Q.1: Which of the following anti-Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical malarial is used as radical curative agent for curative agent for PlasmodiumPlasmodium vivaxvivax /ovale Malarial infections? /ovale Malarial infections?

a)a) QuinineQuinineb)b) PrimaquinePrimaquinec)c) ProguanilProguanild)d) AmodiaquineAmodiaquinee)e) Artemether Artemether

Q.1: Which of the following anti-Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical malarial is used as radical curative agent for curative agent for PlasmodiumPlasmodium vivaxvivax /ovale Malarial infections? /ovale Malarial infections?

a)a) QuinineQuinineb)b) PrimaquinePrimaquinec)c) ProguanilProguanild)d) AmodiaquineAmodiaquinee)e) Artemether Artemether

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in

sensitive sensitive OrganismsOrganismsb) Is suitable for empirical therapy in b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in

common common infection infection c) Has a wide distribution but less c) Has a wide distribution but less

concentration in brainconcentration in braind) Recommended for serious d) Recommended for serious

rickettsial infectionrickettsial infectione) Causes dose related, aplastic e) Causes dose related, aplastic

anemiaanemia

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive OrganismsOrganismsb) Is suitable for empirical therapy in b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in

common common infection infection c) Has a wide distribution but less c) Has a wide distribution but less

concentration in brainconcentration in braindd) ) Recommended for serious rickettsial Recommended for serious rickettsial

infectioninfectione) Causes dose related, aplastic anemiae) Causes dose related, aplastic anemia

Q.3: Which one of the following Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of administered in the presence of hepatic disease?hepatic disease?

a)a) ErythromycinErythromycinb)b) DoxycyclineDoxycyclinec)c) Streptomycin Streptomycin d)d) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicole)e) AzithromycinAzithromycin

Q.3: Which one of the following Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of administered in the presence of hepatic disease?hepatic disease?

a)a) ErythromycinErythromycinb)b) DoxycyclineDoxycyclinec)c) Streptomycin Streptomycin d)d) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicole)e) AzithromycinAzithromycin

Q.4: Which one of the following Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzaeH. influenzae meningitis? meningitis?

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CefoxitinCefoxitinc)c) CefaclorCefaclord)d) CefamandoleCefamandolee)e) Cephalexin Cephalexin

Q.4: Which one of the following Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzaeH. influenzae meningitis? meningitis?

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CefoxitinCefoxitinc)c) CefaclorCefaclord)d) CefamandoleCefamandolee)e) Cephalexin Cephalexin

Q.5Q.5:: Which one of the following penicillins Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to is resistant to Staphylococcus aureusStaphylococcus aureus βeta lactamases?βeta lactamases?

a)a) AmoxicillinAmoxicillinb)b) Piperacillin Piperacillin c)c) MethicillinMethicillind)d) Benzathine penicillinBenzathine penicilline)e) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

Q.5Q.5:: Which one of the following penicillins Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to is resistant to Staphylococcus aureusStaphylococcus aureus βeta lactamases?βeta lactamases?

a)a) AmoxicillinAmoxicillinb)b) Piperacillin Piperacillin c)c) MethicillinMethicillind)d) Benzathine penicillinBenzathine penicilline)e) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because:Shigellosis because:

a)a) Complete absorption from upper GITComplete absorption from upper GITb)b) Natural resistance of the organism to drugNatural resistance of the organism to drugc)c) Induction of beta lactamase in the Induction of beta lactamase in the

organism organism d)d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins Modification of penicillin binding proteins

on the bacteriaon the bacteriae)e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it

inactiveinactive

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because:Shigellosis because:

a)a) Complete absorption from upper GITComplete absorption from upper GITb)b) Natural resistance of the organism to drugNatural resistance of the organism to drugc)c) Induction of beta lactamase in the Induction of beta lactamase in the

organism organism d)d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins Modification of penicillin binding proteins

on the bacteriaon the bacteriae)e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it

inactiveinactive

Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has shown growth of shown growth of PseudomonasPseudomonas aeruginosa. Which one of the aeruginosa. Which one of the following cephalosporins should be following cephalosporins should be used in treatment of this case?used in treatment of this case?

a)a) Ceftazidime Ceftazidime b)b) Ceftizoxime Ceftizoxime c)c) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone d)d) Cefuroxime Cefuroxime e)e) Cefotetan Cefotetan

Q.8: Which one of the following Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the treatment sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis?of ulcerative colitis?

a)a) Sulphadiazine Sulphadiazine b)b) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine c)c) SulphadimidineSulphadimidined)d) Sulphadoxine Sulphadoxine e)e) SulphacetamideSulphacetamide

