ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Corporal DIRECTIONS: … is included in the historical data file on part...

Army Vision: By 2028, a world-class Army that is a source of national pride

of 9 Army Core Purpose: Serving the people. Securing the land

ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Corporal

DIRECTIONS: Single response. Shade the corresponding letter on the answer sheet which you think is the correct answer. 100 items. II. MILITARY OCCUPATIONAL SPECIALTY 31. Part of the supply chain that insures that no damage has occurred and that the proper preservation techniques have been applied.

a. Classified c. Storing b. Identifying d. Inspecting

32. Type of fire that involves electricity or electrical equipment. The carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to extinguish class c fire.

a. Class A fire c. Class C fire b. Class B fire d. Class D fire

33. It is the cylindrical portion of the projectile between the bourrelet and the rotating

band.

a. Body c. Bourrelet b. Rotating Band d. Ogive

34. Forward portion of the projectile from the bourelet up to the point.

a. Bourrelet c. Ogive b. Rotating Band d. Body

35. It is designed for use in guns, howitzers, mortars , rocket launchers and recoilless rifle from 37mm to 280mm.

a. Small arms ammo c. Artillery ammo b. Grenades d. Landmines

36. During this operation, the air and fuel mixture is compressed in the combustión chamber.

a. Intake stroke c. Power stroke b. Exhaust stroke d. Compression stroke 37. . Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.

a. Armory c. Storage b. Maintenance d. Supply room Maintenance



38. This procedure insures that a record of repair parts obtained from cannibalization sources is included in the historical data file on part usage. a. Controlled Cannibalization c. Direct Exchange b. Maintenance d. Maintenance Operations 39. Normally assigned to and performed by TOE or TDA units in support of using organizations on a return to user basis.

a. Direct Support Maintenance c. Organizational Maintenance b. Depot Maintenance d. Army Maintenance

40. This kind of ammunition for Artillery Ammo represents, or looks like actual items.

However, it is not designed for use in conjunction with delivery systems. a. Practice c. Training

b. Dummy d. Blank 42. A mass or load of numerous, relatively small, lead pellets used in a shotgun

cartridge as bird shot or buck shot. a. Shotgun c. Pellet

b. Gage d. Shot 43. It is a delay in functioning of a propelling charge at the time of firing a. Hang Fire c. No Fire

b. Cook Off d. Misfire 44. It is a complete failure to fire a. Hang Fire c. No Fire b. Cook Off d. Misfire 45. Refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 46. The specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon required to be in the possession of a unit. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 47. In four stroke engine, each piston makes ___________ to complete one cycle. a. Two stroke c. 4 strokes b. One revolution of 360 d. Two revolution of 720 °



48. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.


49. In a diesel engine, what stroke at the time fuel is injected into the combustion

chamber?

a. Intake Stroke. c. Compression Stroke b. Power Stroke d. Exhaust Stroke

50. Stroke that produces mechanical energy to turn the crankshaft. a. Intake stroke c. Exhaust stroke b. Compression Stroke d. Power stroke 51. This type of ammunition is used for combat and live-fire training.

a. Service c. Practice b. Dummy d. Blank

52. A low explosive substance of fine granulation which, through burning, procedures

gasses at a controlled rate to provide the energy to propel bullet.

a. Bullet c. Projectile b. Pellet d. Propellant

53. A projectile fired, or intended to be fired from small arms weapon of 20mm or

larger.

a. projectile c. Bullet b. Pellet d. Shot

54. It is an assembly which ignites the propellants a. Igniter c. Gun Powder

b. Explosion d. Primer 55. Refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load

b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 56. Defined locations along the supply routes where supplies are broken and distributed to the different CSSS units.

a. AFPPS c. Logistics Release Points (LRP) b. RDC d. SME’s



57. A rocket with guidance and control system incorporated therein that guides it to the target after launch using heat seekers, radar, laser, etc.

a. Rocket c. Guided Missile b. Artillery Ammunition d. PAD

58. This type of ammunition is designed to destroy or damage vehicles, hinder movement of enemy personnel, or contaminate strategic areas. It may be detonated when its target touches or moves near it or by remote control.

a. Scatterable Mine c. Landmine b. Military Ammunition d. IED

59. This type of ammunition is used for combat and live-fire training


60. A type of bullet that contains a lead antimony slug in the forward position and a tracer composition at the end.

a. Tracer c. Spotting Charge b. Incendiary d. API-T

61. A type of primer that consists of electrode button placed in contact with priming composition, a primer cup and insulator (in black rubber). a. Electric c. Percussion

b. Mechanical d. Primer 62. A low explosive substance of fine granulation which, through burning, produces gasses at a controlled rate to provide the energy to propel the bullet. a. Propellant c. Projectile

b. Pellet d. Bullet 63. The type of primer wherein the primer case is located in a small well or pocket in the center of the cartridge case head. a. Misfire c. Center Fire

b. Middle Fire d. Rim Fire 64. This type of grenade is used to provide illumination to the terrain and target. a. Chemical c. Fragmentation b. Illuminating d. Offensive 65. The type of grenade used for riot control which may be incendiary or smoke. a. Fragment c. Offensive b. Chemical d. Practice training



