Pass-world Admission Test Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of...

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PAT Pass-world Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections. The total time allotted is 120 minutes. Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes] Section 2: CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes] Section 3: VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes] Right answer: +3 points Wrong answer: -1 point No answer: 0 point SECTION 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING Please answer the 40 following questions in 60 minutes For each question, only one answer is correct.

Transcript of Pass-world Admission Test Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of...

Page 1: Pass-world Admission Test Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections. The total time allotted is 120 minutes. Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

PAT Pass-world Admission Test

The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.

The total time allotted is 120 minutes.

Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]

Section 2: CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]

Section 3: VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]

Right answer: +3 points

Wrong answer: -1 point

No answer: 0 point

SECTION 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

Please answer the 40 following questions in 60 minutes

For each question, only one answer is correct.

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1. Calculus and problem solving

1. A and B are two integers. If A x B = 36 and A2 – B3 = 17, then A + B equals:

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) 22

2. The third of 921 equals:

(A) 321

(B) 341

(C) 97

(D) 37

3. If X = 2/3 and Y = 3/5 then (X – Y)/(X + Y) =?

(A) 1/19

(B) 3/8

(C) 12/23

(D) 11/4

4. 13 + 12 + 11 + 10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 =?

(A) 81

(B) 88

(C) 85

(D) 91

5. Z, X and Y are integers.

(Z – 1)(X+Y) – (1 – Z)(Y – X) =?

(A) 2Y(Z – 1)

(B) Z2 – 1

(C) Y2 – X2

(D) 0

6. The volume of a small box equals B cm3. What is the volume of a box whose length, width and height are double those of the first box (in cm3)?

(A) 2B

(B) 4B

(C) 6B

(D) 8B

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7. Which of the following is the greatest?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8. The amount of money (in dollars) which the owner of a used car must pay for insurance

is equal to the number obtained by multiplying the length of the car (in cm) by the number of car doors, divided by the age of the car (in years). If we know how much Mark paid for his car insurance, which of the following additional information regarding Mark’s car would enable us to determine how old his car is?

(A) The length of the car

(B) The number obtained by multiplying the number of doors by the length of the car

(C) The sum of number of doors and the length of the car

(D) None of the above

9. ABCD is a square whose side is 20 meters long. AFC is an arc of a circle whose center is D (see figure).

What is the area of the shaded region (in square meters)?

(A) 400 – 200

(B) 200 – 100

(C) 100 – 200

(D) 200 – 200

10. A cyclist traveling toward Paris at a speed of 20 mph (miles per hour) left Rouen at 14:00. Another cyclist traveling towards Paris at a speed of 25 mph left Rouen at 14:30. At what time will the second cyclist catch up with the first cyclist?

(A) 16:00

(B) 16:15

(C) 16:30

(D) 16:45

11. R, S, T and U are letters representing digits, so that RSTU is a four-digit number. Given: R x RS = TU If we divide RSTU by the number RS, what three-digit number will be obtained?

(A) 101

(B) 1RS

(C) 11R

(D) 10R

12. 20% of water in a pool evaporates each day. At the beginning of the day, the pool was full, and at the end of the day, 8 m3 of water had to be added to fill it up again. How much water does the pool hold (in m3)?

(A) 16 (B) 20

0.00003

0.0007

0.0008

0.0005

0.007

0.0008

0.006

0.0005

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(C) 32 (D) 40

13. Given: J, K and L are consecutive integers, 0 < J < K < L

What does the expression equal?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) -1

(D) -2

14. 3,600 immigrants land at Roissy Charles de Gaulle Airport every 24 hours. Each plane that lands carries 450 immigrants. How many planes land per hour, on the average?

(A) 1/3

(B) 1/2

(C) 3/2

(D) 5/3

15. If A and B are consecutive integers, the sum A2 + B2 + A + B is always:

(A) odd

(B) even

(C) divisible by 3

(D) none of the above answers is correct

16. What is the ration between the volume of the shaded object and the volume of the cube

in the figure knowing that AB = BC?

