Physics Exam2&3

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1. A square coil and a triangular coil each have sides of length L. The triangular coil has twice as many turns as the square coil. If a the same current is sent through each coil, when the coils are placed in the same uniform magnetic field making an angle of 30 degrees with the planes of the coils, which coil experiences the greater torque? X the square coil the triangular coil Both coils experience the same torque. It depends on the magnitude of the magnetic field that the coils are placed in. 2. Electrical charges and magnetic poles have many similarities, but one difference is: opposite magnetic poles repel. one magnetic pole cannot create magnetic poles in other materials. X a magnetic pole cannot be isolated. magnetic poles do not produce magnetic fields. 3. Geophysicists today generally attribute the existence of the Earth's magnetic field to which of the following? X convection currents within the liquid interior iron ore deposits in the crust nickel-iron deposits in the crust solar flares 4. The force on a charged particle created by its motion in a magnetic field is maximum at what angle between the particle velocity and field? zero 180 degrees X 90 degrees 45 degrees 5. Assume that a uniform magnetic field is directed into this page. If an electron is released with an initial velocity directed from the bottom edge to the top edge of the page, which of the following describes the direction of the resultant force acting on the electron? out of the page X to the right to the left into the page

Transcript of Physics Exam2&3

Page 1: Physics Exam2&3

1.  A square coil and a triangular coil each have sides of length L. The triangular coil has twice as many turns as the square coil. If a the same current is sent through each coil, when the coils are placed in the same uniform magnetic field making an angle of 30 degrees with the planes of the coils, which coil experiences the greater torque? X the square coil  the triangular coil  Both coils experience the same torque.  It depends on the magnitude of the magnetic field that the coils are placed in.

2. Electrical charges and magnetic poles have many similarities, but one difference is:  opposite magnetic poles repel.  one magnetic pole cannot create magnetic poles in other materials.

 X a magnetic pole cannot be isolated.  magnetic poles do not produce magnetic fields.

3. Geophysicists today generally attribute the existence of the Earth's magnetic field to which of the following?X  convection currents within the liquid interior  iron ore deposits in the crust  nickel-iron deposits in the crust  solar flares

4. The force on a charged particle created by its motion in a magnetic field is maximum at what angle between the particle velocity and field?

  zero  180 degrees

X  90 degrees  45 degrees

5. Assume that a uniform magnetic field is directed into this page. If an electron is released with an initial velocity directed from the bottom edge to the top edge of the page, which of the following describes the direction of the resultant force acting on the electron?

  out of the page X to the right  to the left  into the page

6. If a proton is released at the equator and falls toward the Earth under the influence of gravity, the magnetic force on the proton will be toward the:

  north.  south.

  X east.  west.

7. A 2.0-m wire segment carrying a current of 0.60 A oriented parallel to a uniform magnetic field of 0.50 T experiences a force of what magnitude?

  6.7 N  0.30 N  0.15 N

 X zero

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8. Which of the following devices makes use of an electromagnet?  loudspeaker  galvanometerX both loudspeakers AND galvanometers  None of the above.

9. The force exerted on a current-carrying wire located in an external magnetic field is directly proportional to which of the following?

  current strength  field strength

 X both current strength AND field strength  None of the above are valid.

10. A circular current loop is placed in an external magnetic field. How is the torque related to the radius of the loop?

  directly proportional to radius  inversely proportional to radius

 X directly proportional to radius squared  inversely proportional to radius squared

11. The path of a charged particle moving parallel to a uniform magnetic field will be a: X straight line.  circle.  ellipse.  parabola.

12. When a magnetic field causes a charged particle to move in a circular path, the only quantity listed below which the magnetic force changes significantly as the particle goes around in a circle is the particle's:

  energy. X momentum.  radius for the circle.  time to go around the circle once.

13.  The current in a long wire creates a magnetic field in the region around the wire. How is the strength of the field at distance r from the wire center related to the magnitude of the field?

  field directly proportional to r X field inversely proportional to r  field directly proportional to r2

  field inversely proportional to r2

14. Magnetism had been a known phenomenon for some time before its relation to electric currents was found. That a current in a wire produces a magnetic field was discovered by:

  Maxwell.  Ampere.

X  Oersted.  Tesla.

15. A current in a long, straight wire produces a magnetic field. The magnetic field lines:

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  go out from the wire to infinity.  come in from infinity to the wire.  form circles that pass through the wire.

 X form circles that go around the wire.

16.

  X a.  b.  c.  d.

