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PHARMAGLIMPS- A GLIMSE OF PHARMACY

SAHDEV PARMAR

PHARMAGLIMPS

A GLIMPSE ON MCQ OF

PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES


SAHDEV PARMAR

TEST ON PHARMACOLOGY

Q1. Histamine is mainly involved in which type of allergic reactions?

a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4

Q2. Which of the following is antihistaminic, anticholinergic and 5HT antagonist?

a. Cinnarizine

b. Cyprohetadine

c. Mepyramine

d. Both a & b

Q3. N-acetylcysteine is used in the poisoning of which NASID?

a. Aspirin

b. Indomethcin

c. Paracetamol

d. Sulindac

Q4. Paracetamol is detoxified by

a. Glucuronide conjugation

b. Glutathione conjugation

c. Glycine conjugation

d. Sulphate conjugation

Q5. Which of the following is prodrug & converted to sulfide active metabolite?

a. Phenacetin

b. Sulindac

c. Indomethacin

d. Nabumetone


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q6. Match the following

1. Ketorolac a. Angina

2. Indomethacin b. Ocular inflammation

3. Flurbiprofen c. Post-operative pain

4. Aspirin d. Ductus arteriosus

Q7. Lefluomide an anti rheumatoid drug inhibits

a. Thymidylate synthtase

b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

c. Nuclear receptor activation

d. Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase

Q8. Which of the following is uricosuric agent?

a. Allopurinol

b. Probenecid

c. Colchicine

d. Diclofenac

Q9. Identify the false statement about Allopurinol

a. Allopurinol is an analogue of hypoxanthine

b. Allopurinol is converted to alloxanthine by xanthine oxidase

c. Allopurinol increases uric acid excretion

d. Used as prophylactic as the drug of choice in the long-term treatment of gout, but it is ineffective in the

treatment of an acute attack and may even exacerbate the inflammation.

Q10. Identify the drug choice for acute gout attack?

a. Allopurinol

b. Probenecid

c. Colchicine

d. Diclofenac & Colchicine

1

2

3

4


SAHDEV PARMAR


1. Allopurinol a. Increases uric acid excretion

2. Sulfinpyrazone b. Inhibits uric acid synthesis

3. Colchicine c. Prevents migration of neutrophils into the joint,

by binding to tubulin, resulting in the

depolymerisation of the microtubules and reduced

cell motility.

Q12. All of the following are the roles of histamine except?

a. It increases appetite

b. It produces sensation of itch

c. Causes bronchoconstriction

d. Increases gastric acid secretion

Q13. Antihistaminic used to increase appetite in underweight children is

a. Cetrizine

b. Loratidine

c. Loxatidine

d. Buclizine

Q14. The active metabolite of Terfenadine is

a. Loratidine

b. Fexofenadine

c. Triprolidine

d. Alfaprolidine

Q15. Cetrizine is a active metabolite of

a. Hydroxyzine

b. Promethazine

c. Cimetidine

d. Cinnarizine

1

2

3


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q16. Eicosanoids includes

a. Prostaglandins

b. Leukotrienes

c. Thromboxane

d. All

Q17. In LTB4 the subscript ‘4’ indicates

a. No. of double bonds

b. No. of conjugated doubles bonds

c. No. of alkyl substitutions

d. No. of halogens

Q18. Platelets primarily synthesize

a. TXA2

b. PGI2

c. LTB4

d. Histamine

Q19. Endothelium mainly generates

a. PGG2

b. PGI2

c. PAF

d. PGF2α

Q20. All NASIDS are reversible inhibitors of cyclo oxygenase except

a. Aspirin

b. Indomethacin

c. Celecoxib

d. Paracetamol

Q21. N-acetyl-P-benzoquinoneimine is highly reactive heapatotoxic metabolite is of

a. Aspirin

b. Indomethacin

c. Paracetamol

d. Ibuprofen


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q22. All of the following have arrhythmic potential by prolonging QTC interval except

a. Loratadine

b. Astemizole

c. Terfenadine

d. Ebastine

Q23. Misoprostol is used to prevent

a. Peptic ulcer

b. Post partum haemorrhage

c. Glaucoma

d. Threatened abortion

Q24. NASID used for ocular inflammation

a. Ibuprofen

b. Piroxicam

c. Nimesulide

d. Flurbiprofen

Q25. NASIDS can inhibit the production of all except

a. PGI2

b. Cyclic Endoperoxides

c. TX2

d. Leukotrienes

Q26. Histamine is biosynthesized from decarboxylation of

a. Tryptophan

b. Tyrosine

c. Histidine

d. Phenylalanine

Q27. Serotonin is biosynthesized from

a. Tryptophan

b. Tyrosine

c. Histidine

d. Phenylalanine


SAHDEV PARMAR


1. PGI2 a. Chemostatic agent for Neutrophils & macrophages

2. TXA2 b. Platelet aggregation

3. PGG2 & PGH2 (Endoperoxides) c. Vasodilation

4. PGE2 d. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

5. LTB4 e. Proaggregatory

6. PGF2α f. Uterus contraction

Q29. Which of the following is not a vasodilator?