(A) 1/2

(B) 2/3

(C) 3/5

(D) 3/4

17. The area of a circle is 16 cm2 greater than the area of a square whose side is 3 cm long. What is the radius of the circle (in cm)?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18. Mr. Chang has two types of nuts. Type X costs 0.9 dollars per kg and type Y costs 0.6 dollars per kg. He would like to produce a nut mixture that would weigh 50 kg and cost 36 dollars. How many kg of type X nuts should Mr. Chang put in the mixture?

(L K)

(K J)x(L J)

5

5

5

5

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(A) 10

(B) 20

(C) 30

(D) 40

19. In a French B-School, 65% of the total number of students watches the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 25% both read a newspaper and watch the news on television. What percentage of the students does not watch the news on television and do not read newspaper?

(A) 0%

(B) 10%

(C) 20%

(D) 25%

20. Given: X + Y = 45 and X = 2Y

4X + 2Y =?

(A) 90

(B) 120

(C) 150

(D) 180

21. If water from a hose fills a pool at the rate of Y cubic meters per hour, and the volume of the pool is P cubic meters, how many hours will it take to fill the pool?

(A) Y x P

(B) Y/P

(C) P/Y

(D) 1/(Y x P)

22. A particular book has between 5 and 14 words per line, and an average of 10 words per line. The book has an average of 10 lines per page. What is the average number of words per page?

(A) Exactly 100

(B) Exactly 95

(C) Less than 95

(D) More than 100

23. If X = 2 and U = 9 then 33 x U-1 + X2 =?

(A) 10

(B) 13

(C) 9

(D) 7

24. 25 adults and children went to a restaurant for a lunch. The cost of the lunch is $11.95 for adults and $3.95 for children. If the total bill was $266.75, how many adults attended the lunch?

(A) 4

(B) 46

(C) 21

(D) 11

25. Andrew starts a new job, with a goal of doubling his old average commission of $400. He takes a 10% commission, making commissions of $100, $200, $250, $700 and $1000 on

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his first 5 sales. If Andrew made two sales on the last day of the week, how much would Andrew have had to sell in order to meet his goal?

(A) $14,800

(B) $22,500

(C) $28,800

(D) $33,500

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26. 3 workers can fill a tank in 4, 5, or 6 minutes, respectively. How many tanks all 3 workers working together can fill in 3 minutes?

(A) 1/3

(B) 13/40

(C) 19/30

(D) 37/60

27. Anna is 4 times as old as Brandon. In 6 years, Brandon will be twice as old as Charlie. If, 4 years from now, Anna will be 36 years old, how old will Charlie be in 6 years?

(A) 12

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 9

28. There are 3 tennis clubs in town: club A, club B and club C. Club A has 300 members, club B has 400, and club C has 450. 30 people belong to both clubs A and B, 40 to both

clubs A and C, and 50 to both clubs B and C. 20 people are members of all 3 clubs. How many people belong to at least 1 tennis club in town?

(A) 500

(B) 700

(C) 850

(D) 1050

29. A theatre earned €15,000 in ticket revenue by selling 180 tickets. There are two types of tickets: type A and type B. They sold 25% more type B tickets than type A tickets. If the revenue from type A tickets represents a third of total ticket revenue, what is the price of a type B ticket?

(A) €100

(B) €115

(C) €125

(D) €140

30. ABCD is a parallelogram with an area of S cm2. E, F, G, and H are the midpoints of the sides of the parallelogram (see figure).

What is the size of the shaded region (in cm2)?

(A) S/6

(B) S/5

(C) S/4

(D) S/3

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2. Data sufficiency Directions: Each of the following Data Sufficiency problems contains a question followed by two statements, numbered (1) and (2). You need not solve the problem; rather you must decide whether the information given is sufficient to solve the problem. The correct answer to a question is: (A) If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2) alone is not sufficient; (B) If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1) alone is not sufficient; (C) If the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient; (D) If EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question; (E) If the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are still NOT sufficient to answer the question.

