. Occurrence, frequency and cost

15. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart

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16. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project:A. OwnerB. BuyerC. SellerD. Stakeholder and the vendor

17. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first.A. TrueB. False

18. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:A. Organizational chartB. Responsibility matrixC. WBSD. Histogram

19. The process that is not a part of time management is:A. Activity DefinitionB. Resource PlanningC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Activity Sequencing

20. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

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21. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.A. Development processB. Scoping processC. Planning processD. Information development process

22. The closing process scope includes:A. Contract closeoutB. Final reportingC. Punch listD. Exit interview

23. An output of the scope change control process is:A. Scope statementB. Lessons learnedC. Formal acceptanceD. Work breakdown structure

24. Constraints do not include:A. Impacts of weatherB. Organizational structure of the performing organizationC. Collective bargainingD. Expected staff assignments

25. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

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26. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.A. 20.0B. 22.5C. 25.0D. 27.5

27. The WBS is:A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.B. A task oriented family tree of the project.C. A cost centered structure of the project.D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct.

28. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating

29. What are the tools and techniques of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process?A. Checklists, flowcharting, interviewingB. Interviewing, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, simulationC. Checklists, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, information gathering techniquesD. Interviewing, checklists, assumption analysis, risk probability impact

30. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

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31. Scope planning is:A. Developing a plan from major stakeholdersB. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisionsC. Formalizing acceptance of the project scopeD. Planning project milestones

32. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individuallyB. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcomeC. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcomeD. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

33. An example of a project is:A. Billing customersB. Managing an organizationC. Constructing a building or facilityD. Providing technical support

34. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

35. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:A. Contract negotiationB. Weighting systemC. Payment systemD. Screening system

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36. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

37. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?A. CloseoutB. EstimatingC. BudgetingD. Control

38. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is:A. Project scopeB. Project verificationC. Project controlD. Product scope

39. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.A. Project plan updateB. Project scope managementC. Scope change controlD. Product description

40. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory.A. TrueB. False

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41. Which is an input to resource planning?A. Historical informationB. Cost baselineC. Cost management planD. Chart of accounts

42. A project can best be defined as:A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point.C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources.D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."

43. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A process of considerable scope that implements a planB. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcomeC. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or serviceD. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

44. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:A. Product analysisB. Project schedule developmentC. Expert judgmentD. Project budget

45. A RAM is defined as:A. Random access memoryB. Rapid air movementC. Responsibilities and methodsD. Responsibility assignment matrix

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46. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

47. The scope management provides:A. A basis for future decisions about the project.B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.D. All of the above.

48. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or serviceA. Project scopeB. Project verificationC. Project controlD. Product scope

49. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provide the resources to meet the risk events.A. AddressB. ClassifyC. AssignD. Resolve

50. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

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51. Topics that deal with people include:A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with othersB. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with peopleC. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource functionD. All of the above

52. Project Integration ManagementA. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfullyB. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the projectC. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertakenD. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated

53. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.A. Work Breakdown StructureB. Resource planningC. Resource levelingD. Executing process

54. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

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55. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.A. ManagerB. DetrimentC. ScheduleD. Budget

56. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing:A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)C. Expert judgmentD. Network templates

57. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so.A. Initiating processB. Solicitation processC. Scoping processD. Planning process

58. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff?A. Previous experienceB. Staff ageC. AvailabilityD. Personal interest

59. The _____________ are typically defined in terms of the product and can cover the full range of possible management concerns.A. Resource breakdown structuresB. Change requestsC. Project selection criteriaD. Performance measurements

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60. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

61. Which process is not included in Project Time Management?A. Activity definitionB. Activity sequencingC. Schedule development & schedule controlD. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

62. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____.A. Statistically dependentB. Variance distributedC. Statistically independentD. Deterministic

63. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

64. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests.A. TrueB. False

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65. The core planning processes are:A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definitionB. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk managementC. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk controlD. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration

66. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement

67. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

68. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?A. Cost management planB. Cost baselineC. Cost estimateD. Chart of accounts

69. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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70. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

71. Inputs to contract administration do not include:A. ContractB. Change requestsC. Work resultsD. Market conditions

72. The outputs from schedule control include all except:A. Schedule updatesB. RevisionsC. Corrective actionD. Lessons learned

73. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives.A. Likely eventsB. Complex activitiesC. Complex schedulesD. Uncertain occurrences

74. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning:A. Scope statementB. ContractC. Product designD. Market conditions

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75. _____________ is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

76. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

77. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

78. Key Management skills include:A. LeadingB. CommunicatingC. NegotiatingD. All of the above

79. Project management process can be organized into:A. Initiating processB. Planning processC. Controlling and executing processD. All of the above

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80. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

81. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

82. Characteristics of project phases are:A. MilestonesB. DeliverablesC. ActivitiesD. All of the above

83. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

84. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called:A. Scope developmentB. Scope planningC. Project developmentD. Project selection

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85. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule developmentB. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project durationC. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule developmentD. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates

86. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.A. TrueB. False

87. An output of scope definition is:A. Work breakdown structureB. Scope statementC. Scope management planD. Corrective action

88. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

89. Operations and projects share many characteristics.A. TrueB. False

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90. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion.A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining workB. Increased to meet the unidentified surprisesC. Decreased to reduce the accounting workD. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

91. The major project scope management processes include:A. Change order controlB. InitiationC. Program evaluationD. Scope statement

92. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule controlD. Project controls

93. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create.A. Resource planB. Project charterC. Project descriptionD. Scope statement

94. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

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95. _____________ is the process of formally recognizing that a new project exists or that an existing project should continue into its next phase.A. Project SchedulingB. Strategic planningC. InitiationD. Project verification

96. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except:A. Commercial duration databasesB. Project filesC. Project team knowledgeD. Outside consultants

97. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project.A. Researching, reviewing and acting onB. Identifying, analyzing and responding toC. Reviewing, monitoring and managingD. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding

98. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

99. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:A. Start-to-startB. Finish-to-finishC. Start-to-finishD. None of the above

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100. An input to the scope planning process is:A. Product descriptionB. Project scheduleC. Strategic planD. Historical information

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. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . A N S W E R S

1. B. Closing process2. A. Procurement planning3. C. Computerized estimating4. B. Solicitation5. A. True6. B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns7. B. Scope Planning8. D. All of the above9. D. All of the above

10. D. All of the above11. A. Staffing management plan12. A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked13. B. False14. C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake15. B. Process16. B. Buyer17. A. True18. D. Histogram19. B. Resource Planning20. A. Cost baseline21. C. Planning process22. A. Contract closeout23. B. Lessons learned24. A. Impacts of weather25. D. Dedicated project team26. C. 25.027. B. A task oriented family tree of the project.28. B. Contract negotiation29. B. The Quantitative Risk Analysis process has four tools and techniques: interviewing,

sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, and simulation.30. D. Developing a new product or service31. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

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32. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

33. C. Constructing a building or facility34. B. Bottom up estimating35. C. Payment system36. B. False37. A. Closeout38. A. Project scope39. B. Project scope management40. A. True41. A. Historical information42. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes

both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."43. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service44. C. Expert judgment45. D. Responsibility assignment matrix46. A. Analogous estimating47. D. All of the above.48. B. Project verification49. A. Address50. B. Controlling process51. D. All of the above52. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for

which it was undertaken53. D. Executing process54. D. What type of resource planning is required55. B. Detriment56. C. Expert judgment

57. A. Initiating process58. B. Staff age59. C. Project selection criteria60. C. Cost budgeting61. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)62. C. Statistically independent63. C. The overlapping of project phases

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64. A. True65. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity

definition66. A. A strong matrix organization67. C. Parametric modeling68. A. Cost management plan69. D. All of the above70. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.71. D. Market conditions72. B. Revisions73. D. Uncertain occurrences74. B. Contract75. C. Analogous estimating76. D. Cost control77. A. Managing changes when they occur78. D. All of the above79. D. All of the above80. B. False81. B. Bottom up estimating82. D. All of the above83. A. Analogous estimating84. B. Scope planning85. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development86. B. False87. A. Work breakdown structure88. A. Resource planning89. A. True90. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work91. B. Initiation92. B. Project performance93. C. Project description94. B. Cost estimating95. C. Initiation96. D. Outside consultants97. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to

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98. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.

