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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 19

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT

write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 200 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider

the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question

will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for

that question.


INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014


1. Which of the following are the

circumstances under which an elected

Member of Parliament may be disqualified

on the ground of defection?

1. If he voluntarily gives up his

membership of a political party

2. If he votes or abstains from voting

contrary to any direction issued by his

political party without prior

permission of the political party

3. If he speaks against the political party

4. If he joins a political party other than

the party on whose ticket he contested

and got elected

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

2. Which of the following statements

regarding judiciary in India are correct?

1. Supreme Court of India is free from

the control and influence of

legislature and executive

2. Subordinate courts are at the head

of the judicial hierarchy of the state.

3. The Chief Justice and other judges

of the High Court are appointed by

the Governor in consultation with

the Chief Justice of India

4. A High Court can withdraw a case

from a subordinate court and can

deal with the case itself if it is

satisfied that the case involves a

substantial point of constitutional

law

Choose the correct answer from the codes given

below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

3. In which of the following case(s), the Chief

Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible

to vote in the Presidential election?

1. If he himself is a candidate

2. If he is yet to prove his majority on the

floor of the Lower House of the State

legislature

3. If he is a member of the Upper House of

the State legislature

4. If he is a caretaker Chief Minister

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) Only 3

d) 2 and 3

4. Which of the following was/were the

demands of the Home Rule Movement

started by Tilak?

1. To overthrow the British government

2. Education in vernacular languages

3. Formation of linguistic states


a) 1 and 2


b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) Only 1

5. Convertibility of the rupee implies:

a) being able to convert rupee notes into

gold

b) allowing the value of the rupee to be

fixed by market forces

c) freely permitting the conversion of

rupee to other major currencies and

vice versa

d) developing an international market

for currencies in India

6. Which of the following statements

regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court are correct?

1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to

give its opinion on any matter referred

to it by the President.

2. The full bench of the Supreme Court

hears any reference made to it under its

power of advisory jurisdiction.

3. The opinion given by the Supreme

Court on a reference under advisory

jurisdiction is not binding on the

government.


below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 3

7. Which one of the following statements

regarding „Exit Poll‟ is correct ?

a) „Exit Poll‟ is a term used to denote a

post-election survey of voters

regarding the candidate in whose

favour they had exercised their

franchise

b) „Exit Poll‟ and „Opinion Poll‟ are one

and the same

c) „Exit Poll‟ is a device through which

results of voting can be most exactly

predicted

d) „Exit Poll‟ is an administrative device

made recently by the Chief Election

Commissioner to prevent

impersonation

8. Consider the following statements about

the Komagata Maru incident in September

1914:

1. Thousands of Indians were killed by the

Canadian authorities when they tried to

enter into the national boundaries of

Canada.

2. This incident was one of the reasons for

the fuelling of the Ghadr Movement.

3. The incident evoked a sharp response

from the Indian revolutionaries because

people from almost all parts of India

were onboard the Komagata Maru ship.


below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 2

9. Consider the following statements

1. This river rises on Brahmagiri Hill of

the Western Ghats in

southwestern Karnataka state

2. In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice,

forming the sacred islands of

Srirangapatnam and Sivasamudram

To which of the following rivers, the above

statements refer to?


a) Sharavati

b) Kabini

c) Kaveri

d) Netravati

10. The principal reason why national,

economic planning is still being pursued

inspite of embracing a market economy

since 1991 is that:

a) It is a Constitutional requirement

b) The vast quantity of capital already

deployed in the public sector needs

to be nurtured

c) Five-Year Plans can continue to

provide a long-term perspective to

the economy in market-friendly

fashions

d) The market economy is mainly

confined to industry and commerce

and central planning in agriculture is

necessary

11. Which of the following electoral systems

have been adopted for various elections in

India ?

1. System of direct elections on the basis of

adult suffrage.

2. System of proportional representation

by means of the single transferable vote.

3. List system of proportional

representation.