17.  Consider two long, straight parallel wires, each carrying a current I. If the currents are flowing in opposite directions:

  the two wires will attract each other.X the two wires will repel each other.  the two wires will exert a torque on each other.  neither wire will exert a force on the other.

18. Two parallel wires are separated by 0.25 m. Wire A carries 5.0 A and Wire B carries 10 A, both currents in the same direction. The force on 0.80 m of Wire A is:

  half that on 0.80 m of wire B.  one-fourth that on 0.80 m of wire B.

  X toward Wire B.  away from Wire B.

19. A current in a solenoid coil creates a magnetic field inside that coil. The field strength is directly proportional to:  the coil area.

  X the current.  Both the coil area AND the current are valid choices.  None of the above choices are valid.

20. The magnetic domains in a non-magnetized piece of iron are characterized by which orientation?  parallel to the magnetic axis  anti-parallel (opposite direction) to the magnetic axis

X  random  perpendicular to the magnetic axis

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21. When an electromagnet has an iron core inserted, what happens to the strength of the magnet?X  It increases.  It remains the same.  It decreases.  Since it depends on the metal used in the wires of the electromagnet, any of the above.

22.

  It increases.  It decreases.  It remains the same.  More information is needed to make this conclusion.

23.

  It must increase by 25%.  It must increase by 33%.  It must increase by 125%.  It must decrease by 25%.

24. A sensitive ammeter is connected to a wire loop and placed within the magnetic field of a strong horseshoe magnet. The ammeter shows a deflection when:

  the wire is moved parallel to the field.  the wire is moved perpendicularly to the field.  neither wire nor magnet is moving.  the wire's axis is parallel to the field.

25. According to Lenz's law the direction of an induced current in a conductor will be that which tends to produce which of the following effects?

  enhance the effect which produces it  produce a greater heating effect  produce the greatest voltage  oppose the effect which produces it

—   P A G E   2   —

26. The principle or law that says "an induced emf in a circuit loop produces a current whose magnetic field opposes further change of magnetic flux" is credited to:

  Faraday.

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  Lenz.  Ampere.  Volta.

27. A coil is placed in a changing magnetic field and an emf is induced. What happens to the induced emf if the rate of change of magnetic field quadruples?

  There is no change.  The emf doubles.  The emf quadruples.  The emf increases by a factor of 16.

28. A metal rod is falling toward the surface of the Earth near the equator. As it falls, one end of the rod becomes positively charged due to the motional emf of the rod through the Earth's magnetic field. The rod is oriented so that:

  the rod is vertical with the positive end higher.  the rod is horizontal with the positive end toward the north.  the rod is horizontal with the positive end toward the east.  the rod is horizontal with the positive end toward the west.

29. The operation of a tape player to play music depends on which of the following?  the Doppler effect  the photoelectric effect  the force acting on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field  induced current from the motion of a magnet past a wire

30. A bar magnet is falling through a loop of wire with constant velocity. The north pole enters first. The induced current will be greatest in magnitude when the magnet is located so that:

  the loop is near either the north or the south pole.  the loop is near the north pole only.  the loop is near the middle of the magnet.  with no acceleration, the induced current is zero.

31. If a bar magnet is falling through a loop of wire, the induced current in the loop of wire sets up a field which exerts a force on the magnet. This force between the magnet and the loop will be attractive when:

  the magnet enters the loop.  the magnet is halfway through.  the magnet is leaving the loop.  never.

32. The operation of an electric motor depends on which of the following effects?  the Doppler effect  the photoelectric effect  the force acting on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field  current from the motion of a wire in a magnetic field

33. The basic function of the electric generator is which of the following conversion processes?  mechanical energy to electrical  electrical energy to mechanical  low voltage to high or vice versa

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  alternating current to direct

34. Electricity may be generated by rotating a loop of wire between the poles of a magnet. The induced current is greatest when:

  the plane of the loop is parallel to the magnetic field.  the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field.  the magnetic flux through the loop is a maximum.  the plane of the loop makes an angle of 45 degrees with the magnetic field.

35. Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one, the primary, will induce a current in the other, the secondary. The secondary loop has twice as many turns as the primary loop. The current in the primary at this moment is 3 A and increasing. The current in the secondary must be:

  3 A.  6 A.  zero.  There is insufficient information to work this problem.

36. An inductor, battery, resistance, and ammeter and switch are connected in series. If the switch, initially open, is now closed, what is the current's final value?

  zero  battery voltage divided by inductance  battery voltage times inductance  battery voltage divided by resistance

37. In a circuit made up of inductor, resistance, ammeter, battery and switch in series, at which of the following times after the switch is closed is the rate of current increase greatest?

  zero  one time constant  reciprocal of one time constant  ten time constants

38.