Q.8: Which one of the following Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the treatment sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis?of ulcerative colitis?

a)a) Sulphadiazine Sulphadiazine b)b) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine c)c) SulphadimidineSulphadimidined)d) Sulphadoxine Sulphadoxine e)e) SulphacetamideSulphacetamide

Q.9: Q.9: Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilis infection infection is preferably treated with:is preferably treated with:

a)a) Tetracyclines Tetracyclines b)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazolec)c) c)Tobramycinc)Tobramycind)d) Carbenicillin Carbenicillin e)e) Azithromycin Azithromycin

Q.9: Q.9: Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilis infection infection is preferably treated with:is preferably treated with:

a)a) Tetracyclines Tetracyclines b)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazolec)c) c)Tobramycinc)Tobramycind)d) Carbenicillin Carbenicillin e)e) Azithromycin Azithromycin

Q.10: The following drugs may be Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhiSalmonella typhi except except::

a)a) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodiumb)b) Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin c)c) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazoled)d) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicole)e) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxone

Q.10: The following drugs may be Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhiSalmonella typhi except except::

a)a) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodiumb)b) Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin c)c) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazoled)d) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicole)e) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxone

Q.11: Which one of the following Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI?presence of gastric HCI?

a)a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin Phenoxymethyl penicillin b)b) NafcillinNafcillinc)c) Amoxicillin Amoxicillin d)d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium Carbenecillin indanyl sodium e)e) PiperacillinPiperacillin

Q.11: Which one of the following Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI?presence of gastric HCI?

a)a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin Phenoxymethyl penicillin b)b) NafcillinNafcillinc)c) Amoxicillin Amoxicillin d)d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium Carbenecillin indanyl sodium e)e) PiperacillinPiperacillin

Q.12:The most important toxicity of Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: amphoterecin B is:

a)a) NephrotoxicityNephrotoxicity b)b) HepatoxicityHepatoxicityc)c) Bone marrow depression Bone marrow depression d)d) Ocular toxicity Ocular toxicity e)e) Alopecia (hair loss)Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.12:The most important toxicity of Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: amphoterecin B is:

a)a) Nephrotoxicity Nephrotoxicity b)b) HepatoxicityHepatoxicityc)c) Bone marrow depression Bone marrow depression d)d) Ocular toxicity Ocular toxicity e)e) Alopecia (hair loss)Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.13:Which one of the following anti Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)

a)a) Isoniazid Isoniazid b)b) RifampicinRifampicinc)c) PyrazinamidePyrazinamided)d) EthambutolEthambutole)e) StreptomycinStreptomycin

Q.13:Which one of the following anti Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)

a)a) Isoniazid Isoniazid b)b) RifampicinRifampicinc)c) PyrazinamidePyrazinamided)d) EthambutolEthambutole)e) StreptomycinStreptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is:responsible for this effect is:

a)a) EthambutolEthambutolb)b) Isoniazid Isoniazid c)c) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoned)d) PyrazinamidePyrazinamidee)e) Streptomycin Streptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is:responsible for this effect is:

a)a) EthambutolEthambutolb)b) Isoniazid Isoniazid c)c) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoned)d) PyrazinamidePyrazinamidee)e) Streptomycin Streptomycin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:-bile is:-

a)a) StreptomycinStreptomycinb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) BenzylpenicillinBenzylpenicillind)d) TetracyclineTetracyclinee)e) NetilmicinNetilmicin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:-bile is:-

a)a) StreptomycinStreptomycinb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) BenzylpenicillinBenzylpenicillind)d) TetracyclineTetracyclinee)e) NetilmicinNetilmicin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:-bile is:-

a)a) StreptomycinStreptomycinb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) BenzylpenicillinBenzylpenicillind)d) TetracyclineTetracyclinee)e) NetilmicinNetilmicin

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation inflammation called pseudo-called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism.one of the following organism.

a)a) E.coliE.colib)b) Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilisc)c) Clostridium difficileClostridium difficiled)d) Clostridium welchiiClostridium welchiie)e) Bacillus anthracisBacillus anthracis

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation inflammation called pseudo-called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism.one of the following organism.

a)a) E.coliE.colib)b) Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilisc)c) Clostridium difficileClostridium difficiled)d) Clostridium welchiiClostridium welchiie)e) Bacillus anthracisBacillus anthracis

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following adverse is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on prolonged effects are very common on prolonged use. Except:use. Except:

a)a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tearsOrange colour urine, sweat & tearsb)b) ThrombocytopeniaThrombocytopeniac)c) Flu-like syndromeFlu-like syndromed)d) Light chain proteinureaLight chain proteinureae)e) Inhibition of Cytochrome Inhibition of Cytochrome PP450450