99. D. None of the above100.A. Product description

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1. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects.A. TrueB. False

2. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as:A. Sources of riskB. Potential risk eventsC. Stakeholder risk tolerancesD. Expected monetary value

3. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated?A. 13 %B. 6 %C. 100 %D. 72 %

4. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A process of considerable scope that implements a planB. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcomeC. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or serviceD. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

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5. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

6. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

7. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of:A. Risk management planB. Different project strategiesC. Different network pathsD. Individual activities

8. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:A. Learning upgrades of new systemB. The immediacy of the need for informationC. The availability of technologyD. All of the above

9. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so.A. Initiating processB. Solicitation processC. Scoping processD. Planning process

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10. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

11. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

12. Inputs to risk quantification do not include:A. Stakeholder risk toleranceB. Sources of riskC. Potential risk eventsD. Historical data

13. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is:A. CPMB. FlowchartC. Bar chartD. Network diagram

14. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include:A. Expected monetary valueB. Decision treesC. SimulationD. All of the above

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15. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk qualificationD. Risk response development

16. Inputs to Team Development include all butA. Project staffB. Reward and recognition systemsC. Performance reportsD. Project plan

17. Project Procurement Management includes:A. Procurement planningB. Solicitation planningC. SolicitationD. All of the above

18. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives.A. Monthly update reportsB. Executive top-down reportingC. Performance reviewsD. Performance reporting

19. Project management process can be organized into:A. Initiating processB. Planning processC. Controlling and executing processD. All of the above

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20. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory.A. TrueB. False

21. Inputs to contract administration do not include:A. ContractB. Change requestsC. Work resultsD. Market conditions

22. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

23. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring:A. $3,500B. $4,000C. $5,000D. $7,500

24. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.A. Quality planning B. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

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25. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.A. Development processB. Scoping processC. Planning processD. Information development process

26. Constraints do not include:A. Impacts of weatherB. Organizational structure of the performing organizationC. Collective bargainingD. Expected staff assignments

27. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:A. ChecklistsB. Risk assessmentC. FlowchartingD. Interviewing

28. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:A. Contract negotiationB. Weighting systemC. Payment systemD. Screening system

29. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

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30. A RAM is defined as:A. Random access memoryB. Rapid air movementC. Responsibilities and methodsD. Responsibility assignment matrix

31. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to measure performance.A. Process adjustmentsB. Operational definitionsC. Bench line parametersD. Benchmarking

32. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

33. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called:A. Project controlsB. Project information management systems (PIMS)C. Informational distribution systemsD. Project distribution systems

34. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following:A. Probability that the risk event will occurB. Alternative possible outcomesC. Expected timing of the eventD. All of the above

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35. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

36. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade is:A. A system to measure operational planning techniquesB. A category for quality improvementC. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for qualityD. A check list for quality management techniques

37. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

38. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.A. Informational retrieval systemsB. Informational distribution systemsC. Project recordsD. Project informational systems

39. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.A. Work Breakdown StructureB. Resource planningC. Resource levelingD. Executing process

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40. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?A. CloseoutB. EstimatingC. BudgetingD. Control

41. _____________ is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

42. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information.A. Project communication managementB. Quality standardsC. Process controlD. Project quality control

43. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

44. Contract close-out contains:A. Contract documentationB. Procurement auditsC. Formal acceptance and closureD. All of the above

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45. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning:A. Scope statementB. ContractC. Product designD. Market conditions

46. Performance improvements include all but:A. Improvements in amount of overtime workedB. Improvements in individual skillsC. Improvements in team behaviorsD. Improvements in team capabilities

47. The quality management processes do not include:A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Overall change control

48. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff?A. Previous experienceB. Staff ageC. AvailabilityD. Personal interest

49. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and determines how to satisfy them.A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

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50. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

51. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.A. TrueB. False

52. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.A. Process control modelB. Work breakdown structureC. ChecklistD. Project plan

53. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

54. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Process control

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55. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart

56. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how it is measured by the quality control process.A. OperationalB. Process controlC. Quality policyD. Hierarchical system model

57. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by:A. Planning it into the project.B. Developing final inspections for quality.C. Striving to do the best job possible.D. Conducting quality circle activities.

58. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:A. Procurement planningB. Source selectionC. Contract administrationD. Contract closeout

59. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

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60. The communication management plan is a document that provides:A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store informationB. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and conventions/definitions to be usedC. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and developsD. All of the above

61. Operations and projects share many characteristics.A. TrueB. False

62. The core planning processes are:A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definitionB. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk managementC. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk controlD. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration

63. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

64. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but:A. Comprehensive checklistsB. Benefit/cost analysisC. FlowchartingD. Benchmarking

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65. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.A. Executive management updatesB. Project status reportsC. Information distributionD. Process control

66. Which is not input to Risk Identification:A. Historical informationB. Cost estimatesC. Product informationD. Checklists

67. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?A. Staffing management planB. TemplatesC. Human resource practicesD. Organizational theory

68. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome.A. Critical path methodB. Contemporaneous schedulingC. Design of experimentsD. Benchmarking

69. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

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70. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:

A. 216B. 225C. 246D. 400

71. An input to the quality assurance process is:A. Customer satisfactionB. Quality management planC. Product descriptionD. Standards and regulations

72. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur:A. Risk management planB. Project planC. Corrective action planD. Contingency plan

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Gather requirements 40 45 80

Write specifications 35 50 100

Review specifications 10 15 30

Build model 18 25 50

Inspect model 10 20 40

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40

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73. Topics that deal with people include:A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with othersB. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with peopleC. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource functionD. All of the above

74. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:A. IdentificationB. SolicitationC. QuantificationD. Response Development

75. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion.A. Project plan completion modelB. Performance reportingC. Administrative closureD. Process control

76. Characteristics of project phases are:A. MilestonesB. DeliverablesC. ActivitiesD. All of the above

77. An outputs from the quality planning process is:A. Quality improvementsB. Quality management planC. Acceptance decisionsD. Process adjustments

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78. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

79. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.A. Quality planningB. Quality standardsC. Process controlD. Project quality management

80. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are:A. Performance reviewsB. Earned value analysisC. Trend analysisD. All of the above

81. The Risk Management Plan does not include:A. Risk management proceduresB. Risk identificationC. Alternative strategiesD. Allocation of reserves

82. Key Management skills include:A. LeadingB. CommunicatingC. NegotiatingD. All of the above

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83. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include:A. ProcurementB. Expert judgmentC. InsuranceD. Alternative strategies

84. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individuallyB. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcomeC. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcomeD. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

85. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.A. Performance reviewsB. Status reviewsC. Weekly progress meetingsD. Progress informational update meetings

86. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:A. ReservesB. Corrective action planC. Contractual agreementsD. Risk management plan

87. An example of a project is:A. Billing customersB. Managing an organizationC. Constructing a building or facilityD. Providing technical support

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88. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:A. Team-building activitiesB. General management skillsC. Role and responsibility assignmentsD. Rewards and recognition systems

89. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule controlD. Project controls

90. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project:A. OwnerB. BuyerC. SellerD. Stakeholder and the vendor

91. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests.A. TrueB. False

92. Quality is defined as:A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needsB. Verifying the customers requirements are metC. Meeting the project quality checklist without flawsD. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget

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93. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the _____________ of the project.A. Quality, scheduleB. Objectives, organizationC. Management, productD. Customer requirements stakeholders

94. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the project objectives is:A. Control chartsB. Quality tolerance checklistC. Scope statementD. Product description

95. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality, as formally expressed by top management.A. Top-down reportingB. Project management procedureC. Quality policyD. Quality assurance

96. Project Scope Management includes which processes:A. InitiationB. Project Plan ExecutionC. Overall Change ControlD. Performance Reporting

97. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement

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98. The process that is not a part of time management is:A. Activity DefinitionB. Resource PlanningC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Activity Sequencing

99. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:A. Organizational chartB. Responsibility matrixC. WBSD. Histogram

100. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating

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. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . A N S W E R S

1. B. False2. C. Stakeholder risk tolerances3. D. 72 %4. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service5. C. Parametric modeling6. A. Cost baseline7. A. Risk management plan8. D. All of the above9. B. Solicitation process

10. D. What type of resource planning is required11. C. The overlapping of project phases12. D. Historical data13. B. Flowchart14. D. All of the above15. C. Risk qualification16. B. Reward and recognition systems17. D. All of the above18. D. Performance reporting19. D. All of the above20. A. True21. D. Market conditions22. A. Managing changes when they occur23. C. $5,00024. B. Quality assurance25. C. Planning process26. A. Impacts of weather27. D. Interviewing28. C. Payment system29. A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.30. D. Responsibility assignment matrix31. D. Benchmarking32. D. Cost control

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33. C. Informational distribution systems34. D. All of the above35. B. False36. C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for

quality37. B. False38. A. Informational retrieval systems39. D. Executing process40. A. Closeout41. C. Analogous estimating42. A. Project communication management43. D. Dedicated project team44. D. All of the above45. B. Contract46. A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked47. C. Quality control48. B. Staff age49. A. Quality planning50. B. Controlling process51. B. False52. C. Checklist53. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by

PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.54. C. Quality control55. B. Process56. A. Operational57. A. Planning it into the project.58. A. Procurement planning59. D. Developing a new product or service60. D. All of the above61. A. True62. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity

definition63. C. Cost budgeting64. A. Comprehensive checklists

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65. C. Information distribution66. D. Checklists67. A. Staffing management plan68. C. Design of experiments69. B. Bottom up estimating70. C. 24671. B. Quality management plan72. D. Contingency plan73. D. All of the above74. B. Solicitation75. C. Administrative closure76. D. All of the above77. B. Quality management plan78. D. All of the above79. D. Project quality management80. D. All of the above81. C. Alternative strategies82. D. All of the above83. B. Expert judgment84. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available

from managing them individually85. A. Performance reviews86. B. Corrective action plan87. C. Constructing a building or facility88. C. Role and responsibility assignments89. B. Project performance90. B. Buyer91. A. True92. A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or

implied needs93. C. Management, product94. C. Scope statement95. C. Quality policy96. A. Initiation97. A. A strong matrix organization

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98. B. Resource Planning99. D. Histogram

100. B. Contract negotiation

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1. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skillsB. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputsC. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requestsD. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail

2. Cost estimating is:A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or serviceB. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or serviceC. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performanceD. Analyzing positive and negative variances

3. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:A. ReservesB. Corrective action planC. Contractual agreementsD. Risk management plan

4. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

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5. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project includeA. Budgetary considerationsB. InternationalizationC. Activity based costingD. Matrix organization

6. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating

7. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individuallyB. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcomeC. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcomeD. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

8. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

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9. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces?A. 31.74B. 34.13C. 68.26D. 95.46

10. Which type of cost estimate is based on individual activities?A. Top-downB. Bottom-upC. ParametricD. Analogous

11. _____________ is generally the least accurate.A. Using stakeholders to predict costB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized estimating

12. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?A. General management skillsB. Inputs to performance appraisalsC. Staffing pool descriptionD. External feedback

13. Cost control is concerned with:A. Managing changes when they occurB. Resource ratesC. Chart of accountsD. Organizational policies

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14. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

15. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?A. Cost management planB. Cost baselineC. Cost estimateD. Chart of accounts

16. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?A. Project ScheduleB. Cost estimatesC. Resource requirementsD. WBS

17. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?A. MitigationB. AcceptanceC. TransferenceD. Avoidance

18. Which of the following is not a part of the information distribution process?A. Project planB. Project recordsC. Communication skillsD. Stakeholder analysis

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19. Which is a tool or technique of the schedule development process?A. Resource pool descriptionB. Supporting detailC. Duration compressionD. Activity duration estimates

20. Which is the process that involves documenting project results in order to formalize the acceptance of the product by the sponsor, client, or customer?A. Information distributionB. Scope acceptanceC. Performance reportingD. Administrative closure

21. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?A. IFQB. IFBC. RFPD. RFQ

22. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.A. TrueB. False

23. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?A. ReworkB. TrainingC. Rejects D. Scrap

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24. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X?A. TrustB. SafetyC. Self EsteemD. Self Actualization

25. Which scope management process creates the WBS?A. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope definition D. Scope verification

26. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

27. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart

28. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?A. Cost baselineB. Project scheduleC. Cost management planD. EAC

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29. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk qualificationD. Risk response development

30. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processesA. Planning core processesB. Planning facilitating processesC. Controlling core processesD. Controlling facilitating processes

31. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?A. Communications ManagementB. Procurement ManagementC. Change Control ManagementD. Project Integration Management

32. The project plan:A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope changeB. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestonesC. Is used to manage project executionD. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

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33. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After the contract is awarded, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. You should: A. Use the customer's test matrix B. Listen to your boss because you’re worried he might fire you C. Use the matrix your boss suggested and not discuss further with the customer D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor

34. Project management process can be organized into:A. Initiating processB. Planning processC. Controlling and executing processD. All of the above

35. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end.A. Punch listB. Closing processC. Project completion checklistD. Stakeholder buyoff

36. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be: A. Compromise B. Forcing C. Controlling D. Confrontation

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37. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?A. FunctionalB. Weak MatrixC. ProjectizedD. Strong Matrix

38. Which theory specifies money as an important employee motivator?A. Theory XB. Theory YC. Theory ZD. Theory Q

39. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?A. Operational definitionsB. Quality policyC. Quality auditsD. Quality improvement

40. Project Scope Management is:A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or serviceC. Is synonymous with change control managementD. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders

41. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:A. CPPCB. FPIC. CPIFD. CPFF

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42. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?A. Performance standard is zero defectsB. Quality must be inspected inC. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the workerD. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act

43. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan, performance reports and change requestB. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learnedC. Project plan, project reports and change requestD. Product plan, performance reports and change request

44. Which is not a facilitating process?A. Solicitation planningB. Quality planningC. Communications planningD. Resource planning

45. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests.A. TrueB. False

46. The lowest level of the WBS is:A. Control accountB. Code of accountsC. Work Package D. Deliverable

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47. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.A. Work Breakdown StructureB. Resource planningC. Resource levelingD. Executing process

48. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

49. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be: A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract. B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost. C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.

50. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

51. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage?A. Initial phase(s)B. Intermediate phase(s)C. Closing phase(s)D. Staffing phase(s)

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52. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learnedB. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learnedC. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structureD. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

53. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.A. Formal procedureB. Informal procedureC. Exchange procedureD. Monitoring procedure

54. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution?A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresB. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresC. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresD. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information

55. The closing process scope includes:A. Contract closeoutB. Final reportingC. Punch listD. Exit interview

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56. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

57. What are outputs of Project Plan Execution?A. Work results and status review meetingsB. Work results, change requests and lessons learnedC. Work results and project knowledgeD. Work results and change requests

58. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as:A. Sources of riskB. Potential risk eventsC. Stakeholder risk tolerancesD. Expected monetary value

59. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?