a. PGE2

b. PGI2

c. PGD2

d. PGF2α


1. Misoprostol a. Induce labour

2. Latanoprost b. Ulcer protective

3. Dinoprostone c. Glaucoma

4. Carboprost d. Control postpartum hemorrhage

5. Epoprostenol e. Inhibit platelet aggregation

Q31. Match the following H1 antagonist for their clinical uses

1. Cyprohetadine a. Motion sickness

2. Hydroxyzine b. Mild hypnotic

3. Diphenhydramine c. Treat anxiety

4. Promethazine d. Used in migraine

5. Buclizine e. Appetite stimulating

Q32. Which of the following drug have local anesthetic effect also?

a. Promethazine

b. Mepyramine

c. Diphenhydramine

d. Loratidine

1

2

3

4

5

6

1

2

3

4

5

1

2

3

4

5


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q33. Which of the following anti gout drug also inhibits platelet aggregation?

a. Colchicine

b. Sulfinpyrazone

c. Diclofenac

d. Allopurinol


1. Sumatriptan a. 5HT1 agonist (used in migraine)

2. Ketanserin b. 5HT3 antagonist (anticancer induced vomiting)

3. Ondansteron c. 5HT4 agonist (prokinetic drug)

4. Cisapride d. 5HT2 antagonist (prevent platelet aggregation)

Q35. An antidiabetic drug Piogliazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by

a. Decrease of glucose uptake in muscles

b. Increasing insulin sensitivity

c. Inhibiting intestinal α-glucosidase

d. Stimulating insulin secretion

Q36. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is

a. Enalaprilat

b. Valsartan

c. Atenolol

d. Amiodipine

Q37. Co-administration of NSAIDs with Warfarin may often lead to

a. Antagonistic interaction

b. Interaction to change in drug transport

c. Interaction due to disturbances in electrolyte balance

d. Additive or synergistic interaction

Q38. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is

a. Demecolcine

b. Paclitaxel

c. Vinblastin

d. Brevifolicin

1

2

3

4


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q39. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However, recently

she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She has occult blood in her

faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below:

a. Paracetamol

b. Celecoxib

c. Piroxicam

d. Naproxen

Q40. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by

a. Plasmin

b. Renin

c. Urokinase

d. Ptylin

Q41. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is administered

every 6 hours because, azithromycin

a. Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.

b. Has methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin.

c. Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract.

d. Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.

Q42. Effects of fibrates on blood lipids are mediated by

a. Inhibiting both synthesis and esterification of fatty acids

b. Their interaction with peroxisome proliferators-activated receptors (PPARs)

c. Reducing the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate

d. Sequestering bile acids

Q43. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was administered levo-

dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?

a. Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.

b. Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine.

c. Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.

d. Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors.

Q44. A Cardioselective beta blocker with vasodilating properties is

a. Pindolol

b. Atenolol

c. Bisoprolol

d. Nebivolol


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q45. A Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminate is useful in cancer chemotherapy. The camptothecin present in

the plant and useful in treating ovarian cancer is

a. Etoposide

b. Vincristine

c. Paclitaxel

d. Topotecan

Q46. The drug selected above acts by

a. Inhibiting topoisomerase I

a. Inhibiting topoisomerase II

b. Inhibiting thymidylate synthase

c. Forming hydrogen peroxide which generates free radicals

Q47. Acute migraine is treated with

a. Prazosin

b. Formeterol

c. Sumatriptan

d. Dopamine

Q48. The drug chosen above is an agonist of

a. a1 adrenoceptor

b. a 2 adrenoceptor

c. M3 receptor

d. 5 HT ID receptor

Q50. Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of

a. LDL

b. HDL

c. Triglycerides

d. VLDL

Q51. An inorganic ion which is used prophylactically in bipolar depression is

a. Valproate

b. Lithium

c. Chromium

d. Valium

Q52. Autoimmunity refers to

a. an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.

b. failure to distinguish between self and non-self

c. an automatic segregation of T and B cells.

d. failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q53. Antihypoprothrombinemic effect of one stereochemical form is two to five times more than others

a. (S)-(+)- Warfarin

b. R-(+)- Warfarin

c. (S)-(-)- Warfarin

d. (RS)- Warfarin

Q54. Intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol are

a. Mevalonic acid and isopentenyl pyrophosphate

b. Mevalonic acid and aldosterone

c. Isoprenaline and aldosterone

d. Isoprenaline and isopentenyl phosphate

Q55. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is

a. Sulfinpyrazone

b. Aspirin

c. Ticlopidine

d. Acetaminophen

Q56. Metoclopramide is generally used for

a. Prophylaxis of vomiting

b. Preventing motion sickness

c. Treating irritable bowel syndrome

d. Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency

Q57. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with

a. Oral anticoagulants

b. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents

c. Hydantoin anticonvulsants

d. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors

Q58. Simvastatin belongs to

a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents

b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents

c. Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents

d. Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents

Q59. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with

a. Cytarabine

b. Acyclovir

c. Zidovudine

d. Amantadine


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q60. The drug which increases the plasma concentration of digoxin by a pharmacokinetic mechanism is

a. Lidocaine

b. Captopril

c. Quinidine

d. Hydrochlorthiazide

Q61. An NMDA antagonist introduced for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is

a. Dopamine

b. Nor-epinephrine

c. Serotonin

d. Memantine

Q62. Interleukins are

a. Polypeptide cytokines important in the inflammatory cascade

b. Prostaglandins that account for gastrointestinal disorders

c. Enkephalins which are specific for asthma

d. Dipeptides which have antimicrobial properties

Q63. Drug Mechanism of action is by inhibition of

P. Levofloxacin 1. DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Q. Caspofungin 2. Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) the enzyme

R. Aztreonam 3. The synthesis of b(1-2) glycan

S. Rifabutin 4. Cell wall synthesis preferentially binding to a

specific penicillin binding protein

(A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4

Q64. Drug Receptor agonist/antagonist

P. Granisetron 1. β1 adrenergic receptor antagonist

Q. Pirenzepine 2. GABA agonist

R. Acebutalol 3. 5HT3 antagonist

S. Baclofen 4. M1 antagonist

(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3

Q65. Mechanism of action

(P) Digitoxin 1. Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking calcium channels

(Q) Dobutamine 2. Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx through beta receptor blockade

(R) Sotalol 3. Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of adenylate cyclase.

(S) Nicardipine 4. Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase pump.


SAHDEV PARMAR

a. P-4Q-3R-2S-1

b. P-3Q-4R-1S-2

c. P-4Q-2R-3S-1

d. P-4Q-3R-1S-2

Q66. The alkaloid which inhibits the cholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis in solution to give methyl carbamic

acid and eseroline is:

a. Scopolamine

b. Pyridostigmine

c. Neostigmine

d. Physostigmine

Q67. A natural product derivative developed as an antimalarial is

a. Artemether

b. Paludrine

c. Pyrimethamine

d. Halofantrine

Q68. An anticholinesterase which is useful in Alzheimer’s disease is

a. Arecoline

b. Donepezil

c. Isoproterenol

d. Clioquinol

Q69. A drug used as an ophthalmic solution in Herpes keratitis is

a. Zalcitabine

b. Trifluridine

c. Ritonavir

d. Stavudine

Q70. A macrolide antibiotic used as a powerful immunosuppressive agent is:

a. Erythromycin

b. Azithromycin

c. Tacrolimus

d. Clarithromycin

Q71. Cytosine arabinoside acts on this phase of the cell cycle

a. G1

b. G2

c. M

d. S


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q72. Trimethoprim has an advantage over Methotrexate in its therapeutic category because

a. Trimethoprim binds to bacterial DHFR about 50,000 times more strongly as compared to the host DHFR.

b. Trimethoprim can be administered orally.

c. Trimethoprim exhibits no significant adverse effects.

d. Trimethoprim has additional anti-inflammatory properties.

Q73. Methotrexate is thought to exert its action by

a. Interfering with purine synthetase.

b. Intracellular formation of an amine adducts.

c. Forming a conjugate with nucleic acids.

d. Inhibiting the synthesis of folic acid.