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following adverse is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on prolonged effects are very common on prolonged use. Except:use. Except:

a)a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tearsOrange colour urine, sweat & tearsb)b) ThrombocytopeniaThrombocytopeniac)c) Flu-like syndromeFlu-like syndromed)d) Light chain proteinureaLight chain proteinureae)e) Inhibition of Cytochrome Inhibition of Cytochrome PP450450

Q.18:The drug of first choice Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is:infections (dermatophyte) is:

a)a) Nystatin Nystatin b)b) Amphotericin – BAmphotericin – Bc)c) FlucytosineFlucytosined)d) GriseofulvinGriseofulvine)e) EconazolcEconazolc

Q.18:The drug of first choice Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is:infections (dermatophyte) is:

a)a) Nystatin Nystatin b)b) Amphotericin – BAmphotericin – Bc)c) FlucytosineFlucytosined)d) GriseofulvinGriseofulvine)e) EconazolcEconazolc

Q.18:The drug of first choice Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is:infections (dermatophyte) is:

a)a) Nystatin Nystatin b)b) Amphotericin – BAmphotericin – Bc)c) FlucytosineFlucytosined)d) GriseofulvinGriseofulvine)e) EconazolcEconazolc

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:-is required because it is:-

a)a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneysRapidly excreted by the kidneysb)b) Rapidly metabolized by Rapidly metabolized by

biotransformation biotransformation c)c) High lipid solubilityHigh lipid solubilityd)d) More entry into infected RBCsMore entry into infected RBCse)e) High tissue bindingHigh tissue binding

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:-is required because it is:-

a)a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneysRapidly excreted by the kidneysb)b) Rapidly metabolized by Rapidly metabolized by

biotransformation biotransformation c)c) High lipid solubilityHigh lipid solubilityd)d) More entry into infected RBCsMore entry into infected RBCse)e) High tissue bindingHigh tissue binding

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:-is required because it is:-

a)a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneysRapidly excreted by the kidneysb)b) Rapidly metabolized by Rapidly metabolized by

biotransformation biotransformation c)c) High lipid solubilityHigh lipid solubilityd)d) More entry into infected RBCsMore entry into infected RBCse)e) High tissue bindingHigh tissue binding

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with :binding with :

a)a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA b)b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA50 S ribosomal subunit of RNAc)c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA70 S ribosomal subunit of DNAd)d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA50 S ribosomal subunit of DNAe)e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with :binding with :

a)a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA b)b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA50 S ribosomal subunit of RNAc)c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA70 S ribosomal subunit of DNAd)d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA50 S ribosomal subunit of DNAe)e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by caused by Salmonella typhii Salmonella typhii infection.infection.

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinc)c) NeomycinNeomycind)d) Ampicillin Ampicillin e)e) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by caused by Salmonella typhii Salmonella typhii infection.infection.

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinc)c) NeomycinNeomycind)d) Ampicillin Ampicillin e)e) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

Q.22:The drug of first choice in Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in renal (MDR) in renal infections is:infections is:

a)a) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinb)b) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazolec)c) VancomycinVancomycind)d) LinezolideLinezolidee)e) Erythromycin stearateErythromycin stearate

Q.22:The drug of first choice in Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in renal (MDR) in renal infections is:infections is:

a)a) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinb)b) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazolec)c) VancomycinVancomycind)d) LinezolideLinezolidee)e) Erythromycin stearateErythromycin stearate

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except:herbal medicine: all are true Except:

a)a) Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolitemetabolite

b)b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodiahuman plasmodia

c)c) Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pumpCalcium ATPase pump

d)d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugsLeast toxic among all antimalarial drugse)e) An alternative to primaquine as gametocidalAn alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except:herbal medicine: all are true Except:

a)a) Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolitemetabolite

b)b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodiahuman plasmodia

c)c) Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pumpATPase pump

d)d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugsLeast toxic among all antimalarial drugse)e) An alternative to primaquine as gametocidalAn alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.24: WHO has approved the following Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant regimens for multidrug resistant P. P. falciparum?falciparum?

a)a) Artemether plus lumefantrineArtemether plus lumefantrineb)b) Artemether plus amodiaquineArtemether plus amodiaquinec)c) Artemether plus mefloquineArtemether plus mefloquined)d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamineArtemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethaminee)e) Artemether plus halofantrineArtemether plus halofantrine

Q.24: WHO has approved the following Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant regimens for multidrug resistant P. P. falciparum?falciparum?

