Physics Stream (2013-January) Question Papers

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First Semester B.E. Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Engineering Mathematics - I

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks:100

Note: I. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ut least two from each part.2. Answer all objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklet.3. Answer to objective type questions on sheets other than OMR will not be vulued.

PART _ AI a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) The Leibnitz theorem is the formula to find the n'h derivative ofA) trigonometric function B) exponential function C) product of two algebraic functions D)product of two functions

The n'h derivative of 5' is : A) log 5, 5- B) (log 5)" 5' C) e(loc5)* D) (log 5;z "

(toesi*

The value of 'c' of the Cauchy mean value theorem for f(x) : e., g(x) = e-* in (3, 7) is : A) 5 B) 3 C) 0

The generalized series of Maclaurin's series expansion is

A) Taylor series B) Exponential series C) Logarithmic series D) Trigonometric sertes

b. Verif, Rolle's theorem forthe function f(x) = x2(l -x)2 in0 <x< l andalsofindthevalueof c.

c. tf sin ry = 2log(x +1), provethat (x+1)'yn*, +(2n+1)(x+1)y"., +(n2 +4)y" =0.

d. Expand by using Maclaurin's series, the function 1og(1 +sin x) upto fifth degree terms.

2 a. Choose the correcl answers lor the following :

i) Thecurver r intersectorthogonallywiththelollowingcurve:A)r=, b - B) ,-__l_ C)r=-!-' l+cos0 l-cosO l+sin0 l-sin0

ii) If$ be the angle between the tangent and radius vector at any point on the curve r = (e), then sin $ equals to

ii)iii)iv)

D)4

(0,1 Marks)

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

D)dcos 0

B) 19ds

percentage error in the volume.

a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) If F - VO, then the curl F : A) solenoidal

ii) tfV: x2 + y'+ 3 then grad V is : A) 2xi+2yjiii) The value of 'a'of the vector p = (x + 3y)i+ (x -22)j+ (x

iv) If R= x2y +y2z+ z2x, then Laplacian ofR is: A)x+y+ 7

b. Find div F and curl F, where F: v1*3 + y3 + z3 -3xyz1.c. Provethat curl(0 il) =0curlfr +grad$xil.d. Show that the cylindrical system is orthogonal.

PART - B5 a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) The value of /j.or*rin,,, , dx is A) l/99

A) d'ds

(0,1 Marks)

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

iii) If an error of l% is made in measuring its base and height, the percentage error in the area of atriangle is

A) 0.2% B) 0.02o/o c) 1% D) 2%

iv) One of the necessary and su{ficient condition for a function to have a maximum value is

A)AC 82>0,A<0 B)AC-B2=0,A:0 c)AC-82<0, A>0 D)AC-82>0,A>0 (04Marks)

(06 N{arks)

(05 Marks)

d. In calculating the volume of right circular cone, errors of 2o/o and I %o are made in height and radius of the base respectively. Find the

c) .9dr

D).9de

iii) L Hospital's Rule can be applied to the limits of the form : A) 0/0 B) 0

iv) ,Lj(u'

- - 1)* is of the following form : A) 0 x oo B) *

b. Evaluate 1im (tan x)""'-.x +p i'2

c. Findtheradiusofcurvatureforthecurve x'y=a(x'+y'1 atthepoint(-2a,2a).

d. Find the Pedal equation for the curve r( I cos 0) = 2a.


ir If frr.y)-+-+,-J--.then *!!*y{ it : A) 0 B)e

iir Iir - p.orl.r]0., ,*^:-.,n.n tiX''''i' : At p B) I

A@,0,2)

xcc C).o-.o D).co_ co er"#SU 0r

,r),l(fl;*,ffii\W

c) 0 D)e

b. It V =e'0 cos(a logr). proverhat +.1+.1*=oCr' r (jr r' cU'c' Examine the function f (x, y) = 1 + sin(x' + y'1 for extremum values

(05 Marks)

B) inotational C) rotational D) none of these

B)2x+ 2y C) 2xi + 2yj + k D) xi + yj

+ az)k , which is solenoidal : A) -2 B) -1 C) 0 D) 3

B)x-y-z C)2(x+y+z) D)2(x-y+z) (0lMarks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(01 Marks)

B) l/100 C) n/100 D) 99/100

F

ii) The curve y2{a2 - x21: *'(a' *') i,A) symmetric about the x-axis B) symmetric about the x & y axis C) symmetric about the y-axisiii) The length of the ara y: (x) from x : a to x: b is

D) none ofthese

iv) The value of isino x dx is equal to : A) 3nl8 B) 3/8J0

b. Obtain the reduction formula for Jsin, x dx .

a_c. Evaluate JxJa*_xrdx.

d. Find the ul"u ofu, arch ofthe cycloid x = a(0 - sin 0) ,y : a(7- cos 0).


,.(#)'.( !L j'o*d*)

C) nl16

.,[: :]

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D) none ofthese

(0.{ Nlarks)

(0.{ N'larks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(0.1 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 \{arks)

(0{ \lark)

D) all of these

D) rl4

i) rhe order and degree of the differentiar equation

[, . [*)'1'

respectively is

A) one, two B) one, one C) two, one D) three, two

Replacing dy/dx by -d/dy in the differential equation of (x, y, dy/dx) = 0, we get the differential equation ofA) polar trajectory B) orthogonal trajectory c) trajectory D) none of these

ii) The differential equation It *".,, 1a* *".,,[r _;]* = , t.

A) homogeneous and linear B) homogeneous and exact C) non-homogeneous and exact D) none oftheseThesolutionofthedifferentialequation.!I=.**,: A)e'fev:c B)e*+e-v:. C)e*-e-v:c D)e*,y-c

dxiii)

iv)

b. Solve !I--2x-Y+1.dx x+2y -3

c. Solve dr + (2rcot 0 + sin 20)d0 = 0 .

d. Find the orthogonal trajectory ofthe family of coaxial "i..1.,

*] -; , J' , = I .

a' b'+L7 a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

iii) ln Gauss Jordan method, the coefficient matrix reduces to matrixA) diagonal B) unit matrix

i) The normal form of the matrix are A) [lr, 0]

ii) The solution ofthesimultaneous equationsx+y:3,x-y= 3 isA) only trivial B) only unique

,,[l]

C) unique and trivial

C) triangular matrix

B) positive semi-definite C) negative definite

D) none of these

,D) none of theseC)r>n D)r>m (04Marks)

(0;l Marks)

posses a solution. Solve(06 \,larks)

2x+y-z-3 (06\{arks)

D) no solution

D) none of these

C) ax2+2bxy+2by2 D) none ofthese

D) negative semi-definite (0,1 Marks)(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

b.

d.

8a.

c.

iv) Ifristherankofthematrix[A] oforderm xnthenris : o/r.iT o

_, t).=n

Find the rank of the following marrix by elementary transform, o =l , , , . I

l, , ,, ,,1Findforwhatvalueofkthesystem of equations x+y+2= l, x+2y+ 4z:k,completely in each case.

Solve the following system of equations by Gauss elimination method: x+ y +z= 9. x 2y + 3z = g;

Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) lf the determinant of the coefficient matrix is zero, then there existA) trivial solution B) non-trivial solution c) unique solution

ii) If P is the modal matrix of an orthogonal matrix, then its inverse matrix is equal toA) P-' B) P C) diagonalmatrix

iii) The quadratic form for the matrix o _ fa trl is : A) ax2 + 2hxy+by2 B) ax2+by2

Lh bliii) The nature of the quadratic function of the matrix having the eigen values [0, 2, 4) is

A) positive definite

d.

Reduce the matrix t- r ;l to the diagonal form and hence find Aa.

^_l_; ;]Find al the eigen vatues of the matri*

^ l_t : :^1

lz -4 3]Reduce the quadratic form 3x2 + 3y' + 322 + 2xy * 2yz+ 2zxinlo canonical form.

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C) 9.4 x 106 m/s

C) velocity of light

L0PIJYl2l22

(04 Marks)

(07 Marks)(05 Marks)

(04 Marks)

(04 Marks)

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Engineering Physics

Time: 3 hrs. Max' Marks:looNote: l. Answer uny FIVE full questions, choosing at least two from each patt.

2. Answer alt objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the ansrver booklet.3. Answer to objective type questions on sheets other thun-OMR will not be valued.4. Pfuysicut constonts :- Velicity of tight, c = 3 x 10s m/s,Plank's constant, h: 6.625 x lfil JS'

Electron charge, e: 1.602 x l(f le C, Mass of Electron, m = 9.1 I x lU31 kg, Avogadro number, ^.

N,s:6.02x| do/Kmole, Permitivity of v,acuum eo:8.85x|Ul' F/m, Boltzmann constant, K:1.3\ilf23 J/K.

PART _ Aa. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) The law which failed to account for shorter wavelength region of black body radiation spectrum is,

A) Wein's law B) Rayleigh-Jean's law C) Planck's law D) Maxwell's law

D) h/v

D) 1.91 x 1010 m/s

D) velocity of sound

ii) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle at rest is

A) Zero B) infinite C) h/p

A) 6xlOnm/s B) 4.7 xl0om/siv) The particle velocity of wave is equal to,

A) group velocity B) phase velocity '

iii) lf group velocity of particle is 4.7 x 10u m/s then its phase velocity is,

b. Describe Davisson and Germer experiment for confirmation of de-Broglie hlpothesis.

c. Derive de-Broglie wavelength using group velocity.d. Calculate the de-Broglie wivelength of particle of mass 0.65 MeV/C2 has a kinetic energy 80 eV.

2 a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) In quantum mechanics the energy operation is represented as:))h- a'2-T

47r m d\

ii) The probability of finding the particle within an element of volume dt is,

A) zero,,)

B) ilvl o, c) Ilvlo'

228;im6A) , , B)-h;x

h2 a2C) --i" , D)

8Ir mdx

o) Jlv

iii) If an electron moves in one dimensional box of length 2 nm, the normalization constant is, \

_t/A) I (nm) " B) 2 (nm)-r

f- -lC) {2 (nm) '

iv) The energy of a particle En in one-dimensional potential box of widthA) nh I s;L'? B) nh / 8 mL c) n2h: / mL2

D)zero tkL*;^i,lL and infurite height is. ))tSg_ry'

b. Set up Schrodinger's time-independent wave equation. (08 Marks)

c. Using uncertainty principle, prove that fiee elecffon does not exist inside the qucleus. (04 Mark)

d. A spectral line of wavelength 4000 A'U has width of 8 x l0-5 AU. Evaluate the minimum time spent by

electrons in upper energy state between excitation and de-excitation processes. (04 Marks)

a. Choose the corect answers for the following : (04 Marks)

i) The liee electrons in classical free electron theory are treated as:

A) rigidly fixed lattice points B) liquid molecules C) gas molecules D; none ofthese

ii) The temperature dependence of classical expression for electrical resistivity of a metal is,

A) E:1.sEF B)r=2l3EF c) E=2l5EFb. Explain failure ofclassical free electron theory.c. What are the merits of quantum free electron theory?d. Calculate the Fermi velocity and mean free path for conduction

is 5.5 eV and relaxation time for electrons is 3.83,, 10-las.