66. That category of maintenance that must be performed by using units on equipment in their possession. a. Organizational Maintenance c. Depot Level Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. General Support Maintenance 67. That category of maintenance normally assigned to and performed by TOE or TDA units in support of using organizations on a return to user basis. a. Depot Level Maintenance c. Organizational Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. General Support Maintenance 68. That category of maintenance performed on a return to user basis for equipment beyond the capability of direct support units when directed by higher headquarters. a. General Support Maintenance c. Depot Level Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 69. That category of maintenance performed by the Service Support Battalion (SSBn) on units organic to the Infantry Division. a. Depot Level Maintenance c. Organizational Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. General Support Maintenance 70. A maintenance activity performed by First Echelon Organizational maintenance unit. a. PMCS c. Depot Level Maintenance b. Overhaul d. Rebuild 71. According to Newton’s third law of motion, the forward push on the projectile is equal to the rearward push of the gun carriage or of the wider base plate upon the ground. a. False b. True 72. It is desirable that the projectile travel nose - first at all times, otherwise, the streamline shape cannot reduce air resistance. a. True b. False 73. The component that propels the rocket forward. a. Igniter c. Propellant Charge b. Motor d. Nozzle 74. It is the helical or spiral grooves and ridges along the bore surface, imparting rotation to the bullet to ensure twist in pitch or progressing twist in pitch along the barrel.



a. Rifling c. Muzzle b. Bore d. Barrel

75. It is the metal tube of a weapon that is made up of high-grade carbon steel, cylindrical in shape through which the bullet is given velocity and direction of flight.

a. Rifling c. Muzzle b. Bore d. Barrel

76. It is the component of the rocket system that holds the rocket itself and provides initial guidance and electric contacts for firing. a. Launcher c. Body b. Fins d. Tube 77. The component of a rocket that contains the high explosive charge or other filler.

a. Warhead c. Projectile b. Motor d. Body

78. In exterior ballistics, it refers to the curve which represents the path of the projectile towards the target.

a. Trajectory c. Projectile b. Petalling d. Angling

79. This refers to the measurement from the surface of the lands directly opposite each other.

a. Barrel Length c. Bore Ballistics

b. Bore Diameter d. Rifling

80. It refers to the branch of Ballistics that covers the study of the effect or action of projectile on the target.

a. Exterior Ballistics c. Interior Ballistics

b. External Ballistics d. Terminal Ballistics

81. This classification of weapons have a bore diameter measuring 37 mm and below. a. High Powered Weapons c. Small Arms Weapons b. Medium arms weapons d. Big Guns 82. This refers to the interior of the barrel through which the projectile passes through. a. Chamber c. Groove



b. Bore d. Muzzle 83. It is the forward end or the mouth of the barrel.

a. Muzzle c. Barrel b. Bore d. Rifling 84. This weapon system is characterized as breach loading.

a. Cal .45 Pistol c. 105mm Howitzer b. M16A1 Rifle d. 81mm Mortar 85. This weapon system is classified a small arms weapon.

a. M203 grenade launcher c. M60E3 LMG b. 81mm Mortar d. 105mm Howitzer

86. This refers the remaining ammunition from the basic load and or the given additional ammunition needed for sustained combat operations of the unit.

a. Sustainment Load c. Unit Basic Load

b. Individual Load d. 2nd Basic Load

87. It is referred to as the specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon, required to be in the possession of a unit.

a. Basic Load c. Sustainment Load b. Individual Load d. 2nd Basic Load 88. According to HPA Logistics Directive Nr 01 – 06, it refers to the quantity of ammunition authorized to be carried by an individual soldier.”

a. Individual Load c. Sustainment Load b. Basic Load d. 2nd Basic Load 89. A document issued by OG4, PA used for the withdrawal of ammunition at FSSUs.

a. Ammunition Transportation Order (ATO) c. Issuance Directive b. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) d. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS) 90. The Ammunition Transportation Order (ATO) is issued by this unit of the Philippine Army.

a. HHSG, PA c. OG4, PA b. OACOCS d. ASCOM, PA 91. These are “firearms seized from persons not authorized to possess or carry firearms but who refuse to surrender voluntarily the firearms to lawful authorities”.

