HINDUSTANI MUSIC VOCAL (CODE – 034) CLASS – XII

SESSION – 2020-21 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

हिन्दसु्तानी संगीत गायन (कोड – 034) कक्षा – XII

Multiple Choice Questions

बिुवैकल्पिक प्रश्न

Time - 2 hrs. Max. Marks : 30 समय - 2 घंटे अधिकतम अंक - 30 Attempts any of 15 Question all are of Equal Marks :

निम्िलिखित प्रश्ि में से ककन्हं 15 के स्ह उतर दहजिये.... Multiple Choice Questions :

Tick any 15 (fifteen) correct answers from the following questions 1x15=15 All questions carry equal marks.

Part – A

िंड - अ

प्रशि ि. 1 “संगीत पाररिात” ग्रनथ की रचिा ककसिे की ? उतर : (क) प० अ्ोबि (ि) प० स्वालमिाथ (ग) मतंग मुनि (घ) प० ओमकार िाथ

प्रशि ि. 2 शरद ऋतु में कौि सा राग गाया िाता ्ै ? उतर : (क) राग भैरव (ि) राग ह्डंोि (ग) राग मािकौंस (घ) राग वनृदाविी सारंग

प्रशि ि. 3 प्रात: काि के ककन्ह दो सजनि प्रकाश रागों के िाम लििो I उतर : (क) राग भैरव एवं राग कालिगंडा (ि) राग मािकौंस (ग) राग भैरवी (घ) राग यमि

प्रशि ि. 4 रे और ि शुद्ि स्वर वािे राग कब गाये बिाये िाते ै्ं ? उतर : (क) प्रातः काि 8 से 10 बिे तक एवं रात्री 7 से 12 बि ेतक (ि) प्रातः काि 7 से 10 बिे तक एवं रात्री 7 से 10 बि ेतक (ग) प्रातः काि 4 से 7 बि ेतक एवं रात्री 4 से 7 बिे तक (घ) प्रातः काि 7 से 10 बिे तक एवं रात्री 7 से 10 बि ेतक

प्रशि ि. 5 सजनि प्रकाश राग ्ोिे के लिए ककस ववशषे िक्षण का ्ोिा आवश्यक ्ै ? उतर : (क) ि, प स्वर कोमि शुद्ि मध्यम (ि) रे, म स्वर कोमि शुद्ि ररषभ (ग) रे, ि स्वर कोमि और शुद्ि गांिार (घ) प, म स्वर कोमि और शुद्ि पंचम

प्रशि ि. 6 पूवव राग या “पूवाांगवादह” राग ककस समय गाये-बिाये िात े ै्ं ? उतर : (क) हदि के 9 बिे से रात के 11 बि ेके मध्य (ि) रात के 10 बिे से सुब् के 8 बिे के मध्य (ग) हदि के 8 बिे से रात के 9 बिे के मध्य (घ) हदि के 12 बिे से रात के 12 बिे के मध्य

प्रशि ि. 7 उतर राग या “उतरांगवादह” राग ककस समय गाये-बिाये िात े ै्ं ? उतर : (क) रात्री के 12 बिे से हदि के 12 बिे के मध्य (ि) रात्री के 10 बिे से हदि के 10 बिे के मध्य (ग) रात्री के 11 बिे से हदि के 9 बिे के मध्य (घ) रात्री के 6 बिे से हदि के 10 बिे के मध्य प्रश्ि ि. 8 अमीर िुसरो िे ककस शताब्दह में छोटे ख्याि की रचिा की ? उतर : (क) 15 वीं शताब्दह में (ि) 14 वीं शताब्दह में (ग) 17 वीं शताब्दह में (घ) 12 वीं शताब्दह में

प्रश्ि ि. 9 “िाट्यशास्त्र” के िेिक कौि ै्ं ? उतर : (क) शरद मुनि (ि) म्वषव व्यास (ग) भरत मुनि (घ) बबरिू म्ारि

प्रश्ि ि. 10 संगीत पाररिात गं्रथ में ककतिे रागों का उल्ििे लमिता ्ै ? उतर : (क) 110 रागों का (ि) 150 रागों का (ग) 125 रागों का (घ) 140 रागों का

प्रश्ि ि. 11 ककस काि में संगीत के घरािों की िींव पड़ी ? उतर : (क) यवि काि में (ि) मुग़ि काि में (ग) मध्य काि में (घ) रूद्र काि में

प्रश्ि ि. 12 इसमें से कौि से स्वर राग मािकौंस का आरो् ै्ं ? उतर : (क) सा, रे, ग, म, ि, नि, सा ं (ि) नि, सा, ग, म, ि, नि, सां (ग) नि, सा, ग, म, प, नि, सा ं (घ) सा, रे, ग, म, ि, नि, सा ं

प्रश्ि ि. 13 उस्ताद फैयाज़ िां का िनम कब और क्ााँ ्ुआ ? उतर : सि 1856 ई० में आगरा में सि 1875 ई० में आगरा में सि 1886 ई० में आगरा में सि 1894 ई० में आगरा में

प्रश्ि ि. 14 कृष्ण राव शंकर पंडडत का िनम कब और क्ााँ ्ुआ ? उतर : (क) 26 िुिाई, 1898 ई० को ग्वालियर में (ि) 17 अक्तूबर,1862 ई० को मेरठ में (ग) 11 माचव, 1905 ई० को बंगाि में (घ) 7 फरवरह,1827 ई० को वनृदावि में

प्रश्ि ि. 15 कौि से बोि ताि रूपक के ै्ं ? उतर : (क) िीं, िीं, िागे, नतरककट (ि) िा, िीं, िीं, िा (ग) नत, नत, िा, िी, िा (घ) िागे, िा, नतिक, िीं प्रश्ि ि. 16 राग मािकौंस का गायि समय क्या ्ै ? उतर : (क) सुब् का द्ववतीय प्र्र (ि) राबत्र का प्रथम प्र्र (ग) राबत्र का तीसरा प्र्र (घ) सुब् का तीसरा प्र्र

प्रश्ि ि. 17 राग मािकौंस उतरांग प्रिाि राग ्ै या पूवाांग प्रिाि राग ्ै ? उतर (क) पूवाांग प्रिाि (ि) उतरांग प्रिाि

प्रश्ि ि. 18 कृष्णराव शंकर पंडडत का िनम कब ्ुआ ? उतर : (क) 24 िुिाई सि, 1876 ई० (ि) 12 िुिाई सि, 1923 ई० (ग) 18 िुिाई सि, 1856 ई० (घ) 26 िुिाई सि, 1894 ई०

प्रश्ि ि. 19 कृष्णराव शंकर पंडडत के वपता िे ककस से लशक्षा प्राप्त की थी ? उतर : (क) बबरिू म्ारि (ि) तािसिे (ग) पंडडत भातिंडे (घ) ्दद ूिां और ित्थू िां से

प्रश्ि ि. 20 कृष्णराव शंकर पंडडत को भारत सरकार िे ककस सि में राष्रपनत पुरस्कार हदया ? उतर : (क) सि 1976 ई० में (ि) सि 1965 ई० में (ग) सि 1942 ई० में (घ) सि 1959 ई० में

प्रश्ि ि. 21 उस्ताद फैयाज़ िां का िनम कब और क्ााँ ्ुआ था ? उतर : (क) 1864 ई० में आगरा के लसकनदरा िामक स्थाि में (ि) 1886 ई० में आगरा के लसकनदरा िामक स्थाि में (ग) 1924 ई० में आगरा के लसकनदरा िामक स्थाि में (घ) 1901 ई० में आगरा के लसकनदरा िामक स्थाि में

Part - B

खंड – ब

ककन्हं तीि प्रश्िों के उतर लिखिए l सभी प्रश्िों के समाि अंक ै्ं l Answer any three questions all questions carry equal marks (5x3):

1. Define any three of the following:- (a) Khatka (b) Aalap (c) Meend (d) Gram निम्िलिखित से ककन्हं तीि को पररभावषत कीजिये । (a) िटका (b) आिाप (c) मींड (d) ग्राम

2. फैयाज़ िां और बड़े गुिाम अिह िां का िीवि पररचय एवं संगीत िगत में उिके योगदाि का संक्षक्षप्त वणवि कीजिये । Describe in brief the life sketch of Faiyaz Khan & Bade Gulam Ali Khan and their contribution to music.