31. Is the integer Y odd or even?

(1) Y2 is odd

(2) 2Y is even

32. What is A + B + C?

(1) A + B = 3

(2) A + C = 2

33. It takes 4 hours to travel from Paris to Lyon and back to Paris. How long will it take to travel from Paris to Lyon?

(1) It takes 25% more time to travel from Paris to Lyon than it does to travel from Lyon to Paris.

(2) Auxerre city is midway between Paris and Lyon, and it takes 2 hours to travel from Paris to Auxerre city and back to Paris.

34. Is A > B

(1) (A + B)2 > 0

(2) A is positive

35. 50 students have signed up for at least one of the French courses and Spanish courses. How many of the 50 students are taking French but not Spanish?

(1) 16 students are taking French and Spanish.

(2) The number of students taking French but not Spanish is the same as the number of students taking Spanish but not French.

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36. What was Mr. Villeneuve income in 2010?

(1) His total income for 2008, 2009 and 2010 was €120,000.

(2) He made 20% more in 2009 than he did in 2008.

37. If Q, R, and S are digits, is Q+R+S a multiple of 8? (A digit is one of the integers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)

(1) The three digit number QRS is a multiple of 8. (2) Q x R x S is a multiple of 8.

38. Mark and Nancy can each perform a certain task in m hours and n hours, respectively. Is

m < n?

(1) Twice the time it would take both Mark and Nancy to perform the task together, each

working at their respective constant rates, is greater than m.

(2) Twice the time it would take both Mark and Nancy to perform the task together, each working at their respective constant rates, is less than n.

39. Is D positive?

(1) D2 + 3D = 4 (2) D > - 2

40. Did it take a certain bicycle less than 3 hours to travel 9 kilometers? (1 kilometer = 1000 meters).

(1) The bicycle’s average speed over the 9 kilometers was greater than 55 meters per minute. (2) The bicycle’s average speed over the 9 kilometers was less than 60 meters per minute.

STOP! You may check your work on this section only.

Do not go on the next section until you are told to do so.

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PAT 2015 Pass-world Admission Test

The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.

The total time allotted is 120 minutes.

Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]

Section 2: CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]

Section 3: VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]

Right answer: +3 points

Wrong answer: -1 point

No answer: 0 point

SECTION 2: CRITICAL REASONING

Please answer the 10 following questions in 15 minutes

For each question, only one answer is correct.

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1. Questions 41-44 refer to the following text and the accompanying figure:

“PASS-PASS” is a game played by a single player.

The player has 16 tiles. One of the 8 letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H appears on each file. Each letter appears on exactly two tiles, so that the player actually has 8 pairs of identical tiles.

At the start of each game, the tiles are laid out in 7 adjacent stacks in the following manner:

The player sees only those letters on the tiles at the top of the stacks, and has no information about the other tiles. The object of the PASS-PASS game is to remove all of the tiles. One or two tiles may be removed during each move according to the following rules:

A. When the tiles at the top of two of the stacks have the same letter - these two tiles may be removed, and removing only one of them is forbidden.

B. When the letters G or H are on a tile at the top of a stack, and cannot be removed according to rule A - they can be removed alone.

If no legitimate move can be made, i.e. a move in accordance with the rules, the game ends.

Note: Each question refers to a different game, in which the tiles are in a different order.

41. At a certain stage in the game, the stacks look like this:

Which letter must have appeared on the tile that was on top of stack 4 at the start of the game?

(A) E

(B) D

(C) G

(D) F

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42. At the start of the game the stacks look like this:

After several moves, the stacks look like this:

Which letter appeared on the tile that was in the middle of stack 3 at the start of the game?

(A) A

(B) F

(C) H

(D) G

43. At a certain stage in the game the stacks look like this:

Which of the following sentences must be correct?