a. Demilitarized firearms c. Recovered firearms b. Confiscated firearms d. Surrendered firearms



92. In the directive for the Disposition of CCSR, this word refers to the destruction of firearms by “cutting” using a circular saw whereby all the parts of the firearm shall be rendered ineffective for use as a component of a complete firearm.

a. Captured Firearms c. Confiscation b. Demilitarization d. Recovery 93. In the directive for the Disposition of CCSR, it is referred to as fragments of discarded materials resulting from cutting and burning that has no value except for its basic material contents.

a. Scrap/Metal Residues c. Serviceable Parts b. Metal Ore d. Metal Discards

94. According to the directive on Disposition of CCSR, it refers to weapons that are not authorized for the use in the AFP.

a. Recovered firearms c. Surrendered firearms b. None Standard firearms d. Standard firearms

95. These are “properties or supplies purchased from the funds other than appropriated or reimbursable funds”.

a. Non-Republic Property c. Donated Property b. Non-Appropriated Property d. Purchased Property

96. The distance between level ground and the lowest point on the undercarriage of the vehicle.

a. Ground clearance c. Ground vehicle b. Flotation d. Undercarriage 97. The weight of cargo or passenger including crew which imposed on a vehicle.

a. Pay load c. Passenger capacity b. Net weight d. Maximum Load capacity 98. During this phase of engine operation, fuel is injected into the combustion chamber during this stroke.

a. Compression Stroke c. Exhaust Stroke b. Intake Stroke d. Power Stroke

99. During this phase of engine operation, both intake and exhaust valves are closed.

a. Compression stroke or power stroke c. Exhaust stroke b. Downward stroke d. Intake stroke



100. During this phase of the engine operation, the air and fuel mixture is compressed in the combustion chamber.

a. Power stroke c. Intake stroke b. Exhaust stroke d. Compression stroke

- GOOD LUCK! -


Page 1 of 9 Army Core Purpose: Serving the people. Securing the land

ORDNANCE SERVICE

Rank: Sergeant

DIRECTIONS: Single response. Shade the corresponding letter on the answer sheet which you think is the correct answer. 100 items. II. MILITARY OCCUPATIONAL SPECIALTY 31. These are military supplies that include weapons, munitions, combat vehicles, and their necessary tools and equipment for maintenance

a. Ordnance c. expendable supplies b. Ordnance Service d. Class I items

32. It is the part of the Ordnance Service Badge that symbolizes “Mobility”. It represents the vehicles of the past, the present, and the future. It also symbolizes gun tubes, barrels of rifles and cartridges of ammunition

a. Circular ring c. Benzene Ring b. Arrowhead d. Insignia

33. The person shall exercise functional supervision over all AFP units and offices that are performing functions relative to weapons, ammunitions, explosives and CBRN management.

a. ASAIL c. Director, AFPMCC b. G4, PA d. J4, AFP

34. An occupational specialty of the Army charged with the duty of producing by purchase or manufacture and distribution of the necessary ordnance for the Army and organized militia and of establishing and maintaining arsenal and depots for their manufacture and safeguarding.

a. Ordnance c. Ordnance Man b. Ordnance Service d. Ordnance Officer



35. It is the part of the Ordnance Service Badge that symbolizes the weapons used by our ancestral warriors and to connote weapons of the present and future.

a. Benzene Ring c. Circular ring b. Arrowhead d. Insignia

36. It is the part of the Ordnance Service Badge that is emblematic of the chemical service which embraces not only chemical but also biological and nuclear warfare.

a. Benzene Ring c. Circular ring b. Arrowhead d. Insignia


a. API-T c. Incendiary

b. Tracer d. Spotting Charge 38. A complete assembly consisting of all the components necessary to fire a weapon once.

a. Cartridge c. Cartridge Case b. Ammunition d. Shot

39. Type of Ammunition designed for use in guns, howitzers, mortars and recoilless rifles ranging from 37 millimeters through 280 millimeters.

a. Fixed Ammunition c. Military Ammunition b. Artillery Ammunition d. Semi-Fixed Ammunition

40. This type of ammunition is used for combat and live-fire training.


41. The Ammunition used in shotgun cartridges and is made up of loads of

numerous and relatively small lead pellets.

a. Gage c. Pellet b. Shot d. Shotgun

42. Type of Ammunition designed for use in guns, howitzer, mortars and recoilless rifles ranging from 37 mm through 280 mm.

a. Artillery ammo c. Service ammo b. Grenade ammo d. Small arms amm

43. A type of ammunition that consists of a sealed projectile and a sealed, primed cartridge case containing a propelling charge. The propelling charge is non-adjustable.