a)a) Artemether plus lumefantrineArtemether plus lumefantrineb)b) Artemether plus amodiaquineArtemether plus amodiaquinec)c) Artemether plus mefloquineArtemether plus mefloquined)d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamineArtemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethaminee)e) Artemether plus halofantrineArtemether plus halofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is:safe and showing excellent result is:

a)a) MefloquineMefloquineb)b) Quinine Quinine c)c) ArtesunateArtesunated)d) PyrimethaminePyrimethaminee)e) HalofantrineHalofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is:safe and showing excellent result is:

a)a) MefloquineMefloquineb)b) Quinine Quinine c)c) ArtesunateArtesunated)d) PyrimethaminePyrimethaminee)e) HalofantrineHalofantrine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by ancient times caused by Treponema Treponema pallidumpallidum.All of the following drugs can .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete be prescribed to have complete recovery except:recovery except:

a)a) TetracyclineTetracyclineb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) Benzyl-penicillinBenzyl-penicillind)d) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxonee)e) SulphadiazineSulphadiazine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by ancient times caused by Treponema Treponema pallidumpallidum.All of the following drugs can .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete be prescribed to have complete recovery except:recovery except:

a)a) TetracyclineTetracyclineb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) Benzyl-penicillinBenzyl-penicillind)d) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxonee)e) SulphadiazineSulphadiazine

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia trachomatis is treated with is treated with any one of the following drugs except:any one of the following drugs except:

a)a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlySulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlyb)b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyChloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyc)c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyTetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyd)d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ dayTab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ daye)e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg dailyCap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia trachomatis is treated with is treated with any one of the following drugs except:any one of the following drugs except:

a)a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlySulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlyb)b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyChloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyc)c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyTetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyd)d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ dayTab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ daye)e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg dailyCap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.28: The following statement is least Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:

a)a) Negligible plasma protein bindingNegligible plasma protein bindingb)b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m EqTherapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eqc)c) Inhibition of renal excretion by sodiumInhibition of renal excretion by sodiumd)d) Half life 18-23 hoursHalf life 18-23 hourse)e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depressionDrug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.28: The following statement is least Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:

a)a) Negligible plasma protein bindingNegligible plasma protein bindingb)b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m EqTherapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eqc)c) Inhibition of renal excretion by sodiumInhibition of renal excretion by sodiumd)d) Half life 18-23 hoursHalf life 18-23 hourse)e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depressionDrug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.29: Which one of the following is not Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:-an opium alkaloid:-

a)a) NoscapineNoscapineb)b) CodeineCodeinec)c) NalorphineNalorphined)d) MorphineMorphinee)e) PapaverinePapaverine

Q.29: Which one of the following is not Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:-an opium alkaloid:-

a)a) NoscapineNoscapineb)b) CodeineCodeinec)c) NalorphineNalorphined)d) MorphineMorphinee)e) PapaverinePapaverine

Q. 30:An old patient with Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be of the following drugs may be responsible?responsible?

a)a) Amantadine Amantadine b)b) BromocriptineBromocriptinec)c) LevodopaLevodopad)d) SelegelineSelegelinee)e) Carbidopa Carbidopa

Q. 30:An old patient with Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be of the following drugs may be responsible?responsible?

a)a) Amantadine Amantadine b)b) BromocriptineBromocriptinec)c) LevodopaLevodopad)d) SelegelineSelegelinee)e) Carbidopa Carbidopa

Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of that should be avoided in patients of porphyria.porphyria.

a)a) Ketamine Ketamine b)b) Propofol Propofol c)c) EtomidateEtomidated)d) ThiopentoneThiopentonee)e) OxazepamOxazepam

Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of that should be avoided in patients of porphyria.porphyria.

a)a) Ketamine Ketamine b)b) Propofol Propofol c)c) EtomidateEtomidated)d) ThiopentoneThiopentonee)e) OxazepamOxazepam

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following:includes one of the following:

a)a) ZolpidemZolpidemb)b) AlprazolamAlprazolamc)c) FlumazenilFlumazenild)d) CholrazepateCholrazepatee)e) SufentanilSufentanil

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following:includes one of the following:

a)a) ZolpidemZolpidemb)b) AlprazolamAlprazolamc)c) FlumazenilFlumazenild)d) CholrazepateCholrazepatee)e) SufentanilSufentanil

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same the patient is ambulatory on the same day.day.

a)a) ThiopentoneThiopentoneb)b) MidazolamMidazolamc)c) PropofolPropofold)d) HalothaneHalothanee)e) EtomidateEtomidate

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same the patient is ambulatory on the same day.day.

a)a) ThiopentoneThiopentoneb)b) MidazolamMidazolamc)c) PropofolPropofold)d) HalothaneHalothanee)e) EtomidateEtomidate