D) n2h2 I 8 mL2 --=:::"

C) po 1/T2 D) pcr 1 IT

D)E=3/5 EF


electrons in silver, given that its Fermi energy

(04 Marks)

(04 Marks)

A) paTN B) pcxT2

iii) The value of Fermi function in Fermi-level is at T + 0 K,A) zero B) 0.s c) 0.71 D)t

iv) If Ep is the Fermi energy at absolute zero, then mean energy E of electron at absolute zero is,

i) The electric dipole moment per unit volume is,

A) magnetization B) dipole moment C) electric polarization D) electric susceptibilityii) Claussius Mussoti equation does not holds for,

^A r\!?-r \'\'i/. - \

\?.- tx--eSf,t?F?AL

LII}fi]};?Y

A) crystalline solids B) liquids C) gases D) vacuum

Contd... Q4 (a)iii) The relation between B, M and H is,

A) H=po(M+B) B) B=pn(H+M)

B) Ne-atoms onlyD) 50% from Helium and 50Yo from Neon

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D) None of these

(04 \tarks)

(04 Marks)

of 90 mw. Find' (04 Marks)(04 Marks)

D) orthorhombic

D) t4

D) diamond

(07 I\.Iarks)

(05 IVIark)parallel to z-axis. a, b are

(0;l Marks)(04 Marks)

D) wire

D) Ail

D) rigidity modulus

D) vacuum(08 Marks)

(08 Marks)

iv) Above curie temperature ferromagnetic substance becomes:A) anti-ferromagnetic B) strongly ferromagnetic C) paramagnetic D) diamagnetic

b. Discuss polarization mechanism in dielectrics and their frequency dependence. (08 \rark)c. Differentiate hard and soft magnetic materials with suitable application. (04 -\rarks)d. An electric field of 10'V/m is applied on a sample of neon at NTP. Calculate the dipole moment induced in

each atom. The dielectric constant of neon is 1.00014. Find the atomic polariziability of neon gas. At NTP1 kg atom of Ne - gas occupies volume of 22.4 m3 . (0{ \rarks)

C) M=po(H+B)

PART _ Ba. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) In He-Ne laser the laser emission takes place llom,A) He-atoms onlyC) both He and Ne atoms

ii) Which of the following leads coherent light:A) induced absorption B) Spontaneous emission C) Stimulated emission D) None of these

iiD The pumping method used in semiconductor diode laser is,A) optical pumping B) electric discharge C) forward bias D) chemical reactions

b.

iv) The life time of metastable state is about,A) 10-3 sec B) l0-r3 sec C) 102 sec D) 10-e sec

Obtain an expression for energy density of radiation under equilibrium condition in terms of Einsteincoefficient. (oE Marks)What is holography? Explain principle of hologram recording using laser. (04 N,tarks)

A pulsed laser with power 1 mw lasts for ions. If the number of photons emitted per second is 5x107.Calculate the wavelength of laser. (0,1 Marks)Choose the correct answers for the following : (04 Nlarks)i) According to BCS theory, the cooper pair is pair of,

A) Electron-Proton B)Electron-Electron C)Proton-Proton D) Electron-Neuhonii) High temperature superconductors bear the crystal structure of

A) cubic B) orthorhombic C) diamond D) perovskiteiii) The acceptance angle ofoptical fiber whose RI ofcore and cladding of 1.55 and 1.50 respectively is,

A)32 B)45" C)23. D) 15"iv) According to Meissner effect, material in super conducting state is,

A) paramagnetic B) diamagnetic C) ferromagnetic D) anti-ferromagneticWhat is refractive index profile? Describe three types of optical fiber with one application for each type. (08 Marks)

c.

d.

a.

b.c.

d.

Explain working of SQUID with application.An optical fiber of 600 mts long has input power of 120 mw which emerges out with powerattenuation in the fiber.


D Thelatticeparameters a:b + cando:0:V:g0orepresent, ,

A) cubic B) tetragonal C) rhombohedral

c) 12

C) fcc

iD The co-ordination number of rock salt is,A)6 B)8

iii) Which of the following has least packing fraction,A) sc B) bcc

iv) In a simple cubic lattice dr r r : dr ro i droo =

A) G .5,,6 B) ,5 .6',6 c)6,6 fi D),6 fi,.Eb. Derive expression for interplanar spacing of crystal in terms of Miller Indices.c. What is atomic packing factor? Calculate packing factor for sc and bcc structure.d. What is Miller Index of planemaking interceptsratio 3a:4b on x- and y- axis and

primitive vectors?a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) A bulk material (three dimensions) reduced in one direction is called quantum:A) particle B) well C) dot

ii) Which belongs to fullerene family?A) Cuo B) Cro C) C,ro

iii) Velocity of ultrasound through liquid is proportional to,A) density B) volume C) bulk modulus

iv) Ultrasonic waves cannot be transmitted through,A) solid B) liquid C) gas

b. What is NDT? Describe the NDT method of detection of flows in solid using ultrasound.c. What are nano materials? Write the structure and applications of carbon nano tubes.

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First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, January 2Ol3

A) Plain cement concreteC) Reinforced cement concrete

iv) A bridge constructed at some angle to river flow is:

B) Composite cement concreteD) Prestressed cement concrete

(04 Marks)

Skew bridge(08

(08

(0.1

Marks)

Marks)Marks)

one ofthese

D) None of these

D) Deformable body

D)P

D) None of these

(10 Marks)

(0,1 Marks)

B) Mass ofthe body is concentratedD) Allofthese

ii) An axis over which one half of the plane figure is just the mirror of the other half is called:

A) Bottom axis B) Axis of symmetry C) Unsymmetrial axis D) All ofthese

iii) The centroid of the plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre if it is a:

A) Rectangle B) Square C) Circle

iv) Centroid of a quarter of circular lamina lies from diameter line at a distance of:D) Right angle triangle

A) 4R/3n B) R/3a C)2R/3n D) None ofthese

b. Locate the centroid ofa triangle by the method ofintegration. (06 Nlarks)

c. Locate the centroid of the shaded area shown in Fig. Q4 (c) with respect to OX and OY. All dimensions are in mm.(10 Marks)

Elements of Givil Engineering and Engineering Mechanic;sTinre: 3 hrs. Max' Marks:100

Note: l. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least two ftom each part.

2. Answer all objective q)pe questions only on OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklet.

3. Answer to objective type qaestions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued.PART _ A

I a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) A branch ofcivil engineering that deals with testing soils and foundation design is called:

A) Geotechnical engineering B) Structural engineering

C) Environmental engineering D) Highway engineering

ii) Highways which are s=uperior ti National Highways and are provided wherever volume of traffic is very high are:' ef eirways B) Expressways C) Roadways D) District roads

iii) Composite material made using cement concrete and steel is called:

A) Bascule bridge B) Square bridge C) RCCb. Write a note on impact of infrastructural development on the economy ofc. Explain different types of dams, with neat sketches. '

2 a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) Forces whose line of action lie along the same line are:

A) Coplanarnon-concurrent B) Coplanarpbrallel C)

ii) Voment of a force about a moment centre is the measure of itsA) Rotational effect B) Translatory effect Cl Both A

iii) The translatory effect ofa couple on the rigid body is,

A) Zero B) Maximum C) Minimumiv) An object with only mass but no size in mechanics is,

A) Rigid body B) Point body C) Particle

Fig. Q3 (c) with respect to point 'O'.


i) Centroid of plane is the point at which,A) Weight of the body is concentratedC) Surface area ofthe body is concentrated

b. State and prove Varignon's theorem. (08 Marks)

c. i) A forie of 200 fr is acting on a block shown in Fig. Q2 (c) - (i). Find the components of forces along horizontal

and vertical axes. Ignore the liiction between contact surfaces.

ii) A nail is to be removed by applying 4 kN force and a force 'F' as shown in Fig. Q2 (c) (ii). Find the magnitude

of force 'F' so that the nail is pulled out vertically from the ground. Also, determine the resulting pull along

vertical axis (08 Marks)

a. Choose the correct answers for the following : (04 Marks)

i) Iftwo concurrent forces each ofP act at right angles to each other, their resultant will be equal to'

A) P\f B) 2-',6 C) 4P

ii) The technique offinding the resultant ofa system offorces is called, ,

A) Composition B) Resolution C) Equilibrium

iii) In a coplanar concurrent force system, if I V = 0 , then the resultant is,

A) Moment of the force system B) Vertical C) Horizontal D) None of these

iv) If two forces act at an angle of I 20', the greater force is 50 N and their resultant is perpendicular to smaller

force, the magnitude of smaller force is,

A) 43.33N B) 32.50N c) 25N D) Noneoftheseb. Determine the resultant force acting on the structure at point 'O' both in magnitude and direction for the system of

forces shown in Fig. Q3 (b). (06 Marks)

c. Determine the magnitude, direction and point of application of the resultant force for the system of forces shown in

aH*!"?"c) ,h. g

fLtB;ti\tr""fD

PART - B


i) A free body diagram is a diagram,A) Drawn by free hand

A) Horizontal to plane of contactC) Perpendicular to plane ofcontact

b. An electric bulb weighing 150 N is suspended betweenDetermine the tension in the wires using Lami's theorem.

Take p = 0.25 for all contact surfaces.


i) Moment of inertia is,

A) Second moment of area B) First moment of areaii) M.I. of circular section about centroidal axis is,

10crv13/23(0a Marks)

D) Allofthese

D) None of these

D) BothB&C

B) Inclined to plane of contactD) None of these

wall and the roof by two wires as shown in Fig. Q5 (b).(06 Marks)

1000N each as shown in Fig.Q5(c)(10 Marks)(0,1 Marks)

B) Represents a floating bodyC) Separating the body flom its surrounding and replacing with force vector

ii) The Lami's theorem can be applied only when number of unknown forces are:

A) Two B) Three C) Fiveiii) lf a body is in equilibrium, it is concluded that,

A) No force is acting B) Resultant is zero C) Moment about any point is zeroiv) For a smooth spherical surface reaction acts:

c. Find the reaction at the contact surface for two identical cylinders weighing


i) Reaction line at roller support with respect to plane ofcontact is,A) Oblique B) Perpendicular C) Inclined

ii) Compared to static friction, kinetic friction is,A) Larger B) Equal

iii) Angle of friction is the angle between,A) Normal reaction and friction forceC) Weight of the body and friction force

ii) When a load acts at constant rate over given length of a beam is called,A) point load B) udl C) uvl

iii) At the fixed end of Cantilever, the number of unknowns reaction components are:

A)t B)2 c)3iv) Minimum number of members required to form a simple truss is,

A)2 B)3 c)4b. Define perfect and imperfect truss. Hence list the assumptions made in the analysis of simple truss.c. Determine the reaction components for the loaded beam shown in Fig. Q6 (c).


i) The maximum frictional force developed when the body just begins to slide is called:A) limiting friction B) Rolling friction C) Static friction

C) Smaller

D) None of these

D) All ofthese

D)4

D)5(06 Mrrks)(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D) None of these

D) None of these

iv) The force offriction depends on:A) Area of contact B) Roughness of contact surface C) Both A & B D) None of these

b. Explain briefly: i) Angle of repose ii) Cone of friction (06 Marks)c. A ladder weighing 200 N is supported as shown in Fig. Q7 (c). If a man weighing 650 N climbs to the top of the

ladder, determine the inclination of the ladder with the floor at which the ladder is to be placed to prevent slipping.

A) rDo I 32 B) 7rD4 / 48 c) nD4 I 64iii) The unit ofradius ofgyration is,

' A) mm B) mm2 C)mmliv) M.I. of a square of side 'B' about its centroidal axis is,

A)84t8 B)B4:D c)B4l36b. State and prove parallel axis theorem.c. Determine radius of gyration of shaded area shown in Fig. Q8 (c) about the base AB.

B) Normal reaction and resultantD) Normal reaction and weight ofthe body

(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)

C) Third monlent of area D) None of these

D)nD4ll28

D) mma

D)84/48(06 N'larks)

(10 \'Iarks)

Fig. Q2 (c) - (i)It(,

Fig. Q2 (c) - (ii)l+n

2OFig. Q3 (b)

50 kNl ry

Fig. Q3 (c)lifr{+ 50 --Flp}.fi{ + ao --+r

Fig. Qa (c)

4f

Fig. Q6 (c)Fig. Qs (b) Fig. Qs (c)

Fig. Q7 (c)

Fie. Q8 (c)

B

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USN lOEM.El4124

Degree Examination, January 2013

(04 Marks)

First/Second Semester B.E.

6)aC)

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a

6)

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_ooolcco.-a

/.!

=t--F,-

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lr<-c\lC)

zdf

o.=

ii) The ratio of heat absorbed in a system to work supplied isA) Refrigeration effect B) COP C) Ton of refrigeration

iii)Inarefrigeratorexchangeofheattakesplacein-,A) Condenser B) Evaporator C) Compressor

ir) is the refrigerant used in vapour compression refrigerator,A) Ammonia B) Air

I nf? C)Freon-22


(04 Marks)

D) Pelton wheel

D) CO2

D) Both B and C

Turbocharging(08 Marks)

velocity profile(08 Marks)

(0,1 Marks)

(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)

C) Expansion valve D) Evaporator

D) Coding effect

D) Both A and B.