अथवा Or

संगीत पाररिात और संगीत रत्िाकर ग्रनथ का संक्षक्षप्त वववरण दहजिये । Give a brief account of Sangeet Parijat and Sangeet Ratnakar.

3. झपताि की ठा्, दगुुि एवं चौगुि ताि लिवपवि कीजिये । Write Thah, dugun and Chaugun of Jhap Tala in Tala notation. 4. Recognize the Ragas from the following phrases of swaras and give a detailed description of any one of the identified Raga (a) Sa Ni Dha Ni Sa Ma, Ga Ma, Dha Ni Sa (b) Ni Sa Ga Ma Dh Ni Sa

राग प्चाि कर, इि में से ककसी एक का शास्त्रीय वववरण लिखिए । (अ) सा नि ि नि सा म, ग म, ि नि सां l

(ब) नि सा ग म ि नि सां l

5. तािपुरे को लमिािे की सम्पूणव ववधि को ववस्तार से लििें l Write in detail the method of tunning of taanpura.

Loreto Convent Tara Hall School

Sample Paper-2

Painting(Theory )(049)

Class XII

Time Allowed: 2Hr Max.Marks:30 All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks (2)

SECTION-FIRST

Q1. Mention the painting done by Nihal Chand of the kishangarh school of

art?

a) Radha(Bani Thani)

b) Krishna lifting mountain

c) Maru ragini

d) Krishna on Swing

Q2. To which school does radha and Krishna looking into a mirror belong

to?

a)Garhwal school of art

b) Mugal school of miniature painting

c) Rajesthani school of miniature painting

d) Deccan School of miniature painting

Q3. Mention the tiltle of painting done by painter Sahibdin in the year 1660

A.D.?

a) Radha ( B ani Thani)

b) Krishna on swing

c) Krishna With lifting mountain

d) Maru Ragini

Q4. In which painting the two princess are sitting at the back of two horses and

facing each other playing polo ?

a) Geeta Govinda

b) Ramayana

c) chaugan players

d) Rasikpriya

Q5. In which sub school the famous miniature Painting Raja Aniruddha singh

heera belong to ?

a) Bundi rajasthani

b) Gol Konda Sub School

c) Ahmednagar Sub School

d) Hyderabad Sub School

Q 6. Mention the title of the miniature painting done by Ustad mansoor ?

a) Ragini Pat- hansika

b) Chaugan players

c) Falcon on a bird rest

d) Marriage procession of Dara Shiroh

SECTION-SECOND

Answers to be written for each question is about 30 words

Q1 Evaluate the compositional of any three of the following in short -

a) Krishna with gopis

b) Radha and Krishna looking into a mirror

c) Krishna lifting mountain gowardhana

d) Chaugan Players

SECTION-THIRD

Q1 Identify any relevant painting of the bengal school of painting in your

course of studying comprising of the following features and explain that in

that painting accordingly.

a) It depicts the life of a commom man and his working condition during

british rule .

Q2 Which of the Bengal school of art you like the most? Write about the

style characteristics material etc of his/her work.

SECTION-FOURTH

General Instructions:- Answers to be written in about 200 words.

Q1 Write short notes on any two of the following

a) Radhika

b) Chand bibi playing polo

c) Woman face

d) Standing woman

SECTION-FIFTH

General Instructions:- Answers to be written in about 200 words.

Q1 Write an essay (In not more than 350 words) on any one of the following-

a) Kangra school of Paintings

b) Technique and trends of Indian art

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER 2 (2020-2021)

HISTORY (027) CLASS-XII

Time Allowed: 3hrs Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1) Answer all the questions. Some questions have an internal choice.

Marks are indicated against each question. This question paper comprises of six sections.

2) Section A: Question numbers 1 to 16 are objective type questions

carrying 1 mark and should be answered in one word or one sentence each (Attempt any 15)

3) Section B: Question numbers 17 to 19 are Case Based/ Source

Based having Multiple Choice questions. Each question has 4 sub-parts. Attempt any three sub-parts from each question.

4) Section C: Answer to questions carrying 3 marks (Question 20 to

23) should not exceed 100 words each. 5) Section D: Answer to questions carrying 8 marks (Question 24 to

26) should not exceed 350 words each. 6) Section E: Question number 27 to 29 are Source-based questions

carrying 5 marks each. 7) Section F: Question number 30 is a Map question that includes the

identification and location of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.

SECTION - A Attempt any 15 questions. 1 x 15 = 15 1 On the orders of Ashoka Maurya, in the 3rd Century BC,

for the saints of which religion were the artificial caves built?

1

2 Into which two categories was the initial Bhakti Movement divided?

1

3 Read the following information and mention the context in which the statement is connected – Ernest Mackay, writes in his book Early Indus Civilization - “It is certainly the most complete ancient system as yet discovered.”

1

4 Which of the following statement is not true about Amara-Nayakas in the Vijayanagara Kingdom?

a) They were military Commanders who exercised power in the empire and controlled forts.

b) They had armed supporters. c) They often moved from one area to another and in

many cases accompanied by peasants looking for fertile land to settle.

d) They usually spoke Malayalam.

1

5 Identify the image and write the name of its painter:

Question For Visually Impaired candidates only: In lieu of Question number 5. One important record of the mutiny of 1857 is the pictorial images produced by the British and Indians, because:

a) These are easily available. b) All the images are of war. c) Bright colors are used in it. d) These images are reflection of feelings of that time

period.

1

6 Correct the following statement and re-write: “Rahul, as Buddha was named at birth, was the son of a chief of the Shakya Clan.”

1

7 Which one of the following Raya of Vijayanagara took pride in the title “Establisher of the Yavana Kingdom”? a) Rama Raya b) Harihara c) Krishna Deva Raya

1

d) Bukka 8 What was the sunset law? 1 9 Distinguish between Patriliny and Matriliny? 1 10 Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and other as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Ashoka was a very powerful, industrious and humble ruler. Reason (R): 20th Century Nationalist leaders regarded him as an inspiration.

a) Only Assertion (A) is correct. b) Only Reason (R) is correct. c) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct but

reason(R) is not the explanation of the statement. d) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct and

reason(R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

1

11 Who wrote Badshah Nama? a) Abul Fazal b) Abul Hamid Lohri c) Abass Khan d) Mirza Muhammad

1

12 In 1919, under the leadership of _________ who is a noted Indian Sanskrit Scholar, a task of preparing critical edition of Mahabharata was started.

1

13 What does Kitabkhana mean? 1 14 Match the following

List I List II i. Arab Muslim Traders a. Tamil Nadu ii. Alvars and Nayanars b. North India iii. Virshaiva c. Malabar Coast (Kerala) iv. Nath and Jogis d. Karnataka Options: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. (b) (c) (a) (d) B. (c) (a) (d) (b) C. (a) (b) (c) (d) D. (c) (b) (a) (d)

1

15 The reason/s for the popularity of Gandhi among the common people is/are: 1) He wore dhoti like them. 2) He lived like them. 3) He spoke their language. Choose the correct option:

a) Only (1) and (2) b) Only (2) and (3) c) Only (2) d) All of the Above

1

16 The aggressive plea that ‘Hindi be used as the language of constitution making was given by:

a) R.V Dhulekar b) JAIPAL Singh c) N.G Ranga d) Sardar Patel

1

SECTION-B 17 Read the following excerpt from the Adi Parvan (literally,

the first section) of the Sanskrit Mahabharata carefully and answer any three questions:

1+1+1=3

The Kauravas were the … sons of Dhritarashtra, and the Pandavas … were their cousins. Since Dhritarashtra was blind, his younger brother Pandu ascended the throne of Hastinapura … However, after the premature death of Pandu, Dhritarashtra became king, as the royal princes were still very young. As the princes grew up together, the citizens of Hastinapura began to express their preference for the Pandavas, for they were more capable and virtuous than the Kauravas. This made Duryodhana, the eldest of the Kauravas, jealous. He approached his father and said, “You yourself did not receive the throne, although it fell to you, because of your defect. If the Pandava receives the patrimony from Pandu, his son will surely inherit it in turn, and so will his son, and his. We ourselves with our sons shall be excluded from the royal succession and become of slight regard in the eyes of the world, lord of the earth!”