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the following except:includes all of the following except:

a)a) HypertensionHypertensionb)b) Muscle flaccidityMuscle flaccidityc)c) AcidosisAcidosisd)d) HyperkalemiaHyperkalemiae)e) Body temperature> 104 CBody temperature> 104 C

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the following except:includes all of the following except:

a)a) HypertensionHypertensionb)b) Muscle flaccidityMuscle flaccidityc)c) AcidosisAcidosisd)d) HyperkalemiaHyperkalemiae)e) Body temperature> 104 CBody temperature> 104 C

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use.anemia on prolonged use.

a)a) HalothaneHalothaneb)b) EnfluraneEnfluranec)c) KetamineKetamined)d) Nitrous oxideNitrous oxidee)e) DesfluraneDesflurane

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use.anemia on prolonged use.

a)a) HalothaneHalothaneb)b) EnfluraneEnfluranec)c) KetamineKetamined)d) Nitrous oxideNitrous oxidee)e) DesfluraneDesflurane

Q.36: Parkinsonism is Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following characterized by the following except:except:

a)a) FlaccidityFlaccidityb)b) RigidityRigidityc)c) Resting tremorsResting tremorsd)d) Excessive salivationExcessive salivatione)e) MicrographiaMicrographia

Q.36: Parkinsonism is Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following characterized by the following except:except:

a)a) FlaccidityFlaccidityb)b) RigidityRigidityc)c) Resting tremorsResting tremorsd)d) Excessive salivationExcessive salivatione)e) MicrographiaMicrographia

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following hypnotic agent has the following characteristics.characteristics.

a)a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsActs on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsb)b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.It has no anticonvulsant properties.c)c) It possesses little muscle relaxing propertyIt possesses little muscle relaxing propertyd)d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound

insomniainsomniae)e) Development of tolerance is common on Development of tolerance is common on

prolonged use.prolonged use.

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following hypnotic agent has the following characteristics.characteristics.

a)a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsActs on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsb)b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.It has no anticonvulsant properties.c)c) It possesses little muscle relaxing propertyIt possesses little muscle relaxing propertyd)d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound

insomniainsomniae)e) Development of tolerance is common on Development of tolerance is common on

prolonged use.prolonged use.

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of:management of:

a)a) Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosa b)b) Chronic pain of neuropathic originChronic pain of neuropathic originc)c) Generalized anxiety disorderGeneralized anxiety disorderd)d) Obsessive compulsive disorderObsessive compulsive disordere)e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorderPremenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of:management of:

a)a) Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosa b)b) Chronic pain of neuropathic originChronic pain of neuropathic originc)c) Generalized anxiety disorderGeneralized anxiety disorderd)d) Obsessive compulsive disorderObsessive compulsive disordere)e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorderPremenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.39: Overdosage of Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be benzodiazepines can be reversed with:reversed with:

a)a) Naloxone Naloxone b)b) NaltrexoneNaltrexonec)c) NalmefeneNalmefened)d) FlumazenilFlumazenile)e) Glutamate Glutamate

Q.39: Overdosage of Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be benzodiazepines can be reversed with:reversed with:

a)a) Naloxone Naloxone b)b) NaltrexoneNaltrexonec)c) NalmefeneNalmefened)d) FlumazenilFlumazenile)e) Glutamate Glutamate

Q.40: Which one of the following is Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin:not a side effect of phenytoin:

a)a) NystagmusNystagmusb)b) Gingival hyperplasiaGingival hyperplasiac)c) HirsutisimHirsutisimd)d) OsteomalaciaOsteomalaciae)e) Alopecia (Hair loss)Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.40: Which one of the following is Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin:not a side effect of phenytoin:

a)a) NystagmusNystagmusb)b) Gingival hyperplasiaGingival hyperplasiac)c) HirsutisimHirsutisimd)d) OsteomalaciaOsteomalaciae)e) Alopecia (Hair loss)Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.41: Following statements about Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except:carbamazepine are true, except:

a)a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channelsActs through blockade of Na-ion channelsb)b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic

seizuresseizuresc)c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other drugsIncreases hepatic metabolism of other drugsd)d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal

neuralgianeuralgiae)e) Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence.Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence.

Q.41: Following statements about Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except:carbamazepine are true, except:

a)a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channelsActs through blockade of Na-ion channelsb)b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic

seizuresseizuresc)c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other Increases hepatic metabolism of other

drugsdrugsd)d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal

neuralgianeuralgiae)e) Ch. Use is associated with drug Ch. Use is associated with drug

dependence.dependence.