D) Nitrogen

Elements of Mechanical EngineeringTime: 3 hrs. Max. Marks:100

Note: l. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least two from each part.2. Answer all objective type questions only on OMR sheet page 5 of the anstryer booklet.3. Answer to objective type questions on sheets other thsn OMR will not be valued.4. Use of steam tubles is not permitted.

PART _ AI a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) Hydro energy is considered ?S _,A) Tidal energy B) Heat energy C) Indirect solar energy D) Ocean energy

ii) The primary processes of solar energy are:A) Heliochemical process B) Helioelectrical process C) Heliothermal process D) A11 of these

iii) Lanchashire boiler is a boiler,A) Water tube B) Fire tube C) Gas tube D) Air tube

iu) The temperature at which water starts to boil in static pressure is _,A) Sensible heat B) Saturation temperatule C) Wet steam temperature D) Dry steam temperature

b. Find the total enthalpy of 0.6 kg of steam with an initial dryness fraction of 0.7 is heated at constant pressure

of 7 bar till its temperature rises to 250'C. Assume Cps: 2.25 KJ/kgK. From steam table, at 7 bar,

hr- 679.1 KJ/kg, hrs:2064.9 KJ/kg, T,u,: 165'C.c. Explain with a neat sketch, the working principle of a Lanchashire boiler.

2 a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) It is an example of reaction turbine,

value of fuel is 43900 KJ,&g.

a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) is the heart ofthe refrigerator,A) Compressor B) Condenser

,d) De-Laval turbine B) Kaplan turbine C) Flow turbineii) Open cycle gas turbine uses as the working substance,

A) Ammonia B) Nitrogen C) Airiii) is example for reaction water turbine,

A) Pelton wheel B) Francis turbine C) Kaplan turbineiv) Method of improving efficiency by successive stages in a turbine is _,

A) Governing B) Compounding C) Supercharging D)b. With a neat sketch explain the working of a open cycle gas turbine.c. Sketch and explain the working of reaction steam turbine with the

diagram.


i) The motion of a piston is_,A) Rotory B) Oscillatory C)

ii) Diesel engine is also called as ,

A) 4-skoke engine B) 2-stroke engine c)iii) il" il;;"?r'.a in t.7ruintr"r,H#i;;;" l, "' "'-' ,""'XI6-e

A) Indicated power B) Brake power D) Torqueiv) is fed into the diesel engine through inlet valve,

A) Fuel B) Diesel C) Air tuel mixture D) Airb' With the help of a line diagram, explain the working of a two-stroke petrol engine. (08 Marks)c. A 4-cylinder two-stroke petrol engine develops 30 kW at 2500 rpm. The mean effective pressure on each

piston is 8 bar and mechanical efficiency is 80%. Calculate the diameter and stroke of each cylinder, stroke tobore ratio 1.5. Also calculate the specific fuel consumption if brake thermal efficiency is28o/o. The calorific

l-

b. Explain with a neat sketch the working of vapour compression reliigerator.

c. with a neat sketch explain the working of a typical rooin air conditioner.

t0FNIEl4l24


(04 Marks)

D) None of these

D) Boring

iii) Flute in a twist drill is used for,

A) Flow of Coolant B) Removal of material C) Easy removal of curl chips D) All of these

iv) is not a drilling oPeration,

turning B) Reaming C) Knurling D) Tuming

b. Explain with a schematic diagram, show how a centre lathe is specified. (08 Marks)

c. How are counter sinking an"d counter boring operation done on a drilling machine? Explain with suitable

sketches. (08 Marks)

a. Choose your answers for the following : (04 Marks)

i) Milling cutter is ?

-,

A) Multipoint cuttingtool I Abrasive cuher C) Single point cutting tool D) Metal removing machine

Milling is a

-----,A) Metal r.*o*1 p.o..ss B) Metal cutting processor C) Metal joint process D) None of these

el Oia*ona B) Corundum C) Emery D) Aluminium Nitrate

iv) Grinding is also called as

-_-A) Turning B) Metal cutting C) Abrasive machining D) Lapping

PART _ B

Choose your answers for the following :

i) object are produced in a engine lathe'

A) Ptrre objects B) Curved objects C) Circular objects

iD Taper tuming is an operation of producin g

-on

the work piece'

A) Tapping B) Reaming C) TaPer

ii)

iii)

b. Sketch and explain the principle and working of a horizontal milling machine.c. With a neat sketch, explain the surface grinding machine.

(08 \'Iarks)(08 \Iarks)

D) Centrifugal(08 Marks)(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)

a. Choose your answers for the following : (04 Marks)

i) Welding is a process used for metals,

A) M;llurgical joining B) Forged forming C) Mechanical joining D) Adhesive bonding

ii) Gas welding is a

-

method ofjoining two metals'

A) Fission B) Fusion c) Gas reaction D) oxidizing

iii) Lubricants are used to reduce the

-'- in machines'

A) Efficiency B) Effectiveness c) Friction D) Torque

iv) In thrust bearing the bearing pressure will be

A) Radial B) Circular C) Axial .

b. With a neat sketch, explain the working of oxy-acetylene gas welding'

c. List the important properties of good lubricant.


i) The motion is the simPlest form of transmitting power with minimum losses.

A) Rotational B) Rectilinear C) Oscillatory D) None of these

ii) is also called as positive drive mechanisms.- n) e"lt drlu" B) Chain drive c) Gear drive D) Both B and c.

iiD tlpe of gear drive is used for transmitting power between two perpendicular shafts.

A; eeu"l gea. B) Elliptical gear c) Helical gears D) Spur gear

iv) For high power transmission _ is most suitable power transmission.- A) eelt drive B) V-belt drive C) Rope drive D) Gear drives

b. Derive an expression for the length of the belt in an open drive system. (08 Marks)

c. Two spur gears A and B connect two parallel shafts that are 500 mm apart. Cear A runs at 400 rpm and gear B

at 200 rpm. If the circular pitch is 30 mm. Calculate the number of teeth on gears A and B. (08 Marks)

*rrJr**

roELE15/25USN

Max. Marks:100(.)o()Lo.

q

0.)

P

oX

;l>

_aiol=a

a-E,AF-

C) -^

6:

OU

ootr

L=

-2CJa,

:9a."');.UG

L(J

>. ,+bo--bo(J=o. ;j=o()

(r<_N

6)

z

oo.

(04 Marks)

C) Capacitance

C) Watt - second

c) No/r

D) Diode

D) Joule second

D) raro

b.c.

d.

A) Nor

State and explain Kirchofls laws.Obtain an equation for the energy stored in a magnetic field.


(06 Marks)

(0,1 Marks)

D) leading

D) infinite

D) square root of

(04 Marks)

C)current or pressure coil D) None of these

D) creeping holes

D) melting curent

D) very high

current of 4,A and power loss in the coil is 600 W. Calculate (i) resistancegQ(ii) inductance of the coil

(iii) the power factor of the circuit. ,ff Of +-\ -t, (06 Marks)

a. Choose the corect answers for the following : ,/8T \e*\ (04 Marks)s;-hoose the corect answers lor tne lollowlng : iai) In a 3 ph. System emfs are l,'$tl) ln a J pn. System emts are ,, '\/ \v: \

A) 30" apart B) 60" apart C) 90'tffittCe*':rmAE"' m ll20' apart

ii.t In a'O'connected system relation between [1and Io6 is \'}t L9tsi:AnY f*'1A) r1:rpr, B)r,: rphtJl c) I,\T6\{;' ;fs)fi':ttrna\,

iii) The totalactive power in a 3 ph. System is 'Yu\-{.07'A) 6vLIL B) .6vr-Ir cos4 c) vLIL t\9ry22o;

.[V1l1sin$

A) current coil B) Potentialcoilii) In the energy meter, constant speed of rotation of disc is provided by

A) shunt magnet B) series magnet C) brake magnet

iii) Ratio minimum fusing curent / current rating is fuse isA) fusing factor B) rated current C) fusing current

ir) A good earthing should provide resistance in earthing point.

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Basic Electrical Engineering

Time: 3 hrs.

Note: 1. Answer any FIVEfull questions, choosing at leqst twofrom each part.2. Answer all objective type questions only on OMR sheet page 5 of the unswer booklet.3. Answer to objective type questions on sheets other thun OMR will not be valued.

PART - AI a. Choose the correct answers for the following :

i) The Ohm's law can not be applied toA) Resistance B) Inductance

ii) The practical unit ofelectrical energy is

A) kwh B) Whiii) The self inductance'L' is given by

B) Nr/ 0iv) A current of 20 A is reversed in 0. 1 sec through an inductance of 1 H, thus emf induced is

- volts

A) 200 B) - 200 c) - 600 D) +400

A circuit consists of two parallel resistors having resistance of 20 Q and 30 f) respectively., connected in

series with 15 O. If current through 15Q resistor is 3,{, find (i) current in 20O & 30O resistors, (ii) voltage

across the whole circuit, (iii) the total power and power consumed in all resistances.


i) The power factor of a pure resistive circuit isA) zero B) unity C) lagging

ii) The average power consumption is a pure inductor isA) maximum B) minimum C) zero

iii) The admittance is _ impedance.A) equal to B) square of C) reciprocal of

Choose the correct answers for the following ;

i) In a dl,namometer wattmeter the fixed coil is

iv) A series R.C. circuit of 6 - j8f) carries a current of 10A then its power consumption isA)60W B) 600 w c) 100 w D)80W

b. Define and derive an expression for root mean square value of an alternating quantity. (06 Marks)

c. Show that current leads voltage in R-C series circuit. (0'l Marks)

d. An impedance in parallel with a 100 prP capacitor is connected across a 200 V, 50 Hz supply. The coil takes a

iv) lf the two wattmeters show equal reading, power factor isA) zero B) 0.5 C) unity D) 0.866

b. With the help of connection diagram and phasor diagram show that two wattmeters are sufficient to measure

the active power in a three phase three wire system with balanced star connected load. (10 Marks)

A 3 phase 230 V supply is given to balanced load which is A connected. Impedance in each phase of the load is

8 +.i6 O. Determine the phase current and the total power consumed. (06 Marks)

a.

A) low B) hish C) medium

c)80Ab. With a neat sketch, explain the construction of a d.c machine. (06 Marks)c. Derive the torque equation of d.c. motor. (05 Marks)d. A 4 pole generator with wave wound armature has 51 slots each having 24 conductors. The flux per pole is

0.01 Weber. At what speed the armature rotate to give an induced emf of 220 V? What will be the voltage ofthe winding in lap and the armature rotates at the same speed. (05 Marks)

a. Choose the corect answers for the following :

i) The copper loss of certain transformer at half fulI load is 200 W. Then the full load copper loss isA) 100 w 8)200 w c)400 w D) 800 w

ii) If secondary current of 100/10 V transformer is 10 A, then primary current isA)lA B)2A c) 10A D) 100 A

D) friction loss

D) double

iii) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduceA) eddy current B) hysteresis current C) copper loss

iv) The Iiequency loss of secondary voltage is _ that of primary voltage.A) greater than B) less than C) same as

b. Explain the principle of operation of a single phase transformer. Mention the types of transformers. (08 Nrarks)c. A 600 kVA, I ph transformer has an efficiency of 92%o both at full load and half load upf. Determine the

b. With a neat diagram, explain the construction and principle of operation of a singlemeter.

c. With a neat diagram, explain the two-way control of a lamp.d. What are the precautions to be taken against electric shock?


i) The emf generated by a d.c. generator depends on _A) Flux only B) speed only C) Flux & Speed

ii) For 'P' pole lap wound armature DC machine, no. of parallel portsA)2 B) 2P C)P

C) Cast steel

iii) Yoke is made up of _A) Copper B) Aluminium

iv) ln a240 V d.c. motor, Eb:220 V, R* : 0.5 O, I, isA)20A B) 10A

efficiency at 75oh full load 0.9 power factor.


i) A 4 pole, 1200 rpm alternator generates emf at a frequency ofA)25 Hz B) 40 Hz C) 50 Hz

ii) The field winding of an alternator is excited byA) dc B) ac C)ac&dc

iii) A salient pole field construction is used for alternator havingA) low & medium speed B) large speed C) very large sp6ed

iv) The values of pitch factor (kp) for full pitchA) less than I B) more than 1 c)1

b. Derive the emf equation for a star connected 3 phase slmchronous generator.c. Sketch the two types of rotors used in an alternator.d. A 12 pole 500 rpm star connected altemator has 48 slots with 15 conductors per slot.