A. -$3,000B. $5,000C. $3,000D. -$2,000

PV EV AC

$10,000 $12,000 $15,000

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60. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

61. As the project manager for a very large and highly visible project you receive a preliminary press release for your approval before distribution. You are expected to approve the release without comment. Your review identifies a major discrepancy regarding some key project financial estimates that may mislead the intended recipients. As the project manager it is your responsibility to: A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release B. Approve the release but send a memo to the sponsor advising that you are aware of the discrepancy and will refer any questions your receive to the sponsor C. Completely rewrite the press release and include the correct information D. Approve the release as requested

62. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:A. ComputerizedB. Bottom up estimatingC. Analogous estimatingD. Square foot

63. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs?A. EsteemB. Self-ActualizationC. PhysiologicalD. Social

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64. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule controlD. Project controls

65. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?A. Supporting plan and the WBSB. Project plan and historical informationC. Project Plan and supporting detailD. Supporting detail and lessons learned

66. You have been assigned as the project manager to two projects. Because of the nature of the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should: A. Do nothing and tell no one B. Ask to be removed from one of the projects C. Inform your clients and ask them to settle it D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice

67. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.A. Development processB. Scoping processC. Planning processD. Information development process

68. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:A. Procurement planningB. Source selectionC. Contract administrationD. Contract closeout

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69. What best defines scope management? A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project. B. Approval of the scope baseline. C. Approval of the detailed project charter. D. Configuration control.

70. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:A. CPIFB. FPIC. FFPD. CPFF

71. Dual reporting is most likely to occur in which type of organization?A. FunctionalB. ProjectizedC. MatrixD. Laissez-faire

72. The quality management processes do not include:A. Quality planningB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Overall change control

73. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so.A. Initiating processB. Solicitation processC. Scoping processD. Planning process

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74. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.A. Resource planningB. Cost estimatingC. Cost budgetingD. Cost control

75. A RAM is defined as:A. Random access memoryB. Rapid air movementC. Responsibilities and methodsD. Responsibility assignment matrix

76. Tools & techniques for risk identification includeA.. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesB. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesC. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesD. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques

77. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations that use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations that provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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78. Communications is best described as: A. E exchange of information. B. Providing written or oral directions. C. Consists of senders and receivers D. All of the above

79. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:A. ChecklistsB. Risk assessmentC. FlowchartingD. Interviewing

80. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

81. A method of shortening the duration of the project is:A. LeadB. Creating milestonesC. Fast trackingD. Leveling

82. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

83. Quality is defined as:A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needsB. Verifying the customers requirements are metC. Meeting the project quality checklist without flawsD. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget

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84. Earned Value is:A. The amount future value of a present investmentB. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rateC. Budgeted value of work actually accomplishedD. PV-AC

85. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

86. Core processes:A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the projectB. Have clear dependenciesC. Must be preformed simultaneouslyD. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project

87. Characteristics of project phases are:A. MilestonesB. DeliverablesC. ActivitiesD. All of the above

88. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk assessmentD. Risk response planning

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89. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service.A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessaryC. Organized, profitableD. Temporary, unique

90. Which is not another term for contract?A. AgreementB. Purchase OrderC. ProposalD. Memorandum of Understanding

91. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionB. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionC. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective actionD. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned

92. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating

93. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is:A. $4,702B. $4,982C. $5,287D. $5,394

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94. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process?A. Project charterB. ConstraintsC. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM

95. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of 5 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average duration?A. 4B. 5C. 5.2D. 6

96. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management processA. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope Change ControlD. Scope verification

97. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

98. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory.A. TrueB. False

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99. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal isA. Bidder NegotiationsB. Bidder AuctionC. Bidder ConferenceD. Bidder Selection

100. Which method does not use boxes or nodes to represent work or activities?A. PERTB. PDMC. ADMD. GERT

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PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank Test 7 7-185

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1. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs

2. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service3. B. Corrective action plan4. D. Dedicated project team5. B. Internationalization6. C. Parametric modeling7. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available

from managing them individually8. B. Controlling process9. B. 34.13

10. B. Bottom-up11. C. Analogous estimating12. D. External feedback13. A. Managing changes when they occur14. D. What type of resource planning is required15. A. Cost management plan16. C. Resource requirements17. C. Transference18. D. Stakeholder analysis19. C. Duration compression20. D. Administrative closure21. A. IFQ22. B. False23. B. Training24. B. Safety25. C. Scope definition26. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.27. B. Process28. A. Cost baseline29. C. Risk qualification30. B. Planning facilitating processes31. C. Change Control Management

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32. C. Is used to manage project execution33. D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor34. D. All of the above35. B. Closing process36. D. Confrontation37. C. Projectized38. A. Theory X39. B. Quality policy40. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in

order to complete the project successfully41. A. CPPC42. B. Quality must be inspected in43. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request44. D. Resource planning45. A. True46. C. Work Package47. D. Executing process48. C. The overlapping of project phases49. A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.50. D. Cost control51. B. Intermediate phase(s)52. A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned53. A. Formal procedure54. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,

status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures

55. A. Contract closeout56. A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process57. D. Work results and change requests58. C. Stakeholder risk tolerances59. A. -$3,00060. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by

PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.61. A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release62. B. Bottom up estimating

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63. C. Physiological64. B. Project performance65. C. Project plan and supporting detail66. D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice67. C. Planning process68. A. Procurement planning69. A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development,

implementation, and termination phases of a project.70. C. FFP71. C. Matrix72. C. Quality control73. B. Solicitation process74. A. Resource planning75. D. Responsibility assignment matrix76. B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions

analysis, diagramming techniques77. D. All of the above78. D. All of the above79. D. Interviewing80. B. False81. C. Fast tracking82. B. False83. A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or

implied needs84. C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished85. D. Developing a new product or service86. B. Have clear dependencies87. D. All of the above88. C. Risk assessment89. D. Temporary, unique90. C. Proposal91. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and

corrective action92. B. Contract negotiation93. C. $5,287

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94. C. Alternatives identification95. B. 596. D. Scope verification97. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated98. A. True99. C. Solicitation selection100.C. ADM

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1. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?A. ReworkB. TrainingC. Rejects D. Scrap

2. Change control requests:A. Must be relayed in writingB. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlledC. Are always initiated externallyD. Are inputs to integrated change control

3. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are:A. Fringe benefitsB. More vacation timeC. Completion bonusD. A sense of personal achievement

4. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:A. Team-building activitiesB. General management skillsC. Role and responsibility assignmentsD. Rewards and recognition systems

5. Project Stakeholders are defined as:A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resourcesD. All of the above

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6. The project plan:A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope changeB. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestonesC. Is used to manage project executionD. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

7. The project schedule is not used to determine:A. The project's budgetB. The float of the projectC. Occasional changes to the activity listingD. The starting and finishing dates of the activities

8. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project

9. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

10. Poor scope definition may cause all but:A. ReworkB. Increased productivityC. Schedule delaysD. Low morale

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11. ___________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.A. Project controlsB. Controlling processC. Control logsD. Project chart

12. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compressionB. CrashingC. Program evaluation and review techniqueD. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path

13. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method of scheduling is the:A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate methodB. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate methodC. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram lineD. There is no difference

14. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?A. Supporting plan and the WBSB. Project plan and historical informationC. Project Plan and supporting detailD. Supporting detail and lessons learned

15. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?A) Regression analysis on historical informationB) Intuitive expert opinionC) Simulation modelsD) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis

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16. General Management encompasses all but:A. Finance and accountingB. Strategic planningC. Sales and marketingD. Developing a new product or service

17. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Company? A. $22.40B. $26.60 C. $29.12 D. $30.33

18. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

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19. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?