(1) Under what circumstances did Dhritarashtra become the king of Hastinapura?

a) Due to the premature death of Pandu. b) All the royal princes were still young. c) Dhristrashtra was capable and virtuous. d) Pandavas were young.

(2) The unjust thing that strike, to get the throne is:

a) Physical Perfection. b) One should be virtuous. c) One should be competent. d) Generally the eldest son inherits the throne.

(3) The composer of Mahabharata is:

a) Vedvyas b) Tulsidas c) Kabir d) Valmiki

(4) Kaurvas were sons of:

a) Dhritarashtra and Gandhari b) Pandu and Kunti c) Shantanu and Satyavati d) Pandu and Madri

18

Look at the picture carefully and answer any three questions given below: -

1) The image is of:

a) Karaikkal Ammaiyar, Devotee of Shiva b) Karaikkal Ammaiyar, Devotee of Vishnu c) Andal, Devotee of Shiva d) Andal, Devotee of Vishnu

2) The bhakti movement she belong to is: (a) Saguna (b) Nirguna (c) Jainism (d) Buddhism

3) Given below are two statements, one labelled as

Assertion (A) The Other as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): The women devotees renounced their social obligations

Reason(R): The women devotees did not join any alternative order or become nuns.

a) Only Assertion (A) is correct. b) Only Reason (R) is correct. c) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct but

reason(R) is not the explanation of the statement. d) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct and

reason(R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

4) The region of India where Karaikkal Ammaiyar

emerged is: (a) Northern India (b) Southern India (c) Eastern India

1+1+1=3

(d) Western India

Question For Visually Impaired candidates only: In lieu of Question number 18. Read the given excerpt carefully and answer any three of the given questions.

The One Lord Here is a composition attributed to Kabir: Tell me, brother, how can there be No one lord of the world but two? Who led you so astray? God is called by many names like Allah, Ram, Karim, Keshav, Hari and Hazrat. Distinctions are only words we invent…Kabir says they are both mistaken. Neither can find the only Ram. One kills the goat, the other cows. They waste their lives in disputation. 1) The Bhakti of Kabir was:

(a) Nirgun Bhakti (b) Sagun Bhakti (c) Tantrik Bhakti (d) Bhakti of Shakti

2) The tradition in which verses ascribed to Kabir have been complied in are: (i) Kabir Bijak (ii) Kabir Granthavali

The correct option is : (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) None of the Above

3) Given below are two statements, one labelled at

Assertion (A) The Other as Reason (R) Assertion (A): There is only one Lord called by many names like Allah, Ram, Kareem. Reason (R): Gold May be shaped into rings and bangles yet it remains gold.

a) Only Assertion (A) is correct. b) Only Reason (R) is correct. c) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct but

reason(R) is not the explanation of the statement. d) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are correct and

reason(R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

4) The main teachings of Kabir are:

(i) There is only one god (ii) He described God as Formless.

Choose the correct option (a) Both (i) and (ii) is correct

(b) Only (i) is correct (c) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect (d) Only (ii) is correct

19 Read the following excerpt about the views of Mahatma Gandhi

on the language question carefully and answer any three questions:

1+1+1=3

This Hindustani should me neither Sanskritised Hindi nor Persianised Urdu but a happy combination of both. It should also freely admit words wherever necessary from the different regional languages and also assimilate word from foreign languages, provided that they can mix well and easily with our National Language. Thus, our National Language must develop into a rich and powerful instrument capable of expressing the whole gamut of human thought and feelings. To confine oneself to Hindi or Urdu would be a crime against intelligence and the spirit of patriotism. 1) Hindustani language is a blend of:

(a) Hindi and Urdu (b) Aramaic and Urdu (c) Persian and Hindi (d) None of the above

2) The language favoured by Gandhiji to be our National Language is: (a) Urdu (b) Hindi (c) Hindustani (d) Kannada

3) The qualities of a national language should be: (i) National language must be rich and powerful. (ii) It should be capable of expressing the whole

gamut of human thoughts and feelings. (a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (b) Only (i) is correct (c) Only (ii) is correct (d) None of the Above

4) The incorrect statement from among the following is: a) National language should be one that has the

spirit of Patriotism b) It should be easily understood by a large

population. c) Capable of uniting the country. d) Should be complicated.

SECTION – C 20 “Burials are a source to understand the social differences

in the Harappan Civilisation.” Explain. 3

21 Domingo Paes has called the Mahanavmi Dibba of 3

Vijayanagara Empire as the “House of Victory”. Clarify.

22 Why did Gandhiji choose salt as a symbol of protest? 3 23 What steps did the British take to crush the Revolt of

1857? 3

SECTION – D 24 What are Inscriptions? Examine logically the importance

and limitations of Inscriptional Evidences in History writing. OR

Discuss the salient features of the Mauryan administration.

8

25 Highlighting the ideals and court customs of the Mughal court compare its administration with the present Indian governance.

OR “The officer corps of the Mughals was described as a bouquet of flowers.” Assess the statement in reference to Mughal Elite.

8

26 Why Zamindars defaulted on payments to East India Company?

OR Who were Jotedars and how were their powers more effective than that of zamindars?

8

SECTION E

27 Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

5

A Church in Khambat This is an excerpt from a farman (Imperial Order) issued by Akbar in 1598: Whereas it reached our eminent and holy notice that the padris (fathers) of the holy society of Jesus wish to build a house of prayer (Church) in the city of Kambayat (Khambat, Gujrat): therefore an exalted mandate … is being issued, … hat the dignitaries of the city Kambayat should in no case stand in their way but should allow them to build a Church so that they may engage themselves in their own worship. It is necessary that the order of the Emperor should be obeyed in every way. 27.1 ) What did the Padris want to do?

27.2 ) How did Akbar ensure that the desire of Padris be fulfilled?

27.3) ‘The Muslim rulers adopted flexible policy to rule in Indian Subcontinent.’ Analyse the Statement.

1 2 2

28 Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

5

The Problem of Separate Electorates At the Round Table Conference Mahatma Gandhi stated his arguments against separate electorates for the Depressed Classes: Separate Electorates to the “Untouchables” will ensure them bondage in perpetuity… Do you want “Untouchables” to remain “Untouchables” forever?

Well, the separate electorates would perpetuate the stigma. What is needed is destruction of “Untouchability”, and when you have done it, the bar-sinister, which has been imposed by an insolent “superior” class upon an “inferior” class will be destroyed. When you have destroyed the bar-sinister to whom will you give the separate electorates? 28.1 What was Gandhiji’s main argument against

separate electorates? 28.2 What suggestion was given by Gandhiji in place of

separate electorates? 28.3 Do you think that the problem of separate electorate should be curbed? Give reasons in support of your answer.

1 2

2

29 Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

5

Why were stupas built This is an excerpt from the Mahaparinibbana Sutta, part of the Sutta Pitaka: As the Buddha lay dying, Ananda asked him: “What are we to do Lord, with the remains of Tathagata (another name for the Buddha)?” The Buddha replied: “Hinder not yourselves Ananda by honouring the remains of the Tathagata. Be zealous, be intent on your own good.” But when pressed further the Buddha said: “At the four crossroads they should erect a thupa (Pali for stupa) to the Tathagata. And whosoever shall there place garlands or perfume … or make a salutation there, or become in its presence calm of the heart, that shall long be to them for a profit and joy.” 29.1 What do you understand by Parinibbana?