(A) The letter on the tile at the bottom of stack 2 is A or F

(B) The letter on the tile at the bottom of stack 3 is G

(C) No further moves can be made at the stage of the game described above

(D) Another 4 moves are needed in order to remove all of tiles

44. At a certain stage in the game the stacks look like this:

Which of the following letters, if it appears on the tile at the bottom of stack 5, will necessarily prevent the possibility of removing all the tiles?

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(A) H

(B) F

(C) B

(D) None of the above.

2. Critical reasoning

45. “The highway leads to Grenoble. We arrived in Grenoble, hence we came on the

highway”.

Which of the following arguments is parallel to the above argument in its logical structure?

(A) If the test takes place on time, then we will reach the plane on time. The test took place on time; hence we reached the train on time.

(B) If the subsidy is cancelled, taxes will go up. Taxes went up; hence the subsidy was cancelled.

(C) If all those who are invited show up, then the party will be a success. The party was a success; hence some of those who were invited did not show up.

(D) If sufficient funds are invested in the research, then it will be completed within a year. Sufficient funds were not invested in the research; hence it was not completed within a year.

46. Psychologists treating smokers who wish to stop smoking have reported a low success rate. Surveys by the Ministry of Health have revealed that a significant percentage of smokers who wished to stop smoking have succeeded in doing so.

How can the apparent contradiction between the findings be resolved?

(A) The results reported by the psychologists were included in the Ministry of Health survey

(B) The habit of smoking can be overcome through great willpower

(C) The people included in the Ministry of Health survey failed in the attempt to stop smoking on their own

(D) People who successfully stopped smoking on their own were not included in the psychologists’ report

47. Given: There are drivers and they are all artists. What additional data is sufficient to infer the conclusion: “All drivers love shopping”?

(A) Some of those who love shopping are artists

(B) All of those who love shopping are artists

(C) There is no artist who does not love shopping

(D) There is no one who loves shopping who is not an artist

48. A study revealed that:

A. All yellow flowers wither quickly and have a nice smell B. All flowers that are not yellow like sunshine and grow only in coastal cities

Based on this study, which of the following is impossible?

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(A) A flower that does not wither quickly and does not like sunshine

(B) A flower that is not yellow and withers quickly

(C) A yellow flower that has a nice smell and does not like sunshine

(D) A flower that does not wither quickly and likes sunshine

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49. Five rooms are connected by an intercom in such a way that – - room C has a direct connection to room B and room A. - room D has a direct connection to room B and room E. - there are no other direct connections between rooms.

Assuming that a connection is always made in the shortest possible way, which of the following messages will pass through the greatest number of rooms?

(A) A message from room C to room D

(B) A message from room A to room D

(C) A message from room B to room A

(D) A message from room E to room B

50. The board of directors has 3 members: Ray, Ben and Dina. Decisions are reached by the following rules: A. Abstaining from voting is not allowed. B. When there is a consensus, the unanimous position is adopted. C. If there is no consensus (that is, there is a majority and a minority), the proposal

voted for by the minority is adopted. Ray voted for a trip to Russia. Dina is opposed to it. How must she vote in order for her position to be adopted?

(A) She has to vote for the proposal in any event

(B) She has to vote against the proposal in any event

(C) She has to vote the way Ben votes

(D) She has to vote differently from Ben

STOP! You may check your work on this section only.

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Do not go on the next section until you are told to do so.

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PAT 2015 Pass-world Admission Test

The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.

The total time allotted is 120 minutes.

Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]

Section 2: CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]

Section 3: VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]

Right answer: +3 points

Wrong answer: -1 point

No answer: 0 point

SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING

Please answer the 50 following questions in 45 minutes

For each question, only one answer is correct.