Q74. A person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can cause severe

hypotension

a. Aspirin

b. Cholestyramine

c. Warfarin

d. Sildenafil

Q75. To avoid lithium toxicity, a patient using lithium carbonate for mood disorders should not be prescribed

a. Acetazolamide

b. Hydrochlorothiazide

c. Mannitol

d. Propranolol

Q76. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is

a. Venlafaxine

b. Selegiline

c. Phenelzine

d. Amoxapine

Q77. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which hypolipidemic

agent should not be prescribed?

a. Clofibrate

b. Cholestyramine

c. Lovastatin

d. Niacin


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q78. Famotidine acts as

a. H1 — histamine antagonist

b. H2 — histamine antagonist

c. Proton pump inhibitor

d. H1 agonist

Q79. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of Thiabendazole.

P. Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis

Q. Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causing flaccid paralysis in the worms

R. Inhibits the Helminthes specific enzyme fumarate reductase

S. Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule assembly

(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R

Q80. Insulin when released from the pancreatic β cells

P. Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it.

Q. Gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable stimuli in normal health.

R. Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell membranes.

S. Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver.

(A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D) Q, S

Q81. Zafirlukast acts as

a. adrenoceptor agonist

b. Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagonist

c. muscarinic receptor antagonist

d. Antihistamine

Q82. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time

a. Budesonide

b. Zafirlukast

c. Salmeterol

d. Bambuterol

Q83. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the pathway, catalyzes

a. Side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones

b. The reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosynthesis.

c. The reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.

d. Steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q84. The inhibition of HMG-C0A Reductase is a strategy used in the treatment of

a. Familia hypercholesterolemia

b. Vitamin K deficiency

c. Inflammation in the joints

d. Hepatic parenchymal disease

LINKED QUESTIONS

Q85. The attributes of cycloserine are

(P) No tautomerism shown.

(Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form.

(R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH.

(S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH.

(A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D) P, R

Q86. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological properties.

(P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation.

(Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened.

(R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.

(S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.

(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D) Q, R

Q87. The drug disulfiram is

P. known to inhibit dopamine β-hydroxylase and cause noradrenaline depletion

Q. a substance that produces aversive reaction to alcohol

R. known to stimulate dopamine β-hydroxylase

S. used in barbiturate poisoning

(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D) P, Q

Q88. Two important attributes associated with L- asparaginase

P: an enzyme obtained from E.Coli and is administered paranterally

Q: an enzyme obtained from Streptococcus caespitosus and is administered orally

R: used in acute lymphocytic leukemia

S: used as fibrinolytic

(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) Q, R (D) Q, S


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q89. Amikacin is

P a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of kanamycin

Q a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of tobramycin

R it is administered parenterally and does not cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

S it is administered parenterally and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxicity

(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P, S (D) Q, S

Q90. Tenoposide is a natural product used for the management of certain diseases. It is derived form

a. Flavonolignans form Silybum marianum

b. Lignans from Podophyllum peltatum

c. Lignans from Schizandra chinensis

d. Neolignans from Piper futokadsura

Q91. Tenoposide is used in the management of

a. Candidiasis

b. Trypanosomiasis

c. Cardiac arrhythmia

d. Acute leukemia in children

Q92. The selective COX-2 inhibitor is

a. Ketorolac

b. Rofecoxib

c. Indomethacin

d. Naproxen

Q93.The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking

a. Antiallergic drugs

b. Anxiolytic drugs

c. Antihypertensive drugs

d. Oral antidiabetic agents

Q94. Opioids have all actions excluded

a. Analgesic

b. Antitussive

c. Antidiarrhoeal

d. Anti-inflammatory


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q95. The metabolite of spironolactone is

a. Aldosterone

b. Canrenone

c. Corticosterone

d. Pregnenolone

Q96. The drug which cause pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the intiation of therapy

is

a. Itraconazole

b. Clofazimine

c. Lomefloxacin

d. Neomycin

Q97. The risk of digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of

a. Triamterene

b. Lidocaine

c. Captopril

d. Hydrochlorothiazide

Q98. A agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases coronary blood flow

a. Nitroglycerine

b. Nifedipine

c. Timolol

d. Isosorbide mononitrate

Q99. Isoniazid is primary antitubercular agent that

a. Requires pyridoxine supplementation

b. Causes ocular complications

c. Is ototoxic and nephrotoxic

d. Should never be used due to heapatotoxic potential

Q100. Decreased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with increase in

a. VLDL

b. LDL

c. HDL

d. IDL


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q101. Mechanism of paclitexel is

a. Inhibits microtubule formation

b. Prolongs microtubule formation

c. Inhibits DNA topoisomerase II

d. Produce superoxide radicals which results in scission of DNA

Q102. Which of the following drug is having weak disulfiram like action?

a. Dacarbazine

b. Procarbazine

c. Methotrexate

d. Hydroxy urea

Q103. Which of the following is pyrimidine antagonist?