a. Fixed c. Semi-Fixed b. Separated d. Separate Loading



44. Type of ammunition wherein the ammo cartridge case is loose-fitted over the base of the projectile. You can adjust its propellant to obtain the desired range.

a. Semi-fixed ammo c. Separated ammo

b. Fixed ammo d. Separate Loading ammo

45. Type of ammunition wherein its propelling charge is not adjustable and consist of a sealed projectile. Tank and anti-aircraft usually use this kind of ammunition.

a. Separate Loading ammo c. Semi-fixed ammo b. Fixed ammo d. Separated ammo

46. Part of an ammunition which is made of brass, spiral-wrapped or multi-pieced drawn steel, or felted nitrocellulose which serves as container for the propelling charge in round of Fixed, Semi-fixed & Separated arty ammo. a. Cartridge Case c. Flechettes

b. Canister d. Liners 47. Is an auxiliary HE element used in a certain types of chemical projectiles to rupture the projectile and disperse the chemical agent stored within.

a. Burster Charge c. Fuze b. Base Plug d. Prime

48. A type of fuze that make use of compressed black powder rings that burn for a predetermined length of time & then initiate the HE elements of the fuze.

a. Powder Train c. Concrete Piercing Fuze b. Mechanical Time Fuze d. Proximity Fuze

49. These Demolition Materials are used as main charge with certain detonating devices, as in the case of demolition blocks or commercial dynamite sticks for general purpose demolition.

a. Demolition Equipment Kit c. Demolition Materials b. Demolition Charges d. Priming and Initiating Materials

50. Typically a/an _______ is used once and then discarded. a. Tube c. Rail b. Igniter d. Expendable launcher 51. It is the forward portion of the projectile from the bourrelet up to the tip.

a. Body c. Ogive b. Bourrelet d. Rotating Band



52. This type of ammunition is designed to destroy or damage vehicles, kill, wound or hinder movement of enemy personnel. It may be detonated when its target touches or moves near it or by remote control.

a. IED c. Military Ammunition b. Landmine d. Scatterable Mine

53. This type of mine is secretly placed on the ground or attached to an obstacle, such as tree or pole, in the expected path of the enemy. a. Fixed directional type c. Booby trap b. Bounding type d. Multi-directional mine 54. This type of mine is designed primarily to kill, wound and incapacitate enemy personnel. a. Anti-disturbance min c. APERS Mine b. Anti-tank Mine d. Landmine 55. Any high explosive, chemical, pyrotechnic, or practice munitions designed for aerial delivery. a. None of these c. Bomb b. Guided missile d. Rockets 56. It is type of projected ammunition propelled by a discharging jet of gas. The gas is produced by the burning of its fuel or propelling charge. a. Rocket c. Artillery Ammunition b. Kwitis d. Bomb 57. Another type of ammunition that is filled with high explosive or chemicals that is designed to explode when thrown or projected using special launchers and it is used against enemy personnel or materiel at relatively short ranges.

a. Grenade c. Landmine b. Artillery Ammunition d. Small Arms Ammunition

58. A type of cartridge that is used in National and International Match Shooting competitions. a. Match Cartridge c. Practice Cartridge

b. AP Cartridge d. Tracer Cartridge 59. A type of bullet that has a hardened steel core and a point filler of incendiary mixture.

a. AP c. AP-I b. HEAT d. HE-I



60. This is defined as the holding of and keeping of supplies in readiness for future use and in good working condition when issued.

a. Armory c. Supply Room b. maintenance d. Storage

61. POL is included in this Class of supply.

a. Class I c. Class IV b. Class III d. Class IX

62. Ammunition is included in this Class of supply

a. Class V c. Class IV b. Class I d. Class III 63. The document used when issuing major end items, transferring accountability for such items from the RSO to the individual user. a. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) c. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS)

b. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS) d. Supply Index 64. The document is used when issuing expendable items or requesting for such items.

a. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) c. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS) b. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS) d. Supply Index

65. The document used when turning-in equipment that is beyond economic repair.

a. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS) c. RIS b. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) d. Supply Index

66. That category of maintenance performed by the Maintenance Battalion of ASCOM on all units of the Philippine Army. a. Depot Level Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 67. That category of maintenance normally assigned to and performed by TOE or TDA units in support of using organizations on a return to user basis. a. Direct Support Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance b. Depot Level Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 68. That category of maintenance performed on a return to user basis for equipment beyond the capability of direct support units when directed by higher headquarters. a. Depot Level Maintenance c. Direct Support Maintenance b. General Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance



69. That category of maintenance performed by the Forward Service Support Unit (FSSU) on all units in its general area of responsibility. a. General Support Maintenance c. Depot Level Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 70. That category of maintenance that must be performed by using units on equipment in their possession. a. Direct Support Maintenance c. Depot Level Maintenance b. General Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 71. Part of the supply chain that insures that no damage has occurred and that the proper preservation techniques have been applied.