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1. Reading comprehension

First text: The European Union is not the only institution that prefers faceless technocrats to people with star power. The corporate world is increasingly rejecting imperial chief executives in favor of anonymous managers — bland and boring men and women who can hardly get themselves noticed at cocktail parties, let alone stop the traffic in Moscow and Beijing. Some of the world’s most powerful bosses are striking mainly for their blandness. Watch the parade of chief executives who appear on CNBC every day, or drop in to a high-powered conference, and you begin to wonder whether cloning is more advanced than scientists are letting on. It is true that there are a few more women and members of ethnic minorities at the top of companies than there used to be. But physical diversity has not translated into cultural diversity or intellectual vitality. Almost without exception, today’s bosses spout the same tired old management clichés — about the merits of doing well by doing right, the importance of valuing your workers, the virtues of sustainability and so forth. The women who were profiled in a recent article in the Financial Times about the “top 50 women in world business” were every bit as adept with the cliché as their male colleagues. The fashion for faceless chief executives is part of an understandable reaction against yesterday’s imperial bosses. Some broke the law and helped inspire a dramatic tightening of government regulation, in the form of the Sarbanes-Oxley legislation. Others paid themselves like superstars but delivered dismal results. The turbulent business climate is another factor that encourages today’s chief executives to keep their heads down. Their average tenure has declined from ten years in the 1970s to six years today, and boards are becoming ever more likely to sack bosses if they get out of line, particularly in Europe. The financial crisis has also produced a wave of popular fury about over-paid executives and their unaccountable ways. In this sort of climate it is not just the paranoid, but the faceless, who survive. Facelessness — or at least humility — is also the height of fashion among management consultants and business gurus. Corporate headhunters are helping firms find “humble” bosses: the boss of Japan Airlines, for example, travels to work on the bus and pays himself less than his pilots. Yet there is surely a danger of taking all this too far. A low profile is no guarantee against corporate failure. In general, the corporate world needs its flamboyant visionaries and raging egomaniacs rather more than its humble leaders and corporate civil servants. Think of the people who have shaped the modern business landscape, and “faceless” and “humble” are not the first words that come to mind. The best ambassadors for business are the outsized figures who have changed the world and who feel no need to apologize for themselves or their calling. There is no long-term comparative advantage in being forgettable.

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Questions (51 to 60):

51. The corporate world…

(A) is well-known for the number of cocktail parties it holds

(B) is getting involved in traffic management programmes in some major business capitals

(C) now prefers discrete leaders to charismatic CEOs

(D) is peopled with underpaid executives

52. The term “bland” here means:

(A) flavorless

(B) dull

(C) incompetent

(D) mediocre

53. Scientists…

(A) are taken to task for hiding information about the advances in cloning

(B) are providing insight into how clones are produced

(C) are suspected of being involved in illegal activity

(D) have nothing to do with the appointment of CEOs

54. The term “spout” is here closest in meaning to:

(A) value

(B) extol

(C) extort

(D) repeat

55. Top businesswomen tend to:

(A) differentiate themselves from their male colleagues

(B) espouse similar values to those voiced by their male counterparts

(C) come up with the same explanations and arguments as their male counterparts

(D) abide by the same rules as their male colleagues

56. Some of the best-paid CEOs…

(A) produced outstanding results

(B) made considerable profits for their businesses

(C) befriended superstars

(D) were responsible for substantial losses

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57. CEOs today are…

(A) keeping a low profile

(B) attracting a lot of international interest

(C) focusing on the fundamentals

(D) getting back down to serious work

58. The term “tenure” is closest in meaning to:

(A) tenancy

(B) mandate

(C) period in office

(D) length of employment

59. In Europe, bosses who do not toe the line risk being…

(A) licensed

(B) limed

(C) fired

(D) thanked

60. The term “calling” is closest in meaning to:

(A) vocation

(B) commitment

(C) devotion

(D) charisma

Second text:

In the heady progressive years of the early 20th century, few things were more alluring than the promise of scientific knowledge. In a world struggling with rapid industrialization, massive immigration, and chaotic urban growth, science and technology seemed to offer solutions to almost every problem. Newly created state colleges and universities devoted themselves almost entirely to scientific, technological, and engineering fields. Many Americans came to believe that scientific certainty could solve not only scientific problems, but could also reform politics, government, and business. Two world wars and a Great Depression rocked the confidence of many people that scientific expertise alone could create a prosperous and ordered world. In the aftermath of World War II, the academic world turned with new enthusiasm to humanistic studies, which seemed to many scholars the best way to ensure the survival of democracy and to resist tyranny. American scholars fanned out across much of the world—with support from the Ford Foundation, the Fulbright program, and the U.S. Information Agency—to promote the teaching of literature and the arts in an effort to make the case for democratic freedoms. In the America of our own time, the great educational challenge has become an effort to strengthen the teaching of what is now know as the STEM disciplines (science, technology, engineering, and math). There is considerable and justified concern that the United States is falling behind much of the rest of the developed world in these essential disciplines. India, China, Japan, and other regions seem to be seizing technological leadership. At the same time, perhaps inevitably, the humanities—while still popular in elite colleges and universities—have experienced a significant decline. Humanistic disciplines are seriously underfunded, not just by the government and the foundations but by academic institutions themselves. Humanists are usually among the lowest-paid faculty members at most institutions

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and are often lightly regarded because they do not generate grant income and because they provide no obvious credentials for most nonacademic careers. There is no doubt that American education should be training more scientists and engineers and should be teaching scientific literacy to everyone else. Much of the hand-wringing among politicians about the state of American universities today is focused on the absence of "real world" education—which to a large degree means preparation for professional and scientific careers. But the idea that institutions or their students must decide between humanities and science is false. Our society could not survive without scientific and technological knowledge. But we would be equally impoverished without humanistic knowledge as well. Science and technology teach us what we can do. Humanistic thinking can help us understand what we should do. The humanities are not simply vehicles of aesthetic reward and intellectual inspiration, as valuable as those purposes are. Science and technology aspire to clean, clear answers to problems (as elusive as those answers might be). The humanities address ambiguity, doubt, and skepticism—essential underpinnings in a complex and diverse society and a turbulent world.

Questions (61-70)

61. The heady progressive years of the early 20th century were a time of:

(A) frenetic intellectual activity

(B) avant-garde radicalism

(C) excitement and progress

(D) innovation and change

62. The Depression and the World Wars meant that people’s confidence in science was:

(A) confirmed

(B) shaken

(C) stimulated

(D) wiped out

63. Humanistic studies were readily embraced in the…

(A) chaos and devastation of the post-war years

(B) new hope that emerged after the war

(C) turbulent run-up to the second World War

(D) upheaval of the war years

64. “Fanned out” is closest in meaning to:

(A) wilted

(B) discovered

(C) spread

(D) ventilated

65. Today, the US is…

(A) lagging behind other countries in the STEM disciplines

(B) strengthening the teaching of the STEM disciplines

(C) investing abroad in the STEM disciplines

(D) seizing world leadership in the STEM disciplines

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66. Humanists are often…

(A) considered with great respect by their peers

(B) looked down upon and scorned by other academics

(C) thought to be intellectual lightweights by their colleagues

(D) regarded as bright and enlightened by all

67. The term “credentials” is closest in meaning to:

(A) achievements

(B) qualifications

(C) identity

(D) training

68. Politicians are…

(A) washing their hands of all interest in American universities

(B) exasperated about the state of American universities

(C) congratulating themselves on the technological advances made in American universities

(D) keen to publicize the progress made by American universities

69. The reason the humanities should be studied is primarily…

(A) ethical

(B) practical

(C) technological

(D) scientific

70. The term “underpinnings” is closest in meaning to:

(A) foundations

(B) props

(C) grounding

(D) supports

2. Grammar & vocabulary 71. We ________ the guitar for three hours.

(A) have been playing

(B) are playing

(C) were playing

(D) play

72. What do you do? I am a doctor. I ________ since 2003.

(A) am

(B) was

(C) have been working

(D) had been

73. He ________ alone for a long time. Then he decided to have children.

(A) has been living (B) was living

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(C) is living (D) lived

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74. I ________ to London tomorrow. I will therefore not be in my office.

(A) go

(B) went

(C) am going

(D) will have gone

75. Never put _______ to tomorrow what you can do today.

(A) off

(B) down

(C) up

(D) away 76. She thanked him _______ her a hand.