4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.


below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

12. The basic reason for the extraordinary

sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is that

a) it has a very high transparency

b) it has a very high refractive index

c) it is very hard

d) it has well-defined cleavage planes

13. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts

because

1. It has a high boiling point

2. It has a high dipole moment

3. It has a high specific heat


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) Only 2

14. Who among the following have the right to

vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and

Rajya Sabha ?

a) Elected members of the Lower House

of the Parliament

b) Elected members of the Upper House

of the Parliament

c) Elected members of the Upper House

of the State Legislature

d) Elected members of the Lower House

of the State Legislature

15. With reference to the Financial Sector

Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC)

recommendations, consider the following

statements

1. The Commission has recommended a

seven-agency structure for the financial

sector

2. The FSLRC report emphasizes financial

consumer protection.


Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

16. Agricultural income-tax is assigned to the

State Governments by

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Inter-State Council

4. The Constitution of India

Choose the correct answer using the codes below;

a) Only 1

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) Only 4

17. As an alternative to the partition of India,

Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he

a) Postpone granting of independence

b) Invite Jinnah to form the government

c) Invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the

government together

d) Invite the army to take over for some

time


1. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to

the Nilgiri Hills and the southern

portion of the Western Ghats

2. The Nilgiri Tahr is categorized as

Endangered species under IUCN list


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

19. An air bubble in water will act like a:

a) Convex mirror

b) Convex lens

c) Concave mirror

d) Concave lens

20. Most of the desert plants bloom during

night time because

a) their blooming is controlled by

low temperature

b) they are sensitive to the phases of

moon

c) the desert insects eat away flowers

during day time

d) the desert insects are active during

night time

21. In the Indian context the term De-notified

tribes‟ refers to

a) tribes which are aboriginals

b) nomadic tribes

c) tribes practising shifting cultivation

d) tribes which were earlier classified as

criminal tribes

22. With reference to the Coriolis Force,

consider the following statements

1. It is most apparent in the path of an

object moving longitudinally.

2. An object moving from equator towards

the pole will undergo apparent

deflection to the right in the Northern

Hemisphere

3. This rightward deflection is because of

Earth‟s eastward rotation


a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) All


23. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts

in an administrative capacity, he is subject

to

a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the

other judges of the High Court

b) Special control exercised by the Chief

Justice of India

c) Discretionary powers of the Governor

of the state

d) Special powers provided to the Chief

Minister in this regard

24. Which of the following professional (s) are

more likely to run the risk of a permanent

change in their cell‟s DNA ?

1. Researchers using carbon-14 isotope

2. X-ray technician

3. Coal miner

4. Dyer and Painter

Select the correct answer by using the codes given

below :

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 3 and 4

25. When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake

rises to the top, it will

a) increase in size

b) decrease in size

c) maintain its size

d) flatten into a disk-like shape

26. A British citizen staying in

India cannot claim Right to

a) Freedom of trade and profession

b) Equality before the Law

c) Protection of life and personal liberty

d) Freedom of religion


regarding the National Human Rights

Commission of India:

1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief

Justice of India.

2. It has formations in each state as State

Human Rights Commission.

3. Its powers are only recommendatory in

nature.

4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a

member of the Commission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 2 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3

28. Which of the following was/were the

difference(s) between the moderates and the

extremists?

1. Boycott of legislative councils

2. Boycott of government Institutions and

strikes

3. Self-government for India


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

29. Which of the following was/were the parts

of the Ghadr Programme during the First

World War?

1. Assassinate government officials

2. Work among Indian troops abroad and

raise funds


3. Bring about a simultaneous revolt in all

colonies of Britain.


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

30. The Speaker can ask a member of the

House to stop speaking and let another

member speak. This phenomenon is known

as

a) decorum

b) crossing the floor

c) interpellation

d) yielding the floor

31. With reference to Antarctic region, consider

the following statements

1. It is governed in accordance with

the international legal regime of

the Antarctic Treaty System

2. Polar bear is a major wildlife found in

the region along with few endemic

birds


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

32. Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find

application in

1. Space travel

2. Surgery

3. Magnetic levitation

4. Telemetry


a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 3 and 4


1. The Indian Monsoon Current refers to

the seasonally varying ocean

current regime found in

the tropical regions of the

northern Indian Ocean

2. During summer, the flow of the upper

ocean is directed westward from near

the Indonesian Archipelago to

the Arabian Sea

3. During the winter, the direction

reverses, with eastward flow extending

from Somalia into the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

34. Which of the following are the regulative

functions of the forests?