  1.5 ms  3.0 ms  4.0 ms  5.0 ms

39.  How is the energy stored in a current-carrying inductor related to its self-inductance, L?

  directly proportional to L2

  directly proportional to L1/2

  directly proportional to L  inversely proportional to L

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40.  Superconductors have been discussed as a means for electrical energy storage. Because they are resistanceless, a current once started in a loop would continue without loss. If a current of 1.0 x 104 A were started in a huge toroidal coil of radius 1.0 km and inductance 50 H, how much electrical energy (in kWh) could be stored?

  300 kWh  480 kWh  690 kWh  840 kWh

41.  In a 60-Hz RLC circuit, the phase angle is positive. The values of the resistance, inductance, and the capacitance are now doubled. Which of the following is now true about the phase angle?

  It is still positive.  It could be zero.  It will be negative.  d. It could be positive, negative, or zero, but it cannot be greater than its original value.

42. What is the effective (rms) current value for an AC current with an amplitude of 10 A?  28 A  3.1 A  7.1 A  14 A

43.

  2.8 A  4.0 A  5.6 A  2.0 A

44. The frequency in an AC series circuit is doubled. By what factor does this change the capacitive reactance?  1/2  1/4  2  4

45. In an AC series circuit, the voltage in the inductor differs in phase with the voltage in the capacitor by what angle?

  zero  45 degrees  90 degrees  180 degrees

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46.

  26.6 degrees  18.4 degrees  87.0 degrees  63.4 degrees

47. In an RLC series circuit the phase angle between the current and voltages is 30 degrees. If the AC frequency doubles, what is the resulting phase angle?

  30 degrees  more than 30 degrees  less than 30 degrees  Additional information is needed to reach a determination.

48.

  1 540 W  1 300 W  1 160 W  1 020 W

49. The power factor in an AC series circuit is equal to which of the following ratios?  resistance to inductive reactance  capacitive reactance to inductive reactance  inductive reactance to capacitive reactance  resistance to impedance

50.  A series RLC circuit in a radio is in resonance with AM 600 kHz. If the radio station is changed to AM 1 200 kHz, by what factor must the capacitance be multiplied to again achieve resonance?

  4  2  1/2  1/4

—   P A G E   3   —

51. The primary winding of an electric train transformer has 400 turns, and the secondary has 50. If the input voltage is 120 V(rms), what is the output voltage?

  480 V  60 V  15 V  10 V

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52. An ideal transformer is one that:  has a turn ratio, N2/N1, equal to 1.  works with direct current.  experiences no power loss.  has an output frequency of 60 Hz.

53. Which one of the following scientists made the theoretical prediction that electromagnetic waves travel through a vacuum at the speed of light?

  Hertz  Faraday  Maxwell  Lenz

54. Which one of the following scientists first built and operated devices that could emit and detect man-made electromagnetic radiation?

  Hertz  Ampere  Maxwell  Lenz

55. Maxwell developed his theory of electromagnetism by combining previous discoveries. He added his own original hypothesis that:

  electric charges produce electric fields.  moving electric charges produce magnetic fields.  changing electric fields produce magnetic fields.  changing magnetic fields produce electric fields.

56. Maxwell guessed that visible light was an electromagnetic wave because of its:  frequency.  wavelength.  speed.  energy.

57.

  a.  b.  c.

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  d.

58. In order of increasing frequency, which of the following is correct?  visible, radio, ultraviolet and x-ray  infrared, visible, ultraviolet and gamma  visible, gamma, ultraviolet and x-ray  infrared, x-ray, visible and gamma

59. Temperature variation of different parts of a person's body can be detected by analyzing the emission pattern of which type of electromagnetic radiation?

  microwave  infrared  ultraviolet  x-rays

60. Of the various types of electromagnetic radiation, which is the most penetrating through all forms of matter?  infrared  gamma  visible light  ultraviolet

61. In the Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves, which of the following gives the greatest shift in frequency?  the source moving toward the non-moving observer at speed v  the observer moving toward the non-moving source at speed v  the source moving toward the approaching observer, both at speed v/2  All of the above give the same shift.

62. The Doppler shift for electromagnetic radiation from distant galaxies moving away from the observer is called a:

  red shift.  blue shift.  black shift.  vacuum shift.