a. 6-mercapto purine

b. Methotrexate

c. 5-Flurouracil

d. 6-Thioguanine

Q104. Which of the drug is having immunomodulatory action?

a. Thiabendazole

b. Levimisole

c. Pyrantel

d. Ivermectin

Q105. Which drug act on GABA-mediated receptors and cause hyper polarization?

a. Praziquantel

b. Mebendazole

c. Ivermectin

d. Albendazole

Q106. Carbidopa is used because

a. It crosses BBB

b. It inhibits MAO-A

c. It inhibits MAO-B

d. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q107. The unwanted effect of L-DOPA is

a. Dementia

b. Hypertension

c. Dyskinesia

d. Heapatotoxic

Q108. The thrombolytic agent used is

a. Heparin

b. Warfarin

c. Anistreplase

d. Vitamin K

Q109. Mechanism f action of aspirin is

a. Inhibits vitamin K metabolism

b. Antithrombin activity

c. Inhibits heparin metabolism

d. Inhibits platelet aggregation

Q110. Mechanism of anti thrombotic agent is

a. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

b. Inhibits plate function

c. Activation of clotting factors

d. Vitamin K agonist

Q111. Match each drug with the statement that best describes its mode of action:

1. Niacin a. Binds bile acids in the intestine, thus preventing their return to the liver via

the enterohepatic circulation.

2. Clofibrate b. Causes a decrease in plasma triacylglycerol levels by increasing the activity of

lipoprotein lipase via PPAR-α stimulation

3. Cholestyramine c. Causes a decrease in liver triacylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids

needed as building blocks for this pathway.

1

2

3

4

5


SAHDEV PARMAR

4. Probucol d. Inhibits 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA reductase, the rate-limiting step in

cholesterol synthesis.

5. Lovastatin e. Antioxidant and prevent the formation of foam cell due to engulf of oxidised lipids

by macrophages

Q112. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance except:

a. hydralazine

b. β-blockers

c. ACE inhibitors

d. Clonidine

Q113. Which one of the following drugs acts at central presynaptic α2 receptors?

a. Minoxidil

b. Verapamil

c. Clonidine

d. Enalapril

Q114. Which one of the following antihypertensives is most likely to cause reflex tachycardia?

a. Propranolol

b. Prazosin

c. Hydralazine

d. Captopril

Q115. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below select the one most likely to lower blood sugar.

a. Prazosin

b. Propranolol

c. Captopril

d. Hydrochlorthiazide

Q116. Which one of the following drugs should not be given to a pregnant, hypertensive woman?

a. Hydrochlorothiazide

b. Propranolol

c. α-Methyldopa

d. Lisinopril


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q117. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with nitroglycerin?

a. Throbbing headache

b. Bradycardia

c. Sexual dysfunction

d. Anemia

Q118. All of the following mechanisms of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:

a. Quinidine: Blocks Na+ channels

b. Bretylium: Blocks K+ channels

c. Verapamih Blocks Ca ++ channels

d. Procainamide: Blocks K + channels

Q119. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Lidocaine must be given parenterally.

b. Lidocaine is used mainly for atrial arrhythmias.

c. Procainamide is associated with a reversible lupus phenomenon.

d. Quinidine is active orally.

Q120. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis?

a. Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase

b. Decreases intraceliular sodium concentration

c. Stimulates production of cAMP

d. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q121. Which one of the following drugs would be the most appropriate single drug therapy for mild

congestive heaet failure?

a. A cardiac glycoside such as digoxin

b. A α-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine

c. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide

d. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril

Q122. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive head failure is correct?

a. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life

b. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine

c. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency


SAHDEV PARMAR

d. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile

Q123. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis-induced arrhythmia?

a. Decreased serum calcium

b. Decreasing head rate with propranolol

c. Decreased serum sodium

d. Decreased serum potassium

e. Decreased serum angiotensin I1

Q124. Which of the following is selective MAO A inhibitor?

a. Tranylcypromine

b. Meclobemide

c. Selegiline

d. Entacapone

Q125. Which of the statement is false about phenytoin?

a. Can cause gingival hyperplasia may cause the gums to grow over teeth, particularly in children.