0.02 web. and is distributed sinusoidally. The winding factor is 0.97 and pitch factorline emf.


i) The clip of an induction motor at standstill isA)0 B)t c)*

ii) Slmchronous speed of three ph. Induction motor is given byA) N,: 120 fP B) r20aP c) 120Ptf

iii) A 4 pole, 440 Y ,50 Hz induction motor is running at a slip of 4oh the speed of motor isA) 1260 rpm B) 1440rpm C) 1500 rpm

C) same as

10ELE15/25

phase induction energy(08 Marks)(04 Marks)(0,1 N{arks)

(04 Marks)

D) Terminal voltage

D)P/2

D) Cast Iron

D)40A

(04 N{arks)

(08 Marks)

(04 NIarks)

D) 60 Hz

D) 3 ph. ac

D) none of these

D)0(06 Marks)(04 Marks)

The flux per pole isis 0.98. Calculate the

(06 Nlarks)

(0,1 N.Iarks)

D) -tD)trt120

D) 1560 rpm

D) double

iv) Speed of an induction motor is that of N,A) greater than B) less than

b. Prove that a rotating magnetic field of constant magnitude is produced when the stator winding of a polyphaseinduction motor are energized by a balanced 3 phase supply. Explain the principle of operation of inductionmotor. (10 Marks)

c. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 1470 rpm. Find the frequency of the induced emf in

*****a ^r a

the rotor under this condition. (06 Marks)

t

rUSN

1OcrP18i28

Question Paper Version : C

First/Second Semester B.E Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Gonstitution of lndia and Professional Ethics

Time: 2 hrs.l(coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES)

[Max. Marks: 50

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries ONE mark.

2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

prohibited.

1. The greatest impediment to responsibility isa) Rampant corruption b) Selfinterest c) Interference by politicians d) Interference by higher ofticials

2. Conflict of interest may be: a) Actual b) Imaginary c) Produced d) True

3. The patent holder does not allow other to use potential information for years: a) 10 b) 15 c) l8 d) 20

4. Fear is _ to responsibility: a) a way to shift b) an impediment c) conflict d) both a and c

5. Risk estimation can be done by using: a) cooking b) trimming c) event tree d) both a and b

6. How many members retired in legislative council for every two years? a) l/4 b) 1/3 c) 1/5 d) 116

7. How many members are there in Karnataka Legislative Assembly?: a) 120 b) 220 c) 225 d) 235

8. The Council Minister and Prime Minister should not exceed the total strength of the parliamenta) 5% b) 10% c) 12o/o d) ls%

9. The Prime Minister shall be selected lioma) President b) Vice president c) Majority party of Lok Sabha members d.lNone of these ,-ffL

10. The Vice President is elected by electoral college consist of ,,ilf:-Yj.*,=t\a) Adult ftanchise of the constituency b) Lok Sabha and State Assembly i't'f \'+\c) Rajya Sabha members d) Lok Sabha and Rajyasabha members '4 { "-* - . \* \

I l. The president of India can be removed from his office only on grounds ofa) Accepting bribec) Violating the constitution

b) Disobedience of the parliamentd) Showing favours to his party members \.

12. The disputes regarding the election ofthe president oflndia are decided bya) The Supreme Court of India b) The Parliament c) The Lok Sabha

Who appoints the advocate general?: a) Governor b) President c) Prime Minister d) Chief Minister13.

14.

15.

The first president election held during the year: a) 1950 b) 1947 c) 1951

The Indian constitution the subject of administration have been divided intoa) Two list

c) Integrity

c) The parliament

d) 19s2

d) Five list

d) AII of these

d) The people

b) Three list c) Four list16. Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian constitution by lhe 42"d amendment?

a) Secular b) Socialist17. The ultimate source of authority of India

a) The government b) The constitution

-c1 -

E

b. With a neat diagram, explain the construction and principle of operation of a single phasemeter.

c. With a neat diagram, explain the two-way control of a lamp.d. What are the precautions to be taken against electric shock?


i) The emf generated by a d.c. generator depends on _A) Flux only B) speed only C) Flux & Speed

C) very large sfeed

c)1

10ELE15/2s

induction energy(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)(04 Mark)

(0,1 Marks)

D) Terminal voltage

D) Pl2

D) Cast Iron

D)40A

D) 800 w

D) r00 A

D) liiction loss

(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D) 60 Hz

D) 3 ph. ac

D) none of these

D)0(06 Marks)(04 Marks)

The flux per pole isis 0.98. Calculate the

(06 Marks)(0d Nlarks)

D) -lD) fP / 120

D) 1560 rpm

D) double

b. With a neat sketch, explain the construction of a d.c machine. (06 Marks)c. Derive the torque equation of d.c. motor. (05 Marks)d. A 4 pole generator with wave wound arrnature has 5l slots each having 24 conductors. The flux per pole is

0.01 Weber. At what speed the armature rotate to give an induced emf of 220 V? What will be the voltage ofthe winding in lap and the armature rotates at the same speed. (05 Marks)

a. Choose the correct answers for the following : (04 Marks)i) The copper loss of certain transformer at half full load is 200 W. Then the full load copper loss is

A) 100 w B) 200 w c) 400 w

ii) For 'P' pole lap wound arrnature DC machine, no. of parallel portsA)2 B) 2P C)P

C) Cast steeliii) Yoke is made up of _

A) Copper B) Aluminiumiu) ln a240 V d.c. motor, Eb:220 V, &:0.5 O, Iu is

A)20A B) r0A c)80A

efficiency at75oh fullload 0.9 power factor.


i) A 4 pole, 1200 rpm alternator generates emf at a frequency ofA)25H2 B) 40 Hz C) 50 Hz

C)ac&dcii) The field winding of an alternator is excited by

A) dc B) aciii) A salient pole field construction is used for alternator having

ii) If secondary current of 100/10 V transformer is l0 A, then primary current isA)rA B)2A C)10A

iii) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduceA) eddy culrent B) hysteresis current C) copper loss

iu) The frequency loss of secondary voltage is _ that of primary voltage.A) greater than B) less than C) same as D) double

b. Explain the principle of operation of a single phase transfomer. Mention the types of transformers. (08 Mark)c. A 600 kVA, I ph transformer has an efficiency of 92% both at full load and half load upf. Determine the

A) low & medium speed B) large speediv) The values of pitch factor (kp) for full pitch

A) less than I B) more than Ib. Derive the emf equation for a star connected 3 phase slmchronous generator.c. Sketch the two types of rotors used in an alternator.d. A 12 pole 500 rpm star connected alternator has 48 slots with 15 conductors per slot.

0.02 web. and is distributed sinusoidally. The winding factor is 0.97 and pitch factorline emf.


i) The clip of an induction motor at standstill isA)0 B)l C) oo

ii) Slmchronous speed of three ph. Induction motor is given byA) N,: 120 fP B) 120flP c) 120 Ptf

iii) A 4 pole, 440Y,50 Hz induction motor is running at a slip of 4%o the speed of motor isA) 1260 rpm B) 1440 rpm C) l500rpm

C) same as

iv) Speed of an induction motor is that of N,A) greater than B) less than

b. Prove that a rotating magnetic field of constant magnitude is produced when the stator winding of a polyphaseinduction motor are energized by a balanced 3 phase supply. Explain the principle of operation of inductionmotor. (10 Marks)

c. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 1470 rpm. Find the {iequency of the induced emf in

****{<

a ^ca

the rotor under this condition. (06 Marks)

\

10crP18/28

Question Paper Version : C

First/Second Semester B.E Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Gonstitution of lndia and Professional Ethics

(coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES)[Max. Marks: 50

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

USN

Time: 2 hrs.l

l.",

3.

4.

5.

Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries ONE mark.

Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

For each question, a{ter selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle


Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

Damaging/overwritingo using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

prohibited.

l. The greatest impediment to responsibility isa) Rampant corruption b) Selfinterest c) lnterference by politicians d) Interference by higher offlcials

2. Conflict of interest may be: a) Actual b) Imaginary c) Produced d) True

3. The patent holder does not allow other to use potential information for years: a) l0 b) 15 c) l8 d) 20

4. Fear is _ to responsibility: a) a way to shift b) an impediment c) conflict d) both a and c

5. Risk estimation can be done by using: a) cooking b) trimming c) event hee d) both a and b

6. How many members retired in legislative council for every two years? a) 1/4 b) ll3 c) 115 d) 116

7. How many members are there in Karnataka Legislative Assembly?: a) 120 b) 220 c) 225 d) 235

8. The Council Minister and Prime Minister should not exceed the total strength of the parliamenta) 5o/o b) 10% c) 12% d) 1s%

9. The Prime Minister shall be selected froma) President b) Vice president c) Majority party of Lok Sabha members d) None of these -.

/"ni? ur -HI rre v rce rresloenr ls elecreo Dy electorat coilege consrsl or /L*\v^.:{.,\'a) Adult lianchise of the constituency b) Lok Sabha and State Assembly i'.:.*'/ X'.^c) Rajya Sabha members d) Lok Sabha and Rajyasabha members ,' o< / , -

\ "'r-rL^ --^.i,{^-+ ^f r-,i:^ ^^- r.^ -^*^,.^r G,"^* L:- ^ffi^^ ^-r,, ^- ^-^,,-,{^ ^f

sr ) i ,','/ cr.t;gn-:u \f-}

a) Aicepting bribe b) Disobedience of the parliament ),tf\ uru*"to* J;'lc) Violating the constitution d) Showing favours to his party members \ - \ "/s /12. The disputes regarding the election of the president of India are decided by \.-}1;{ 9/a) The Supreme Court of India b) The Parliament c) The Lok Sabha d) The High Court-$y''Who appoints the advocate general?: a) Governor b) President c) Prime Minister d) Chief MinisterThe first president election held during the year: a) 1950 b) 1947 c) 1951 d) 1952The Indian constitution the subject of administration have been divided intoa) Two Iist b) Three list c) Four list d) Five list

16. Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian constitution by the 42"d amendment?a) Secular b) Socialist

10. The Vice President is elected by electoral college consist of /^*a) Adult lianchise of the constituency b) Lok Sabha and State Assembly i.*,/

I l. The president of India can be removed from his office only on grounds of i

a) Accepting bribe b) Disobedience of the parliament t\L-'Nr.nllrt \\

13.

14.15.