1. Absorption, storage and release of vital

gases like oxygen, carbon dioxide etc.

2. Conservation of soil and water

3. Prevention of drought


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) Only 1



social forestry and agro-forestry?

1. Agroforestry is a collective name for

land-use systems involving trees

combined with crops and/or animals

on the same unit of land.

2. Social Forestry is the forestry outside

the Conventional Forestry that aims at

providing continuous flow of goods

and services for the benefit of the rural

people by managing forests of their

choice.

3. Social Forestry has manifold targets

like timber, fuelwood, fodder, wild

vegetables, fruits, water to cover

almost all the needs of the people.


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

36. Which of the following were the

outcome(s) of the Lucknow Session of

Indian National Congress and Muslim

League n 1916?

1. A joint scheme of constitutional

reforms by the two parties submitted

to government

2. Return of some extremists to Congress

3. Congress accepted separate electorates

for Muslims


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above


the Attorney-General of India :

1. He is appointed by the President of

India.

2. He must have the same qualifications as

are required for a Judge of the Supreme

Court.

3. He must be a member of either House of

Parliament.

4. He can be removed by impeachment by

Parliament.

Which of these statements are correct ?

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 3 and 4

38. Sunspot is a

a) A spot on the Sun where lowest

radiation is recorded

b) A vortex of gas on the surface of

the Sun associated with strong local

magnetic activity.

c) A spot on the Sun where extreme

temperature is recorded once in a year

d) None of the above

39. Consider the following features of newer

models of motor cars :

1. Radial tyres

2. Streamlined body

3. Multipoint fuel injection

4. Catalytic converter with exhaust

Which of these features make the newer models of

motor cars more fuel efficient?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 3 and 4

40. Which of the following are parts of the

Gandhi‟s technique of Satyagraha?


1. Never bow before the evil/wrong-doer

2. Love the evil-doer

3. Accept suffering in his struggle against

the evil as love for truth


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

41. The Princely states in India were:

1. Not a part of „British India‟ as per the

Montague declaration of 1917

2. Were sovereign in all matters except

foreign policy

3. Were subject to all legislations passed

by the British government

Choose the correct statements from the codes

below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

42. A small pouch containing silica gel is often

found in bottles of medicine in tablet or

powder form because silica gel

a) kills bacteria

b) kills germs and spores

c) absorbs moisture

d) absorbs all gases present inside the

bottle


1. The Madden–Julian oscillation, or

(MJO) is a ocean phenomenon that is

observed in deep waters of the Pacific

Ocean

2. The Madden–Julian oscillation has an

effect on Indian monsoon


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

44. Consider the following functionaries:

1. Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence

is

a) 3, 4, 2, 1

b) 4, 3, 1, 2

c) 4, 3, 2, 1

d) 3, 4, 1, 2

45. The Parliament can make any law for the

whole or any part of India for implementing

International treaties

a) with the consent of all the States

b) with the consent of the majority of

States

c) with the consent of the States

concerned

d) without the consent of any State

46. Which of the following is the major

producer of Earth‟s magnetic field?

a) Ferrous elements present in the

interior of the earth

b) The geomagnetic dynamo

c) Sun‟s magnetic activity



Dark matter:

1. The evidence for Dark Matter is that

the mass required to produce

gravitational force binding the fast-


moving galaxies is far less than the

mass that has been observed by

scientists.

2. Dark matter does not emit any kind

of electromagnetic radiation.

3. It is estimated that about 80% of the

matter in the universe is Dark matter.


below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3


Radio- Frequency Identification (RFID)

Tags:

1. Radio-frequency waves are used to

transfer data, for the purposes of

automatically identifying and

tracking tags attached to objects in a

RFID tag.