b. Can cause Megaloblastic anemia occur because the drug interferes with vitamin B12 metabolism

c. It can cause osteomalaceia and hirsuitism

d. Can cause hyperglycemia and glycosuria caused by inhibition of insulin secretion

e. Can cause severe memory impairments


1. Carbamazepine a. Inhibits GABA transaminase

2. Lamotrigine b. Weakly inhibit carbonic anhydrase

3. Topiramate c. Antidiuretic effect

4. Gabapentin d. Inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors

5. Vigabatrin e. Inhibits GABA reuptake

6. Tiagabne f. Can cause severe skin rashes

7. Felbamate g. Binds to amino acid transporter in brain

8. Trimethdone h. Inhibits T - type Ca 2+ channels

9. Tramadol i. GABAA receptor agonist

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q127. The drug choice for opioid withdrawal

a. Meperidine

b. Methadone

c. Naltrexone

d. Naloxone

Q128. Match the drug combinations used to prevent some adverse effects of anticancer drugs and the MOA

1. Cisplatin a. Folinic acid

2. Methotrexate b. Ondansetron

3. 6-Mercaptopurine c. Dexamethasone

4. Cyclophosphamide d. Mensa

5. Paclitaxel e. Allopurinol

6. Tetracyclines f. Peptidyl transferase inhibitor

7. Macrolides g. Inhibits translocation

8. Amino glycosides h. Aminoacyl t-RNA analogue

9. Chloramphenicol i. Transpeptidase inhibitor

10. Vancomycin j. Dihydroptreoate synthtase inhibitor

11. Cycloserine k. Misreading in mRNA

12. Penicillins l. D-Ala Recemase and synthase

13. Sulfonamides m. inhibits formation of Formylmethionine

14. Linezolid n. Prevents release of terminal D-Ala-D-Ala from

building block of peptidogycan

129. Match the following adverse effects of antibiotics

1. Chloramphenicol a. Platelet dysfunction

2. Tetracycline b. Hemolytic anemia

3. Amino glycosides c. Bone marrow depression

4. Sulfonamides d. Discoloration of bones and teeth

5. Methicillin e.Ototoxic and Nephrotoxic

6. Carbenicillin f. Nephritis

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

1

2

3

4

5

6


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q130. Match the following immunosuppressant drug mechanism of action

1. Tacrolimus a. Inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)

2. Methotrexate b. Purine synthesis inhibitor

3. Cyclophosphamide c. Inhibits MHC expression & IL-2 production

4. Azathioprine d. Calcineurin inhibitor

5. Mycophenolate e. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

6. Glucocorticoids f. Alkylation of guanine in DNA molecule

Q131. An anti-neoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having pteridine ring

a. Trimethoprim

b. Mercaptopurine

c. Methotrexate

d. Folic acid

Q132. One of the following drugs has 1,4-dihydropyridine structure, act as calcium channel antagonist

a. Captopril

b. Verapamil

c. Diltiazam

d. Nifedipine

Q133. Opioids does not exerts the following action

a. Anti-inflammatory

b. Analgesic

c. Antitussive

d. Anti-diarrheal

Q134. Macrolide exerts their action by

a. Inhibiting transcription

b. Altering the genetic code

c. Terminating protein synthesis prematurely

d. Post-translational modification

1

2

3

4

5

6

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inosine-5%E2%80%B2-monophosphate_dehydrogenase


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q135. One of the following is selective β2 stimulant

a. Caffeine

b. Salbutamol

c. Propranolol

d. Atenolol

Q136. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to propranolol because

a. It has both α and β adrenergic blockade

b. It has both vasodilatory properties

c. It is selective β2 antagonist

d. It has selective β1 selective antagonist and does not enter in brain

Q137. Ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to

a. High degree of binding to plasma proteins

b. Low lipid solubility resulting in minimal concentration in the brain

c. Metabolism is slow in liver

d. Rapid rate of redistribution from brain due to its high liposolubility

Q138. One of the following actions of opioids is mediated via kappa receptors

a. Euphoria

b. Physical dependence

c. Spinal analgesia

d. Cerebral vascular dilation

Q139. One of the following drugs against herpes simplex virus type 1 and is used topically systemic

administration of same results in bone marrow depression, hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity

a. Acyclovir

b. Amantidine

c. Vidarabine

d. Idoxuridine


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q140. A woman has treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found

hypersensitive to penicillin V. the cultures strain of streptococcus pneumonia that is sensitive to all of the

following drugs. Which one would be best choice for patient?

a. Amoxicillin

b. Erythromycin

c. Cefaclor

d. Cyclacillin

Q141. One of the following co-administered with Terfenadine may lead to life threatening cardiac

dysrhythmia.