17. The ultimate source of authority of Indiaa) The government b) The constitution

c) Integrity

c) The parliament

d) All of these

d) The people

-cl

10cIP18/28I 8. According to the marriage Act of I 954 the age is fixed at 2 1 years for men and for women.

a) l6years b) l7years c) l8years19.Whichofthefollowingisnolongerafundamenta|right?

a) Right to freedom of religion b) Right to equality c) Right to liberty20. The concept of welfare state is included in the constitution of India in the

a) Preamble b) Fundamental rights c) Fourth schedule d) The directive principles of state policy

d) 21 years

d) fught to property

21. How many articles included while making Indian Constitution?: a) 300 b) 368 c) 395

22. The Indian council Act, 1909 is called as

a) Montague and chelmesford reforms b) Minto Morley reforms c) Cripps mission Act

d) 448

d) British Act23. British parliament passed the Indian independence Act on

a) l5th August 1947 b) l8'h JuJy 1947 c) 26'h January 1950 d) l4th August 1947

24. The Act of 1935 abolished:a) dyarchy in the provinces b) provincial autonomy c) dyarchy at the cenke d) None of these

25. Indian constitution is flexible that it: a) Cannot be amended easily b) Can be amended only after under going aspecial procedure c) Can be amended easily d) Does not allow frequent changes

26. Tendency of shifting responsibility will logically come down if there isa) Group thinking b) Microscopic vision c) Fear d) Both a and b

d) both b and c27. Considering an engineering profession as building then, is its foundation of

a) honesty b) creativity c) imagination28. Which of the following is not conflict of interest as applied to making judgment?

a) Actual b) Potential c) Apparent d) Virtual29. The formulae of a soft drink is an example of: a) trade secret b) patent c) copyight d) hade marks

30. Which of the following is not the concepts of responsibility?a) Minimalist b) Utilitariansim c) Reasonable care

c) Vidhana Sabha

a) Prime Minister b) President c) Parliament

34. The chiefjustice of India is appointed by: a) Parliament b) Govemment c) Vice President d) President

35. The smoothing of irregularities to make data to look extremely precise done researches calleda) Trimming b) Cooking c) Plagiarism

36. The financial emergency under article: a) 352 b) 354 c) 360 d) 36437. National emergency was proclaimed first time during the year: a) 1952 b) 1956

31. Which of the state having highest members in Lok Sabha?a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Uttar Pradesh

32. The upper house is called: a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha

33. Who appoints the chief election commissioner?

a) 2 years 1 1 months and 18 daysc) 4 years 2 months and 18 days

d) Good works

d) Karnatakad) None of these

d)A.r.c.T.E

d) Forging

c) 1962 d) 1971

38. How many emergencies are there? : a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

39. The term of Lok Sabha and legislative assemblies the period was extended for 6 ypars in amendmenta) 26'h b) 42'd c) 44'h d) 46'h

40. Reservation for Anglo lndian in Karnataka legislative assembly: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

41. The directive principles of state policy under article: a) 16 to 30 b) 31 to 51 c) 61to76 d) None of these

42 How many fundamental duties are there? : a) 5 b) 6 c) 10 d) 1 1

43. The fundamental duties has been inserted during the tenureship ofa) Dr. Ambedkar b) Gandhiji

44. The President of India isa) The real ruler oflndia

c) Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad d) Indira Gandhi

b) The constitutional head ofthe statec) The head of the state as well as the government d) The leader of majority party which forms the government.

45. The president oflndia is elected for: a) 3 years b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years

46. For how many years, months and days did the constituent assembly work on the framing of the constitution of Indiab) 13 years 2 months and 16 daysd) 1 year 1 I months and 15 days

47. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employrnent under article: a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 19

48. Abolition of untouchability under article: a) 17 b) 19 c) 21 d) 32

49. Classification of fundamental rights part: a) I b) II c) III d) IV50. Unnikrishnan V state of Andhra Pradesh AIR 1993 SCC 645 regarding: a) Public interest litigation b) Abolish of

capitation fee c) Smoking in public place O) )"j,"."flrlution

due to blaring of music during religion activities

-c2-

^ . (-1)'-'(n -1)!xAl --.---------.--' (x + l)nt' ", (-1)'-'(n - 2)!(x + n)

' (x+l)"

D) None of these.

Ct tan-'l,.J

O6MAT11

Max. Marks:100

(04 Marks)

D) tan-r 3.

D) P2: r'a'(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D)1^) ^')0'1J z o-u

First Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Decemb er 2OL2

Engineering Mathematics - I

C;oo

ad

(B

o(.)

E9

6v3oo ll

troa.= a..l

giloFiFO

Es

a=

bdcgOoicooiEIa6

.od-AoLO

J6)o. g.tr0.o'woJei6t (-)i, l.;EE!O=E>,qho-cor)o=o. ;itr>=o3E(r<Jc{ooz

Lo

Time: 3 hrs.

Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at least two from each part'2. Answer ali objectiie type questions only on OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklet.

3. Answer to objeAive type questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued.

PART _ A


i) If y: sin2x. then yn is

A) -2'-'.o.[r*.+] B 12"-'cos(2..+j-"\-" 2) t. 2)

c) 2"-' ,n( z** +) D) - 2'-' ,in[z* . +]'[-" z) \ 2)ii) If y: xlog(x+l) then y, is

iir) The angle of intersection ofthe curves, = t 1,, = -a i,1+0' l+0'

c)(-1)*'(n-2)!(x+n)

(x +1)

A) cos 13 B) cofr3

iv) Pedal equation of the curve r'cos m0 : a' is '

A) r'-1 = a* B) p' = a'r'-1 C) Pr*-l = a'b. Find yr, if y: e 3'cos3x

c. If y"i + y-ir' =2x,prove that (x2 - l)yn+z + (2n+1)xyr*r * (n2 + m2)yn: 0

d. Findthe angle betweenthe curves r = alog0, r: a/ log0.


n2 au aui) If u = a, then x: + y: it equal toydxoy

A) 2u B)u

ii) If u is a homogeneous function of order n is x&y then x2 fi +2"y #+ y' fr isoxN

A) nu B) n2u C) n(n- l)u D) n(n+l)u.

c)0

q!r

1of 4

a')d-u

iil) If x: rcoso , y: rsin0 then p is equal to6(r,0)

,.ffi

A)l B)r

^")ox'

D)0

^)oy'

O6MAT1tr

iv) 91 i, calledx

A) Absolute error B) Relative error C) Percentage error D) Absolute & relative error.

tf u =.or..-'[*l i ' ''r 2lr 2

1*' 'fr- -] ' Rrove that

, A'u ^ A'u , i,u tur, [13 . tan'ul"- N+/xY axfu*t q'

" li* 12 )

If u= Y',u-'* ,w=XY,showthat ?!u'''*:)=4x y z O(x,Y,r)

increase about 17%H.P.


fr

i) lsin' x dx is equal to,J0'

A) zero B)ry q:35 '3s

?dxrr) l-- -

ls equal to;' tt + x')"'

8A)-n B)+ c)+--'15 15 15

b.

d. If the H.P. required to propel a steamer varies as the cube of the velocity and square of the

length prove tl:rrt a 3oZ increase in velocity and 4o/o increase in lengths will require an(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

iiD The shape of the curve r' : * cos 20 is

A) Three leaved B) cycloid C) cardiode D) Lemnisate of Bernoulliiv) The curve y2(a-x) : x2 (a + x) passes through

A) origin B) Node C) x-axis D) y-axis

,) 3t^35

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

,,7

b. Ifln,,n : "'irt* xcos' xdx ( m> 0, n> 0 ) ; showthat I*,n : #* I-,n-2 (04 Marks)

0

- I t 1.Evaluate l(*' + a';' ' dxJ'

0

Trace the curve r: a sin30d.

4a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) Length of one arch of the cyliod x: a(t - sint), y : a(l - cost) is

A) - 8a B) 8a C) ",6'u

ii) Surface area of revolution about x-axis is s :D)l

8a

B)dxA)

D)

Area of the cardiodeT

A) lr'de.J0

r : a(1+cosO) isfi

B) 2lrdO'J0

c) ] J'r.oreae D) 2Jcos0d00

,l,J'.(t)'

iii)

1^f A

iv) Length of the loop of the curve x= t2 , y : t- t3l3 is

N 2,J1 B) -+6 c) !4J1

b. Find the area enclosed by the asteroid *t3 + i2t3 : ;!t3 .

c. Find the area of surface of he solid generated when the cardioidabout the initial line.

d. Prove tt at "f log(1+ Y ' '*)

0

="ffi-r]

O6MAT11

D 4J1

(04 Marks)

r: a(l + cosO) revolved(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

PART _ B5 a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) Homogeneous differential equation can

substitutionA)x+y:v B) v: vx

ii) (1 + xy)ydx + (1 - xy)xdy : 0 then I.F. is

N 2*>?

(04 Marks)

be reduced to a differential equation by

c) xy: v

c)#iil) The equationy - 2x: c represenls thg orthogonal trajectories of the family

A)yjae-z* B)*+zs?:* c)xy:a D)x+2Y:a

iv) The general solution of the differential equation 1' = ' + tanl is'dxxxB) sinl =.*

x

D)x-y:v.

o1 2-x-y-

D) cosl = cx

b.

c.

d.

Solve (x - ylogy + ylogx)dx + x(logy - logx)dx: 0

Solve *, + - xry - -yo cos xdx

Test for self orthogonality rn: a sin n0.


.2345r) lhe serres ?-T*T- q, * rs

A) Conditionally convergentC) Divergent

ii) Y [r * l.l-" ,,, /_/L n_l

A) Oscillatory B) Convergent C) Divergent D) Absolutely convergent

Hmit [ ,, Iii1) By Raabe's test Xu, is convergent if

,, _ *L* -rlA) Equal to one B) Greater than one C) Less than one D) None of these.

iv) r-l*1-1*l byLebnitz'stest' 234 5

A) sinl="x

A) Monotonic decreasingC) Oscillatory

C) cosl = cxx

B) Absolutely convergentD) None of these.

B) DivergenceD) Convergency

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)6a.

Test the series for conversence. 1*{* ? ! ?, +................4 4.7 4.7.10

3 of4

(04 Marks)

c.*./ ?\n

Find the nature of the series ) I I -: Ifr\ n)

Test the series ".*.*. *. for absolute convergence.


i) The sum of the direction cosines of a straight line isA) zero B) one C) constant

ii) The equation of a straight line parallel to the x-axis is given byx-a v-b z-cA\IV '111

- x-a v-b z-c/ r\'' o - o - l

* x-a v-b z-cl-lr

-=i-=-011

x-a v-b z-cI \\'100

O6MATl

(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D) None of these.

D)0

(04 Marks)

-1) at right(06 Marks)

(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

d.

7a.

iii) A line makes angles o, P, y with the co-ordinate axes then sin2a + sin2p + sin2y =

A)1 B)2 c)3iv) Three lines are coplanar if

A) They are concurrentB) A line perpendicular to each otherC) They are concurrent and a line is perpendicular to each of themD) None of these.

Show that the angle between two diagonals of a cube i, .or-'13

Find the equation of the plane which bisects the line joining (3, 0, 5) and (1,2,angles.Find the shortest distance between the lines and its equations:

,-8 _ y+9 =

z-10 u.rd *-15 _y-29 _r-5

3 t6 7 3 8 -58 a. Choose your answers for the following :

D Curl($u) is equal toA)Qgradu+ugrad$C) (grad Q)xu + {(curlu)

ii) If curl F : 0 then the vector F is said to be

A) solenoidal B) Rotational

ii, If r : xi + yj + zk then V. r is equal to

A)3 B)2 c)1 D)0iv) If F : V(x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz) then curl F is

A)6(x+y+z) B)(x+y+z) C)1 D)0.Find the directional derivative of 0 : xy2 + yz3 at (1,2, -l) in the direction normal to thesurface xlogz-f :-4 at(-1,2,1). (04Marks)Find the constants a and b such that

F:(axy + z31i+ (3x2 - z)j + (b*r' - y)k is irrotational and find the scalar function such that

F: V0. (06 Marks)

d. IfA: 2*i-3yq+ xzzkandi : 2r-x3y find A : V0 and (AxV$) at (1, -1, 1). (06Marks)

,< ?k ?k ,< ,<

4of4

b.

c.

d.

B) grad$.u + $div uD) ($.v)u + (tr.v)$

C) Inotational D) Angular velocity

b.

c.

FRn"t :r,..rTr-t E:{Ftt,l EELG*Lrhl Fiil{ l{rl. rEE31I4 '_iEt,41 15 trr.r,. {E1! E,-= : 5B*r'l F,t

L]SFl lli 06PHy12/2?