29.2 Who was Tathagata? what importance did he attribute to Stupas? 29.3 Why were Stupas built? What does it symbolises?

1 2 2

SECTION-F (Map Question)

30 (30.1) On the given political map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols :

a) Amravati OR

Sanchi b) Lumbini – Birthplace of Buddha

OR Kushinagar– Place where Buddha attained Parinirvana

c) Bharhut (30.2) On the same map of India, two places have been marked as A, B which are centers of the Indian

1+1+1=3

1+1=2

National movement. Identify, them and write their correct names. NOTE : The following questions are only for the visually impaired candidates in lieu of the question no. 30.1 and 30.2 (30.1) Write the names of any three important places related to Lord Buddha.

OR Write the names of any three Mahajanapadas. (30.2) Write the names of any two centers of the revolt of 1857.

Loreto Convent Tara Hall

Sample Paper 2

Political Science

Class 12

M.M 80 Time 3 Hrs

General Instructions-

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A has 16 objective type questions of 1 mark each.

3. Section B has two passage-based questions 17 and 18 having multiple

choice questions of 1 mark each.

4. Question numbers 19-22 carry 2 marks each. Answer to these questions

should not exceed 40 words each.

5. Question numbers 23-27 carry 4 marks each. Answer to these questions

should not exceed 100 words.

6. Question number 28 and 29 pertain to map and cartoon questions

carrying 5 marks each to be answered accordingly.

7. Question numbers 30 -32 carry 6 marks each. Answer to these questions

should not exceed 150 words.

SECTION-A

1. Which of these statements about the nature if coalition politics after

2014 elections is correct?

a) From one party led coalition to multi-party coalition.

b) From multi-party coalition to one party led dominated coalition.

c) From one party led coalition to one party dominated coalition.

d) From two party led coalition to one party dominated coalition.

2. The two provinces which were divided by the partition of India and

Pakistan were-

a) Punjab and Bengal

b) Delhi and Punjab

c) Madras and Delhi

d) Bengal and Madras

3. The two countries of South-Asian region which have retained their

democratic tradition since independence are-

a) India and Sri Lanka

b) India and Pakistan

c) Maldives and Sri Lanka

d) Bangladesh and Sri Lanka

4. What does the European Union flag stand for?

a) It stands for unity among the European people.

b) It stands for peaceful harmony among the European people.

c) It stands for completeness among the European people.

d) It stands for fraternity among the European people.

5. The signatories of Limited Test Ban Treaty of 1963 are-

a) USA, UK, USSR

b) UK, USA, India

c) South Africa, UK, USA

d) India, USA, China

6. Who was the co-founder of NAM?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

c) Mahatma Gandhi

d) BR Ambedkar

7. Choose the wrong statement-

a) The difficulties in the relationship between the governments of India

and Sri Lanka are mostly over the ethnic conflict in the island nation.

b) India signed a free trade agreement with Sri Lanka.

c) India’s help in post-tsunami reconstruction in Sri Lanka has also

brought the two countries closer.

d) Indian security agencies see the Maoist Movement in Sri Lanka as a

growing threat.

8. Soviet Union’s political system was based on-

a) Capitalism

b) Liberalism and free economy

c) Socialism and Communism

d) Privatisation

9. The United Progressive Alliance led by Congress in 2004 and 2014 was

under the leadership of-

a) HD Deve Gowda

b) Manmohan Singh

c) PV Narsimha Rao

d) IK Gujral

10. What does the Twelve stars of European Flag symbolise?

a) It symbolises fraternity

b) It symbolises perfection

c) It symbolises completeness and unity

d) Both a) and b)

11. SAARC began in the year-

a) 1982

b) 1983

c) 1985

d) 1986

12. Which one of the following statements related to Iraq invasion by US is

incorrect?

a) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion.

b) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq.

c) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass

destruction.

d) The US has lost 3000 military personnel in war.

13. ILO was founded in-

a) October 1920

b) October 1919

c) October 1921

d) October 1922

14. Which political party has won the biggest number of seats in the lower

house since 1984 elections?

a) Congress Party

b) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)

c) National Front

d) United Front

15. Which party dominates the political affairs of Maldives?

a) Maldivian Democratic Party

b) Awami League

c) Seven Party Alliance

d) None of the above

OR

In which sectors India has contributed towards the development of

Maldives?

a) Tourism

b) Economic development

c) Fisheries

d) All of the above

16. Arrange the following in the chronological order-

1. Establishment of ASEAN

2. Establishment of European Union

3. Establishment of ASEAN Regional Forum

4. Establishment of Organisation for European Economic Cooperation

a) 2, 1, 3, 4

b) 4, 1, 2, 3

c) 3, 1, 2, 4

d) 2, 4, 1, 3

SECTION-B

17. Read the given passage and answer the questions mentioned below the

paragraph.

Indira Gandhi changed the Congress into highly centralised and

undemocratic party organisation, from the earlier federal, democratic

and ideological formation that Nehru had led …...But this …...could not

have happened had Indira Gandhi not changed the entire nature of

politics. This new populist politics turned political ideology ……into a

mere electoral discourse use of various slogans not meant to be

translated into government policies ……During its great electoral

victories in early 1970s, amidst the celebration, the Congress party dies

as a political organisation.

i. Which political leader changed the Congress into a highly centralised

and undemocratic party organisation? (1)

a) Lal Bahadur Shastri

b) Ram Manohar Lohiya

c) Indira Gandhi

d) K. Kamraj

ii. What, according to the author, is the difference between the

strategies of Nehru and Indira Gandhi? (1)

a) Nehru led the Congress into a federal, democratic and ideological

nature whereas Indira Gandhi led it into a highly centralised and

undemocratic party.

b) Nehru led the Congress into a charismatic way whereas Indira

Gandhi led into a decentralised party.

c) Nehru led the Congress in a democratic manner whereas Indira

Gandhi led an undemocratic way.

d) All of the above.

iii. In which year we can say that Congress almost died as a political

organisation? (1)

a) Early 1960’s

b) Early 1970’s

c) Early 1980’s

d) Early 1990’s

iv. On what basis we can say that Congress as a political organisation has

died? (1)

a) New political agendas have changed the scenario.

b) New populist politics turned political ideology into a mere

electoral discourse.

c) Use of various slogans was not meant to be translated into

government policies.

d) Both b) and c)

18. Read the given passage and answer the questions mentioned below the

paragraph.

The disintegration of the USSR and the formation of Commonwealth of

Independent States (CIS) was declared and the Central Asian Republics

were made the founding members of CIS, which was a critical issue.

Russia was now accepted as the successor state of Soviet Union and

inherited the Soviet seat in the United Nations Security Council and also

accepted the international treaties and commitments of the Soviet

Union.

Russia took over as the only nuclear state of the Post-Soviet space and

carried out some nuclear disarmament measures with US due to which

old Soviet Union was dead and buried. Internal weakness of Soviet

political and economic institutions failed to meet the aspirations of the

people. This was the major reason for disintegration of Soviet Union.

Another reason for the collapse of USSR was the rise of nationalism and

the desire for sovereignty within various republics including Russia and

Baltic republics. The Soviet Union became stagnant due to rampant

corruption, unwillingness to allow more openness in government and

centralisation of authority in a vast land.

i. Which state was accepted as a successor state of Soviet Union? (1)

a) Czech Republic

b) Russia

c) Estonia

d) Ukraine

ii. Who were the founding members of the CIS after the disintegration

of USSR? (1)

a) Central Asian Republics

b) Baltic Republics

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

iii. What was the major reason responsible for the disintegration if

Soviet Union mentioned in the passage? (1)

a) The rise of nationalism and desire for sovereignty.

b) Internal weakness of Soviet Union and its political and economic

institutions failed to meet the aspirations of people.

c) Economic stagnation for many years led to severe consumer

shortages.

d) Rampant corruption and unwillingness to allow more openness.

iv. Why Soviet Union became stagnant?

a) Due to rampant corruption.

b) Unwillingness to allow more openness in government.

c) Centralisation of authority.

d) All of the above.