band.



b. Bourrelet c. Ogive b. Rotating Band d. Body




a. Intake stroke c. Power stroke b. Exhaust stroke d. Compression stroke 77. . Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.











b. Cook Off d. Misfire 83. It is a complete failure to fire a. Hang Fire c. No Fire b. Cook Off d. Misfire 84. Refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 85. The specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon required to be in the possession of a unit. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load



86. In four stroke engine, each piston makes ___________ to complete one cycle. a. Two stroke c. 4 strokes b. One revolution of 360 d. Two revolution of 720 ° 87. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.



chamber?








larger.




b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load



95. Defined locations along the supply routes where supplies are broken and distributed to the different CSSS units.











b. Mechanical d. Primer

- GOOD LUCK! -



ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Staff Sergeant

DIRECTIONS: Single response. Shade the corresponding letter on the answer sheet which you think is the correct answer. 100 items. II. MILITARY OCCUPATIONAL SPECIALTY 31. A factor of shipping wherein it includes preservation, packaging and packing of military supplies and equipment. It includes constructing and packing containers, applying waterproof materials, applying preservatives and securing loads for transit.

a. Packing c. Identifying

b. Marking d. Selecting 32. Principles of motor transport operation that involves matching the proper number and type of vehicles with the mission to be accomplished.

a. Maximum utilization c. Reducing turnaround time b. Economy d. Standardization

33. Its purpose is to collect, evaluate and report information that will aid in the selection of route for the movement of troops, equipment and supplies in military operations.

a. Information Collection c. Intel gathering b. Route Reconnaissance d. Transportation Plan

34. Methods of hauling that accomplished by repeated trips made by the same vehicle between two points.

a. Shuttle Haul c. Relay Haul b. Local Haul d. Direct Haul

35. This is the largest part of the convoy and maybe subdivided into serials and march units for easier regulation and control.

a. Head c. March Column b. Trail d. Main body

36. Organizational elements of convoy operation that consist of all vehicles involved in a single move over the same route. a. Colum c. March Colum

b. March Unit d. Serial Open 37. A premium, rapid and high cost mode of transportation most employed in the movement of personnel and high priority shipment.



a. Air Transportation c. Rail Transportation b. Land Transportation d. Water Transportation

38. A complete assembly consisting of all the components necessary to fire a weapon once.

a. Cartridge c. Cartridge Case b. Ammunition d. Shot

39. This type of ammunition includes grenades, cartridges, mines, pyrotechnics, bombs, warheads with all types of fillers (i.e., high explosives, inert, etc.) except nuclear.

a. Ammunition c. Serviceable Ammunition b. Conventional Ammunition d. Unconventional Ammunition 40. This type of ammunition is used for combat and live-fire training.

a. Blank c. Service b. Dummy d. Practice

41. The Ammunition used in shotgun cartridges, and is made up of loads of

numerous and relatively small lead pellets.

a. Gage c. Shot b. Pellet d. Shotgun

42. Type of Ammunition designed for use in howitzers, mortars and recoilless rifles ranging from 37 mm through 280 mm. a. Small arms ammo c. Service ammo b. Grenade ammo d. Artillery ammo 43. A type of ammunition that consists of a sealed projectile and a sealed, primed cartridge case containing a propelling charge. The propelling charge is non-adjustable.

a. Fixed c. Separated b. Semi-Fixed d. Separate Loading 44. Type of ammunition wherein the ammo cartridge case is loose-fitted over the base of the projectile. You can adjust its propellant to obtain the desired range.

a. Fixed ammo c. Semi-fixed ammo b. Separated ammo d. Separate Loading ammo

45. Type of ammunition wherein its propelling charge is not adjustable and consist of a sealed projectile. Tank and anti-aircraft usually use this kind of ammunition.

a. Fixed ammo c. Semi-fixed ammo b. Separated ammo d. Separate Loading ammo



46. Part of an ammunition which is made of brass, spiral-wrapped or multi-pieced drawn steel, or felted nitrocellulose which serves as container for the propelling charge in round of Fixed, Semi-fixed & Separated arty ammo.

a. Canister c. Cartridge Case b. Flechettes d. Liners

47. Is an auxiliary HE element used in a certain types of chemical projectiles to rupture the projectile and disperse the chemical agent stored within.

a. Base Plug c. Fuze b. Primer d. Burster Charge

48. These are burning explosives that contain all ingredients to support combustion (deflagration) namely: oxygen and fuel. They normally burn when initiated by fire at the open, but may also cause an explosion and produced regulated gas pressure when confined or placed on a container.