2. The RFID tag does not necessarily

have to be in line of sight of the tag

reader.

3. The range of RFID tags is very short,

not more than around 10 meter.


below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

49. The Rowlatt Act provided for:

1. Stricter control of the Press

2. Arrests without warrant

3. Indefinite detention without trial


below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

50. Which one of the following is not a feature

of the Government of India Act of 1935?

a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the

provinces

b) A bicameral legislature

c) Provincial autonomy

d) An All-India Federation

51. If in an election to a State Legislature

Assembly the candidate who is declared

elected loses his deposit, it means that

a) the polling was very poor

b) the election was for a multi-member

constituency

c) the elected candidate‟s victory over

his nearest rival was very marginal

d) a very large number of candidates

contested the election

52. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use

ammonia as refrigerant while domestic

refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons.

Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquified at ambient

temperatures at low pressures.

In the context of the statements above, which is

true?

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the

correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a

correct explanation of A


c) A is true, but R is false

d) A is false, but R is true


1. Diatomic nitrogen forms the bulk of

the atmosphere composition

2. Amount of Argon present in the

atmosphere is more than the

amount of Carbon Dioxide present


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

54. The Communal award of McDonald

Ramsay provided for:

1. Separate electorates for Muslims,

Sikhs, Christians and Anglo-Indians

2. Special constituencies for depressed

classes

3. Election of women on communal

basis from special constituencies


below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

55. Which of the following can be used for

cloud seeding?

1. Silver Iodide

2. Dry ice

3. Table salt

Choose the correct options from the codes below:

a) Only 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

56. In what way does the Indian Parliament

exercise control over the administration?

a) Through Consultative Committees of

various ministries

b) Through Parliamentary Committees

c) By making the administrators send

periodic reports

d) By compelling the executive to issue

writs

57. Which among the following movements in

the freedom struggle of India were abruptly

withdrawn due to eruption of violence?

1. Civil Disobedience Movement

2. Non-Cooperation movement

3. Quit India movement


a) Only 2

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

58. With reference to Ultraviolet radiation,


1. Most of the ultraviolet radiation in

sunlight is absorbed by oxygen in

Earth‟s atmosphere, which forms

the ozone layer of the lower

stratosphere

2. UVA (400–315 nm), also called black

light, never reaches the Earth‟s surface


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both


d) None

59. In which one of the following areas does

the State Government NOT have control

over its local bodies?

a) Citizen‟s grievances

b) Financial matters

c) Legislation

d) Personnel matters


Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and

paste together DNA molecules at will,

regardless of the source of the molecules.

Reason (R): DNA fragments can be

manipulated using restriction

endonucleases and DNA ligases.

In the context of the statement above, which is

true?

a) Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are individually true but R

is NOT a correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true


Induced Pluripotent Stem (iPS) Cells:

1. It is artificially achieved from a non-

pluripotent cell.

2. It resembles natural pluripotent

cells.

3. In the future they may be used to

regenerate missing or damaged

body parts.


a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

62. What is edge effect in the context of

ecology?

a) The tendency of increased variety

and density of some organisms at

the community orders.

b) The tendency of abundance of a

certain variety of terrestrial species

at the edge of water bodies.

c) The stratification from surface to

bottom in a lake which results in

inefficient use of nutrients and

oxygen by the organisms.

d) None of the above.

63. As succession reaches its climax in an

ecosystem, which of the following

community functions are observed?

1. Complex food chains and food web

2. High energy use efficiency

3. Low nutrient conservation


a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3


1. In aquatic systems, productivity is

generally limited by light, which

decreases with increasing water depth.

2. In deep oceans, nutrients often become

limiting for productivity.