SECTION-C

19. How the era of multi-party system led to the era of coalition at the

centre? (2)

20. Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956? (2)

21. Does globalisation lead to cultural homogenisation or cultural

heterogenization or both? Justify. (2)

22. Discuss the role played by Syndicates in the Congress Party.

OR

What does defection stand for in Indian politics? Highlight any two

demerits of this practice. (2)

SECTION-D

23. Explain the philosophy of Integral Humanism given by Deendayal

Upadhyaya. (4)

24. Explain any four conflicts during the presidential of 1969. (4)

25. Describe any two development witnesses by India after 1990.

OR

Analyse the formation and objectives of NITI Aayog in present context.

(4)

26. What are the three democratic upsurges that emerged in the post-

independence history of India? Explain.

OR

Analyse the circumstances that you think were responsible for the

declaration of emergency in 1975. (4)

27. How we can say that Russia has emerged as a new centre of power in

21st Century? (4)

SECTION-E

28. In the given map of India five states have been marked as (A), (B), (C),

(D) and (E). Identify these states on the basis of the information given

below and write their correct names in respective serial number.

Information given about the Lok Sabha election results 1977. (5)

i. The state where INC was in majority.

ii. The state where Janata Party was in majority.

iii. The state where other parties were in majority.

iv. The state where left parties were in majority.

v. The Mountainous state where INC won all the seats.

S.No. State Alphabet (i)

(ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v)

29. Study the following picture and answer the questions that follow-

i. With which occasion the above picture is concerned? In the

picture who is addressing to whom and from where? (2)

ii. Why that day is called a ‘Red Letter’s Day’ in Indian history? (2)

iii. In which circumstances India was born on that historical day? (10

SECTION-F

30. Assess the four principles of India’s foreign policy. In the post Cold War

era what is the nature of India’s foreign policy?

OR

What are the three democratic upsurges that emerged in the post-

independence history of India? Explain. (6)

31. What is a Cold War? Why did the superpowers depend on military

alliances with small countries during the Cold War? (6)

32. State the political implications or impacts of globalisation.

OR

Explain the establishment and objective of UNESCO, UNICEF and ILO in

detail. (6)

Sample Paper

Psychology (037)

Class- XII

Time – 3 Hours Max Marks – 70

General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.

● Answers should be brief and to the point. Marks for each question are indicated against

it.

● Question No. 1- 14 in Section I are objective type questions carrying 1 mark each. You

are expected to answer them as directed.

● Question No. 15-16 in Section II are case based with objective type questions. Question

No. 15 has three questions carrying 1 mark each. Question No. 16 has four questions

carrying 1 mark each. You are expected to answer each one of them.

● Question No. 17-22 in Section III are very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks

each. Answers to each question should not exceed 30 words.

● Question No. 23-25 in Section IV are short answer type-I questions carrying 3 marks

each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.

● Question No. 26-29 in Section V are short answer type-II questions carrying 4 marks

each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

● Question No. 30 and 31 in Section VI are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks

each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.

Section I

Q.1A). Which factor influences more in aptitude formation? 1

a)Caste b) Age

c) Intelligence d) Family

Q.1B)…….. involves employing systematic, organised and objective procedures to record

behavioral phenomena occurring naturally in real time.

a) interview b) case study

c) self-report d) observation

Q.2 MMPI-2 consists of……. statements. 1

a)576 b) 567 c) 565 d) 568

Q. 3.…...are frequently used for assessment of personality in educational and industrial

settings. 1

a) Interview b) Observation

c) Situational Tests d) Behavioural Ratings

Q.4. The term"stress" has been originated from the Latin word ……. meaning……….. 1

Q.5A) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder is a psychological problem that results from ……. 1

Or

Q5 B) Kusum suddenly loses her sight, but doctors can find no physical reason for the problem. She is showing symptoms of _______ 1 (a) Hypochondriasis (b) Somatisation disorder (c) Conversion disorder (d) Pain disorder

Q.6. Psychotherapies aim at changing maladaptive behaviour and helping the client to a

adapt better to his environment.(True/ False) 1

Q.7……….is an example of negative attitude towards people. 1

a)Prototype. b) Stereotype

c) Discrimination d) Prejudice

Q.8. Membership of a club is an example of : 1

a) Primary group b) Secondary group

c) Out group d) Large group

Q9)An individual’s experiences of stress depends on the__________ strength of that person. 1

Q10) __________ is not simply maintenance and survival but also includes growth and

fulfillment. 1

Q11 A) Naturalistic observation involves making observation in a natural setting. 1

(True/false)

Or

Q11 B) A person’s resolution of problems at any stage of development less than adequate

demonstrates regression (True/false). 1

Q12) Match the following: 1

A B

i) T cells Increase immunological activity

ii) T helper cells Involved against viruses

iii) Natural Killer cells Destroys invaders

iv) B cells Produces antibodies

Q13. The craze for thinness valued by models and actors is termed as _______________. 1

Q14.The feature which refers to the number of attributes within a broader attitude is: 1

(a) Valence (b) Multiplexity

(c) centrality (d) Extremeness

Section II

Q15) Read the case and answer the questions that follow.1x3=3

Existential therapy is applicable to diverse clients who are searching for meaning in their lives,

including examining whether their behaviour is being influenced by social and cultural factors.

Therapists can help clients to weigh up the alternatives and possible consequences, to

recognise how they contribute to their situation, and to identify how they can change their

external environment.

However, critics of existential therapy see it as excessively individualistic; for many cultures, it is

not possible to talk about self and self-determination outside the context of the social network.

This modality can also be seen as ignoring the social factors that cause human problems: even

if clients change internally, there may be little hope that the external realities of racism or

discrimination will change.

Q15 i) Existential therapy is applicable for what?

a. those who are searching for meaning in their lives

b. examining whether their behaviour is being influenced by social and cultural factors

c. only a

d. Both a and b

Q15 ii) What is the role of therapist in existential therapy?

a. Facilitator

b. b. interprets the thoughts of client

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Q15 iii What is the main problem with existential therapy?

Q16 A) Read the case and answer the questions that follow. 1x4=4

A 40-yr-old woman, who experienced feelings of terror accompanied by physical symptoms at

the sight and mention of steeples and towers. Through the method of psychoanalysis, it was

revealed that childhood experiences elicited intense emotional fear in the Subject, and the

death of her mother had a significant impact on her mental make-up. Memories involving grief,

suffering, self-reproach, bells, and her mother formed an unconscious setting which gave

meaning to bells in towers and participated in the formation of a psychic whole. Thus, the

towers steeples, and bells not only symbolized her mother"s death, but her own imagined fault.

With reference to the above case, answer the following questions.

Q16A i) Identify the woman’s disorder?

a . Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b. Phobia

c. Schizophrenia

d. None of the above

Q16 A ii) What was the reason of her disorder?

a. childhood experiences

b. Death of her mother

c. only a

d. Both a and b

Q16 A iii) What gave meaning to bells in towers and participated in the formation of a psychic

whole? a. Memories involving grief,

b. suffering, self-reproach

c. and her mother

d. All of the above

Q16 A iv) Developing a fear of entering unfamiliar situation is known as:

a. Agrophobia

b. panic disorder

c. compulsive disorder

d. Conversion disorder

Or

Q16 B) Read the case and answer the questions that follow.1x4=4

Katie Smith, a 27-year old female, enters the emergency room after experiencing an

episode of extreme chest pain, difficulty breathing, and numbness in her arms. She states

the following to the admitting physician:

“I was walking my dog earlier when I started sweating. Since it isn’t hot outside, I couldn’t

Quite understand why…then I started having trouble breathing and really got scared. My

heart was pounding so hard I thought it might explode out of my chest. My knees felt weak –

it seemed like my whole body was shaking, then my arms went numb. Apparently the whole

thing only lasted a few minutes, but it felt like each second was an hour. Did I have a heart

attack? Am I going crazy? I felt like I was going to die.

Q16 B i) Identify Katie Smith’s disorder.

a. Phobias and depression

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

c. Panic Disorder

d. Depersonalization

Q16 B ii) What did the Katie Smith’s state?

a . My heart was pounding so hard I thought it might explode out of my chest.

b. My knees felt weak

c. my whole body was shaking, then my arms went numb

d. All of the above

Q16 B iii) What did Katie Smith think ?

a. that she had heart attack

b. that she was going crazy

c. that she is about to die

d. All of the above

Q16 B iv) How did Katie Smith experience before entering the emergency?