a. Fragmentation Effect c. High Explosive b. Low Explosive d. Positive Phase

49. The first phase of the explosion has expanding gases from the detonation of the explosive.

a. Positive Phase c. Atomic Explosion b. Heat Effect d. Tertiary HE

50. This is the effect caused by the material enclosing the explosive. Almost half of

the energy released by the explosion is used up in rupturing the casing of the explosive

and propelling shrapnels at a speed of about 2,700 feet per second.

a. Fragmentation Effect c. Low Explosive b. High Explosive d. Positive Phase

51. Part of the supply chain that insures that no damage has occurred and that the proper preservation techniques have been applied.





band.









a. Intake stroke c. Power stroke b. Exhaust stroke d. Compression stroke 57. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.








b. Gage d. Shot



62. It is a delay in functioning of a propelling charge at the time of firing a. Hang Fire c. No Fire

b. Cook Off d. Misfire 63. It is a complete failure to fire a. Hang Fire c. No Fire b. Cook Off d. Misfire 64. Refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 65. The specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon required to be in the possession of a unit. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 66. In four stroke engine, each piston makes ___________ to complete one cycle. a. Two stroke c. 4 strokes b. One revolution of 360 d. Two revolution of 720 ° 67. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.



chamber?






71. A low explosive substance of fine granulation which, through burning, procedures gasses at a controlled rate to provide the energy to propel bullet.



larger.

















b. Mechanical d. Primer 81. This is the length of the Rifle 5.56mm M16A1 with flash suppressor.

a. 39 inches c. 38 inches b. 37 inches d. 36 inches

82. It is the total weight of Rife, 7.62mm M14A1 with cleaning equipment and full magazine?

a. 11 ½ lbs c. 14 ½ lbs b. 1 ½ lbs d. 14 ¾ lbs

83. A part of barrel assembly which houses breech mechanism.

a. Breech ring c. Chamber b. Centering slope d. Tube

84. It closes/covers back end of barrel of the weapon.

a. Breech block c. Breech Mechanism b. Bore d. Gas check seat

85. Type of firing mechanism that has a shorter pin than the housing pushing the firing pin rearward.

a. Fixed c. Inertia b. Free floating d. Percussion

86. According to HPA Logistics Directive Nr 01 – 06, it refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Combat Load b. Bulk Load d. Individual Load 87. This refers the remaining ammunition from the basic load and or the given additional ammunition needed for sustained combat operations of the unit

a. Individual Load c. Unit Basic Load b. Sustainment Load d. 2nd Basic Load



88. This Office issues Ammunition Transportation Order (ATO) a. ASCOM, PA c. OACOCS b. HHSG, PA d. OG4, PA 89. It is referred to as the specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon, required to be in the possession of a unit. a. Individual Load c. Sustainment Load b. Basic Load d. 2nd Basic Load 90. A document issued by OG4, PA used for the withdrawal of ammunition at FSSUs. a. Issuance Directive c. ARE b. Ammunition Transportation Order d. Requisition Issue Slip 91. According to the directive on Disposition of CCSR, these are “properties or supplies purchased from the funds other than appropriated or reimbursable funds”.

a. Donated Property c. Non-Appropriated Property b. Non-Republic Property d. Purchased Property

92. In Disposition of CCSR, this word refers to the destruction of firearms by “cutting” using a circular saw whereby all firearms parts shall be rendered ineffective for use as component or a complete.

a. Demilitarization c. Captured Firearms b. Confiscation d. Recovery 93. These are “firearms seized from persons not authorized to possess or carry firearms but who refuse to surrender voluntary the firearms to lawful authorities”. a. Recovered firearms c. Surrendered firearms

b. Confiscated firearms d. Captured Firearms

94. In Disposition of CCSR, it is referred to as fragments of discarded materials resulting from cutting and burning that has no value except for its basic material contents.

a. Scrap/Metal Residues c. Metal Discards b. Metal Ore d. Serviceable Parts

95. According to the directive on Disposition of CCSR, it refers to weapons that are not authorized for the use in the AFP.

a. Standard firearms c. Surrendered firearms b. None Standard firearms d. Recovered firearms



96. In four stroke engine, each piston makes this much strokes to complete one cycle. a. 4 strokes c. Two stroke b. Two revolution of 720 ° d. One revolution of 360 97. During this phase of engine operation, both intake and exhaust valves are closed.

a. Intake Stroke c. Power Stroke b. Exhaust Stroke d. Compression Stroke

98. A type of drive in which all wheels receive power for propelling the vehicle.

a. All Wheel Drive c. Convertible b. Angle approach d. Two Wheel Drive

99. The weight of cargo or passenger including crew which maybe imposed on a vehicle. a. Pay load c. Passenger capacity b. Net weight d. Maximum Load capacity 100. During this phase of engine operation, fuel is injected into the combustion chamber during this stroke.