63. Light of colors 1 and 2 are sent through a prism and the rays of light of color 2 bend more. Which of the following is not true?

  The index of refraction for color 2 is greater than that for color 1.  The two colors of light have different frequencies associated with them.  The speed of light for color 2 is greater than that for color 1 in this prism.  The wavelength for color 1 is different than that for color 2 in this prism.

64. White light is sent through a prism, and the various colors are separated in typical fashion. Which of the following colors would have the highest index of refraction in this prism?

  red  green  yellow  blue

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65. According to the photon energy formula, tripling the frequency of the radiation from a monochromatic source will change the energy content of the individually radiated photons by what factor?

  0.33  1.0  1.73  3.0

66. According to present theories of light, in some experiments light seems to be:  composed of particles which can neither be created nor destroyed.  a particle whose quantized energy depends on its velocity.  a wave that moves from one place to another if there is material to vibrate.  none of the above.

67. One phenomenon that demonstrates the particle nature of light is:  the photoelectric effect.  diffraction effects.  interference effects.  the prediction by Maxwell's electromagnetic theory.

68. Who formulated the theory explaining the photoelectric effect?  Hertz  Maxwell  Newton  Einstein

69. Which of the following describes what will happen to a light ray incident on an air-to-glass boundary?  total reflection  total transmission  partial reflection, partial transmission  partial reflection, total transmission

70. When light of one wavelength from air hits a smooth piece of glass at an angle, which of the following will not occur?

  reflection  refraction  dispersion  All of the above will occur.

71. When light reflects and produces a clear image, this reflection is referred to as:  specular reflection.  diffuse reflection.  retroreflection.  double reflection.

72.  A monochromatic beam of light in air has a wavelength of 589 nm in air. It passes through glass (n = 1.52) and then through carbon disulfide (n = 1.63). What is its wavelength in the carbon disulfide?

  361 nm

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  387.5 nm  895 nm  960 nm

73. A light ray in air enters and passes through a block of glass. What can be stated with regard to its speed after it emerges from the block?

  Speed is less than when in glass.  Speed is less than before it entered glass.  Speed is same as that in glass.  Speed is same as that before it entered glass.

74. Monochromatic light hits a piece of glass. What happens to the wavelength in the glass as the index of refraction increases?

  decreases  increases  remains constant  approaches 3 x 108 m

75. A ray of light travels from a glass-to-liquid interface at an angle of 35.0 degrees. Indices of refraction for the glass and liquid are, respectively, 1.52 and 1.63. What is the angle of refraction for the ray moving through the liquid?

  23.2 degrees  32.3 degrees  38.4 degrees  46.0 degrees

76.  A light ray passes from air through a thin plastic slab (n = 1.3) with parallel sides. If the ray in air makes an angle of 45 degrees with the normal after leaving the slab, what is the angle of incidence for the ray in air as it impinges upon the other side of the slab?

  33 degrees  45 degrees  67 degrees  58.5 degrees

77.   When light from air hits a smooth piece of glass (n = 1.5) with the ray perpendicular to the glass surface, which of the following will occur?

 

  a.  b.

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  c.  d.

78.

  Some angle less than 30 degrees.  30 degrees .  Some angle more than 30 degrees.  Insufficient information to answer.

79. A ray of white light, incident upon a glass prism, is dispersed into its various color components. Which one of the following colors experiences the greatest angle of deviation?

  orange  violet  red  green

80. Dispersion occurs when:  some materials bend light more than other materials.  a material slows down some wavelengths more than others.  a material changes some frequencies more than others.  light has different speeds in different materials.

81. When light passing through a prism undergoes dispersion, the effect is a result of:  different wavelengths traveling at different speeds.  different wavelengths having different indices of refraction.  different wavelengths refracting differently.  All of the above.

82. A rainbow is a result of:  different color droplets of water.  dispersion.  interference.  the Huygens Effect.

83. Huygens's wave theory requires which of the following with regard to the relative speeds of light in glass and in air?

  Speed in air is greater than in glass.  Speed in air is less than in glass.  Speed in air equals that in glass.  Speed in glass equals square root of that in air.

84. Diamond has an index of refraction of 2.419. What is the critical angle for internal reflection inside a diamond that is in air?