SECTION III

Q17. Mention any two indicators of giftedness. 2 Q18) What is separation anxiety disorder? List any two symptoms. 2

Q19) Explain biofeedback. 2

Q20. Why do we classify psychological disorders? Explain. 2

Q22 A. How parents can contribute in developing self- esteem of the child? 2 Or

Q22 B). Discuss personality types given by Sheldon. 2 SECTION IV

Q23)Can a distorted body image lead to eating disorders? Classify the various forms of it? 3

Q24) Which therapy encourages the client to seek personal growth and actualize their potential? Write about the therapies which are based on this principle. 3 Q25 A) Explain the effect of stress on the immune system. How social support can lead to positive health and well-being ? Discuss 3

Or

Q25 B) Discuss the most important sources of stress giving examples.. 3

SECTION V

Q26 A How would you rehabilitate patients to become productive members of society? 4 Or

Q26 B) How would Karen Horney’s explanation of psychological disorders be different from that of Alfred Adler’s? 4 Q27) Describe the GAS model and illustrate the relevance of this model with the help of an

example. 4

Q28) Differentiate between in-group and out-group. Explain the different reasons why

people join groups. 4 Q29) Why do individual’s perform better in the presence of others? 4

SECTION VI

Q30 A) How does the Triarchic theory help us to understand intelligence? 6

Or

Q 30 B) Explain briefly the multiple intelligences identified by Garener . 6

Q31 A) Arihant wants to become a singer even though he belongs to the family of doctors. Though his family members claim to love him but strongly disapprove his choice of career. Using Carl Roger’s terminology, describe the attitudes shown by Arihant’s family. 6

Or

Q31 B) Highlight the difference between direct and indirect techniques used for assessing personality. Briefly explain indirect technique. 6

LORETO CONVENT TARA HALL SHIMLA

CLASS XII INFORMATICS PRACTICES NEW (065) SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER – II

Max Marks: 70 Time: 3 hrs General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory

Question Paper is divided into 4 sections A,B,C and D.

SECTION-A Q1 Find the output of following program (1) import numpy as np d=np.array([10,20,30,40,50,60,70]) print(d[-4:]) Q2 Write the output of the following code : (1) import numpy as np array1=np.array([10,12,14,16,18,20,22]) print(array1[1:5:2]) Q3 Write a suitable Python code to create an empty dataframe. (1) OR Consider the following datafram : student_df Name Class Marks Aamvi XI 95 Aditi XI 82 Mehak XI 65 Kriti XI 45 Write a statement to get the minimum value of the column marks Q4 What is series? Explain with the help of an example. (2) Q5 Write a code in Python to search for a given value in a list of elements(Without using in-built function) (4) Example: If the List contains: [20,30,40,50,60,80,120] and the element to be searched is:60 Then the output should be: Found at position 4 OR Write a code in python to find the minimum value in a list. Example: If the List contains: [100,150,90,65,180,200] Then the output should be: Minimum Value is 65

Q6 method in Pandas can be used to change the index of (1) rows and columns of a Series or Dataframe : (i) rename() (ii) reindex() (iii) reframe() (iv) none of the above Q7 Hitesh wants to display the last four rows of the data frame df and has written the following code : (2) df.tail() .But last 5 rows are being displayed. Identify the error and rewrite the correct code so that last 4 rows get displayed.

OR A dataframe studdf stores data about the students stream, marks. A part of it is shown below:

Class Stream Marks 11 Science 95 11 Commerce 80 11 Arts 75 11 Vocational 65 Using the above dataframe, write the command to compute Average marks stream wise. Q8 Consider the following python code and write the output for statement S1 (2) import pandas as pd K=pd.Series([2,4,6,8,10,12,14]) K.quantile([0.50,0.75]) ---------------------- S1

OR Write a small python code to drop a row from dataframe Q9 What is Pivoting? Name any two functions of Pandas which support pivoting. (2) Q10 Write a python code to create a dataframe with appropriate headings from (2) the list given below : ['S101', 'Amy', 70], ['S102', 'Bandhi', 69], ['S104', 'Cathy', 75], ['S105', 'Gundaho', 82] Q11 Write a small python code to create a dataframe with headings(a and b) (2) from the list given below : [[1,2],[3,4],[5,6],[7,8]] Q12 Consider the following dataframe, and answer the questions given below: (3) import pandas as pd df = pd.DataFrame({“Quarter1":[2000, 4000, 5000, 4400, 10000], "Quarter2":[5800, 2500, 5400, 3000, 2900], "Quarter3":[20000, 16000, 7000, 3600, 8200], "Quarter4":[1400, 3700, 1700, 2000, 6000]}) (i) Write the code to find mean value from above dataframe df over the index and column axis. (ii) Use sum() function to find the sum of all the values over the index axis. (iii) Find the median of the dataframe df.

OR Q13 Given a data frame df1 as shown below: City Maxtemp MinTemp RainFall Delhi 40 32 24.1 Bengaluru 31 25 36.2 Chennai 35 27 40.8 Mumbai 29 21 35.2 Kolkata 39 23 41.8 (i) Write command to compute sum of every column of the data frame. (ii) Write command to compute mean of column Rainfall. (iii) Write command to compute Median of the Maxtemp Column. Q14 Find the output of the following code: (4) import pandas as pd data = [{'a': 10, 'b': 20},{'a': 6, 'b': 32, 'c': 22}] #with two column indices, values same as dictionary keys df1 = pd.DataFrame(data, index=['first', 'second'], columns=['a', 'b']) #With two column indices with one index with other name df2 = pd.DataFrame(data, index=['first', 'second'], columns=['a', 'b1']) print(df1) print(df2) Q15 Write the code in pandas to create the following dataframes : (3) df1 df2 mark1 mark2 mark1 mark2 0 10 15 0 30 20 1 40 45 1 20 25 2 15 30 2 20 30 3 40 70 3 50 30 Write the commands to do the following operations on the dataframes given above :

(i) To add dataframes df1 and df2. (ii) To subtract df2 from df1 (iii) To rename column mark1 as marks1in both the dataframes df1 and df2. OR Explain : (i) Data Visualization (ii) Role of legends in graph/ charts. (iii) What is histogram?

SECTION-B Q1 NULL value means : (1) (i) 0 value (ii) 1 value (iii) None value (iv) None of the above Q2 Which command is use to create a table? (1) (i) SELECT (ii) CREATE (iii) USE (iv) All ofabove Q3 What is join in SQL? (1) (i) A join is a query that combines rows from two or more tables. (ii) join is a condition (iii) All of above Q4 By default, ORDER BY clause lists the result in…….order. (1) (i) Ascending Order (ii) Descending Order (iii) None of above Q5 What is a function? What is the use of COUNT function? (2) Q6 Differentiate between CHAR and VARCHAR datatypes (2) Q7 Shewani has recently started working in MySQL. Help her in (4) understanding the difference between the following : (i) Where and having clause (ii) Count(column_name) and count(*) Q8. On the basis of following table answer the given questions: (4) Table: CUSTOMER _DETAILS

CUST_ID

CUST_NAME

ACCT_TYPE ACCUMLT_AMT

DOJ GENDER

CNR_001 Manoj Saving 101250 1992-02-19 M CNR_002 Rahul Current 132250 1998-01-11 M CNR_004 Steve Saving 18200 1998-02-21 M CNR_005 Manpreet Current NULL 1994-02-19 M

(i) Write the sql query to delete the record of customer Manpreet. (ii) What will be the output of the following query : Select max(DOJ) From Customer_Details; (iii) Write the sql query to delete the row from the table where customer has no accumulated amount. (iv) Write a query to display the record of CUST_ID CNR_004 Q9 Write commands in SQL for (i) to (iii) and output for (iv) and (v). (4) Table : Store

StoreId Name Location City NoOfEmp DateOpen SalesAmt

S101 Planet Fashion

Bandra Mumbai 7 2015-10-16

40000

S102 Vogue Karol Bagh Delhi 8 2015-07-14 120000 S103 Trends Powai Mumbai 10 2015-06-24 30000 S104 Super

Fashion Thane Mumbai 11 2015-02-06 45000

S105 Annabelle South Extn.