a. Intake Stroke c. Compression Stroke b. Exhaust Stroke d. Power Stroke

- GOOD LUCK! -



ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Technical Sergeant

DIRECTIONS: Single response. Shade the corresponding letter on the answer sheet which you think is the correct answer. 100 items. II. MILITARY OCCUPATIONAL SPECIALTY 31. A premium, rapid and high cost mode of transportation most employed in the movement of personnel and high priority shipment.

a. Land Transportation c. Rail Transportation b. Air Transportation d. Water Transportation 32. Principles of motor transport operation that involves matching the proper number and type of vehicles with the mission to be accomplished.

a. Maximum utilization c. Reducing turn around time b. Economy d. Standardization

33. It is purposely to collect, evaluate and report information that will aid in the selection of route for the movement of troops, equipment and supplies in military operations.

a. Route Reconnaissance c. Information Collection b. Intel gathering d. Transportation Plan

34. Methods of hauling that accomplished by repeated trips made by the same vehicle between two points.

a. Direct Haul c. Relay Haul b. Local Haul d. Shuttle Haul

35. Largest part of the convoy and maybe subdivided into serials and march units for easier regulation and control.

a. Head c. Main body b. March Column d. Trail

36. Organizational elements of convoy operation that consist of all vehicles involved in a single move over the same route.

a. March Column c. Open Column b. March Unit d. Serial

37. A factor of shipping wherein it includes preservation, packaging and packing of military supplies and equipment. It includes constructing and packing containers, applying waterproof materials, applying preservatives and securing loads for transit.



a. Packing c. Identifying. b. Marking d. Selecting 38. A complete assembly consisting of all the components necessary to fire a weapon once.

a. Ammunition c. Cartridge Case b. Cartridge d. Shot

39. This type of ammunition includes grenades, cartridges, mines, pyrotechnics, bombs, warheads with all types of fillers (i.e., high explosives, inert, etc.) except nuclear.

a. Ammunition c. Conventional Ammunition b. Serviceable Ammunition d. Unconventional Ammunition 40. This type of ammunition is used for combat and live-fire training.

a. Blank c. Service b. Dummy d. Practice

41. The Ammunition used in shotgun cartridges and is made up of loads of numerous and relatively small lead pellets. a. Gage c. Shotgun b. Pellet d. Shot 42. Type of Ammunition designed for use in guns, howitzer, mortars and recoilless rifles ranging from 37 mm through 280 mm. a. Service ammo c. Artillery ammo b. Grenade ammo d. Small arms ammo 43. Ammunition item withdraw from either issue, movement or use, with or without qualification due to a suspected or confirmed unsafe condition

a. Defective Ammunition c. Suspended Ammunition b. Serviceable Ammunition d. Unserviceable Ammunition 44. The observation, inspection, investigation, test, study, and classification of ammunition, ammunition components, and explosives in movement, storage, and in use with respect to their degree of serviceability and rate of deterioration.

a. Evaluation c. Inspection b. Surveillance d. Testing

45. Items of ammunition that can be safely and effectively used for their intended purpose.

a. Defective Ammunition c. Serviceable Ammunition



b. Suspended Ammunition d. Unserviceable Ammunition 46. The keeping of the stocks of ammunition, ammunition components, and explosives in serviceable condition for immediate use.

a. Inspection c. Surveillance b. Stocking d. Maintenance

47. It is an auxiliary HE element used in a certain types of chemical projectiles to rupture the projectile and disperse the chemical agent stored within.

a. Base Plug c. Fuze b. Burster Charge d. Primer

48. Items in this division shall be those for which practically instantaneous explosion or detonation of virtually the entire quantity may be expected.

a. Class 1, Division 1 c. Class 1, Division 3 b. Class 1, Division 2 d. Class 1, Division 4 49. Items in this division are those which present a fire hazard with no blast hazard and virtually no fragmentation or toxic hazard beyond the fire hazard clearance ordinarily specified for high risks materials.

a. Class 1, Division 4 c. Class 1, Division 2 b. Class 1, Division 3 d. Class 1, Division 5 50. A type of special purpose warehousing which is used for the storage of highly combustible materials. It is usually located in an isolated area.

a. Flammable c. Humidified b. Combustible d. Refrigerated

51. This type of explosion can be illustrated by the gradual build-up of pressure in a steam boiler. If heat is applied, pressure builds up. With no escape valve attached to the steam boiler and the pressure overcomes the structural resistance of the boiler, an explosion occurs.