First/Seconcl Semester 8.,S, Degree Examirratlon, December 2012

Engineerlng Physitis

I'ime: 3 hr,s, Mar. Matks:100

b.

d,

0

U

*tr

.DE

H?E

n+;rl9'*'4, +.I;;

Eut)EE+l.Eoirfie

F_1trt4

2H

'E rd.-i.T, U

CE

leejv.2gD,'a ltr

uil)Ef--

C bJJ

u='r- ill

9._!E(J<,-.i r.iu1l

Z

pI

Note: 1- Antwtr ony F[VE fttll. tlue,stlons, r:lttoilng il least ttrtoJ'ront eadr pafi.,2" -,lnsrer *Il obJeilive typt questiors dr{/.},' ilt Ol}fR she*t puge 5 nf the Mtst+tlr ttoohlet,

3, Answer t* ohjettive type quusllan,r arr .rlreetr other lhan OI{R wtll not be rillltad"4. P/rJuft:{rlconstilfit* i Plntt+:k's (onstafl7r h : ti-63 x lFil .LS,

V*'lotity oJ' ttiltl\c = 3 x .l 0d m/s,Fetntittititl of Fatuun4,6a: f.85 x ItrI3 F/m.Elect.ron ttlilqs, tfl= 9,1! x t?"rt kg,Elel,I'ron drra'rge, e = I-d x I[Ie C,flpogatlra's ttilnzhq;r, Na = 6-035 x llff,l&nzCIleIloltzmau.u ctttt,tlilnlt h =1.38 x lfir ilK,

ITART _ A

I a. Choose the correct flnriiv*rs tirr the f,r:llowing :

i) Wien's distrihutiorr law'cxphins Lrlack body radiation spectrum r:nlv fi:rA) entire speotrunrC) shnrter wavE, length

B) l,onger wave hnHlhD) none of thes+

ii) de Broglie wave Iength of an electron accelerflted hy fi potential of I00 V is

A) 0,t11226 nnr B) (),1226 flm C) 1.236 nm D) 12.1.6 nntiii) Phase velocity uf the mettsr wave is

r\) = Vpsrticte El) { Vprruirtr. C) } Vper:ich D) : 3 \",r,ticl.'iv) The nron:entum r)f a fi'ee particle oartying onrrrgy Ii and trritss tn is

A) 2 nit-: a) JzrtxE c) ?tfiE- Dl n:)E2 (il4 illrrks]Explain Plarck's distrilrution larv. ' 0.{ Ivlarks)

Explain phnsc ',,sItsity and group velor:ily. Derive the rulation lretrryeen thcm. (08 klnrk.c)

A neutroil has rvave lengrhof 0,166 n:tt. Fitrd thp fi'ee erlergyand velocitv of the de Brogliclrave. Mass of neutron i5 m, = 1.67fJ x 10-27 kg,

7 lt. Choose the corrcct anslr/Ers lor thc following :

i) t he first permhted eigen cnergy is called

A) first levcl cnrrgy E) zero ;mint encrgyC) maxfunurn Energy Dj uone of thcs*

ii) The ampliturie of the cigr.rn furnction +f particle tr*pped in infinitc potertial rvell ol

^r v (.tL|-

and rnon:cntu11

-",' 4n

C) 10'2s m

iir) Tltc produc,t of uncmtainty betwe.en p0sition and

width'a' is given by[;tr"Aj+ B)+

{d 4t

h^J L .:_

$n

hut< -L1t

({)4 Mnrksj

,J

D) i.

rn ish

l)t < --.,,-6u

D) I0-{5 ni{04 h{rrr.ksi

iv) TLu i.lirruralcr ul[lr,: tru,;lcu.: is ofth$ ordcr:

A) l0'a rn Bj l0-r5 nr

I qrf 4

-l

FElll'l I l.rTll E:dFll,1 EELLiHUt-l

2b.c,

d.

Frl(l t'irl. : Etlr-134 :rEll41 15 lrr c. JEl1! E=: SrtHt.l

06t HYt?122

Shorv that the electrons cannot exist in the nuclcus of tn atoln. (05 Mnrksi

l$et up the timc independcnt Schroditlgtr's lvave B(luatitril. 106 Mnrkr)

Ari eicctron is bouni in one dimensional box of rvittth 0, td rrm. Find the Energy valu*"s in thc

gfound state and firsl trvo exsilcd states. 1{)i Jllnrks)

3 *. Clioos(l the c.orrcct answers tlir the follolving I

l) Sipecitic hent of I rnole of e leotrorr gas under constant volunre is

ii) lermi energy of a nrctal at 0'T{ deperttls on

A) kinetic cnergy nf eluctronC) constunt

h

a, Choose the correct answers tirr the follorving :

i) Thr unit of tlipr.rle momeut/uttit volume isA) coulomb/metretl) coulornb/ntetres

A ) pnlar dieler,trit( i) mixturc nt hoth

itrrfly,d, Whst is the polarization prr.rduced il },lr+Cl by

dicleotrio constant of 5.7?

c) 3R o) +R

B) potential cncrgy t:l"clc{tronD) nr:rnher c,f liro olectrons/uirit v+ltirtte

A} AR B)4

iv) Flcair nleuLriu ullr'..t ir tlt* ptttJu.:ti*n uf thctrioity, ;1r'

A ) chrmicol effcct R) vtrlYiflg field Ll) tetrrperaturc

b, E:iplain tho prnportlao of ftrrrrnr,grrcliu rriirt,.'t lf,llfl. lrc,rlvc rhn nrtprot*tlrrrr /irr irrkr16rl l;trld ;'r liqttrrll ,1rr,J 'l*li/'l'l

D)'t'

B) coulomb/rnel.rclD) coulonrb

ll) inrlrplndrfltq[I

Bi nqn pqlur rlielectrioftJ nrrrli r,r I I lirtllrt:

D) pressuru{tl4 ivlnrhs)

{0,1 illlrlrt)tirr nnr dhnnnlnnol rInmil;

(08 lvkr hs)

irn slc,rtt:is t'ield ot' 5ir0 Vinrnt lf it hos(04 Llnrks)

iiil Resistivity of s nrelalwith tenrp*rature variEs as

A) 1'' B)',r' c) 'r5

ivj ldeal rcsistivity docs not depend uponA) tempcral.ure B) jnter atomic spooing

C) inrpuritl D) lattir:e def'est (0{ Mrrrks)

Elucidate thc difl'erence between classirral f'rer elcctron theory &nd Llritrtulrr fiee elec{.ron

theory, (06 [tf,rks)Detirre ilensity of states. De rive the cxpressitin for density of states, (I0lvlxt'ks)

iD Monoatomic gas atom is placcd in n unifornr eleclric field E, thtn the rerultinginduced diptrlenronrent is proportiurrirl to

A)E D)r' 0E'iii) In a dielcctrio, the orientation polarization is exltibitcd by

FARE_ B

5 a, Chaos+ thc correct itnswers tor ilrt following r

i) Thc transition of ar storn botween two ersrgy levels in whioh trvrr rxrhr.:rent phntonl;

are' enritte.d is called

A) induced absorption B) spontaneous clltissic,nL1) stimulated smissiol D) population inversion

2 of4

I

r

54.

O6PHY1?I??

ii) The cistribulion of nurnber oI ittoms in ditfsrcnt '1isc:'ete El]clgy $tr'ies is g$vcrued h'r'

A)Fsruri-Diracdistrihutiorr "'*'ilift'*rvuil-Boitzrnaun'tistrit'ution

liiffi'ilie-in distrilrtrti'rn rJ) Norre uf tlrese

iii) ;ffi;r= "'i'''aon*;t are used in Hc'-l'lr laser to rrlrtain

A) coherent ttgnt B) tnu-troclutrmstic light

c.) poivertul iight rii-polarizeri Iight

iv)Thewavelengthofligl'rtlitltrrasr:t:lictrtrdrtc'tu*l***'igplopolriollalto

A) E* B) (F,*)' t' +; '') (E:f ^ ,.(0{ }Irrks)

l]etlrtce the expressitrn tbr cflcrgy density using Eirrstein's cr:cffitients iu:d show that

prol-.ability of incluced ah';;p;i";lJ -:::'].P.til[t1[ili':;of *ti'1"ltt:tl emission' {t)t} rvr''ks)

wfth a ne*r diagram, exploin rhe cuns,'1,rcti",i ;;J;*;[ing olHe-Ne l+sr't' i.E Msrkrib.

c

6a"

t1'

d.

7 i1.

Choose the cotr*ct arr$wers tbr the lbllorving-:

i) Relow trsnsition;il;;; ='n*lnir"tors helravo like p*tfcct'

A)ttituregnetEB)puratrrngnrts-C)fertotil0gnetsD)feninragnetsii) i?li,lrj"{?tt devices thait can dcrict verv small chitrrges ilir/

r.i*r..t,i, n*rd,-oo :

- "" HiX]i',X1ii,ff,1-

C) gtavi[rtit'r'ul fi tlt] I

iil) Numl'rer of modes trtnsrnrltetl by an optieal fibre is proportional t'"

A) r " "-"iii";- c) riL ni l/I:

iv) Onc of the reasons of "licn"tiun

in optical lilrer'r is

A) refraction " 'nlrJtteotin., ^ --.'il abs*r}:tion D) itttt#,ftat'fi*rr-*i

Exulain briefly the UCS theory of supe rcutiluoiivity' --: {06 Marks)

Desffiire rhe dilferent iypcs of opticRl fibre's 'uiih '*'' pt'opagetiorr anrl reiractiveJ:ii;

profltle diagrams' -r,r ( .rE/l.*r riJlrrt is tlre riu[Dut pow*cf if the irrput pon'e't'is

An oori,:al fibcr han itltcnuoticn of L5 rlB/km' What is tlre t:utput po

l0 rllw and thc fih* i;;0{i0 nr long? {tl4lvlrrhs)

Chousc the cor'rcrlt auslvcrs ihr the folkrwing :

r) A plane has intercepts at a, |, -ic in a uriit cell.'l'hc r:riller intluces rrf{irc p1*ne itre

A)(l 32) B)(261) C) ('1 6t) D)(l 13)

ir) fi. n*,rrUit of lattlct' pointt in a prinritivc cell are

A) I ts) li? Lr) ? D)'liz

iii) tlir* coo.ainatiorr numUii;,'1tr1 **tt otsiunf;lUii'r irvslrrl $tructu;';sl

b.

rv) r lre numher utu,,,l*"|.il,jr P'o,"rit irr tlru unit {cil0f rrr.rdium chloride il

A) 5 E) 2 c) 4 D) No,e ?.,ltli;:-,,

Define: i) pauki*g fitcr.r aird -ii)

coo:d]I1l:113,:,::"' Calculatc tlre packirrs llTll-ill

l*f.:i]Jk.. **fi,,-11-::i;ll*lii,T::'.lt'T; maki inrerc'prs in rhe ratio 3a:4rr cttt

x ancl v sxes afld, *- p*J-iio 'i*i" o' i'" * u*in[primitive vtsctors of thc lattice'(04 N!rrks)

Lliri:';'

c,

3 oll'{

06PIIYl2122

8a, Choosc the comect Arlswers for the tbllowing I

i) t-Jnder scaling, self inductancr ofr,:oil ii proportionaltoA) L' B) r-cj r,3 D) indepcndent of scalirrg

ii) [.Jnder scaling 0urrcnt density is propt-rrtionaltoA) I". - -e.) LC) L-' D) Inrlepenoent of scalingiit) Aeco^rding to electromagneLic .rcsling laws current is proportionalroA) L' B) L' C) r. i:) r--,

b.

c.

l:,l

II

d.

iv) Nano-materials are thcrornodynamicallf inA) stablc state Bi unutat:le ,ltateC) rncta stable stale D) none of lhese , itd Msrks)

Write a note on carbsn nano tubc anri mrntion thoir application. (04 M'rkn)What is acoustic grating? With a neat diagram, oxplain the dcterminati+n of velooity of

H[::i#:,::J:',*]#,r:]:lfir*'#lit-n, borrr sready srare and rirne depenrien*,y,1:X,T"'u-]q04 Marlrc)

***rklk

4 of4

USN

B) Piers and AbutmentsD) Arches

B) Non-coplanar concurrentD) Coplanar concurrent

06c1v1,3123

(04 Marks)(06 Marks)(06 Marks)

(04 Marks)

(,)o(,)

oo!

ox

de

,.ooo Ll

Eco;t.=N

:i bOYo()tr-coo>?-

d:

oc)(do

b0e

>€,6

'EaOE?osQ-

o-t

o=aaE€C!o

>,!bovcooo=o. Ai

o-

U<-i c.i

ooZ

1J

aE

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, December 2Ol2Elements of Givil Engineering and Engineering Mechanics


Note: l. Answer uny FIW full questions, choosing at least two from each part.2. Answer att objective type questions only on OMR sheet page 5 of the onswer booklet.3. Answer to objective type questions on sheets other thon OMR will not be valued.