Delhi 8 2015-04-09 60000

S106 Rage Defence Colony

Delhi 5 2015-03-01 20000

(i) To display names of stores along with Sales Amount of those stores that are located in Mumbai. (ii) To display the details of store in alphabetical order of name. (iii) To display the City and the number of stores located in that City, only if number of stores is more than 2. (iv) SELECT MIN(DATEOPEN) FROM STORE; (v) SELECT COUNT(STOREID), NOOFEMP FROM STORE GROUP BY NOOFEMP HAVING MAX(SALESAMT)

(ii) Ring (iii) Mash Q3 What is the purpose of using router? (2) Q4 Explain any two most popular topology. (2) Q5 Online textual talk is called ………………. (1) (i) Video conferencing (ii) Telephony (iii) Chat Q6 What is VoIP? (1) (i) Voice over Internet protocol (ii) Video over Internet Protocol (iii) None of above Q7 Differentiate between a web browser and a web server. (2)

SECTION-D Q1 Which of the following is not an intellectual property? (1) (i) A poem written by a poet (ii) An original painting made by a painter (iii) Trademark of a Company (iv) A remixed song Q2 Jhilmalini has stolen a credit card. She used that credit card to purchase a (1) laptop. What type of offence has she committed? Q3 Name the primary law in India dealing with cybercrime and electronic commerce. (1) Q4 Sita received an email from her bank stating that there is a problem with (2) her account. The email provides instructions and a link, by clicking on which she can logon to her account and fix the problem. Help Sutapa by telling her the precautions she should take when she receives these type of emails. Q5 Explain any two ways in which technology can help students with disabilities. (2) Q6 Explain the role of online social media campaigns, crowdsourcing and smart mobs in society. (3)

OR

Ms Samtha has many electronics gadgets which are not usable due to outdated hardware and software.

Help her to find any three best ways to dispose the used electronic gadgets.

PRE- BOARD EXAMINATION (2020)

CLASS XII ECONOMICS

MM:80 TIME :3HRS

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts: Part A- Macro Economics (40 marks) Part B- Indian Economic Development (40 marks)

2. Marks for questions are indicated against each question

3. Question No. 1 – 10 and Question No. 18-27 ( including two Case Based Questions ) are 1 mark questions and are to be answered in one word/sentence.

4. Case Based Questions are Question No. 7-10 and Question No. 24 -27

5. Question No. 11-12 and Question No. 28-29 are 3 marks questions

6. Question No. 13-15 and Question No. 30-32 are 4 marks questions

7. Question No. 16-17 and Question No. 33-34 are 6 marks questions 8. Answers should be brief and to the point

Q.No. QUESTIONS Marks

PART-A MACRO ECONOMICS

1 Revenue Deficit can be estimated using the formula__________________( fill in the blank with correct formula)

1

2 State whether the following statement is true or false: “ As per Keynesian theory in an economy , full employment can never exist.”

1

3. Suppose in a hypothetical economy , the income rises from rs. 5000 crore to rs. 6000 crore. As a result , the consumption expenditure rises from rs. 4000 crore to rs.4600 crore. Marginal propensity to consume in such case would be ______________ ( choose the correct alternative)

a. 0.8 b. 0.4 c. 0.2 d. 0.6

1

4. State the meaning of ‘ Current Account Deficit’. 1

5. In order to control the money supply in the economy , the Central Bank may__________ a. Buy securities in the open market b. Sell securities in the open market c. Reduce cash reserve ratio d. Reduce repo rate

1

6. State whether the following statement is true or false: “ Government Budget is an important monetary policy instrument “

OR

Disinvestment is a ___________________ ( capital /revenue ) receipt of the government. ( Choose the correct alternative)

1

Read the following case study and answer Questions 7-10 on the basis

of the same:

The Union Budget for financial year 2020-21 presented by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman forecasts the GDP growth rate of India between 6.00% and 6.50% ( earlier it was projected 7%) for the fiscal year starting from 1st April 2020 to 31st March 2021. In the current budget , the nominal GDP growth has been estimated at 10% for the financial year 2020-21. The fiscal deficit target for the financial year 2020-21 pegged at 3.5% of GDP ( earlier it was 3.8%).

7. GDP growth can be understood within the framework of ____________( fast cycle of growth/slowing cycle of growth).

1

8. Fiscal deficit can be reduced by : a. Reducing Public Spending b. Inducing Economic Growth Through Structural Changes c. Increasing Tax Rates d. All of the above

1

9. The fiscal deficit of the current financial year is still ___________( high/low) 1

10 Define nominal GDP 1

11 “ Final goods include only those goods which are consumed by the households.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason.

3

12 “ Circular flow principle is based on the assumption that ones expenditure will become others income.” Explain the statement.

OR

“ Ex- Anti Aggregate Demand and Ex- Anti Aggregate Supply are always equal.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.

3

13 “ Central Bank acts as the banker to the government”. Elaborate the given statement.

OR

“ India is taking huge leaps in the index of Ease of Doing Business , as a result many MNCs are shifting their production base to India”. In the light of the above statement, comment upon the flow of foreign exchange and its likely impact on the Indian Economy.

4

14 Using a hypothetical numerical example, explain the process of credit creation by a commercial bank.

4

15 a. Distinguish between Capital Expenditure and Revenue Expenditure. b. Define Tax.

3 +1=4

16. Using a well-labelled diagram, show how Consumption curve can be derived from Saving curve.

6

17. A . calculate the value of “ Change in Stock” from the following data:

S.NO. ITEMS AMOUNT ( in crores) I Sales 400

Ii Net Value Added at Factor Cost ( NVA fc) 200

Iii Subsidies 10 Iv Change in Stock ?

V Depreciation 40

Vi Intermediate Consumption 100

B. Define Real Gross Domestic Product.

4+2=6

PART B – INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

18 Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:

i. Establishing of Peoples Re[public of China ii. Creation of Pakistan iii. First Five – Year Plan of India iv. First Five Year Plan of China

ALTERNATIVES:

A. I, iv, ii ,iii B. Iii, ii, I, iv C. Ii, I, iii, iv D. Iv, iii, ii, i

1

19 The main aim of “ Great Leap Forward” was to ensure rapid increase in ________________( primary/secondary/tertiary) sector in China.

1

20 India is not a member of which of the following regional/global economic grouping? A. European Union B. BRICS C. G-20 D. SAARC

OR

Pakistan introduced its economic reforms in the year_____________ A. 1974 B. 1976 C. 1978 D. 1988

1

21 ___________________ was the predecessor organization to World Trade Organisation ( choose the correct alternative)

A. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development ( IBRD) B. International Monetary Fund ( IMF) C. Reserve Bank of India ( RBI) D. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade ( GATT)

1

22 State any one outcome of implementation of Economic Reforms in India in 1991.

1

23 Read the following statements – Assertion ( A) and Reason ( R ) .

Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:

1

Assertion (A) -: “ Skill India” programme launched by the government is an attempt to

increase human capital formation.

Reason ( R ): It is so as “ skill” is an important element of human capital.

Alternatives: a. Both Assertion(A) and Reason ( R) are true and reason ( R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A) b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R) are true and Reason ( R) is not the correct

explanation of Assertion (A) c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason ( R) is false d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason ( R) is true.

Read the following case study , carefully and answer the question

number 24-27:

Distress sale refers to a situation when the farmers are compelled to sell their produce immediately after the harvest, no matter how low the market price is. MSP purchases from the farmers are kept as buffer stocks by the government. These stocks are used , primarily for Public Distribution System ( PDS) , besides meeting urgent needs during periods of low output and scarcity. MSP is an assurance to the farmers that their produce would be purchased by the government at the specified price. Of course the farmers are free to sell their produce at a price higher than MSP in the open market. Thus , the farmers are always assured of some minimum income from the sale of their crop.