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  24.4 degrees  48.8 degrees  155 degrees  131

85. If total internal reflection occurs at a glass-air surface:  no light is refracted.  no light is reflected.  light is leaving the air and hitting the glass with an incident angle greater than the critical angle.  light is leaving the air and hitting the glass with an incident angle less than the critical angle. 68

EXAM 31. A concave mirror has radius R. When an object is located a distance 2R from the lens, which describes the image formed?

  real, inverted, diminished  real, inverted, enlarged  virtual, upright, diminished  real, inverted, of equal size

2. A convex lens has a focal length of magnitude F. At which of the following distances from this lens would a real object give an inverted virtual image?

  1/2 F  2F  Any value greater than 2F.  This cannot be done with a convex lens.

3. You stand two feet away from a plane mirror. How far is it from you to your image?  2.0 ft  3.0 ft  4.0 ft  5.0 ft

4. If a man wishes to use a plane mirror on a wall to view both his head and his feet as he stands in front of the mirror, the required length of the mirror:

  is equal to the height of the man.  is equal to one half the height of the man.  depends on the distance the man stands from the mirror.  depends on both the height of the man and the distance from the man to the mirror.

5. The lateral magnification for a flat mirror:  is a function of the object distance.  is a function of the image distance.  is a function of the object and image distance.  is 1.

6. The real image of an object is located 45.0 cm away from a concave mirror, which has a focal length of 10.0 cm. How far is the object from the mirror?

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  40.0 cm  35.0 cm  22.5 cm  12.9 cm

7. A woman looking in a makeup mirror sees her face at twice its actual size and right-side up. If she is 28.0 cm from the mirror, what is its focal length?

  18.6 cm  44.0 cm  48.3 cm  56.0 cm

8. A convex mirror with focal length of -20 cm forms an image 12 cm behind the surface. Where is the object located as measured from the surface?

  7.5 cm  15 cm  22 cm  30 cm

9. When the reflection of an object is seen in a convex mirror the image will:  always be real.  always be virtual.  may be either real or virtual.  will always be enlarged.

10. A girl is standing in front of a concave mirror. Consider two rays of light, one from her nose and one from her mouth that are parallel as they are traveling toward the mirror. These rays will come together:

  at the focal point.  at the center of curvature.  at the image point.  behind the mirror if she is too close to the mirror.

11.  Ron fills a beaker with glycerin (n = 1.473) to a depth of 5.0 cm. If he looks straight down through the glycerin surface, he will perceive the liquid to be what apparent depth?

  7.4 cm  5.0 cm  3.4 cm  1.0 cm

12.  A goldfish is swimming in water (n = 1.33) inside a spherical plastic bowl of index of refraction 1.33. If the goldfish is 10 cm from the front wall of the 15-cm radius bowl, where does the goldfish appear to an observer in front of the bowl?

  6.0 cm behind the plastic  7.0 cm behind the plastic  8.0 cm behind the plastic  9.0 cm behind the plastic

13. Atmospheric refraction of light rays is responsible for:  spherical aberration.

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  mirages.  chromatic aberration.  light scattering.

14. If atmospheric refraction did not occur, how would the apparent time of sunrise and sunset be changed?  Both would be later.  Both would be earlier.  Sunrise would be later and sunset earlier.  Sunrise would be earlier and sunset later.

15. A 3.0 cm tall object is placed along the principal axis of a thin convex lens of 30.0 cm focal length. If the object distance is 40.0 cm, which of the following best describes the image distance and height, respectively?

  17.3 cm and 7.0 cm  120 cm and 9.0 cm  17.3 cm and 1.3 cm  120 cm and 1.0 cm

16. Ansel places an object 30 cm from a thin convex lens along the axis. If a real image forms at a distance of 10 cm from the lens, what is the focal length of the lens?

  30 cm  15 cm  10 cm  7.5 cm

17. Two convex thin lenses with focal lengths 10.0 cm and 20.0 cm are aligned on a common axis, running left to right, the 10-cm lens being on the left. A distance of 20.0 cm separates the lenses. An object is located at a distance of 15.0 cm to the left of the 10-cm lens. Where will the final image appear as measured from the 20-cm lens?

  -13.3 cm  -6.67 cm  +6.67 cm  +13.3 cm

18. For a converging lens with two curved surfaces, the radius of curvature for both surfaces is 10 cm. If the focal length is 10 cm, what must the index of refraction be?

  1.5  2.0  2.5  3.0

—   P A G E   2   —

19. A contact lens is made of plastic with an index of refraction 1.50. The lens has an outer radius of curvature of +2.0 cm and an inner radius of curvature of +2.5 cm. What is its focal length?