3. Nitrogen is regarded as the most

important nutrient limiting productivity

in marine ecosystems.


below:


a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3

65. The Sholas found in mountain regions of

South India are

a) Large tracts of tall rainforest trees

b) Tracts of grasslands at the foothill of

Western Ghats

c) Patches of stunted tropical montane

forest found in valleys amid rolling

grasslands on hill tops


66. Arrange the following ecosystems in

decreasing order of the organic matter

decomposition that microorganisms can do

within a certain amount of time:

1. Tropical desert

2. Tropical rainforest

3. Steppe

Choose the correct order from the codes below:

a) 2>1>3

b) 2>3>1

c) 3>2>1

d) 3>1>2

67. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was

established in 2009 under the aegis of which

of the following groupings?

a) G-8

b) G-20

c) APEC


68. Which one of the following duties is NOT

performed by the Comptroller and Auditor

General (CAG) of India ?

a) To audit and report on all

expenditure from the Consolidated

Fund of India

b) To audit and report on all

expenditure from the Contingency

Funds and Public Accounts

c) To audit and report on all trading,

manufacturing, profit and loss

accounts

d) To control the receipt and issue of

public money, and to ensure that the

public revenue is lodged in the

exchequer


1. Black soils are derivatives of trap lava

in India

2. Black Soils have high clay content

3. Black soils are very rich in humus


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) None

70. Who among the following are appointed by

the President of India ?

1. The Chairman, Finance Commission.

2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning

Commission

3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.


below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only


71. Which of the following factors determine

the outcome of global competition of India?

a) There is adverse tax treatment of

non-resident participants

b) Markets in India are not open at all

hours

c) There are bureaucratic and

procedural overheads

d) All the above

72. Which of the following is/are among the

functions of the Election Commission of

India ?

1. Conduct of election for the posts of the

Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok

Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya

Sabha.

2. Conduct of election to the Corporations

and Municipalities.

3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes

arising out of the elections.


below.

a) I and 2

b) I and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) None of these

73. How is the word “Swadeshi” different from

“boycott”, as far as the Indian freedom

struggle is concerned?

1. Swadeshi was essentially economic

movement, boycott was not.

2. While Swadeshi attracted the lower

strata of Indian society, Boycott

attracted the higher strata.

Which of these is/are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both



Conservation tillage:

Assertion (A): In this method, the organic matter of

the soil is increased to enhance its productivity.

Reason (R): Residues from previous crops are left

on the field before sowing the next crop.

In the context of the statements above, which of

these is true?

a) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation for A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the

correct explanation for A.

c) A is incorrect but R is correct.

d) A is correct but R is incorrect.

75. According to RBI, Banks will now be

required to classify Special Mention

Accounts (SMA) into three sub-categories:

SMA-0, SMA-1 and SMA-2. This measure is

to

a) Increase the transparency

b) Recognize and check stressed assets

c) Provide quicker loans


76. Which of the following factors is not an

influencing factor in bringing monsoon

rains to India‟s landmass?

a) Heating of Tibet plateau in summer

b) Inverted triangular shape of the Indian

peninsula

c) Presence of jet streams over India

d) High pressure in Northwestern India

during summer


77. Which of the following come under the

definition of Non-banking financial

institutions (NBFI) in India?

3. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM)

4. National Bank for Agriculture and

Rural Development (NABARD)

5. Small Industries Development Bank

of India (SIDBI)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 Only

d) All

78. Which of the following is not true about the

recommendations of Nachiket Mor

committee on on Comprehensive Financial

Services for Small Businesses and Low-

Income Households?

a) It has recommended to focus more on

large generalist institutions to bring

financial inclusion in the country

b) Providing Universal Electronic Bank

Account while providing Aadhar

number

c) Strengthening existing regional banks

before creating new ones

d) Subsidies to be channelled as direct

benefit transfers (DBTs) rather than as

subventions or waivers


1. RBI has powers to supersede any bank

board that acts in rogue fashion, and

appoint an administrator for managing

the bank for up to one year

2. Out of many applicants for opening a

new bank, only three were given

licenses recently


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

80. Rationalization of withholding tax (WHT)

on FIIs for G-Secs and corporate bonds was

one of the measures taken by the Ministry

of Corporate Affairs to improve the

regulatory regime and stimulate the growth

of the corporate bond market. What is a

„withholding tax‟?