A. 216B. 225C. 246D. 400

20. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service.A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessaryC. Organized, profitableD. Temporary, unique

21. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project includeA. Budgetary considerationsB. InternationalizationC. Activity based costingD. Matrix organization

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Gather requirements 40 45 80

Write specifications 35 50 100

Review specifications 10 15 30

Build model 18 25 50

Inspect model 10 20 40

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40

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22. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.A) Letter, formalB) Fixed price, cost plusC) Cost plus, fixed priceD) No-fault, no obligation

23. An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.

24. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect:A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damagesB) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rightsC) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patentD) All of the above

25. Characteristics of a code of account are:A. It includes work packagesB. It is a numbering systemC. It is the same as a cost accountD. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS

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26. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skillsB. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputsC. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requestsD. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail

27. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project.A. TrueB. False

28. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. Dedicated project team

29. Which is not a facilitating process?A. Solicitation planningB. Quality planningC. Communications planningD. Resource planning

30. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation.A) Operability and durabilityB) Lawful use of the product and safety of useC) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollutionD) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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31. Which scope management process creates the WBS?A. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope definition D. Scope verification

32. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to: A. Revise project plan B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis C. Conduct a needs analysisD. Increase the estimated cost

33. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?A. Operational definitionsB. Quality policyC. Quality auditsD. Quality improvement

34. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that: A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditionsD. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance

35. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process?A. Project charterB. ConstraintsC. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM

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36. Contract closeout documentation includes:A. Technical documentationB. Financial documentationC. All of the aboveD. None of the above

37. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method:A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the scheduleB. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculationsC. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic tiesD. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration

38. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk qualificationD. Risk response development

39. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces?A. 31.74B. 34.13C. 68.26D. 95.46

40. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli?A. Pretending to show interest in the other sideB. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn'tC. Means the same as acting in good faithD. Compromised agreement

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41. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management processA. InitiationB. Scope planningC. Scope Change ControlD. Scope verification

42. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.A. TrueB. False

43. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?A. Performance standard is zero defectsB. Quality must be inspected inC. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the workerD. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act

44. The scope management plan includes:A. An assessment of the stability of the project scopeB. How changes will be integrated into the projectC. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classifiedD. All of the above

45. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except: A. Product analysisB. Status reportingC. Progress reporting D. Forecasting

46. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end.A. Punch listB. Closing processC. Project completion checklistD. Stakeholder buyoff

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47. Which is not another term for contract?A. AgreementB. Purchase OrderC. ProposalD. Memorandum of Understanding

48. Staffing requirements do not define:A. What types of skills are requiredB. What time framesC. What kinds of individuals or groupsD. What type of resource planning is required

49. Constructive team roles include: A. Investigator, clarifier, and closerB. Compromiser, blocker, and closer C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer

50. Cost estimating is:A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or serviceB. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or serviceC. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performanceD. Analyzing positive and negative variances

51. Collocation can mean:A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the teamB. Team members work better at different locationsC. Multiple locations are connected by local area networksD. None of the above

52. Fast Tracking is defined as:A. A method of project schedulingB. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organizationC. The overlapping of project phasesD. A method of construction

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53. Outputs of organizational planning are:A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templatesB. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balancesC. Project organization charts and lessons learnedD. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned

54. The role of advertising in the solicitation process:A. Is required by state lawB. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential biddersC. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputesD. Finds the cheapest contractor available

55. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

56. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X?A. TrustB. SafetyC. Self EsteemD. Self Actualization

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57. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:A. Behind scheduleB. Over budgetC. Ahead of scheduleD. Under budget

58. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?A. Project ScheduleB. Cost estimatesC. Resource requirementsD. WBS

59. Scope change is defined as:A. Change in project personnelB. Change in technical specificationsC. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBSD. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB

60. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage?A. Initial phase(s)B. Intermediate phase(s)C. Closing phase(s)D. Staffing phase(s)

61. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?A. Risk identificationB. Risk quantificationC. Risk assessmentD. Risk response planning

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62. A precise description of a deliverable includes a: A. Specification B. Baseline C. Work package D. WBS element

63. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to: A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details

64. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.A. Project Management Policy of EthicsB. Project Management Professional StandardsC. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & StandardsD. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

65. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?A. Communications ManagementB. Procurement ManagementC. Change Control ManagementD. Project Integration Management

66. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____.A) Magnitude of the impact on the projectB) Project manager's perception of riskC) Project manager's ability to influence the riskD) Use of more or less contractors

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67. Project Scope Management is:A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or serviceC. Is synonymous with change control managementD. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders

68. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be:A) Instability of project progress informationB) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisorsC) Conflict between project manager and customerD) All of the above

69. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is:A. $4,702B. $4,982C. $5,287D. $5,394

70. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution?A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresB. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresC. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational proceduresD. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information

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71. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionB. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionC. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective actionD. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned

72. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

73. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should: A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.

74. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.A. Formal procedureB. Informal procedureC. Exchange procedureD. Monitoring procedure

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75. The lowest level of the WBS is:A. Control accountB. Code of accountsC. Work Package D. Deliverable

76. Core processes:A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the projectB. Have clear dependenciesC. Must be preformed simultaneouslyD. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project

77. Earned Value is:A. The amount future value of a present investmentB. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rateC. Budgeted value of work actually accomplishedD. PV-AC

78. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to: A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made publicB. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomesC. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budgetD. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget

79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollarsB) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsC) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollarsD) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

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80. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: A. When a problem surfacesB. After the schedule is published C. During the close-out phase D. During the planning phase

81. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan, performance reports and change requestB. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learnedC. Project plan, project reports and change requestD. Product plan, performance reports and change request

82. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

83. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.A) An automobile accidentB) An accident on commercial premisesC) Slander or libelD) All of the above

84. Procurement documents should be structured to:A. Describe the desired form of responseB. Include a complete statement of workC. Outline cost criteriaD. A and B

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85. A key barrier to team development is:A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.B. A strong matrix management structure.C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

86. The primary outputs of team development are:A. Improved project performanceB. Improved team moraleC. Better performance appraisalsD. Better working conditions

87. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion.A) Retained at the remaining dollar levelB) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining workC) Decreased to reduce the accounting workD) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

88. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

89. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: A. ConstraintsB. Project charterC. Product description

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D. Budget/cost analysis90. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?

A. -$3,000B. $5,000C. $3,000D. -$2,000

91. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal isA. Bidder NegotiationsB. Bidder AuctionC. Bidder ConferenceD. Bidder Selection

92. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the project during the: A. Closeout phase B. Development phase C. Execution phase D. Concept phase

93. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project B. Developing final inspections for quality C. Striving to do the best job possible D. Conducting quality circle activities

PV EV AC

$10,000 $12,000 $15,000

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94. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:A. High than the ACWPB. Higher than the BCWSC. Lower than the ACWPD. Lower than the BCWS

95. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____.A) ContractB) SpecificationC) Statement of workD) Work breakdown structure

96. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structureB. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical informationC. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project planD. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

97. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include:A. Economic models & comparative approachesB. Economic models & linear programming methodsC. Linear programming methods & cost basis modelsD. Linear programming models & economic models

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98. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable lossesB) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable lossesC) Depends upon the project's attitude toward riskD) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data

99. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution?A. Work results and status review meetingsB. Work results, change requests and lessons learnedC. Work results and project knowledgeD. Work results and change requests

100. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learnedB. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learnedC. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structureD. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

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1. B. Training2. D. Are inputs to integrated change control3. D. A sense of personal achievement4. C. Role and responsibility assignments5. D. All of the above6. C. Is used to manage project execution7. A. The project's budget8. C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action9. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program

10. B. Increased productivity11. B. Controlling process12. B. Crashing13. C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line14. C. Project plan and supporting detail15. B) Intuitive expert opinion16. D. Developing a new product or service17. C. $29.1218. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.19. C. 24620. D. Temporary, unique21. B. Internationalization22. B) Fixed price, cost plus23. A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you

personally24. D) All of the above25. D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS26. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other

planning outputs27. B. False28. D. Dedicated project team29. D. Resource planning30. D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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31. C. Scope definition32. D. Increase the estimated cost33. B. Quality policy34. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance35. C. Alternatives identification36. C. All of the above37. D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration38. C. Risk qualification39. B. 34.1340. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't41. D. Scope verification42. B. False43. B. Quality must be inspected in44. D. All of the above45. A. Product analysis46. B. Closing process47. C. Proposal48. D. What type of resource planning is required49. C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper50. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service51. A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team52. C. The overlapping of project phases53. A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates54. B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders55. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider

the offer.56. B. Safety57. C. Ahead of schedule58. C. Resource requirements59. C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS60. B. Intermediate phase(s)61. C. Risk assessment62. A. Specification63. A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before

transmitting information

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64. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.