24 PDS implies distribution of food grains through ____________( price shops/ fair price shops)

1

25 The farmers are compelled to sell their produce because a. The farmers need immediate cash to pay off their debts b. They lack storage facilities c. The cost of storage is very high d. All of the above.

1

26 MPS is an important step initiated by the _______________ to improve ____________________.

a. Media, market b. Government, agriculture market c. Government , agricultural marketing system d. Government, regulated markets.

1

27 __________________________ is a significant progressive step in the context of agricultural market system ( cooperative marketing/warehousing facilities) .

1

28 Compare and analyse the given data of India and China , with valid reasons:

Country Annual Growth Rate of Population (2015)

Gender Ratio( Per thousand males)

India 1.2% 929

China 0.5% 941

3

29 “ Human Capital Formation gives birth to innovation, invention and technological

improvements “. Do you agree with the given statement ? Support your answer with valid arguments.

OR

Critically evaluate the role of rural banking system in the process of rural development in India.

3

30 Define any two of the following: a. Absorptive Capacity of Environment b. Carrying Capacity of Environment c. Poverty Line ( in terms of Calorific values)

2+2=4

31 “ India is often called as outsourcing destination of the world”. Discuss the prime reason for this name given to India.

OR

State the meaning of import substitution. Explain how import substitution can protect the domestic industry.

4

32 a. Name any one prominent economist who estimated India’s National Income during the Colonial period.

b. Discuss any two causes of India’s agricultural stagnation during the Colonial period.

1+3=4

33 a. State the names of six Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) under the AYUSH scheme of the Government of India.

b. Analyse the recent trends in the sectoral distribution of workforce in India :

Trends in Employment Pattern ( Sector-wise), 1993-2012( in %)

Sector 1993-94 1999-2000 2011-2012

Primary 64 60.4 48.9

Secondary 16 15.8 24.3

Services 20 23.8 26.8

3+3=6

34 a. What is meant by “ Global Burden of Disease”? b. Discuss any two problems faced by power sector in India.

OR

Critically examine the results of Poverty Alleviation Programmes implemented in India since independence.

2+4=6 6

PRACTICE PAPER-2

CLASS-XII

ACCOUNTANCY

(2020-2021)

M.TIME: 3HOURS M.M.-80

General Instructions:

1) This question paper contains two parts- A and B. 2) All parts of a question should be attempted at one place.

Part – A Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and

Companies

Q.1) A, B and C entered in partnership of a manufacturing business. A looked after the business development, B

content development and C financed the business. At the end of the first year, A wanted a salary of ` 5,000 per

month for the additional work he did. Other partners were not inclined to this. How would you solve this as per the provisions of The Indian Partnership Act 1932. (1)

Q.2) Building appears in the balance sheet at ` 46,200 the time of admission of a partner, which is overvalued by

20%. Pass Journal entry for this. (1) Q.3) How does the location of firm affect the goodwill of a firm? (1) Q.4) Why the retiring partner is given the share of goodwill? (1) In which ratio do the remaining partners acquire the share of deceased partner?

Q.5) A company forfeited share of ` 10 each for non-payment of ` 2, it issued share at minimum possible price.

Minimum price at which share can be reissued is:

(a) `2 (b) `8 (c) ` 10 (d)` 5 (1)

Q.6) Directors of Sun Ltd. Paid dividend of ` 22,00,000 out of securities premium reserve. Are Directors correct?(1)

Q.7) There is a partnership firm having 50 members, a new partner Akshay want to join and all existing partners agree to it. Can Akshay be admitted as partner? (1) Q.8) Salary paid to a working partner in a partnership firm is an appropriation of profit. (True /false) (1)

Q.9) Divisible profits of a firm are ` 50,000. It paid ` 10,000 as Interest on capitals and ` 5,000 as salary to manager,

interest on drawings were ` 5,000. Net profit earned by the firm is `_______ (1)

Q.10) At the time of reconstitution of a firm ________ partner(s) always pay for goodwill to _______ partner(s ) (1)

Q.11) Remuneration of a partner at the time of dissolution ` 10,000 is paid by giving stock valued at ` 12,000.

Pass necessary journal entry. (1) Q.12) A,B and C are partners sharing profits as 3:2:1 C dies on 1st july 2020 and A and B decide to share future profits

equally. Share of profit of deceased partner till the date of death was ` 6,000. Pass journal entry for it. (1)

Q.13) At the time of dissolution of partnership firm, the treatment of goodwill existing in the books will be: (a) Transferred to Realisation A/c (b) Debited to partners Capital A/c (c) Credited to partners capital A/c (d) Ignored (1)

Q.14) Show how Subscriptions will be shown in Balance Sheet as at 31st march 2020 and Income and Expenditure A/C for the year ended 31st March 2020 from following Receipts and Payments Account

Receipts ` Payments `

To Subscriptions 2018-19--- 3,000 2019-20--- 24,000 2020-21--- 7,000

34,000

Subscriptions received in advance as at 31st march 2019: for 2019-20--`5,000 and 2020-21--`7,000

Subscriptions outstanding as on 31st march 2019 ` 5,000

Subscriptions outstanding for the year 2019-20- ` 4000 (3)

OR

Present the following items in the Balance Sheet of King’s Club as at 31st March 2020 Capital Fund ` 5,40,000

Buildings Fund ` 3,00,000

Donations Received for Building Fund `2,00,000

10% Building Fund Investment ( Face Value 5,00,000) `3,00,000

Interest received on building fund ` 20,000

Q.15) V K Limited purchased machinery from Modern Equipment Manufacturers Limited. The company paid the vendors by issue of some equity shares and debentures and the balance through an acceptance in their favour payable after three months. The accountant of the company, while Journalising the above mentioned transactions, left some items blank. You are required to fill in the blanks (4)

V.K.LIMITED DATE PARTICULARS L.F. DR.(`) CR.(`)

Machinery A/c Dr. To ___________________________

( Purchased machinery for ` 6,65,000 from Modern Equipment )

_______________________________________________________ Modern Equipments A/C Dr. Loss on issue of 9% Debentures A/c Dr. To _____________________________ To_____________________________ To Securities PremiumA/C To Premium on redemption of debentures A/c

(Issued ` 1,00,000, 9% debentures at a discount of 10% redeemable

at a premium of 10% and balance by issue of 50,000 equity shares

of ` 10 each issued at a premium of 15%)

___________

_________ ___________

Q.16) Ram, Mohan and Sohan were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. Sohan died on 1st July 2020. Calculate Sohan’s share of profit if following cases:

i) It is based on the average of profits of last 3 years which are `20,000, ` 10,000 (Dr. ), ` 50,000

ii) It is based on sales, sales and profit for last year were ` 2,50,000 and ` 50,000 respectively. Sales from 1st April

2020 till the date of death is ` 1,00,000 (4)

Q.17) A,,B and C were partners in a firm. They decided to dissolve their firm. Pass necessary journal entries for the following after various assets( other than cash and bank) and the third party liabilities have been transferred to Realisation account:

(i) There was stock of ` 90,000. B took over 50% of the stock at 10% discount and remaining stock was sold

at 40% profit on book value.

(ii) A agreed to take Machine of ` 5,000 in full settlement of his loan of ` 7,000.

(iii) Realisation expenses of `4,000 were paid by firm on behalf of B.

(iv) Creditors of `50,000 accepted Investments at a value of ` 70,000 and returned remaining 20,000.

OR A,B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3:1. They decide to share future profits in

the ratio of 3:2:1 with effect from 1st April 2015. Their Balance Sheet showed a debit balance of ` 24,000 in Profit and

Loss Account and balance of ` 1,44,000 in General Reserve. Goodwill of the firm is valued at `1,80,000.

For this purpose, it was agreed that:

(a) Creditors amounting to ` 2,400 were not likely to be claimed.

(b) The machinery (having book value of ` 3,00,000) be depreciated by 6%.

(c) Unrecorded Investments to be valued at ` 4,80,000.

(d) The Land (having book value of ` 3,00,000 be valued at ` 4,80,000.

Give the necessary single adjustment entry to record the above arrangement and show your workings. (4)

Q