(A) to have given

(B) she would give

(C) to giving

(D) for giving 77. He said that when he _______ to Strasbourg, he would visit us.

(A) comes

(B) come

(C) is coming

(D) would come 78. Anne is looking forward _______ her old friend Ben.

(A) meeting

(B) to meeting

(C) to meet

(D) of meeting 79. If you are interested _______ listening to good jazz music, just _______ me know!

(A) in / have

(B) by / let

(C) by / have

(D) in / let

80. This prominent professor has _______ important _______ on heart attacks throughout his career.

(A) led / searches

(B) conducted / research

(C) had / search

(D) carried / searches 81. Life _______.

(A) is getting more and more expensive

(B) is getting all the most expensive

(C) is getting so the more expensive

(D) is getting most and most expensive

82. She expected me to tell her what she _______.

(A) is to do

(B) is do

(C) is not doing

(D) wouldn’t do

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83. Believe me John; these two last days have been terrible for us. You just can’t imagine what we have been _______.

(A) going up

(B) going down

(C) going through

(D) going bad

84. My best friend fortunately talked me _______ buying the villa. And he was right… I

definitely would have done a poor investment.

(A) with

(B) not

(C) out of

(D) of

85. _______ flourishing business he’s running!

(A) How

(B) How a

(C) What a

(D) What

3. Restatements For each of the 5 following questions, select the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence (here, in bold type)

86. Most people want more than they can afford to buy.

(A) Most people can afford to buy more than they really need.

(B) In order to buy the things they want, people need money.

(C) People buy many things, but cannot pay for all of them.

(D) Most people do not have enough money to buy everything they want.

87. The rise in popularity of the English novel was largely due to the success of two nineteenth-century novelists: Dickens and Hardy.

(A) Two nineteenth-century English authors, Dickens and Hardy, were successful at writing novels only because of their popularity.

(B) During the nineteenth century, two English novelists, Dickens and Hardy, gained popularity because of their novels.

(C) It was mostly because of Dickens and Hardy, two writers in the nineteenth century that the English novel gained popularity.

(D) The rising of the English novel helped increase the popularity of two nineteenth-century writers: Dickens and Hardy.

88. Throughout history there have been many different notions about which types of behavior constitute insanity.

(A) Different types of insanity have always been part of people’s behavior.

(B) Throughout history, certain types of behavior have always been considered insane.

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(C) People have a long history of insanity, which has not always been well understood.

(D) There have always been different ideas about what can be considered insane.

89. Many scientific discoveries are attributed to famous scientists who, in the majority

of cases, merely completed a process that was already developing, and which, sooner or later, would have been completed by others.

(A) People often credit famous scientists, who in most cases were only completing a process already begun, with discoveries that would eventually have been made by others.

(B) In the majority of cases, even famous scientists attribute their discoveries to processes that were begun, but not necessarily completed by others.

(C) Sooner or later, the discoveries made by famous scientists are recognized as being the result of a long process of development usually begun, and sometimes even completed, by others.

(D) In most cases, scientists become famous for making a particular discovery, rather than for completing work on processes that were begun and developed by others.

90. Many nations are involved in improving public education.

(A) Nations should work together on the issue of public education.

(B) The purpose of public education is to improve the nation.

(C) Improving public education is something many nations are working towards.

(D) Public education is necessary for the improvement of many nations.

4. Analogies

Each of the following questions contains a pair of words in bold type.

Find the relationship between the meanings of these two words, and then choose from among the possible answers the one in which the relationship between the two words is most similar to the relationship you have found.

Please note that the order of the words in each pair is significant.