PART _ A1 a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) The part of civil engineering which deals with water supply is called as

A) Sanitary Engineering B) Structural EngineeringC) Geotechnical Engineering D) Water supply engineeringThe structure that separates roads into separate lanes is calledA) Kerb B) Median C) Road margin D) CamThe upstream side of a damA) Arch dams B) Gravity dams C) Earth dams

iv) Bridges are supported onA) RoadwayC) Wing wall

What are the infrastructure related projects?Explain how a country would prosper by infrastructural developments.Mention the advantages and disadvantages of "Bow-string girder bridges"

2 a. Choose your answers lbr the following :

i) The force system which has same line of action and lie in same plane is known as

ii)

iii) \1".\*-r1,>,'D) Reservoir\\-*;: iy'

b.

c.d.

A) Coplanar collinearC) Non-coplanar non concurrent

b. State and explain principle of transmissibility.c. Define continuum, rigid body, point fine and particle.d. Determine the tension in each chain if a weight of

shown in Fig.Q.2(d).

ii) A body that does not deform when subjected to external fotce is calledA) Flexible body B) Elastic body C) Rigid body D) Plastic body

ii1) The force is characterized byA) its magnitude B) its direction

iv) A couple consists ofC) its line of action D) All the above

A) Two like parallel forces of same magnitudeB) Two like parallel forces of different magnitudeC) Two unlike parallel forces of same magnitudeD) Two unlike parallel forces of different magnitude.


1000N is supported by two chains as

(08 Marks)

I

I

\oFig.Q.2(d)

lt'6D ol

06cIv13/23

(04 Marks)3 a. Choose your answers for the following :

i) Number of forces acting simultaneously on a bodyA) May be replaced by a single force B) may not be replaced by a single forceC) may be replaced by a couple D) None ofthe above

ii) When two forces is of magnitude P act at right angles to each other, the resultant willbe

A)P B)P Q)ID

Coplanar forces means

A) forces in different planes

C) forces are zeroCollinear forces means

A) forces are parallel to each otherC) forces are in same line

B) forces in a planeD) forces are non concurrent

B) forces are imaginaryD) None of the above

B) Centre of gravityD) None of the above

,r# D) 2P

D) Same

D) Medians

iii)

iv)

b. Determine the resultant of three forces acting on a hook shown in Fig.Q.3(b). (06 Marks)

c. A dam is subjected to the forces as shown in Fig.Q.3(c). Determine the resultant and locateits point of application with base of the dam. (10 Marks)

4 a. Choose your answers for the following : (04 Marks)i) Point where the entire mass of a body may be assumed to be concentrated is known as

A) Moment of inertiaC) Radius of gyration

A) Sidesiv) All axes of symmetry are

A) Centroidal axes

C) Inclines axes

For practical purposes, centre of gravity and centre of mass are assumed to beA) Different B) Zero C) Absolute

iir) For a triangle, centroid is the point of intersection ofB) Base line C) Vertex

B) Perpendicular axes

D) None of the aboveb. Determine the centre of gravity of a semicircle by the method of integration. (06 Marks)

Fig.Q.3(b)

lro Bd

I

2*r4

ir 6ra+-

----r1Fig.Q.3(c)

2of4

YLocate the center of gravity of the lamina shown in Fig.Q.a(c).

l&--'l

Fig.Q.a(c)

i<- *n

PART _ B5 a. Choose your answers for the following :

D A resultant can replace _ forces in a system in effect

c.

A) Somec) All

A) Free body diagramC) Vector diagram

B) NILD) None ofthe above

B) Space diagramD) None of the above

B) EquilibrantD) None ofthe above

a6crvt3l23

(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D) None of the above

1lLo

ii) A diagram showing isolated body indicating all the forces is known as

iil) The force equal and opposite to resultant is called as

A) Resultant forceC) Similar force

6a.

iv) If three forces act on a particle, in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to _of the angle included between other two forcesA) cos B) tan C) sine D) cot

b. Mention the conditions of static equilibrium for different force systems. (04 Marks)c. A body weighing 2000N is suspended by a chain AB-2 nrt long. If its pulled by horizontal

force of 320N, determine the force in the chain and determine whether point B is inequilibrium under the action of three forces. Refer Fig.Q.5(c). (12 Marks)

Fig.Q.s(c)

3z4N

2tytru s/


J\

r"? 'r

I iit"t!t'*e/'

i4'Mu rks)i) The number of reactions components in a hinged end of a beam are

A) 2 B)3i, UDL stands for

A) uniform dead loadC) uniform diameter load

iii) A determinate beam can have maximum unknownsA)2 B)3

c)1

c)1

B) uniform door loadD) uniformly distributed load

iv) A cantilever beam is one in which _A) One end is fixed and other freeB) One end is fixed and other simply supportedC) Both ends roller supportedD) None ofthe above.

3 of 4

./tt/*YE!

D)4

2ott\0 \<s t

b. Determine the support reactions for the beam shown in Fig.Q.6(b).

Fig.Q.6(b)c' Determine the reactions for the beam loaded as shown in Fig.Q.7(c).

#- J^t+' '-2Fig.Q.6(c)


i) The value of coefficient of friction should not be more thanA)2 B)4

06crYt3l23

(08 Marks)

(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)

c) 1 D) 0.25as the normal force between the bodiesii) The maximum force of friction

increases.A) decreasesFriction force is a

B) remain constant C) increases

C) normal force

B) Parallel axis theoremD) None ofthe above

c)b4,?,6

c) *o

D) multiplies

D) collinear forceA) tangential force B) Axial forceiv) Friction is _ to the contact surface between bodies

A) Parallel B) PerpendicularC) tangential D) None of the above

b. Prove that the angle of friction is equal to angle made by an inclined plane with horizontalwhen a solid body, placed on inclined plane is about to slide down. (06 Marks)

c. A ladder 5m long, 250N weight is placed against a vertical wall inclined at 30o to thevertical. A man of 800N weight climbs the ladder. At what position will he induce slipping?Coefficient of friction is 0.2 for all contact surfaces.


(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)i) The moment of inertia of a plane figure about an axis parallel to reference axis can be

found by usingA) Perpendicular axis theoremC) Both A and B

ii) Radius of gyration of a plane lamina about x-x axis isB) Ix:/A

D r"/^,

iil) Moment of inertia of a square of side 'b' about an axis through its centroid isA) b4 n2 B) br8

A) sqrt (Ixx/A)

c) */"tx

iv) Unit of second moment of area isA)m B) m'

D)b3tn

D) -'b. Determine the moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis passing through center

and perpendicular to the plane of the paper. (08 Marks)c. Determine the second moment of area of a 'T' section about horizontal centroidal axis if

flange is 100mm x 20mm, total depth of section is 100mm. Web is 20mm thick (08 Marks)

J&g&J

A ^CA

USN 06ELEL5l25

(08 Marks)

effect on(08 Marks)

(04 Marks)a.

(.)oo(!

()

d)!

oX

-o--{J

=*

!?=-- .-c>a_^D7.=oa=

oa)

b0i9=>d

Jd)

o;

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= olJ

o=*otr>=a9Lo

t<*alo

Z

o

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, January 2013Basic Electrical Engineering


Note:/. Answer FIVE .full questions choosing at leust two from euch part.2. Answer ull objective type questions only in OMR sheet puge 5 of the Answer Booklet.

3. Answers to objective lype questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued.

PART - Aa. Choose the correct answer : (04 Marks)

i) For a given circuit of 1OkQ. a potential difference of l00V is applied. If the voltage is trebledand circuit resistance is increased by four times, the value of current isA) 10A B) 7.5 mA C) O A

ii) The unit of magneto motive force (MMF) isD) 7.sA

A) Ampere B) No. of turns C) Volf - ampere D) Ampere turnsiii) The unit of statically induced emf is volts, then the unit of dynamically induced emf is

A) Watts B) Webers C) Volts D) Volt - ampereiv) Two resistances 4.4dr, 10.5f2 are connected in parallel, the circuit is energized by l00V

supply. The current flowing through 10.5O resistor isA) 204 B) 9.2s1' c) z5A D) 8.92mA

In a Series - Parallel circuit shown in fig. Q1(b), findi) The voltage drop across 4Cl ii) Supply voltage.

lru 5dv,

{ egl*TftiiT;?""

Fig.Q1(b) SJL

a.

Define the coefficient of coupling. Derive the equation formagnetic circuit.

Choose the correct answer :

A) ChokeC) Induction motor

i) Which of the following devices work at unity power factorA) Induction motor B) Electric Iron C) Fluorescent lamp D) Condenser bank

iD The equation of an alternating current is given by i : 42.42 Sin 314t. The form factor is

A) 1.414 B) 3.1414 c) 1.1r r D) 4.44iii) Two impedances Zt: (150 + j 157)O ,Zz: (100 - j I l0)Q are connected in parallelacross

220Y ,50H2 supply. The power factor of circuit is

A) 0.978 lead B) 0.707 lag C) 0.707 lead D) 0.637 leadiv) Power factor of AC circuit can be improved by connecting

B) Synchronous motorD) Fluorescent lamp

b. Obtain the expression for instantaneous voltage, current, power, power factor in case ofseries R-L-C circuit by considering all three cases Xl > Xc, Xl < Xc, Xl : Xc. Draw neatphasor diagrams in all 3 cases. (10 Marks)

c. When a voltage represented by e : 100 sin (314t + 200) volts is applied to a series R-Lcircuit, the power absorbed is 800 watts and power factor is 0.7. Find R &L and write down

.7,r. AF/#Y's/

the expression for current. (06 Marks)

a. Choose the correct answer :

i) In a star connected system, the relationship between line current and phase curent is

A) L: Ji \n B) r;: rpr, c) lL:0.707 lpr, D) IL: J;ii) Two wattmeters connected in a balanced system indicates 4.5kW, -0.5kW. What is the

power factor of circuit?A) 0.4193 B) 0.707 C) Unity D) 0.963

iii) A balanced star connected load of(8 +j6) O per phase is connected to a 3 phase 440Vsupply. The line current is

A) 2s4.03A B) 2s.4034 c) 103.3A D) 33.334iv) The total reactive power consumed by 3 phase load is given by

06ELE1s/2s

(04 Marks)


(04 Marks)

(08 Marks)(04 Marks)(04 Marks)

(04 Marks)

b. Derive an expression for the power factor of a 3 phase balanced load in terms of two wattmeterreadings. Also, draw the phasor diagram. (08 Marks)

c. Two wattmeters, W1 & Wz are used for measurement of power in a balanced 3 phase circuit.

A) e : JT,lvl.lrlc) Q: "6,lvl lrl sin4

Fusins current

Rated current

A) Shunt generatorC) Differently compound generator

B) Q: O,lvlxlrlcosgD) Q: Jj,lvlxlll cosg

D) None of these

B) Earth Inductance circuit breakerD) None of these

B) High Rupturing capacityD) H-resistanc'e-C

D) Energy

B) Dynamically induced emfD) None of these

B) Series generatorD) None ofthese

d.

a.

What is the power factor when i) P\ :zPZ ii) P2: -P2?List the advantages of 3 phase system over single phase system.

Choose the correct answer :

D Fusing factor is defined as the ratio ofFusing current

Fusing voltage

c) Fusing voltage

Fusing resistance

ii) ELCB stands forA) Earth leakage circuit breakerC) Voltage inductance circuit breaker

iii) The acronym for HRC fuse isA) High Resistance capacitanceC) High rupturing capacitive

iv) Energy meter is used to measureA) Current B) Voltage C) Power

b. Explain the construction and working of a I $ induction type Energy meter.c. What is Earthing? Why is it necessary?d. Draw the neat sketch of pipe earthing and label parts.

B)

PART - Ba. Choose the correct answer :

D A lap connected d-c machine has 8 pole, 960 armature conduction, flux pole is 62 mwb,driver at a speed of 1000 rpm, Emf generated isA) 992 volts B) 1992 volts

ii) The e.m.f generated in DC generator is of typeA) Statically induced emfC) Induced emf

C) 2992 volts D) 192 volts

iii) The starting current of DC motor can be controlled to safe value by usingA) Wattmeter B) Starters C) Fuse

iv) For charging of batteries, the type of generator used is

) nf A

D) Multimeter

b.

c.