65. C. Change Control Management66. C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk67. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in

order to complete the project successfully68. D. All of the above69. C. $5,28770. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,

status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures

71. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action

72. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated73. B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.74. A. Formal procedure75. C. Work Package76. B. Have clear dependencies77. C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished78. B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes79. B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars80. D. During the planning phase81. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request82. A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process83. D. All of the above84. D. A and B85. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.86. A. Improved project performance87. B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work88. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input89. D. Budget/cost analysis90. A. -$3,00091. C. Solicitation selection92. D. Concept phase93. A. Planning it into the project

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94. D. Lower than the BCWS95. D. Work breakdown structure96. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)97. A. Economic models & comparative approaches98. C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk99. D. Work results and change requests

100. A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned

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1. Tools & techniques for risk identification includea. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesb. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesc. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesd. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques

2. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken?a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and disputes b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customerd. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address

3. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as:a. Concurrent engineering b. Crashingc. Fast-tracking d. Leveling

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4. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?a. Each level represents an increasing level of detailb. The work breakdown structure is deliverable orientedc. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management processd. None of the above

5. Examples of team building activities include: a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict. b. Regular progress reviews. c. Periodic social events for team members. d. All of the above

6. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what _______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities.a. Physical resources, quantitiesb. Quantities, physical resourcesc. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling techniqued. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources

7. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time.a. Organizational proceduresb. Status reviewc. Work-authorization systemd. Project planning

8. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learnedb. Project plan, project reports and change requestc. Product plan, performance reports and change requestd. Project plan, performance reports and change request

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9. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client isa. Corrective actionb. Inspectionc. Product scope managementd. Product quality management

10. The risk management plan us a major component of a. The procurement planb. The project charterc. The project pland. The project scope

11. Characteristics of a code of accounts area. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structureb. It includes work packagesc. It is a numbering systemd. All of the above

12. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be accomplished?a. After contract negotiationb. During the scope definition effortc. During the cost definition effortd. While creating the work breakdown structure

13. Inputs to contract closeout includea. Contract documentationb. Contract Updatesc. Procurement auditsd. Procurement management plans

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14. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent a. Twenty percent of all lots must be testb. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the testc. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defectsd. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects

15. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or negative effect on a project.a. Assumption analysisb. Delphi techniquec. Riskd. Triggers

16. Outputs of procurement planning includea. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contractb. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contractc. Procurement management plan and statement of workd. Procurement management plan and contract changes

17. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a a. Weighting systemb. Screening systemc. Estimating systemd. Change control criteria

18. Inputs to quality planning includea. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and regulationsb. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulationsc. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description standards and regulationsd. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and regulations

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19. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would a. Still be performedb. Would not be performedc. Would be performed in stagesd. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages

20. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by? a. EV/PV b. EV/ACc. ACWS/PV d. PV/EV

21. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by: a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints. c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.

22. Response development is sometimes referred to as a. Response planning & risk mitigationb. Reponses planning and risk controlc. Risk control and response mitigationd. Risk mitigation and response control

23. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to the- a. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager d. Degree to which team members bond together

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24. The project manager should be assigned during what phasea. Initiationb. Project Planning c. Scope Planningd. Scope Definition

25. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead to - a. Reduced productivity b. Increased hostility c. Low morale d. Increased conflict

26. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities. c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent. d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total float.

27. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

28. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?a. Organizational proceduresb. Performance measurementc. Performance reportsd. Project plan updates

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29. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is the:a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method. c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.

30. Tools and techniques of performance reporting includea. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniquesb. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques, work breakdown structurec. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information, information distribution tools and techniquesd. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information retrieval systems

31. Inputs to scope definition includea. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical informationb. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical informationc. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical informationd. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information

32. Contracts may be called -a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understandingb. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing requestc. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understandingd. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

33. A scope change is defined asa. Change in technical specificationsb. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structurec. Change in product descriptiond. Change in the personnel authorization system

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34. Inputs to communication planning includea. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptionsb. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptionsc. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptionsd. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change request procedures

35. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.a. Assumption analysisb. Delphi techniquec. Riskd. Triggers

36. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:a. Determine the risks associated with the violation b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

37. The project charter should be issued by a. The project managerb. Client requesting servicesc. Manager external to projectd. Manager internal to the project

38. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMPa. Project Management Policy of Ethicsb. Project Management Professional Standardsc. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conductd. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards

39. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams excepta. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variablesb. Pareto diagrams are histogramsc. Pareto diagrams rank order d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule

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40. Inputs to scope verification include the followinga. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project planb. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project planc. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and project pland. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project performance measurement

41. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that a. One side may try to confuse the other side d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said d. Each side may give upon the other side

42. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learnedb. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learnedc. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structured. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

43. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from a. Risk management planningb. Risk identificationc. Quantitative risk analysisd. Risk response planning

44. One of the outputs of risk identification isa. Potential risk eventsb. Corrective actionsc. Alternate strategiesd. Alternative action

45. Tools and techniques for administrative closure includea. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentationsb. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentationsc. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysisd. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations

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46. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?a. PM Information systemb. Organizational proceduresc. General management skillsd. Change control system

47. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.

48. Tools and techniques for scope planning includea. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgmentb. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgmentc. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgmentd. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment

49. What is the preferred method of verifying scope?a. Work resultsb. Inspectionc. Acceptanced. Lessons learned

50. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to - a. Reduce productivity b. Increase productivity c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources

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51. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for?a. To define the project scheduleb. To define who is responsible for completing a taskc. To manage scope changed. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project

52. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects usually covered contract financing, price and a. Responsibilities/authoritiesb. Applicable terms and lawc. Technical and business management approachesd. All of the above

53. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur? a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project. b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project. c. For the overall project duration to increase. d. All of the above.

54. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionb. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective actionc. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learnedd. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action

55. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed

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56. Tools and techniques of quality control includea. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisb. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisc. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisd. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality improvements

57. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to--- a. Prepare a performance report b. Perform an inspection c. Hold a performance review d. Conduct a procurement audit

58. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly are influenced by his/her culture. However, other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to negotiation, this illustrates the importance of- a. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural group b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international negotiations d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences

59. Scope definition isa. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable componentsb. Involves communicating changes with the clientc. Is the sole responsibility of the project managerd. Is the responsibility of the expeditor

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60. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except a. Personal integrityb. Project integrityc. Product integrityd. Integrity of others

61. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because - a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process

62. Monte Carlo analysis is a. Not accurateb. Rarely usedc. The basis for most schedule simulationsd. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.

63. Inputs to risk management includea. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structureb. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structurec. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structured. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure

64. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members are- a. Focused on individual project activitiesb. Politically sensitive to top management's needs c. Problem oriented d. Focused on customer demands

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65. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?a. 65 weeks b. 70 weeks c. 75 weeks d. 80 weeks

66. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.a. Informal procedureb. Exchange procedurec. Formal procedured. Monitoring procedure

67. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition isa. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the project planning phase/requirements

68. Tools and techniques of procurement planning includea. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditionsb. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selectionc. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contractd. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract

69. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except:a. Variances that are randomb. Variances that are always presentc. Variances that are predictabled. Variances that are special

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70. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phasea. Initiationb. Scope planningc. Scope definitiond. Scope verification

71. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities. b. Occasional changes to the activity listing. c. The total float of the activities. d. The project's budget.