a. Lomefloxacin

b. Clofazimine

c. Itraconazole

d. Neomycin

Q142. Adverse effects of one of the drug of that drug include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression,

gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic

a. Cyclizine

b. Piroxicam

c. Cyclophosphamide

d. Cimetidine

Q143. Sulfasalazine is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme

responsible is

a. Azoreductase

b. Choline esterase

c. Glucuronyl transferase

d. Amylase

Q144. Which of the following is polyene antibiotic with seven conjugated double bonds an internal ester, free

carboxy grp and a glycoside side chain with primary amino grp

a. Streptomycin

b. Ketoconazole

c. Griseofulvin

d. Amphotericin B


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q145. Chose the correct class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of

supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

a. Mexiletine

b. Diltiazam

c. Nifedipine

d. Propranolol

Q146. One of the following antiviral agents exhibits the greatest selective toxicity for the invading virus.

a. Amantidine

b. Zidovudine

c. Idoxuridine

d. Acyclovir

Q147. Choose the drug that often causes tachycardia when given in regular doses

a. Verapamil

b. Guanethidine

c. Propranolol

d. Isosorbide dinitrate

Q148. Choose the appropriate therapeutic use of imipramine

a. Insomnia

b. Epilepsy

c. Bed wetting in children

d. Mania

Q149. Purpose of combined drug regimen in tuberculosis is to

a. Delay the emergence of drug resistance

b. Reduce the duration of active therapy

c. Schedule the onset therapy

d. Promote a placebo effect on patient


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q150. One of the following statements for adenyl cyclase is wrong

a. Is a membrane bound enzyme

b. Inactivated by phosphodiesterase

c. Catalyzes the formation of AMP

d. Active only when associated with G protein

Q151 Budesonide is

a. NASID

b. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma

c. Diuretic

d. Anticholinergic

Q152 The choline ester drug resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase

a. Methacholine

b. Bethanechol

c. Butyrylcholine

d. Benzoylcholine

Q153 Cardiac muscles have receptors are

a. M1and β1

b. M2 and β 2

c. M3 and β 1

d. M2 and β 1

Q154 Barbiturates have all action except

a. Anticonvulsant

b. Respiratory depressant

c. Antianxiety

d. Analgesics


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q155 Actions of pilocarpine includes all except

a. Sweating

b. Salivation

c. Miosis

d. Cycloplegia

Q156 The drug that is specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and useful in treatment of

methanol poisoning

a. Disulfiram

b. Leucovorin

c. Flumazenil

d. Fomepizole

Q157 Edrophonium is more suitable as diagnostic agent because

a. direct action on muscle end plate

b. longer duration of action

c. selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

d. shorter duration of action

Q158 Drug choice for Alzheimer’s diseases

a. Pyridostigmine

b. Corticosteroids

c. Bethanechol

d. Donepezil


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q159 α2 adrenergic agonist used to lower the intraocular tension

a. Brinzolamide

b. Latanoprost

c. Bambuterol

d. Bromonidine

Q160 Ethanol is used to treat methanol because

a. Antagonizes the actions of methanol

b. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol

c. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol

d. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and toxic metabolite

Q161 Drug that antagonize diazepam action is

a. Fomepizole

b. Bicuculline

c. Saclofen

d. Flumazenil

Q162 drug used in treatment of organophosphate poisoning

a. Atropine

b. Diazepam

c. Neostigmine

d. Pralidoxime


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q163 Atropine produce all except

a. Tachycardia

b. Mydriasis

c. Dryness of mouth

d. Urinary incontinence

Q164 which of the following Mydriatic has fastest and briefest action

a. Atropine

b. Homatropine

c. Tropicamide

d. Cyclopentolate

Q165 The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning

a. Neostigmine

b. Physostigmine

c. Pilocarpine

d. Methacholine

Q166 Atropine is contraindicated in

a. Bronchospasm

b. Digitalis toxicity

c. Raised intraocular tension

d. Urinary incontinence


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q167 which of the following is noncatecholamines sympathomimetic

a. Isoprenaline

b. Dopamine

c. Ephedrine

d. Adrenaline

Q168 which of the following is selective α2 antagonist

a. Clonidine

b. Prazocin

c. Phenetolamine

d. Yohimbine

Q169 A sympathomimetic amine that act almost exclusively by releasing NA from nerve endings

a. Ephedrine

b. Dopamine

c. Tyramine

d. Isoprenaline

Q170 The metabolic actions of adrenaline includes all except

a. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle

b. Lipolysis in adipose tissues

c. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis in liver

d. Inhibition of Glycolysis


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q171 Dobutamine differs from dopamine as