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication.used for chronic ethanol intoxication.

a)a) AcamprossateAcamprossateb)b) NaltrexoneNaltrexonec)c) DisulfiramDisulfiramd)d) MethanolMethanole)e) TopiramateTopiramate

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication.used for chronic ethanol intoxication.

a)a) AcamprossateAcamprossateb)b) NaltrexoneNaltrexonec)c) DisulfiramDisulfiramd)d) MethanolMethanole)e) TopiramateTopiramate

Q.43: All of the following are Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters excitatory neurotransmitters except:except:

a)a) Nor epinephrineNor epinephrineb)b) Serotonin Serotonin c)c) GABAGABAd)d) GlutamateGlutamatee)e) AcetylcholineAcetylcholine

Q.43: All of the following are Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters excitatory neurotransmitters except:except:

a)a) Nor epinephrineNor epinephrineb)b) Serotonin Serotonin c)c) GABAGABAd)d) GlutamateGlutamatee)e) AcetylcholineAcetylcholine

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in accumulation of in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except.conditions except.

a)a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.b)b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.c)c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more

severe.severe.d)d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.e)e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective in Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective in

toxicity because lithium is a small ion.toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in accumulation of in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except.conditions except.

a)a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.b)b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.c)c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more

severe.severe.d)d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.e)e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less

effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.45: Which of the following opioid Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia?produce neuroleptanalgesia?

a)a) BuprenorphineBuprenorphineb)b) Pentazocine.Pentazocine.c)c) FentanylFentanyld)d) LevallorphanLevallorphane)e) MeperidineMeperidine

Q.45: Which of the following opioid Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia?produce neuroleptanalgesia?

a)a) BuprenorphineBuprenorphineb)b) Pentazocine.Pentazocine.c)c) FentanylFentanyld)d) LevallorphanLevallorphane)e) MeperidineMeperidine

Q.46: Which of the following is Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as more potent analgesic as compared to morphine.compared to morphine.

a)a) PethidinePethidineb)b) PentazocinePentazocinec)c) FentanylFentanyld)d) Tramadol Tramadol e)e) NalaxoneNalaxone

Q.46: Which of the following is Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as more potent analgesic as compared to morphine.compared to morphine.

a)a) PethidinePethidineb)b) PentazocinePentazocinec)c) FentanylFentanyld)d) Tramadol Tramadol e)e) NalaxoneNalaxone

Q.47: All of the following are the Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists exceptpartial opioid agonists except

a)a) BuprenorphineBuprenorphineb)b) ButorphanolButorphanolc)c) Pentazocine Pentazocine d)d) NalbuphineNalbuphinee)e) Codeine Codeine

Q.47: All of the following are the Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists exceptpartial opioid agonists except

a)a) BuprenorphineBuprenorphineb)b) ButorphanolButorphanolc)c) Pentazocine Pentazocine d)d) NalbuphineNalbuphinee)e) Codeine Codeine

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true?true?

a)a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluidsGets ionized at pH of body fluidsb)b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as

compared to procainecompared to procainec)c) Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.d)d) Is poorly water solubleIs poorly water solublee)e) Is incompatible with catecholaminesIs incompatible with catecholamines

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true?true?

a)a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluidsGets ionized at pH of body fluidsb)b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as

compared to procainecompared to procainec)c) Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.d)d) Is poorly water solubleIs poorly water solublee)e) Is incompatible with catecholaminesIs incompatible with catecholamines

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting.intolerance by inhibiting.

a)a) Alochol dehydrogenaseAlochol dehydrogenaseb)b) Acetylcholine estraseAcetylcholine estrasec)c) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseAldehyde dehydrogenased)d) Xanthine oxidaseXanthine oxidasee)e) Carbonic anhydraseCarbonic anhydrase

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting.intolerance by inhibiting.

a)a) Alochol dehydrogenaseAlochol dehydrogenaseb)b) Acetylcholine estraseAcetylcholine estrasec)c) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseAldehyde dehydrogenased)d) Xanthine oxidaseXanthine oxidasee)e) Carbonic anhydraseCarbonic anhydrase

Q.50: Which of the following Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterustreatment of kernicterus

a)a) ThiopentoneThiopentoneb)b) AmylobarbitoneAmylobarbitonec)c) SecobarbitoneSecobarbitoned)d) PhenobarbitonePhenobarbitonee)e) OxybarbitoneOxybarbitone

Q.50: Which of the following Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterustreatment of kernicterus

a)a) ThiopentoneThiopentoneb)b) AmylobarbitoneAmylobarbitonec)c) SecobarbitoneSecobarbitoned)d) PhenobarbitonePhenobarbitonee)e) OxybarbitoneOxybarbitone

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be spinal anaesthesia can be treated withtreated with

a)a) EphedrineEphedrineb)b) AtropineAtropinec)c) DobutamineDobutamined)d) PhentolaminePhentolaminee)e) Epinephrine Epinephrine