  -20 cm  +6.7 cm  +10 cm  +20 cm

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20.  Three thin lenses, each of focal length f, are placed in contact. What is the resulting focal length of the combination?

  f  3f  f/3  3/f

21. An object is placed 25 cm to the left of a lens of focal length 20 cm. 75 cm to the right of this lens is a plane mirror. Where does the final image form?

  25 cm to the right of the mirror  25 cm to the left of the mirror  50 cm to the left of the lens  100 cm to the left of the lens

22. Which of the following effects is the result of the fact that the index of refraction of glass will vary with wavelength?

  spherical aberration  mirages  chromatic aberration  light scattering

23. In a Young's double-slit experiment, both the wavelength and the slit separation are increased by 50%. What happens to the distance between two adjacent bright fringes?

  It increases by 50%.  It decreases by 50%.  The distance stays the same.  The distance increases by a 100% or more.

24. Interference effects observed in the early 1800s were instrumental in supporting a concept of the existence of which property of light?

  polarization  particle nature  wave nature  electromagnetic character

25.  A Young's double slit has a slit separation of 2.50 x 10-5 m on which a monochromatic light beam is directed. The resultant bright fringes on a screen 1.00 m from the double slit are separated by 2.30 x 10-2 m. What is the wavelength of this beam? (1 nm = 10-9 m)

  373 nm  454 nm  575 nm  667 nm

26.  A Young's double-slit apparatus is set up. A screen is positioned 1.60 m from the double slits, and the spacing between the two slits is 0.040 0 mm. The distance between alternating bright fringes is 1.42 cm. What is the light source wavelength? (1 nm = 10-9 m)

  710 nm  490 nm

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  280 nm  355 nm

27.  In a Young's experiment, the paths from the slits to a point on the screen differ in length causing constructive interference at the point. Which of the following path difference would cause this constructive interference?

  a.  b.  c.  d.

28. The blue tint of a coated camera lens is largely caused by what effects?  diffraction  refraction  polarization  interference

29.  Light of wavelength 500 nm shines on a soap bubble film (n = 1.46). For what soap film thickness, other than the minimum thickness, will constructive interference occur?

  63 nm  86 nm  172 nm  257 nm

30. When light passes from a material with a high index of refraction into material with a low index of refraction:  none of the light is reflected.  some light is reflected without a change of phase.  some light is reflected with a 180 degree change of phase.  the light that is not reflected has a 180 degree change of phase.

31. Newton's rings:  are a sound that light can cause.  require oil to occur.  are a result of Fraunhofer diffraction.  are an interference phenomenon.

32. A Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is created by monochromatic light shining through which of the following?  single slit  double slit  triple slit  more than 3 slits

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33.

  2.0 mm  3.1 mm  4.2 mm  5.3 mm

34.  A multiple slit diffraction grating has a slit separation of 2.00 x 10-6 m. Find the wavelength of the monochromatic light that will have its second order bright fringe diffracted through an angle of 38.0 degrees. (1 nm = 10-9 m)

  120 nm  500 nm  616 nm  687 nm

35. At what angle will the highest order maximum appear for a wavelength 450 nm using a grating with 600 lines per mm?

  36 degrees  54 degrees  81 degrees  90 degrees

36. A beam of unpolarized light in air strikes a flat piece of glass at an angle of incidence of 54.2 degrees. If the reflected beam is completely polarized, what is the index of refraction of the glass?

  1.60  1.39  1.52  2.48

—   P A G E   3   —

37. Polarization of light can be achieved using a dichroic material like Polaroid by which of the following processes?  reflection  double refraction  selective absorption  scattering

38. The blue light from the sky has been polarized by:  selective absorption.  reflection.  double refraction.  scattering.

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39.  Sunlight reflected from a smooth ice surface is completely polarized. Determine the angle of incidence. (nice = 1.309)

  25.60 degrees  47.89 degrees  52.62 degrees  56.26 degrees

40. LCD stands for:  linearly collimated diffraction.  longitudinally combined depolarization.  liquid crystal display.  lighted compact disk.

41. A spaceship is moving away from an observer at relativistic speed. Its length at rest is 100 m, but the observer measures its length as 50 m. A time interval of 100 s on the spaceship would be measured by the observer to be which of the following?

  50 s  100 s  150 s  200 s

42. Which characterizes the main result of the Michelson-Morley experiment?  verified the existence of ether  involved measuring the speed of sound from a moving source  detected no difference in the speed of light regardless of speed of the source relative to observer  was designed purposely to verify Einstein's theory of relativity

43. The experiment that dispelled the idea that light travels in the ether is called the:  Michelson-Morley experiment.  Hafele and Keating experiment.  Fitzgerald-Kennedy experiment.  twin paradox.