a. It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors

b. It causes tachycardia

c. It has tendency to cross blood-brain barrier

d. It does not activate adnergic β receptors on heart

Q172 Adrenaline injected with local anaesthetic because

a. Reduces local toxicity of local anesthetic

b. Reduces systemic toxicity of local anesthetic

c. Shortens the duration of local anesthetic

d. Makes the injection more painful

Q173 Ultra short acting β blocker is

a. Timolol

b. Sotalol

c. Esmolol

d. Bisoprolol

Q174 β blocker that have additional α1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant activity

a. Carvedilol

b. Celiprolol

c. Acebutolol

d. Sotalol


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q175 Drug used for prophylaxis of migraine

a. Ergotamine

b. Sumatriptan

c. Propranolol

d. Methysergide

Q176 The analgesic lacks anti-inflammatory action

a. Paracetamol

b. Ibuprofen

c. Piroxicam

d. Diclofenac

Q177 Distinctive feature of Nimesulide is

a. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

b. It does not cause gastric irritation

c. It is tolerated well by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

Q178 Bromohexine acts by

a. Suppress cough center

b. Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides present in sputum

c. Rising the threshold of cough center

d. Desensitizing stretch receptors in the lungs


SAHDEV PARMAR

ANSWER

1. 21 41 61 81 101 121 141 161

2. 22 42 62 82 102 122 142 162

3. 23 43 63 83 103 123 143 163

4. 24 44 64 84 104 124 144 164

5. 25 45 65 85 105 125 145 165

6. MTF 26 46 66 86 106 126 MTF

146 166

7. 27 47 67 87 107 127 147 167

8. 28 MTF

48 68 88 108 128 MTF

148 168

9. 29 49 69 89 109 129 MTF

149 169

10. 30MTF 50 70 90 110 130 MTF

150 170

11. MTF 31MTF 51 71 91 111 MTF

131 151 171

12. 32 52 72 92 112 132 152 172

13. 33 53 73 93 113 133 153 173

14. 34MTF 54 74 94 114 134 154 174

15. 35 55 75 95 115 135 155 175

16. 36 56 76 96 116 136 156 176

17. 37 57 77 97 117 137 157 177

18. 38 58 78 98 118 138 158 178

19. 39 59 79 99 119 139 159 179

20. 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180


SAHDEV PARMAR

ANSWERS

1 A 21C 41 61D 81B 101B 121D 141A 161D

2 A 22C 42B 62A 82B 102B 122C 142C 162D

3 C 23 A 43D 63A 83B 103C 123D 143A 163D

4 B 24 D 44D 64B 84A 104B 124B 144D 164C

5B 25 D 45D 65A 85C 105C 125E 145B 165B

6MTF 26C 46A 66D 86A 106D 126 MTF 146D 166C

7A 27A 47C 67A 87D 107C 127B 147D 167C

8B 28 MTF 48D 68B 88B 108C 128 MTF 148C 168D

9C 29D 49B 69B 89C 109D 129 MTF 149A 169C

10C 30MTF 50B 70B 90B 110B 130 MTF 150B 170D

11MTF 31MTF 51B 71D 91D 111 MTF 131C 151A 171A

12A 32A 52A 72B 92B 112B 132D 152B 172B

13D 33B 53A 73D 93C 113C 133A 153D 173C

14B 34MTF 54A 74D 94D 114C 134C 154D 174A

15A 35B 55B 75B 95B 115B 135B 155D 175C

16D 36B 56A 76A 96B 116D 136D 156D 176A

17B 37B 57D 77B 97C 117A 137D 157D 177C

18A 38B 58A 78B 98 118D 138C 158D 178B

19B 39A 59C 79C 99A 119B 139A 159D 179

2A 40A 60C 80B 100B 120A 140B 160D 180

130.

1 D

2 E

3 F

4 B

5 A

6 C


SAHDEV PARMAR

129. 128. 126.

Q111. Q31.

Q6. Q34.

1 B

2 D

3 E

4 A

5 C

6 H

7 G

8 K

9 F

10 N

11 L

12 I

13 J

14 M

1 C

2 F

3 B

4 I

5 A

6 E

7 D

8 H

9 G

1 C

2 D

3 E

4 B

5 F

6 A

1 C

2 B

3 A

4 E

5 D

1 D

2 C

3 B

4 A

5 E

1 C

2 D

3 B

4 A

1 A

2 D

3 B

4 C


SAHDEV PARMAR

Q11.

1 B

2 A

3 C

Q28.

1 C

2 B

3 E

4 D

5 A

6 F

Q30.

1 B

2 C

3 A

4 D

5 E

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