91. SPEECH : ACCENT

(A) FURNITURE : ARMCHAIR

(B) SONG : REFRAIN

(C) SLEEP : DREAM

(D) FRUIT : COLOR

92. INVESTIGATION : INFORMATION

(A) MINING : ORE

(B) PULLING : ROPE

(C) KNEADING : DOUGH

(D) DRAWING : WELL

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93. FISH : AQUARIUM

(A) LION : JUNGLE

(B) COW : BARN

(C) TREE : FOREST

(D) NOSE : FACE

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94. FORTRESS : HOUSE

(A) ARMOR : TURTLE

(B) TANK : CAR

(C) GARDEN : MEADOW

(D) AIRPLANE : BIRD

95. CLEARING THE THROAT : ATTENTION

(A) EXCELLING : ARROGANCE

(B) REPRIMANDING : DISTURBANCE

(C) APOLOGIZING : FORGIVENESS

(D) MEMORIZING : WISDOM

96. DAY : MORNING

(A) WEEK : DAY

(B) JUBILEE : PERIOD

(C) YEAR : WINTER

(D) TIME : HOUR

97. FOUNDATIONS : BUILDING

(A) RHYMES : POEM

(B) ASSUMPTIONS : THEORY

(C) RAILWAY CARS : TRAIN

(D) WATCH HANDS : WATCH

98. GROAN : PAIN

(A) BLOW : INJURY

(B) SWEATING : EXCITEMENT

(C) TREMBLING : SHIVER

(D) DISAPPOINTMENT : DESPAIR

99. TOURIST : IMMIGRANT

(A) CLERK : MANAGER

(B) GUEST : HOST

(C) RENTER : BUYER

(D) CITIZEN : RESIDENT

100. FLOCK : SHEEP

(A) SAND : GRAINS

(B) STABLE : HORSES

(C) SQUADRON : AIRPLANES

(D) STRAINER : HOLES

Page 31: Pass-world Admission Test Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections. The total time allotted is 120 minutes. Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

 

 

PLEASE WRITE IN CAPITALS 

Family Name: $$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$

First Name: $$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$ Date of Birth: $$ / $$ / $$$$

IMPORTANT: If you wish to CHANGE your first (initial) answer, please DO NOT scratch it out; rather mark your second (replacement) answer on the second line. If you provide a second answer, it is ONLY this replacement answer that will be marked, not your initial answer. Please write with a BLACK PEN

Pass-world Admission Test

A B C D

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Example: First answer                  + ! ! ! ! Second answer      ! !  + ! !

 

If you want to cancel your answer: 

CROSS al l the boxes   + +  + + +

How to answer: cross the box: + : Do not redraw boxes: Incorrect: !

DD                 MM                       YYYY 

Page 32: Pass-world Admission Test Admission Test The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections. The total time allotted is 120 minutes. Section 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer1 A B C D 21 A B C D 41 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D 81 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer2 A B C D 22 A B C D 42 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D 82 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer3 A B C D 23 A B C D 43 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D 83 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer4 A B C D 24 A B C D 44 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D 84 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer5 A B C D 25 A B C D 45 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D 85 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer6 A B C D 26 A B C D 46 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D 86 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer7 A B C D 27 A B C D 47 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D 87 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer8 A B C D 28 A B C D 48 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D 88 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer9 A B C D 29 A B C D 49 A B C D 59 A B C D 74 A B C D 89 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer10 A B C D 30 A B C D 50 A B C D 60 A B C D 75 A B C D 90 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer11 A B C D 31 A B C D E 61 A B C D 76 A B C D 91 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer12 A B C D 32 A B C D E 62 A B C D 77 A B C D 92 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer13 A B C D 33 A B C D E 63 A B C D 78 A B C D 93 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer14 A B C D 34 A B C D E 64 A B C D 79 A B C D 94 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer15 A B C D 35 A B C D E 65 A B C D 80 A B C D 95 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer16 A B C D 36 A B C D E 96 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer17 A B C D 37 A B C D E 97 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer18 A B C D 38 A B C D E 98 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer19 A B C D 39 A B C D E 99 A B C D

Your Answer Your Answer Your Answer20 A B C D 40 A B C D E 100 A B C D

2012 PAT - TEST •1•SECTION 1 SECTION 2 SECTION 3