44. Einstein's theory of relativity is based in part on which one of the following postulates?  Mass and energy are equivalent.  Space and time are absolutes.  Energy is conserved only in elastic collisions.  Speed of light in a vacuum is same for all observers regardless of source velocity.

45. According to a postulate of Einstein, which of the following describes the nature of the laws of physics as one observes processes taking place in various inertial frames of reference?

  Laws are same only in inertial frames with zero velocity.  Laws are same only in inertial frames moving at low velocities.  Laws are same only in inertial frames moving at near speed of light.  Laws are same in all inertial frames.

46.  A mass is bouncing on the end of a spring with a period T when measured by a ground observer. What would the period of oscillation be (as measured by the same

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observer) if the mass and spring were moving past the ground observer at a speed of 0.80 c?

  0.44 T  0.60 T  1.0 T  1.7 T

47.  An earth observer sees a spaceship at an altitude of 980 m moving downward toward the earth at a speed of 0.800 c. What is the spaceship's altitude as measured by an observer in the spaceship?

  1 630 m  1 270 m  893 m  588 m

48. At what speed would a clock have to be moving in order to run at a rate that is one-third the rate of a clock at rest?

  0.79 c  0.89 c  0.94 c  0.97 c

49.  A proton with mass 1.67 x 10-27 kg moves with a speed of 0.600 c in an accelerator. What is its relativistic momentum? (c = 3.00 x 108 m/s)

  a.  b.  c.  d.

50. Including relativistic effects, doubling the speed of an object:  doubles its momentum.  more than doubles its momentum.  less than doubles its momentum.  has no effect on its momentum.

51.  An object moves by an observer at 0.500 c (1/2 the speed of light). The total energy of the object will be what factor times that of the rest energy?

  0.600  0.970  1.15  1.67

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52.  The mass of a proton at rest is m. If the proton is moving so fast that its total energy is three times its rest energy, then what is the kinetic energy of the proton?

  mc2

  2mc2

  3mc2

  4mc2

53. A lump of uranium has a mass of 2.0 kg, and begins at rest. Half of the lump's mass is going to be totally converted into kinetic energy of the other half. After this is done, how fast is the remaining half going?

  0.60 c  0.80 c  0.87 c  1.0 c

54. Relativity dealing with gravitation is known as:  inertial relativity.  gravitational relativity.  Galilean relativity.  general relativity.

—   P A G E   4   —

55. The gravitational field is equivalent to:  the inertial mass.  an accelerated frame of reference.  an event horizon.  a clock running slowly.

56. Of photons of red, yellow, light, and blue light, which photons have the greatest energy?  red  yellow  green  blue

57. Planck's quantum theory is compatible with the experimental data related to which of the following?  blackbody radiation  the photoelectric effect  line spectra emitted by hydrogen gas  all of the above

58. As the temperature of a radiation emitting blackbody becomes higher, what happens to the peak wavelength of the radiation?

  increases  decreases  remains constant  is directly proportional to temperature

59. The ultraviolet catastrophe predicts that:

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  all objects should radiate extreme amounts of ultraviolet light.  as an object gets hotter its light will change from dull red to blue white.

  a black body can absorb an infinite amount of radiation if the radiation is in the ultraviolet region.

  the radiated energy approaches zero as the wavelength approaches zero.

60. According to Einstein, what is true of the stopping potential for a photoelectric current as the wavelength of incident light becomes shorter?

  increases  decreases  remains constant  stopping potential is directly proportional to wavelength

61. Which of the following statements best describes the relation between the quantum theory and the photoelectric effect experiment?

  Quantum theory explains the photoelectric effect.  The photoelectric effect contradicts quantum theory.  Quantum theory has no bearing on the photoelectric effect.  The photoelectric effect explains quantum theory.

62. Sources of red, blue, and yellow light each emit light with a power of 50 mW. Which source emits more photons per second?

  the red source  the blue source  the yellow source  They all emit the same number per second.

63.

  12.4 x 10-12 m  16.5 x 10-12 m  19.8 x 10-12 m  24.9 x 10-12 m

64. Changing the accelerating voltage of an x-ray machine without changing the target material must change:  the work function of the material.  the wavelength of all the x-rays produced.  the wavelength of the minimum wavelength x-ray that will be produced.  Both b and c are correct.