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be spinal anaesthesia can be treated withtreated with

a)a) EphedrineEphedrineb)b) AtropineAtropinec)c) DobutamineDobutamined)d) PhentolaminePhentolaminee)e) Epinephrine Epinephrine

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by converted into active form by gastric juice is gastric juice is

a)a) AlprazolamAlprazolamb)b) ClorazepateClorazepatec)c) MidazolamMidazolamd)d) ChlordiazepoxideChlordiazepoxidee)e) DesmethyldiazepamDesmethyldiazepam

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by converted into active form by gastric juice is gastric juice is

a)a) AlprazolamAlprazolamb)b) ClorazepateClorazepatec)c) MidazolamMidazolamd)d) ChlordiazepoxideChlordiazepoxidee)e) DesmethyldiazepamDesmethyldiazepam

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,Q.53: In local anaesthesia,a)a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pHEfficacy of drugs is increased by low pHb)b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer The drug binds with sodium channels on outer

side of membraneside of membranec)c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable Drugs having low water solubility are suitable

for infiltration anaesthesiafor infiltration anaesthesiad)d) Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity

reactions than the amides reactions than the amides e)e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the

proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugsproteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,Q.53: In local anaesthesia,a)a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pHEfficacy of drugs is increased by low pHb)b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer The drug binds with sodium channels on outer

side of membraneside of membranec)c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable Drugs having low water solubility are suitable

for infiltration anaesthesiafor infiltration anaesthesiad)d) Ester type drugs produce more Ester type drugs produce more

hypersensitivity reactions than the amides hypersensitivity reactions than the amides e)e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the

proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugsproteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.54: Which of the following Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptorsvariety of receptors

a)a) RisperidoneRisperidoneb)b) AmisulprideAmisulpridec)c) OlanzapineOlanzapined)d) ChlorpromazineChlorpromazinee)e) Lithium carbonateLithium carbonate

Q.54: Which of the following Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptorsvariety of receptors

a)a) RisperidoneRisperidoneb)b) AmisulprideAmisulpridec)c) OlanzapineOlanzapined)d) ChlorpromazineChlorpromazinee)e) Lithium carbonateLithium carbonate

Q.55: Is the only drug among older Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antipsychotic not effective as antiemeticantiemetic

a)a) ThioridazoneThioridazoneb)b) HaloperidolHaloperidolc)c) FluphenazineFluphenazined)d) ChlorpromazineChlorpromazinee)e) Thiothixine Thiothixine

Q.55: Is the only drug among older Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antipsychotic not effective as antiemeticantiemetic

a)a) ThioridazoneThioridazoneb)b) HaloperidolHaloperidolc)c) FluphenazineFluphenazined)d) ChlorpromazineChlorpromazinee)e) Thiothixine Thiothixine

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following may cause all of the following adverse effects exceptadverse effects except

a)a) Dryness of mouthDryness of mouthb)b) ConstipationConstipationc)c) Extrapyramidal syndromeExtrapyramidal syndromed)d) Retention of urineRetention of urinee)e) InsomniaInsomnia

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following may cause all of the following adverse effects exceptadverse effects except

a)a) Dryness of mouthDryness of mouthb)b) ConstipationConstipationc)c) Extrapyramidal syndromeExtrapyramidal syndromed)d) Retention of urineRetention of urinee)e) InsomniaInsomnia

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.a)a) They can cause dose related anterograde They can cause dose related anterograde

amnesiaamnesiab)b) They can cause retrograde amnesiaThey can cause retrograde amnesiac)c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have Most of the benzodiazepines do not have

muscle relaxant propertiesmuscle relaxant propertiesd)d) They can cause irreversible confusional They can cause irreversible confusional

state in elderlystate in elderlye)e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines

does not leads to withdrawal symptomsdoes not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.a)a) They can cause dose related They can cause dose related

anterograde amnesiaanterograde amnesiab)b) They can cause retrograde amnesiaThey can cause retrograde amnesiac)c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have Most of the benzodiazepines do not have

muscle relaxant propertiesmuscle relaxant propertiesd)d) They can cause irreversible confusional They can cause irreversible confusional

state in elderlystate in elderlye)e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines

does not leads to withdrawal symptomsdoes not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions exceptfollowing conditions except

a)a) Chronic painChronic painb)b) Nocturnal enuresisNocturnal enuresisc)c) Malignant hyperthermiaMalignant hyperthermiad)d) Endogenous depressionEndogenous depressione)e) Hyperkinetic syndromeHyperkinetic syndrome