72. Scope definition is necessary toa. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimatesb. Facilitate clear responsibility assignmentsc. Define a baseline for progress measurement and controld. All of the above

73. Risk identification should be donea. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycleb. Early in the planning phasec. In the design phased. When creating the work breakdown structure

74. Inputs to cost estimating include the following a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policiesb. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risksc. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risksd. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks

75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package?a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structureb. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structurec. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structured. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete

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76. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standardsb. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered toc. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the projectd. Quality improvements need not be identified

77. Outputs from response development could include all except?a. Risk management planb. Insurance policiesc. Contingency pland. Corrective action

78. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always - a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation

79. The level of authority of the project manager: a. Is dependent on corporate policies. b. Varies considerably from company to company.c. Is delegated by senior management. d. All of the above.

80. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit? a. Internal b. System c. Baseline d. Scope

81. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can be determined from these data? a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days. c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days. d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.

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82. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects? a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate their needs to functional managers.b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative procedures, and type of contract. c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.

83. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helpsa. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on resultsb. Anticipate the probability that something will failc. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out comed. Allow for random sampling

84. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It includesa. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesb. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesc. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesd. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes

85. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances?a. The always impact the schedule and never the costb. The always impact the costc. They sometimes impact the scheduled. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost

86. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to- a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas to perform each task c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure

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87. Steps in effective goal setting are: a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions. d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward and recognition plan.

88. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be: a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be displayed. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too much time now do move the equipment. d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first.

89. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

90. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality management plan is to- a. Create some regulations to govern the projectb. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed

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91. Inputs to procurement planning includea. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and expert judgmentb. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptionsc. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and work breakdown structured. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and procurement documents

92. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements includea. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationsb. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the projectc. External information needsd. All of the above

93. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been avoided by- a. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports d. Developed a communications plan

94. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the a. Performing organizationb. Project managerc. Project teamd. Product user

95. Inputs to contract administration includea. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoicesb. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoicesc. Contracts, work results, contract change control systemd. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices

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96. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should- a. Be as brief as possible b. Provide options, including the pros and cons c. Remain patient d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed

97. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structureb. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical informationc. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project pland. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

98. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to depict 100 percent of the defects is called:a. Bar chartb. Critical pathc. Network chartd. Pareto chart

99. Team development is based on the- a. Individual development of each team member b. Training provided to the project team c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust d. Organizational structure of the project

100. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them. Therefore, you must concentrate on- a. Active listening b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating roomd. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process

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1. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques

2. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address3. c. Fast-tracking4. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented5. d. All of the above6. a. Physical resources, quantities7. c.8. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request9. b. Inspection

10. c. The project plan11. d. All of the above12. b. During the scope definition effort13. a. Contract documentation14. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects15. c. Risk16. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work17. b. Screening system18. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and

regulations19. b. Would not be performed20. a. EV/PV21. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method

(PDM) of scheduling.22. a. Response planning & risk mitigation23. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources24. a. Initiation25. d. Increased conflict26. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred

to as "float time."27. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program28. b. Performance measurement29. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.

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30. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques

31. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information32. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding33. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure34. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions35. d. Triggers36. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation37. c. Manager external to project38. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct39. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables40. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project

plan41. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said42. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned43. d. Risk response planning44. a. Potential risk events45. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations46. d. Change control system47. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.48. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment49. b. Inspection50. a. Reduce productivity51. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project52. d. All of the above53. d. All of the above54. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective

action55. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the

correctness of the work results.56. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis57. c. Hold a performance review58. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique

personality traits and experiences59. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components

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60. d. Integrity of others61. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process62. c. The basis for most schedule simulations63. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,

stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure

64. c. Problem oriented65. b. 70 weeks66. c. Formal procedure67. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total

scope of the project68. b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection69. d. Variances that are special70. c. Scope definition71. d. The project's budget.72. d. All of the above73. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle74. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,

estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks75. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure76. a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards77. d. Corrective action78. b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship79. d. All of the above80. d. Scope81. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.

82. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead toambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.

83. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come84. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes85. c. They sometimes impact the schedule86. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task87. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.88. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.

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89. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their90. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance91. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other

planning outputs, constraints and assumptions92. d. All of the above93. d. Developed a communications plan94. a. Performing organization95. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices96. a. Be as brief as possible97. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)98. d. Pareto chart99. a. Individual development of each team member

100. a. Active listening

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1. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

2. Scope definition is necessary toa. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimatesb. Facilitate clear responsibility assignmentsc. Define a baseline for progress measurement and controld. All of the above

3. Inputs to quality planning includea. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and regulationsb. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulationsc. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description standards and regulationsd. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and regulations

4. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for?a. To define the project scheduleb. To define who is responsible for completing a taskc. To manage scope changed. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project

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5. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?a. 65 weeks b. 70 weeks c. 75 weeks d. 80 weeks

6. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from a. Risk management planningb. Risk identificationc. Quantitative risk analysisd. Risk response planning

7. The level of authority of the project manager: a. Is dependent on corporate policies. b. Varies considerably from company to company.c. Is delegated by senior management. d. All of the above.

8. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been avoided by- a. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports d. Developed a communications plan

9. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.a. Informal procedureb. Exchange procedurec. Formal procedured. Monitoring procedure

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10. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phasea. Initiationb. Scope planningc. Scope definitiond. Scope verification

11. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except a. Personal integrityb. Project integrityc. Product integrityd. Integrity of others

12. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except:a. Variances that are randomb. Variances that are always presentc. Variances that are predictabled. Variances that are special

13. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learnedb. Project plan, project reports and change requestc. Product plan, performance reports and change requestd. Project plan, performance reports and change request

14. Response development is sometimes referred to as a. Response planning & risk mitigationb. Reponses planning and risk controlc. Risk control and response mitigationd. Risk mitigation and response control

15. Tools and techniques of quality control includea. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisb. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisc. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysisd. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality improvements

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16. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to - a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas to perform each task c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure

17. Characteristics of a code of accounts area. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structureb. It includes work packagesc. It is a numbering systemd. All of the above

18. One of the outputs of risk identification isa. Potential risk eventsb. Corrective actionsc. Alternate strategiesd. Alternative action

19. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly is influenced by his/her culture. However, other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to negotiation, this illustrates the importance of- a. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural group b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international negotiations d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences

20. Team development is based on the- a. Individual development of each team member b. Training provided to the project team c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust d. Organizational structure of the project

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21. Inputs to procurement planning includea. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and expert judgmentb. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptionsc. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and work breakdown structured. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and procurement documents

22. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent a. Twenty percent of all lots must be testb. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the testc. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defectsd. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects

23. Inputs to scope definition includea. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical informationb. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical informationc. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical informationd. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information

24. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur? a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project. b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project. c. For the overall project duration to increase. d. All of the above.

25. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them. Therefore, you must concentrate on- a. Active listening b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating roomd. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process

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26. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what _______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities.a. Physical resources, quantitiesb. Quantities, physical resourcesc. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling techniqued. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources

27. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is the:a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method. c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.

28. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition isa. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the project planning phase/requirements

29. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by? a. EV/PV b. EV/ACc. ACWS/PV d. PV/EV

30. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learnedb. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learnedc. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structured. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

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31. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective actionb. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective actionc. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learnedd. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action

32. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead to- a. Reduced productivity b. Increased hostility c. Low morale d. Increased conflict

33. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that a. One side may try to confuse the other side d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said d. Each side may give upon the other side

34. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should- a. Be as brief as possible b. Provide options, including the pros and cons c. Remain patient d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed

35. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would -a. Still be performedb. Would not be performedc. Would be performed in stagesd. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages

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36. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the a. Performing organizationb. Project managerc. Project teamd. Product user

37. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to- a. Reduce productivity b. Increase productivity c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources

38. Scope definition isa. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable componentsb. Involves communicating changes with the clientc. Is the sole responsibility of the project managerd. Is the responsibility of the expeditor

39. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects? a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate their needs to functional managers.b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative procedures, and type of contract. c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.

40. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMPa. Project Management Policy of Ethicsb. Project Management Professional Standardsc. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conductd. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards

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41. Outputs from response development could include all except?a. Risk management planb. Insurance policiesc. Contingency pland. Corrective action

42. Tools and techniques for administrative closure includea. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentationsb. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentationsc. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysisd. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations

43. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality management plan is to- a. Create some regulations to govern the projectb. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed

44. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a -a. Weighting systemb. Screening systemc. Estimating systemd. Change control criteria

45. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

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46. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams excepta. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variablesb. Pareto diagrams are histogramsc. Pareto diagrams rank order d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule

47. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client isa. Corrective actionb. Inspectionc. Product scope managementd. Product quality management

48. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities. c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent. d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total float.

49. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always - a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation

50. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed

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51. Tools & techniques for risk identification includea. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesb. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesc. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniquesd. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques

52. The project charter should be issued by a. The project managerb. Client requesting servicesc. Manager external to projectd. Manager internal to the project

53. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members are- a. Focused on individual project activitiesb. Politically sensitive to top management's needs c. Problem oriented d. Focused on customer demands

54. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be: a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be displayed. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too much time now do move the equipment. d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first.

55. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time.a. Organizational proceduresb. Status reviewc. Work-authorization systemd. Project planning

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56. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standardsb. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered toc. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the projectd. Quality improvements need not be identified

57. Tools and techniques of performance reporting includea. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniquesb. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques, work breakdown structurec. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information, information distribution tools and techniquesd. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information retrieval systems

58. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken?a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and disputes b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customerd. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address

59. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as:a. Concurrent engineering b. Crashingc. Fast-tracking d. Leveling

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60. Inputs to cost estimating include the following a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policiesb. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risksc. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risksd. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks

61. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities. b. Occasional changes to the activity listing. c. The total float of the activities. d. The project's budget.

62. Examples of team building activities include: a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict. b. Regular progress reviews. c. Periodic social events for team members. d. All of the above

63. Contracts may be called -a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understandingb. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing requestc. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understandingd. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

64. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances?a. The always impact the schedule and never the costb. The always impact the costc. They sometimes impact the scheduled. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost

65. A scope change is defined asa. Change in technical specificationsb. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structurec. Change in product descriptiond. Change in the personnel authorization system

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66. Inputs to risk management includea. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structureb. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structurec. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structured. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure

67. Inputs to scope verification include the followinga. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project planb. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project planc. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and project pland. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project performance measurement

68. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.

69. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to--- a. Prepare a performance report b. Perform an inspection c. Hold a performance review d. Conduct a procurement audit

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70. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.a. Assumption analysisb. Delphi techniquec. Riskd. Triggers

71. The risk management plan us a major component of a. The procurement planb. The project charterc. The project pland. The project scope

72. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helpsa. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on resultsb. Anticipate the probability that something will failc. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out comed. Allow for random sampling

73. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It includesa. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesb. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesc. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changesd. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes

74. Inputs to communication planning includea. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptionsb. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptionsc. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptionsd. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change request procedures

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75. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects usually covered contract financing, price and a. Responsibilities/authoritiesb. Applicable terms and lawc. Technical and business management approachesd. All of the above

76. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements includea. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationsb. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the projectc. External information needsd. All of the above

77. Tools and techniques for scope planning includea. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgmentb. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgmentc. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgmentd. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment

78. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because - a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process

79. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to the- a. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager d. Degree to which team members bond together

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80. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structureb. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical informationc. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project pland. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

81. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be accomplished?a. After contract negotiationb. During the scope definition effortc. During the cost definition effortd. While creating the work breakdown structure

82. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or negative effect on a project.a. Assumption analysisb. Delphi techniquec. Riskd. Triggers

83. Risk identification should be donea. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycleb. Early in the planning phasec. In the design phased. When creating the work breakdown structure

84. Monte Carlo analysis is a. Not accurateb. Rarely usedc. The basis for most schedule simulationsd. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.

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85. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package?a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structureb. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structurec. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structured. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete

86. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?a. PM Information systemb. Organizational proceduresc. General management skillsd. Change control system

87. The project manager should be assigned during what phasea. Initiationb. Project Planning c. Scope Planningd. Scope Definition

88. Outputs of procurement planning includea. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contractb. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contractc. Procurement management plan and statement of workd. Procurement management plan and contract changes

89. What is the preferred method of verifying scope?a. Work resultsb. Inspectionc. Acceptanced. Lessons learned

90. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:a. Determine the risks associated with the violation b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

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91. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?a. Each level represents an increasing level of detailb. The work breakdown structure is deliverable orientedc. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management processd. None of the above

92. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to depict 100 percent of the defects is called:a. Bar chartb. Critical pathc. Network chartd. Pareto chart

93. Inputs to contract closeout includea. Contract documentationb. Contract Updatesc. Procurement auditsd. Procurement management plans

94. Tools and techniques of procurement planning includea. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditionsb. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selectionc. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contractd. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract

95. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can be determined from these data? a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days. c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days. d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.

96. Inputs to contract administration includea. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoicesb. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoicesc. Contracts, work results, contract change control systemd. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices

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97. Steps in effective goal setting are: a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions. d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward and recognition plan.

98. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by: a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints. c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.

99. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit? a. Internal b. System c. Baseline d. Scope

100. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?a. Organizational proceduresb. Performance measurementc. Performance reportsd. Project plan updates

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1. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program2. d. All of the above3. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and

regulations4. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project5. b. 70 weeks6. d. Risk response planning7. d. All of the above8. d. Developed a communications plan9. c. Formal procedure

10. c. Scope definition11. d. Integrity of others12. d. Variances that are special13. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request14. a. Response planning & risk mitigation15. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis16. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task17. d. All of the above18. a. Potential risk events19. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique

personality traits and experiences20. a. Individual development of each team member21. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other

planning outputs, constraints and assumptions22. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects23. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information24. d. All of the above25. a. Active listening26. a. Physical resources, quantities27. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.28. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total

scope of the project29. a. EV/PV

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30. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned31. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective

action32. d. Increased conflict33. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said34. a. Be as brief as possible35. b. Would not be performed36. a. Performing organization37. a. Reduce productivity38. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components39. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to

ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.40. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct41. d. Corrective action42. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations43. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance44. b. Screening system45. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their46. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables47. b. Inspection48. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred

to as "float time."49. b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship50. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the

correctness of the work results.51. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,

diagramming techniques52. c. Manager external to project53. c. Problem oriented54. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.55. c.56. a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards57. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information

distribution tools and techniques58. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address

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59. c. Fast-tracking60. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,

estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks61. d. The project's budget.62. d. All of the above63. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding64. c. They sometimes impact the schedule65. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure66. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,

stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure

67. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project plan

68. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.69. c. Hold a performance review70. d. Triggers71. c. The project plan72. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come73. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes74. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions75. d. All of the above76. d. All of the above77. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment78. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process79. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources80. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management

information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)81. b. During the scope definition effort82. c. Risk83. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle84. c. The basis for most schedule simulations85. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure86. d. Change control system87. a. Initiation88. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work

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89. b. Inspection90. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation91. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented92. d. Pareto chart93. a. Contract documentation94. b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection95. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.96. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices97. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.98. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method

(PDM) of scheduling.99. d. Scope

100. b. Performance measurement

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