a) Requirement to withhold a percentage

of that payment of the employee and

pay the amount withheld to the

government as tax

b) Withholding payment to pay for

corporate social activities

c) Withholding payment of the employee

and pay it to finance infrastructure fund



1. Secondary Market refers to a market

where securities are traded after being

initially offered to the public in the

primary market and/or listed on the

Stock Exchange

2. In the Secondary market, securities are

offered to public for subscription for the

purpose of raising capital or fund


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None


82. The K M Chandrasekhar Committee was

constituted by the SEBI to

a) To suggest measure to improve

efficiency of public sector banks

b) To suggest measures to simplify

foreign investment norms

c) To suggest measures to better

regulate secondary markets


83. One of the major achievements of the

Swrajists was that they defeated the „Public

Safety Bill‟ in 1928. What was the bill about?

a) Empowering the government to

deport undesirable and subversive

foreigners

b) Empowering the government to

shoot anti-social elements on sight

who were propogating seditious

ideas

c) Empowering the government to

deploy heavy armed forces both in

the interior and exterior of India, the

funding of which was to come at the

expense of Indian taxpayers


84. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw

a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly

to show protest against which of the

following?

1. Public Safety Bill

2. Trade Disputes Bill

3. Rowlatt Act


below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) None of these

85. Consider the following statements about the

Nehru report, 1928:

1. It was the first major attempt by Indians

to draft a constitutional framework for

the country.

2. The report was published by a sub-

committee chaired by Jawahar Lal

Nehru.

3. The report did not aim for complete

independence of India and instead

envisaged only a dominion status.

Choose the correct statements from the codes given

below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) None of these


Bio-fertilizers:

1. It increases the availability of natural

soil nutrients and builds soil organic

matter.

2. It can also protect the crop against

drought and soil-borne diseases.

3. It works slower than conventional

chemical fertilizers.


below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

87. Consider the following about Breeding and

Recombinant DNA technology:

1. The change in genotype can be precisely

controlled in Recombinant technology,


whereas change occurs in multiple traits

in breeding.

2. Recombinant technology can recombine

DNA across biological kingdoms too,

but in breeding it cannot be.

Which of these is/are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both


88. Which of the following can be the harmful

effects of transgenic crops?

1. Toxicity

2. Allergic reaction

3. Anti-biotic resistance in micro-

organisms present in alimentary canal

of humans

Choose the correct options from the codes given

below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

89. The RBI recently launched guidelines for

establishing Small and Payments Banks to

further the goal of financial inclusion.

Consider the following statements about it.

1. Small banks will offer deposits as well

as loans.

2. Payments bank will not accept deposits.

3. Small banks will not be allowed to

invest in sophisticated and risky

financial products.

4. For a payments bank, the access point

can be its own branch, business

correspondents (BCs) or other network

partners.

5. Inter alia, mobile telephone companies,

supermarket chains, companies, real

sector cooperatives and public sector

entities are allowed to start a payments

bank.


below:

a) All except 5

b) All except 2

c) All except 2 and 3

d) All except 1 and 5

90. In January 2014, Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) constituted an Expert Committee,

under the Chairmanship of Shri P.J.Nayak,

to review “Governance of the Boards of

Banks in India. The committee has

submitted its report recently. Which

amongst the following are its

recommendations?

1. Scrapping of Bank Nationalisation Acts,

SBI Act and SBI (Subsidiary Banks) Act.

2. Converting all Public Sector Banks

(PSBs) into Companies under the

Companies Act.

3. Formation of a “Bank Investment

Company” (BIC) under the Companies

Act and transfer of all Shares held by the

Central Government in PSBs to the

newly formed BIC.

4. Controlling authority/power of the

Central Government over PSBs to the

transferred to

BIC which would, in turn, hand over the

same to respective Boards of the PSBs.

5. Reduction of Government‟s share-

holding to 40%.