06ELE15/25

Derive an e.m.f equation of DC generator. List the factors on which e.m.f of d.c generator

depends. (06 Marks)

A 250V d.c. shunt motor on no load runs at 1000 rpm and takes 5,A. The total armature circuitand shunt field resistance are O.2e-,zs}Qrespectively. Calculate the speed when loaded and

taking a current of 50A, if armature reaction weakens the field by 3%. Assume the contact drop

of lV at each brush.


i) The eddy current loss in a transformer is minimized by using

A) Solid core B) Laminated core C) Plastic core

ii) The copper loss in a transformer is

A) Cu loss: J*iottC) Cu loss : core loss

A) N,: l2of kw B) *,= #

A) 6 to 7 times rated FLC) 20 times FL

B) Coreloss: JCrrt"*, D) None of these

c) *,= + D)

B) 2 times rated FLD) None of these

(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D) None of these

(06 Marks)

(10 Marks)

(04 Marks)

G.Ns : !''

4P

(04 Marks)

(04 Marks)

D)4

D) None of these

A) Variable loss B) Fixed loss C) Stray loss D)

iii) Efficiency of a transformer is maximum only when

iv) The rating of transformer is measured tn

A) kw C) KVARb.

A) KW 15) KV A W) l\ v Af\. rr) ,V r\ " ^ 'lI_::_,'_J-

With usual rotations, derive the EMF equation of a transformer. Write turns ratio and voltaSeB) kvA

ratio equations.

c. Find the efficiency of 150 KVA l0 transformer at :

D Full load iD 50%offull load,iftheCulossatfull loadisl600Wandironlossisl400W.iii) Why the efficiency of practicaltransformer is typically greater than960/o.


iii) Voltage regulation of an alternator is negative forA) Inductive load B) Capacitive load C) Resistive load

iv) The synchronous generator rotates at synchronous speed

i) Alternators driven at low speeds by prime movers like water turbine will have rotor of type

A) Non salient pole B) Salient pole C) Cylindrical D) None of these

ii) For alternators using high speed turbines, the number of rotor poles required to generate

electricity at 5OHz is

A)2 B)4 c)6 D) s0

D) None of these

b. With usual notation, derive the EMF equation of alternator. List the assumptions while arriving

the equation. (08 Marks)

c. Define the voltage regulation of alternator? Why the terminal voltage of alternator decreases

with load. List the reasons. (04 Marks)

d. A l2 pole, 500 rpm. star connected alternator has 60 slots, with 20 conductors per slot. The fluxper pole is 0.02 Wb and is distributed sinusoidally. The winding factor is 0.93. Calculate

i) Frequency ii) Phase emf iii) Line emf.


i) At the time of starting, induction motor draws current about

ii) When the I.M. is not located the slip can be approximatelyA) Zero B)2 c)3

iii) When the I.M. is loaded, the rotor tends to retard more so that slip

A) Increases B) Remains constant C) Decreases

,-r--:-'..-=-.Steady .legs.g*;,:))

06ELE15/25

iv) A 3 phase, 50H2,6 pole I.M. has a fulI load percentage slip of 3%. The synchronous speedis

A) 2000 rpm B) 1000 rpm C) 100 rpm D) l0 rpmb. Why starters are required for induction motors? With neat sketch, explain the working of Star -

Delta starter used with 3 phase I.M. (08 Marks)c. The power input to a 3 phase I.M. is 50kW and comesponding stator losses are 2kW.

i) Calculate the total mechanical power developed and rotor Cu loss when slip in3Yoii) The output horse power of the motor if the friction and windage loss are lkWiii) Efficiency of the motor. (08 Marks)

A.nfA

| ,,;r

USN

06cIP18/28

Question Paper Version : B

Time: 2 hrs.]

First/Second Semester B.E Degree Examination, January 2Ol3Constitution of India and Professional Ethics

(coMMohl ro ALL BRANCHES)

[Max. Marks-;

1.

.,

J.

INSTRUCTIO]\S TO THE CANDIDATES

Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries ONE mark.

Use only Black batl point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

For each question, a{ter selecting your answer, darken the appropria}e::tirCke


Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

prohibited.

4.

5.

2.

J.

1. What is the age of retirement of the judges of the Supreme Court?a) 62years b) 65 years c) 60 years d) 58 years

The state emergency can be promulgated by the president of India on the ground ofa) Constitutional crisis in the state (Breakdown of constitution4l machinery in the state)

b) Waging of war by foreign countryc) Natural calamity in the state d) Internal disturbance

The concept of 'Judicid Review' is borrowed froma) U.K b) u.s.A c) U.S.S.R d) Switzerland

4. Which of the following is not the function of the election commission?a) Allotting symbols to political parties b) Framing of code of conduct for election

c) Selection of candidates for election d) Preparation of electoral rolls

5. Who is empowered to amend any Provisions of the Constitution Under Art. 368?

a) Parliamentc) Law Minister

Literal meaning of 'Quo Warranto' isa) to commandc) you may have the body

7. Who is the Constitutional head of the state government?

b) Presidentd) Cabinet headed by Prime Minister

b) on what authority?d) to quash the decision of lower court

a) President b) Governor

-B1-

c) Chief Minister d) Prime Minister

06cIP18/288. Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed by the constitution under Article 19 is

subject to reasonable restrictions on the ground ofa) protection of SCs and STs b) sovereignty and integrity of India

c) securing the dignity of the office of Prime Minister d) none of these

Which one is not included under Directive Principles of State Policy?

a) To protect and improve the environment, and to safeguard forests and wildlifeb) To bring about prohibition of consumption of intoxicating liquorc) To take stringent measures to eliminate corruption

d) To provide Free and Compulsory education to the children upto the age of 14 years.

Which provision under Part - IV provides for the encouragement of settlement ofinternational disputes by arbitration?a) Art.44 b) Art. 39 c) Art. 51 d) tut. s0

11. The writ of 'mandamus' will not be issued against

a) President of Indiac) Administrative authorities

b) Prime Minister of India, d) Tribunal

12, What is the term of the members of Rajya Sabha?

a) 5 years b) 6 years c) 4 years d) 3 years

Who is presiding over the Joint-Session ofthe Parliament?

a) Prime Minister b) President c) Speaker of Loka Sabha d) Law Minister

One of the Tests to be adopted for the classification People into categories under Article

14 isa) intelligible differentia b) intelligent quotient c) age d) caste

'Creamy Layef relating to reservation of public employment means.

a) Highly - educated persons b) Highly cultured persons

c) Persons having higher annual incomes d) Public servants having top

The protection to criminals under AIt. 2.0,'No person shall be prosecuted

for the same offence more than once" isa) Ex-Post facto law b) Self-Incrimination c) Double Jeopardy d) Capital punishment

Who is empowered to promulgate an ordinance at the centre when there is no session?

a)Speaker bf fot Sabha b)Prime Minister c)President of India d)Vice President of India

Under which schedule the distribution of legislative powers are enumerated in India

constitution?ul i.n i"fe 10th b) Schedule 9th c) Schedule 5th d) Schedule 7th

Which article under the constitution gives power to Election Commission to conduct

elections?a) 234

20. By what Amendment,compulsory?

9.

10.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

posts

and punished

b)320 c)324 d) 368

child education between the ages of 06 and 14 years is made

a) 42'd Amendment,lgT6c) 68th Amendment,2000

b) 86th Amendment,2002d) 44th Amendment,l9l8

21. The main objectives and values of the constitution have been enshrined in

a) Fundamental rightsc) directive principles of state policy

b) fundamental dutiesd) preamble of the constitution.

-B2-

India is called a 'Republic' becausea) The people of India are sovereign.b) In India, the head of the nation is elected by the people for a fixed term.c) The Prime Minister who is the head of the cabinet is elected by the people.d) India is the union of states.

What is the source of politicaVdemocratic power in India?a) People b) Constitution c) Parliament d) King dynasty.

24. Which of the following Act made the Indian legislature bicameral for the first time?

23.

a) Indian councils Act, 1909c) Government of India Act, 1935

a) Berubari casec) Keshvananda Bharathi case

a) Article 39,A' and Part-IVc) Article 21 A and Part-III

a) 24 hotrs excluding joumey hoursc) 24 hotxs including journey hours

b) Govemment of India Act,l9l9d) Indian independence Act, 1947 -

b) Golaknath case

d) Menaka Gandhi case.

b) Article 51A and Part-IV Ad) None of these.

b) 48 hoursd) one month.

06cIP18/28

remedy to protect the

d) Articles 226 &.32.

25. Who among the followings was appointed as the Chairman of the drafting committee ofthe constitution?a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) M.N. Roy c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Jawaharlal Nehru.

26. In which case did Supreme Court hold that the preamble was apart of the constitution?

27. Under which article and part of the constitution the fundamental duties are enshrined?

28. The Parliament has enacted a law to prohibit 'child labour'a) Article 15 b) Article i6 c) Article 23

'Right to life and personal liberty' includes right toa) Move freely anywhere within the territory of India.b) Practice any profession or to caryon any trade or business.c) Privacy.

Who is the present nominal head of the nation?a)Shri.Pranab Mukharjee b)Smt.Prathiba Patil c)Dr.Manmohan

Pi"gh d)Smt.Sonia Gandhi

The main objective of the directive principles of state policy is to establisha) Welfare state in India b) Federal state c) Capitalist state d) Hindu state.

A person who has been arrested to be produced before the court/magistrate within

31.

32.

29.

30.

33.

34.

Which provisions of the constitution provides constitutionalfundamental rights of the citizens in India?a) Articles 15 &,16 b) Articles 29 &.30 c) Articles 20 &.21

One of the impediments to discharge the responsibility by engineers isa) Ego - centric tendencies b) Cooking c) With holding information d) Ambiguity.

Professional Ethics meansa) Set if rules relating to personal character. b) Set of moral standards of profession.c) Depth knowledge in the field of profession. d) Set of regulations framed by engineering

colleges.

-Ri-

35.

06crP18/2836. A new technology in the field of any profession is intimately connected with

a) Good work b) Honesty c) Risk d) Penalty.

37. Who appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the High court?a) Prime Minister b) Law Minister c) President d) Governor

38. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?a)Z b) t2 c)20 d) 10

39. In which of the House motion of no confidence against the government can only beintroduced and passed?

a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Cabinet d) None of these

40. The use of intellectual property of others without propff permission is known asa) Trimming b) Dishonesty c) Plagiarism d) Forging

41. Who has the Power to Pardon the death punishment of a criminal?a) President b) Prime Minister c) Attorney General of India d) Chief Justice of India

42. Who has the power to certiff the money bill?a) Speaker of Lok Sabha b) Chairman of Rajya Sabhac) President of India d) Auditor and Comptroller - General of India.

43. How many members are nominated by the President of India to Lok Sabha under a specialProvisions of the constitution from Anglo - Indian Community?a) 40 b)20 c) 12 d)2

44. Which bill can be introducdd only in Lok Sabha with prior recornmendations of thePresident of India?a) ordinary bill b) Bill relating to impeachment of cJIc) Money bill d) Constitution Amendment bill

45. The President of India is elected by "Electoral College" consisting ofa) Elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and members of legislative assemblies.b) Only the members of Parliament (LS & RS).c) All the adult people of India. ,

d) All the elected members of central legislature and state legislature including MLCs.

46. The country almost loses its federal structure and becomes unitary in form duringa) State emergency b) Financial emergency c) National emergency d) All of these

47. The voting right of the citizens in India starts from the age ofa) 2l years b) 25 years c) 30 years d) 18 years

48. To pass the bill for constitutional amendment under article 368, the procedure is rigid.because it requires the approval bya) ll3'd majority of the member of parliament b) 213'd majorrtyc) All the members present and voting d) Half of the strength ofparliament

49. What is the minimum age to become the members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?a)30 years &25 years b)21 years & 18 years c)35 years & 30 years d)25 years & 35 years

50. Who was the fust woman nominated member of the Rajya Sabha?a)Indira Gandhi b)Smt.Prathibha Patil c)Smt.Sarojini Naidu d)Smt.RukminiDevi Arundale

{<d<r<*r<

-84-

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