65.    from the reflecting crystal plane  from the normal to the reflecting crystal plane

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  from the direction of the incident beam  from the normal to the direction of the incident beam

66. The Compton experiment demonstrated which of the following when an x-ray photon collides with an electron?

  Momentum is conserved.  Energy is conserved.  Momentum and energy are both conserved.  Wavelength of scattered photon equals that of incident photon.

67. Which process cannot occur if only one photon is involved?  Compton Effect  pair production  the photoelectric effect  x-ray production

68. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, which of the following statements is applicable to the wavelength of a moving particle?

  directly proportional to its energy  directly proportional to its momentum  inversely proportional to its energy  inversely proportional to its momentum

69. That light has a dual nature is referring to light:  having high- or low-energy photons.  acting as waves and particles.  having energy and momentum.  undergoing pair production.

70.

  2.6 x 10-8 m  3.3 x 10-6 m  0.63 x 10-4 m  1.1 x 10-3 m

71. The wave function as derived in Schrödinger's equation is best described as being a measure of which of the following?

  photon beam frequency  photon wavelength  particle wavelength  probability

72.  In the n = 4 shell, how many distinct values of mt are possible?  4  8

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  9  The correct value is not given.

—   P A G E   5   —

73. When a wire carries high current causing it to glow, it will emit which type of spectrum?  line emission  line absorption  continuous  monochromatic

74.  What is the wavelength of the line in the Balmer series of hydrogen that is comprised of transitions from the n = 4 to the n = 2 level? (R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 and 1 nm = 10-9 m)

  380 nm  486 nm  523 nm  630 nm

75. According to the Rutherford model of the atom, most of the volume of an atom:  is empty space.  was occupied by the nucleus.  contained positive charges.  excluded electrons.

76.  The Lyman series of hydrogen is made up of those transitions made from higher levels to n = 1. If the first line in this series has a wavelength of 122 nm, what is the wavelength of the second line?

  49 nm  103 nm  364 nm  486 nm

77.  Of the various wavelengths emitted from a hydrogen gas discharge tube, those that are associated with transitions from higher levels down to the n = 1 level produce which of the following?

  infrared  visible  mixture of infrared and visible  ultraviolet

78.  What is the wavelength of the line in the Paschen series of hydrogen that is comprised of transitions from the n = 4 to the n = 3 levels? (R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 and 1 nm = 10-9 m)

  1 282 nm  1 875 nm  1 923 nm  2 251 nm

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79.  If the radius of the electron orbit in the n = 1 level of the hydrogen atoms is 0.052 9 nm, what is its radius for the n = 5 level? (Assume the Bohr model is valid).

  0.106 nm  0.265 nm  0.846 nm  1.32 nm

80.  The Paschen series of hydrogen corresponds to electron transitions from higher levels to n = 3. What is the shortest wavelength in that series? (R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 and 1 nm = 10-9 m)

  365 nm  820 nm  1 094 nm  313 nm

81.  The Lyman series of hydrogen corresponds to electron transitions from higher levels to n = 1. What is the longest wavelength in that series? (R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 and 1 nm = 10-9

m)  91.4 nm  122 nm  273 nm  456 nm

82. The visible lines from hydrogen are all members of the:  Lyman series.  Balmer series.  Paschen series.  Brackett series.

83. The Bohr model of the hydrogen atom accounts for which quantum number?  principal  orbital  orbital magnetic  All of the above.

84. The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the principal quantum number is 4, there will be how many different permitted orbital quantum number(s)?

  one  two  four  five

85. The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the orbital magnetic quantum number is 3, there will be how many permitted spin magnetic quantum numbers?

  two  three  four  seven

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86. The restriction that no more than one electron may occupy a given quantum state in an atom was first stated by which of the following scientists?

  Bohr  de Broglie  Heisenberg  Pauli

87.  The ground state electronic configuration for aluminum is 1s22s22p63s23p1. In which shell is the last (3p1) electron?

  K  L  M  N

88.  The ground state electronic configuration for aluminum is 1s22s22p63s23p1. What is the orbital quantum number of the last (3p1) electron?

  0  1  2  3

89. The x-rays that occur when a high energy electron beam is incident on a metal target will show what type of spectrum?

  continuous  line  continuous spectrum superimposed with a line spectrum  absorption

90. Which of the following demonstrated the relation between the atomic number of a given element and the wavelength of the K-alpha x-ray photon emitted by that element?

  Bohr  Compton  Moseley  Pauli

91. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for laser action?  A ruby or similar crystalline material must be used.  A population inversion must occur.  The photons must be red.  A binary system must be used.