Choose the correct ones from the codes given

below:

a) All except 2 and 5


b) 1 and 4 only

c) All of the above

d) 2, 3 and 5


White Label ATMs, a device to achieve

financial inclusion, recently announced by

the RBI:

1. It can be opened by any non-bank

entity, and not just NBFCs.

2. There is a provision for compulsory

establishment of such ATMs in rural

areas for every such ATM established in

urban/semi-urban areas.

3. The money in this ATM will be

provided by the sponsor bank.


below:

a) Only 1

b) 2 and 3

c) All of the above

d) Only 2


Sarojini Naidu, who was a member of the

constituent assembly of India:

1. She was the first Indian to become the

governor of an Indian state.

2. She was the first Indian woman

president of the Indian National

Congress.

3. In 1931, she participated in the Round

table conference with Gandhi

and Madan Mohan Malaviya.


below:

a) Only 1

b) 2 and 3

c) All of the above



the Trade facilitation Agreement signed

between the WTO member nations at Bali

Ministerial conference:

1. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)

contains provisions for faster and more

efficient customs procedures in the

context of trade in goods.

2. It also contains provisions for technical

assistance and capacity building for

trade facilitation and customs

compliance issues.

3. India has not ratified the TFA because

the TFA is discriminatory in nature and

benefits the developed nations more

than the developing nations.


below:

a) Only 1

b) 2 and 3

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 2

94. Consider the following statements about the

„New Development Bank‟ to be established

as per the agreement in the latest BRICS

summit:

1. It will only focus on development

finance and will not assist member

countries in case of financial

emergencies.

2. Every member nation has equal voting

rights in the proposed bank.

3. Every nation will contribute equally for

the bank‟s capital base.


below:

a) Only 2


b) 2 and 3

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 2

95. The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) was

enacted by the Central Government in 1955

to control and regulate trade and prices of

commodities declared essential under the

Act. Some items have been added to the list

recently. Consider the following statements

about The Essential Commodities Act

(ECA):

1. The Act empowers the Central and state

governments concurrently to control

production, supply and distribution of

certain commodities in view of rising

prices.

2. The measures that can be taken under

the provision of the Act include, among

others, licensing, distribution and

imposing stock limits.

3. The governments also have the power to

fix price limits, and selling the particular

commodities above the limit will attract

penalties.

4. The Drug Price Control Order (DPCO),

2013 has been issued under the powers

of the ECA.

5. The Act covers important commodities

like petroleum, iron, steel, fertilizers,

Jute and textiles.


a) All except 4 and 5

b) All except 1 and 5

c) All except 1 and 3

d) All except 5

96. What is „Financial Repression‟?

a) Financial repression refers to a set of

governmental policies that keep real

interest rates low or negative and

regulate or manipulate a captive

audience into investing in government

debt.

b) It refers to discontinuous financial

recessions which affect the security

markets very deeply and thus affect

the private sector savings.

c) It refers to the recession caused by a

massive hoarding of funds by the

private sector which is not being

invested anywhere.


97. What is tax buoyancy?

a) It is the increase in tax revenue of

the government with increase in

GDP of the nation.

b) It is the decrease in tax revenue of

the government with increase in

GDP of the nation.

c) It is the total tax avoided by

multinational due to loopholes and

lack of retrospective amendments to

tax them.

d) It is the loss of tax income to the

government due to major tax

exemptions given to corporate.


1. This biosphere reserve in India has a

remnant population of the Red panda

2. Along with Balpakram, this biosphere

reserve is a hotspot of biodiversity

To which of the following Biosphere Reserves, do

the above statements refer to?

a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

b) Nicobar Islands

c) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

d) Simlipal Biosphere Reserve


99. With reference to Himalayas, consider the

following statements

1. The mountain-building process that

created the range is still active.

2. Namcha Barwa peak is the western

end of the Himalayas


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

100. With reference to seismic waves,


a) P wave or primary wave is the

fastest kind of seismic wave, and,

consequently, the first to 'arrive' at a

seismic station.

b) S wave or secondary wave can only

move through solid rock, not

through any liquid medium.


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

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