a. Mechanical Explosion c. Explosion b. Chemical Explosion d. Atomic Explosion

52. Rapid conversion of a solid or liquid explosive compound into gases having much greater volume than the substances for which they are generated.

a. Atomic Explosion c. Chemical Explosion b. Explosion d. Low Explosives

53. These are explosives that “burn”. It contains all ingredients to support combustion (deflagration) namely: oxygen and fuel. they normally burn when initiated by fire at the open, but may also cause an explosion and produced regulated gas pressure when confined or placed on a container.



a. Low Explosives c. Demolition b. High Explosives d. Atomic Explosion

54. It refers to the class of storage wherein items are intended for withdrawal after 90 days but within 3 years.

a. Standby/short term c. Long Term b. Limited/Temporary d. Medium Term 55. It consists of aids which make the handling of supplies easier and faster and it also reduces the requirements for manual labor, an example of this is a forklift.

a. Full use of force c. Maximum labor b. Material handling equipment d. Pallet

56. A factor of Receiving which refers to the procedure for establishing or verifying the type, nomenclature, federal stock number, use or other data concerning an item or supply.

a. Classifying c. Inspecting b. storing d. Identifying

57. Supply Officers of Depot/installation levels will normally transfer their accounts/accountabilities to their successors within how many days?

a. 60 days c. 30 days b. 40 days d. 90 days 58. A Storage function wherein its operation starts during the receipt of a document authorizing the issue of supplies.

a. Classifying c. Shipping b. Inspecting d. Storing 59. One function of this concept is to protect supplies at all times against fire, hazards, sabotage, and pilferage.

a. Hazardous c. Security b. Safety d. Storage & warehousing

60. This classification of storage is assigned to supplies and equipment intended for withdrawal after three years.

a. Limited/Temporary c. Standby/short term b. Long Term d. Standby/unlimited 61. POL is included in this Class of supply

a. Class III c. Class IV

b. Class I d. Class IX



62. Ammunition is included in this Class of supply a. Class V c. Class IV

b. Class III d. Class I 63. The document used when issuing major end items, transferring accountability for such items from the RSO to the individual user.

a. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS) c. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS) b. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) d. Supply Index

64. The document used when issuing expendable items or requesting for such items.

a. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) c. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS)

b. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS) d. Supply Index 65. The document used when turning-in equipment that is beyond economic repair.

a. Property Turn-in Slip (PTIS) c. Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR) b. Requisition Issue Slip (RIS) d. Supply Index

66. That category of maintenance performed by the Maintenance Battalion of ASCOM on all units of the Philippine Army.

a. Depot Level Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 67. That category of maintenance normally assigned to and performed by TOE or TDA units in support of using organizations on a return to user basis.

a. Direct Support Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance b. Depot Level Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 68. That category of maintenance performed on a return to user basis for equipment beyond the capability of direct support units when directed by higher headquarters.

a. General Support Maintenance c. Depot Level Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 69. That category of maintenance performed by the Forward Service Support Unit (FSSU) on all units in its general area of responsibility.

a. Depot Level Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance b. Direct Support Maintenance d. Organizational Maintenance 70. That category of maintenance that must be performed by using units on equipment in their possession. a. Depot Level Maintenance c. General Support Maintenance



b. Organizational Maintenance d. Direct Support Maintenance 71. Part of the supply chain that insures that no damage has occurred and that the proper preservation techniques have been applied.





band.







a. Intake stroke c. Power stroke b. Exhaust stroke d. Compression stroke 77. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.


78. This procedure insures that a record of repair parts obtained from cannibalization sources is included in the historical data file on part usage. a. Controlled Cannibalization c. Direct Exchange b. Maintenance d. Maintenance Operations



79. Normally assigned to and performed by TOE or TDA units in support of using organizations on a return to user basis.







b. Cook Off d. Misfire 83. It is a complete failure to fire a. Hang Fire c. No Fire b. Cook Off d. Misfire 84. Refers to the quantity of ammunition allowed on the basic of unit of measure other than rounds per weapon (Ex: rds per Bn) such as grenades, pyrotechnics bombs, etc. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 85. The specific quantity of ammunition authorized for each weapon required to be in the possession of a unit. a. Basic Load c. Individual Load b. Combat Load d. Bulk Load 86. In four stroke engine, each piston makes ___________ to complete one cycle. a. Two stroke c. 4 strokes b. One revolution of 360 d. Two revolution of 720 ° 87. Defined as the holding and keeping of supplies in readiness for the future use ready for issue condition.





chamber?








larger.

















b. Mechanical d. Primer

- GOOD LUCK! -

ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Corporal DIRECTIONS: … is included in the historical data file on part...

Documents

Transcript of ORDNANCE SERVICE Rank: Corporal DIRECTIONS: … is included in the historical data file on part...