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions exceptfollowing conditions except

a)a) Chronic painChronic painb)b) Nocturnal enuresisNocturnal enuresisc)c) Malignant hyperthermiaMalignant hyperthermiad)d) Endogenous depressionEndogenous depressione)e) Hyperkinetic syndromeHyperkinetic syndrome

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics exceptfollowing characteristics except

a)a) It is component of anesthesiaIt is component of anesthesiab)b) It has a high blood gas partition coefficientIt has a high blood gas partition coefficientc)c) It is potent analgesicIt is potent analgesicd)d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of

Byles,MachineByles,Machinee)e) It is used in combination with other It is used in combination with other

inhalational agents due to high MAC valueinhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics exceptfollowing characteristics except

a)a) It is component of anesthesiaIt is component of anesthesiab)b) It has a high blood gas partition It has a high blood gas partition

coefficientcoefficientc)c) It is potent analgesicIt is potent analgesicd)d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of

Byles,MachineByles,Machinee)e) It is used in combination with other It is used in combination with other

inhalational agents due to high MAC valueinhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication toused in pre anaesthetic medication to

a)a) Slow down the gastric emptyingSlow down the gastric emptyingb)b) Dilate the pupilsDilate the pupilsc)c) Prevent bradycardiaPrevent bradycardiad)d) Causes bronchodilatationCauses bronchodilatatione)e) Prevent colic during visceral surgeryPrevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication toused in pre anaesthetic medication to

a)a) Slow down the gastric emptyingSlow down the gastric emptyingb)b) Dilate the pupilsDilate the pupilsc)c) Prevent bradycardiaPrevent bradycardiad)d) Causes bronchodilatationCauses bronchodilatatione)e) Prevent colic during visceral surgeryPrevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention.retention.

a)a) SucralfateSucralfateb)b) RanitidineRanitidinec)c) CarbenoxoloneCarbenoxoloned)d) CimetidineCimetidinee)e) OmeprazoleOmeprazole

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention.retention.

a)a) SucralfateSucralfateb)b) RanitidineRanitidinec)c) CarbenoxoloneCarbenoxoloned)d) CimetidineCimetidinee)e) OmeprazoleOmeprazole

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except:treated by the following drugs except:

a)a) MetronidazoleMetronidazoleb)b) VancomycinVancomycinc)c) BacitracinBacitracind)d) ClindamycinClindamycine)e) Cycloserine Cycloserine

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except:treated by the following drugs except:

a)a) MetronidazoleMetronidazoleb)b) VancomycinVancomycinc)c) BacitracinBacitracind)d) ClindamycinClindamycine)e) Cycloserine Cycloserine

Q.63: Drug of first choice for Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis Becteroides fragilis induced induced peritonitis is:peritonitis is:

a)a) Ampicillin + Ampicillin + ββ lactamase inhibitor lactamase inhibitorb)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazolec)c) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicold)d) ClindamycinClindamycine)e) RifampicinRifampicin

Q.63: Drug of first choice for Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis Becteroides fragilis induced induced peritonitis is:peritonitis is:

a)a) Ampicillin + Ampicillin + ββ lactamase inhibitor lactamase inhibitorb)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazolec)c) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicold)d) ClindamycinClindamycine)e) RifampicinRifampicin

Q.64: Which of the following anti Q.64: Which of the following anti T. B drugs is structural T. B drugs is structural analogue of PABA: -analogue of PABA: -

a)a) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoneb)b) Para-amino salicylic acidPara-amino salicylic acidc)c) RifampicinRifampicind)d) INHINHe)e) EthambutolEthambutol

Q.64: Which of the following anti Q.64: Which of the following anti T. B drugs is structural T. B drugs is structural analogue of PABA: -analogue of PABA: -

a)a) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoneb)b) Para-amino salicylic acidPara-amino salicylic acidc)c) RifampicinRifampicind)d) INHINHe)e) EthambutolEthambutol

Q.65: Which of the following drugs is Q.65: Which of the following drugs is most cost – effective in the most cost – effective in the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs treatment of uncomplicated UTIs caused by E. Coli: -caused by E. Coli: -

a)a) Nalidixic acidNalidixic acidb)b) MethenamineMethenaminec)c) NitrofurantoinNitrofurantoind)d) Pipemedic acidPipemedic acide)e) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacin

Q.65: Which of the following drugs is Q.65: Which of the following drugs is most cost – effective in the most cost – effective in the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs treatment of uncomplicated UTIs caused by E. Coli: -caused by E. Coli: -

a)a) Nalidixic acidNalidixic acidb)b) MethenamineMethenaminec)c) NitrofurantoinNitrofurantoind)d) Pipemedic acidPipemedic acide)e) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacin