Chapter -1 Fundamentals of Testing 1.1 Why is testing necessary?bug, defect, error, failure, mistake, quality, risk, software, testing and exhaustive testing.1.2 What is testing?code, debugging, requirement, test basis, test case, test objective 1.3 Testing principles1.4 Fundamental test processconformation testing, exit criteria, incident, regression testing, test condition, test coverage, test data, test execution, test log, test plan, test strategy, test summary report and testware.1.5 The psychology of testingindependence.

 I) General testing principles

Principles

A number of testing principles have been suggested over the past 40 years and offer general guidelines common for all testing.

Principle 1 – Testing shows presence of defects

Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects. Testing reduces the probability of undiscovered defects remaining in the software but, even if no defects are found, it is not a proof of correctness.

Principle 2 – Exhaustive testing is impossible

 Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible except for trivial cases. Instead of exhaustive testing, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts.

Principle 3 – Early testing

Testing activities should start as early as possible in the software or system development life cycle, and should be focused on defined objectives.

Principle 4 – Defect clustering

A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during pre-release testing, or are responsible for the most operational failures.

Principle 5 – Pesticide paradox

If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new defects. To overcome this “pesticide paradox”, the test cases need to be regularly reviewed and revised, and new and different tests need to be written to exercise different parts of the software or system to potentially find more defects.

Principle 6 – Testing is context dependent

Testing is done differently in different contexts. For example, safety-critical

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software is tested differently from an e-commerce site.

Principle 7 – Absence-of-errors fallacy

Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users’ needs and expectations.

II) Fundamental test process

1) Test planning and control

Test planning is the activity of verifying the mission of testing, defining the objectives of testing and the specification of test activities in order to meet the objectives and mission.

  It involves taking actions necessary to meet the mission and objectives of the project. In order to control testing, it should be monitored throughout the project. Test planning takes into account the feedback from monitoring and control activities.

2) Test analysis and design

Test analysis and design is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test cases.

Test analysis and design has the following major tasks:

Reviewing the test basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interfaces).

Evaluating testability of the test basis and test objects.

Identifying and prioritizing test conditions based on analysis of test items, the specification, behaviour and structure.

Designing and prioritizing test cases.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases.

Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools.

3) Test implementation and execution

Developing, implementing and prioritizing test cases.

Developing and prioritizing test procedures, creating test data and, optionally, preparing test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

Creating test suites from the test procedures for efficient test execution.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

Executing test procedures either manually or by using test execution tools, according to the planned sequence.

Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.

Comparing actual results with expected results.

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Reporting discrepancies as incidents and analyzing them in order to establish their cause (e.g. a defect in the code, in specified test data, in the test document, or a mistake in the way the test was executed).

Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy. For example, reexecution of a test that previously failed in order to confirm a fix (confirmation testing), execution of a corrected test and/or execution of tests in order to ensure that defects have not been introduced in unchanged areas of the software or that defect fixing did not uncover other defects (regression testing).

4) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

Assessing if more tests are needed or if the exit criteria specified should be changed.

Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

5) Test closure activities

Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered, the closure of incident reports or raising of change records for any that remain open, and the documentation of the acceptance of the system.

Finalizing and archiving testware, the test environment and the test infrastructure for later reuse.

 Handover of testware to the maintenance organization.

Analyzing lessons learned for future releases and projects, and the improvement of test maturity.

III) The psychology of testing Tests designed by the person(s) who wrote the software under test (low

level of independence).

Tests designed by another person(s) (e.g. from the development team).

Tests designed by a person(s) from a different organizational group (e.g. an independent test team) or test specialists (e.g. usability or performance test specialists).

Tests designed by a person(s) from a different organization or company (i.e. outsourcing or certification by an external body).

Questions :

Example 1: 50 Question(knol.google.com)

( These are sample questions related to chapter 1 , For answers see other sections of ISTQB below)

 

1) When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

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a) an errorb) a faultc) a failured) a defect

2) Regression testing should be performed:v) every weekw) after the software has changedx) as often as possibley) when the environment has changedz) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are falseb) w, x & y are true, v & z are falsec) w & y are true, v, x & z are falsed) w is true, v, x y and z are false

3) Testing should be stopped when:a) all the planned tests have been runb) time has run outc) all faults have been fixed correctlyd) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

4) Consider the following statements about early test design:i. early test design can prevent fault multiplicationii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fixiii. early test design can find faultsiv. early test design can cause changes to the requirementsv. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are falseb) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are falsec) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are falsed) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

5) The main focus of acceptance testing is:a) finding faults in the systemb) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all usersc) testing the system with other systemsd) testing for a business perspective

6) The difference between re-testing and regression testing isa) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effectsb) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those testsc) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

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d) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

7) Expected results are: a) only important in system testingb) only used in component testingc) never specified in advanced) most useful when specified in advance

8) The cost of fixing a fault:a) Is not importantb) Increases as we move the product towards live usec) Decreases as we move the product towards live used) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

9) Fault Masking is a. Error condition hiding another error conditionb. creating a test case which does not reveal a faultc. masking a fault by developerd. masking a fault by a tester

10) One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is: a. Lack of technical documentationb. Lack of test tools on the market for developersc. Lack of trainingd. Lack of Objectivity

11) Enough testing has been performed when:a) Time runs out.b) The required level of confidence has been achieved.c) No more faults are found.d) The users won’t find any serious faults.

12) Which of the following is false?a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

13) Which of the following characterises the cost of faults? a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the less expensive to fix.b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

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c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

14) According to the ISTQB Glossary a risk relates to which of the following? a) Negative feedback to the tester.b) Negative consequences that will occur.c) Negative consequences that could occur.d) Negative consequences for the test object.

 

15) Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?a) Preventing defects in the system.b) Finding defects through dynamic testing.c) Gaining confidence in the system.d) Finishing the project on time.

16) A failure is:a) Found in the software; the result of an error.b) Departure from specified behavior.c) An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.d) A human action that produces an incorrect result.

17) Faults found by users are due to:a. Poor quality softwareb. Poor software and poor testingc. bad luckd. insufficient time for testing

18) Which of the following statements are true?a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fixd. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

19) COTS is known as:a. Commercial off the shelf softwareb. Compliance of the softwarec. Change control of the softwared. Capable off the shelf software

20) Which is not the testing objective?a. Finding defectsb. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

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c. Preventing defects.d. Debugging defects

21) Exhaustive Testing isa) Impractical but possibleb) Practically possiblec) Impractical and impossibled) Always possible

22) Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between developers and testers?a) Understanding what Managers value about testing.b) Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.c) Identifying potential customer work-around for bugs.d) Promoting better quality software whenever possible.

23) According to ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘Error’ is synonymous with which of the following?a) Failureb) Defectc) Mistaked) Bug

24) In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:a) Find as many faults as possible.b) Test high risk areas.c) Obtain good test coverage.d) Test whatever is easiest to test.

25) Incidents would not be raised against:a) Requirementsb) Documentationc) Test casesd) Improvements suggested by users

26) Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase a) Test Implementation and execution b) Test Analysis and Designc) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting d) Test Closure Activities

27) Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase? a) Creating test suites from the test cases

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b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools c) Comparing actual resultsd) Designing the Tests

28) Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as a. Test Harnessb. Test Suitec. Test Cycled. Test Driver

29) Which of the following could be a reason for a failure1) Testing fault2) Software fault3) Design fault4) Environment Fault5) Documentation Fault

a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are notb. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is notc. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are notd. All of them are valid reasons for failure

30) Handover of Testware is a part of which Phase a) Test Analysis and Design b) Test Planning and controlc) Test Closure Activities d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

 

31) An exhaustive test suit would include:a) All combination of input values and preconditions.b) All combination of input values and output values.c) All pairs of input values and preconditions.d) All states and state transitions.

32) Which of the following encourages objective testing?a) Unit Testing.b) System Testing.c) Independent Testing.d) Destructive Testing.

33) Consider the following list of test process activities:I  Analysis and DesignII Test Closure activitiesIII Evaluating exit criteria and reportingIV Planning and ControlV  Implementation and execution

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Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?a) I, II, III, IV and Vb) IV, I, V, III and IIc) IV, I, V, II and IIId) I, IV, V, III and II

34) According to ISTQB Glossary, debugging:a) Is part of the fundamental test process.b) Includes the repair of the cause of a failurec) Involves intentionally adding known defects  d) Follows the steps of a test procedure

35) Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?a) Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated. b) Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.c) Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules.d) Incorrect calculators were used to calculate the expected results.

36) When should you stop testing?a) When the time for testing has run outb) When all planned tests have been runc) When the test completion criteria have been metd) When no faults have been found by the tests run  

 37) An incident logging system:a) Only records defectsb) is of limited valuec) is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents  d) Should be used only by the test team

38) The term confirmation testing is synonymous to a) Exploratory testingb) Regression testingc) Exhaustive testingd) Re- testing

39) Consider the following statements:i. an incident may be closed without being fixed. ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation. iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing. iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false

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b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are falsec) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

40) Which of the following is not a characteristic of software?a) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classic senseb) Software doesn’t “wear out” with the timec) The traditional industry is moving toward component based assembly, whereas most software continues to be custom built and the concept of component based assembly is still taking shaped) Software does not require maintenance

41) If the expected result is not specified then:a) We cannot run the testb) It may be difficult to repeat the testc) It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failedd) We cannot automate the user inputs

42) A reliable system will be one that:a) is unlikely to be completed on scheduleb) is unlikely to cause a failurec) is likely to be fault freed) is likely to be liked by the users

43) What is the purpose of Exit Criteria?a) To determine when writing a test case is completeb) To determine when to stop the testingc) To ensure the test specification is completed) To determine when to stop writing the test plan

44) What is the focus of Re-Testing?a) Re-Testing ensures the original fault has been removedb) Re-Testing prevents future faultsc) Re-Testing looks for unexpected side effectsd) Re-Testing ensures the original fault is still present 

45) How is the amount of Re-Testing required normally defined?a) Discussions with the end usersb) Discussions with the developersc) Metrics from Previous projectsd) none of the above

46) A manifestation of an ‘error’ in software isa) An Error

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b) A Faultc) A Failured) An Action

47) If testing time is limited, we should …a) Only test high risk areasb) Only test simple areasc) Only test low risk areasd) Only test complicated areas

48) The quality of the product is said to increase when?a) All faults have been reviewedb) All faults have been foundc) All faults have been raisedd) All faults have been rectified

49) Pick the best definition of quality a) Quality is job oneb) Zero defectsc) Conformance to requirementsd) Work as designed

50) What is the Main reason for testing software before releasing it?a) To show the system will work after releaseb) To decide when software is of sufficient quality to releasec) To find as many of bugs as possible before released) To give information for a risk based decision about release

51) Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible:a) The domain of possible inputs is too large to test.b) Limited financial resources. c) There are too many possible paths through the program to test. d) The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test.

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Chaper 2. Testing throughout the software life cycleInternational Software Testing Quality Board, Terms Development models

Software development models, Test levels , test types and maintenance testing, Tests and answers, sample questionaire, Detailed explanation of SDLC and V models can be referred from software testing theory Part 1 ( Index and Sub Index)

2.1 Software development models

COTS, interactive-incremental development model, validation, verification, V-model.

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2.2 Test levels

 Alpha testing, beta testing, component testing (also known as unit/module/program testing), driver, stub, field testing, functional requirement, non-functional requirement, integration, integration testing, robustness testing, system testing, test level, test-driven development, test environment, user acceptance testing.

2.3 Test types

 Black box testing, code coverage, functional testing, interoperability testing, load testing, maintainability testing, performance testing, portability testing, reliability testing, security testing, specification based testing, stress testing, structural testing, usability testing, white box testing 

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2.4 Maintenance testing

 Impact analysis, maintenance testing.

i) Software development models

a) V-model (sequential development model)

 Although variants of the V-model exist, a common type of V-model uses four test levels,corresponding to the four development levels.

The four levels used in this syllabus are:component (unit) testing;integration testing;system testing;acceptance testing.

b) Iterative-incremental development models

 Iterative-incremental development is the process of establishing requirements, designing, building and testing a system, done as a series of shorter development cycles. Examples are: prototyping, rapid application development (RAD), Rational Unified Process (RUP) and agile development models.

 

c) Testing within a life cycle model

 In any life cycle model, there are several characteristics of good testing:

? For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.? Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.? The analysis and design of tests for a given test level should begin during the corresponding development activity.? Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in the development life cycle.

ii) Test levels

a) Component testing

 Component testing searches for defects in, and verifies the functioning of, software (e.g. modules, programs, objects, classes, etc.) that are separately testable.

Component testing may include testing of functionality and specific non-functional characteristics, such as resource-behaviour (e.g. memory leaks) or robustness testing, as well as structural testing (e.g. branch coverage).

One approach to component testing is to prepare and automate test cases before coding. This is called a test-first approach or test-driven development.

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b) Integration testing

 Integration testing tests interfaces between components, interactions with different parts of a system, such as the operating system, file system, hardware, or interfaces between systems.

Component integration testing tests the interactions between software components and is done after component testing;

System integration testing tests the interactions between different systems and may be done after system testing.

Testing of specific non-functional characteristics (e.g. performance) may be included in integration testing.

c) System testing

 System testing is concerned with the behaviour of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project or programme.

In system testing, the test environment should correspond to the final target or production environment as much as possible in order to minimize the risk of environment-specific failures not being found in testing.

System testing may include tests based on risks and/or on requirements specifications, business processes, use cases, or other high level descriptions of system behaviour, interactions with the operating system, and system resources.

System testing should investigate both functional and non-functional requirements of the system.

d) Acceptance testing

 Acceptance testing is often the responsibility of the customers or users of a system; other stakeholders may be involved as well.

The goal in acceptance testing is to establish confidence in the system, parts of the system or specific non-functional characteristics of the system

Contract and regulation acceptance testingContract acceptance testing is performed against a contract’s acceptance criteria for producing custom-developed software. Acceptance criteria should be defined when the contract is agreed. Regulation acceptance testing is performed against any regulations that must be adhered to, such as governmental, legal or safety regulations.

Alpha and beta (or field) testingAlpha testing is performed at the developing organization’s site. Beta testing, or field testing, is performed by people at their own locations. Both are performed by potential customers, not the developers of the product.

iii) Test types

a) Testing of function (functional testing)

 The functions that a system, subsystem or component are to perform may be described in work products such as a requirements specification, use cases, or a functional specification, or they may be undocumented. The functions are “what”

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the system does.

A type of functional testing, security testing, investigates the functions (e.g. a firewall) relating to detection of threats, such as viruses, from malicious outsiders. Another type of functional testing, interoperability testing, evaluates the capability of the software product to interact with one or more specified components or systems.

b) Testing of non-functional software characteristics (non-functional testing)

 Non-functional testing includes, but is not limited to, performance testing, load testing, stress testing, usability testing, maintainability testing, reliability testing and portability testing. It is the testing of “how” the system works.

Non-functional testing may be performed at all test levels.

c) Testing of software structure/architecture (structural testing)

 Structural (white-box) testing may be performed at all test levels. Structural techniques are best used after specification-based techniques, in order to help measure the thoroughness of testing through assessment of coverage of a type of structure.

Structural testing approaches can also be applied at system, system integration or acceptance testing levels (e.g. to business models or menu structures).

d) Testing related to changes (confirmation testing (retesting) and regression testing)

After a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called confirmation. Debugging (defect fixing) is a development activity, not a testing activity.

Regression testing is the repeated testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the change(s). It isperformed when the software, or its environment, is changed.

Regression testing may be performed at all test levels, and applies to functional, non-functional and structural testing.

iv) Maintenance testing

Once deployed, a software system is often in service for years or decades. During this time the system and its environment are often corrected, changed or extended.

Modifications include planned enhancement changes (e.g. release-based), corrective andemergency changes, and changes of environment,

Maintenance testing for migration (e.g. from one platform to another) should include operational tests of the new environment, as well as of the changed software.

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Maintenance testing for the retirement of a system may include the testing of data migration or archiving if long data-retention periods are required.

Maintenance testing may be done at any or all test levels and for any or all test types.

Questions:

1) What are the good practices for testing with in the software development life cycle?a) Early test analysis and designb) Different test levels are defined with specific objectivesc) Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.d) A and B above

2) Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?a) Objectives should be generic for any test level b) Objectives are the same for each test level.c) The objectives of a test level don’t need to be defined in advanced) Each level has objectives specific to that level.

3) Which of the following is a type?a) Component testingb) Functional testingc) System testingd) Acceptance testing

4) Non-functional system testing includes:a) Testing to see where the system does not function properlyb) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usabilityc) testing a system feature using only the software required for that actiond) testing for functions that should not exist

5) Beta testing is:a) Performed by customers at their own siteb) Performed by customers at their software developer’s sitec) Performed by an independent test teamd) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

 

6) Which of the following is not part of performance testing:a) Measuring response timeb) Measuring transaction ratesc) Recovery testingd) Simulating many users

7) Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.

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b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

8) Integration testing in the small:a) Tests the individual components that have been developed.b) Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.c) Only uses components that form part of the live system.d) Tests interfaces to other systems.

9) Alpha testing is:a) Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.b) The first testing that is performed.c) Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.d) Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

10) Software testing activities should starta) As soon as the code is writtenb) during the design stagec) when the requirements have been formally documentedd) as soon as possible in the development life cycle

 

11) consider the following statements about regression testsI. they may useful be automated if they are well designed.II. They are the same as confirmation testsIII. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the systemIV. They are only effective if automated.Which pairs of statements are true?a) I and IIb) I and IIIc) II and IIId) II and IV

12) Which of these statements about functional testing is true?a) Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the codeb) Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business annalists, developers, testers and usersc) Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.d) Inspection is a functional testing

13) Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new

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testsII. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the systemIII) It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysisIV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes.

Which of the statement are true?

a) I and IIIb) I and IVc) II and IIId) II and IV

14) Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:a) business process-based testingb) performance, load and stress testingc) requirements-based testingd) top-down integration testing

15) To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.a. Stubb. Driverc. Proxyd. None of the above

16) Which of the following is a form of functional testing?a) Boundary value analysisb) Usability testingc) Performance testingd) Security testing

17) Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.c) It reduces defect multiplication.d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

18) The most important thing about early test design is that it:a) makes test preparation easier.b) means inspections are not required.c) can prevent fault multiplication.d) will find all faults.

19). Which of the following statements is not truea. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole systemb. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression testc. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

20) Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?a. State-Transition

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b. Usabilityc. Performanced. Reliability

21) Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a. Design basedb. Big-bangc. Bottom-upd. Top-down

22) Big bang approach is related to

a) Regression testingb) Inter system testingc) Re-testing d). Integration testing

23) “Which life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited fora) Water fall modelb) Spiral modelc) Incremental modeld) V-Model

24) Use cases can be performed to test

A. Performance testing B. Unit testingC. Business scenarios D. Static testing

25) Which testing is performed at an external site?

A. Unit testing B. Regression testingC. Beta testing D. Integration testing

26) Functional system testing is:

a) Testing that the system functions with other systemsb) Testing that the components that comprise the system function togetherc) Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a wholed) Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

 

27) Maintenance testing is:

a) Updating tests when the software has changedb) testing a released system that has been changedc) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business needd) testing to maintain business advantage

28) Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

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a)component testingb)non-functional system testingc)user acceptance testingd)maintenance testing

29) Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?a) business process-based testingb) performance, load and stress testingc) usability testingd) top-down integration testing

30) Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?a. compatibility testing, usability testing, performance testingb. System testing, performance testingc. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testingd. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing31) V-Model is:a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phasesb. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testingc. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQBd. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

32) Maintenance testing is:a. Testing managementb. Synonym of testing the quality of servicec. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing softwared. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

33) Link Testing is also called as: a) Component Integration testingb) Component System Testing c) Component Sub System Testing d) Maintenance testing

34) Component Testing is also called as:i. Unit Testingii. Program Testingiii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing

Which of the following is correct?

a) i, ii, iii are true and iv is falseb) i, ii, iii, iv are falsec) i, ii, iv are true and iii is falsed) All of above is true

35) Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

i. Global design

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ii. System Requirementsiii. Detailed design iv. User Requirements

a) Unit testsb) Acceptance testsc) System testsd) Integration tests

a) i -d , ii-a , iii-b , iv-cb) i -c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-bc) i -d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-bd) i -c , ii-d , iii-b , iv-a

36) Which of these is a functional test?a) Measuring response time on an online booking systemb) Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.c) Checking the on-line booking screens information and the database contacts against the information on the letter to the customersd) Checking how easy the system is to use

 

Chaper 3: Static TechniquesInternational Software Testing and Quality Board, Objective Tests, sample questions

This chapter explains the static and dynamic techniques of testing, Review process, formal and informal, inspection, and technical review, Analysis compiler, complexity, control flow, data flow and walkthrough. For other manual testing concepts and SDLC, STLC, BLC topics , Please refer the Main chapter of Software testing theory.

3.1 Static techniques and the test processdynamic testing, static testing, static technique

 

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Img 1.1 Permanent Demand trend Jobmarket Internet.UK 

The chart provides the 3-month moving total beginning in 2004 of permanent IT jobs citing ISTQB within the UK as a proportion of the total demand within the

Qualifications category. 2009  

3.2 Review processentry criteria, formal review, informal review, inspection, metric, moderator/inspection leader, peer review, reviewer, scribe, technical review, walkthrough.

3.3 Static analysis by toolsCompiler, complexity, control flow, data flow, static analysis

 

I) Phases of a formal review

1) Planning 

Selecting the personal, allocating roles, defining entry and exit criteria for more formal reviews etc.

2) Kick-off 

Distributing documents, explaining the objectives, checking entry criteria etc.3) Individual preparation 

Work done by each of the participants on their own work before the review meeting, questions and comments 4) Review meeting 

Discussion or logging, make recommendations for handling the defects, or make decisions about the defects 5) Rework 

Fixing defects found, typically done by the author Fixing defects found, typically done by the author6) Follow-up 

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Checking the defects have been addressed, gathering metrics and checking on exit criteria

 

II) Roles and responsibilities

Manager Decides on execution of reviews, allocates time in projects schedules, and determines if the review objectives have been metModerator Leads the review, including planning, running the meeting, follow-up after the meeting. Author The writer or person with chief responsibility of the document(s) to be reviewed.Reviewers Individuals with a specific technical or business background. Identify defects and describe findings.Scribe (recorder) Documents all the issues, problems

 

III) Types of review

Informal review No formal process, pair programming or a technical lead reviewing designs and code. Main purpose: inexpensive way to get some benefit.Walkthrough Meeting led by the author, ‘scenarios, dry runs, peer group’, open-ended sessions.Main purpose: learning, gaining understanding, defect findingTechnical review Documented, defined defect detection process, ideally led by trained moderator, may be performed as a peer review, pre meeting preparation, involved by peers and technical expertsMain purpose: discuss, make decisions, find defects, solve technical problems and check conformance to specifications and standards

Inspection  Led by trained moderator (not the author), usually peer examination, defined roles, includes metrics, formal process, pre-meeting preparation, formal follow-up processMain purpose: find defects.

Note: walkthroughs, technical reviews and inspections can be performed within a peer group-colleague at the same organization level. This type of review is called a “peer review”.

 

IV) Success factors for reviews

Each review has a clear predefined objective.The right people for the review objectives are involved.Defects found are welcomed, and expressed objectively.People issues and psychological aspects are dealt with (e.g. making it a positive experience for the author).Review techniques are applied that are suitable to the type and level of software work products and reviewers.Checklists or roles are used if appropriate to increase effectiveness of defect identification.

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Training is given in review techniques, especially the more formal techniques, such as inspection.Management supports a good review process (e.g. by incorporating adequate time for review activities in project schedules). There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

V) Cyclomatic Complexity

The number of independent paths through a program

Cyclomatic Complexity is defined as: L – N + 2P

L = the number of edges/links in a graphN = the number of nodes in a graphsP = the number of disconnected parts of the graph (connected components)

Alternatively one may calculate Cyclomatic Complexity using decision point ruleDecision points +1

Cyclomatic Complexity and Risk Evaluation1 to 10a simple program, without very much risk11 to 20 a complex program, moderate risk21 to 50, a more complex program, high risk> 50an un-testable program (very high risk)

 Questions1) Which of the following statements is NOT true:a) inspection is the most formal review processb) inspections should be led by a trained leaderc) managers can perform inspections on management documentsd) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

 

2) Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. led by author2. undocumented3. no management participation4. led by a trained moderator or leader5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspectiont) peer reviewu) informal reviewv) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

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3) Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:a) No, because they apply to development documentationb) No, because they are normally applied before testingc) No, because they do not apply to the test documentationd) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

 

4) In a review meeting a moderator is a person whoa. Takes minutes of the meetingb. Mediates among peoplec. Takes telephone callsd. writes the documents to be reviewed

 

5)  Which of the following statements about reviews is true?a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

 

6) What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection? a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

 

7) Which of the following is a static test?a. code inspectionb. coverage analysisc. usability assessmentd. installation test

 

8) Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting  A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author

 

9) What is the main purpose of Informal review?A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit

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B. Find defectsC. Learning, gaining understanding, effect findingD. Discuss, make decisions and solve technical problems

 

10) Which of the following is not a static testing technique?a. Error guessingb. Walkthroughc. Data flow analysisd. Inspections

 

11) Inspections can find all the following except a. Variables not defined in the codeb. Spelling and grammar faults in the documentsc. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documentsd. How much of the code has been covered

 

12) Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques? a) Software codeb) Requirements specificationc) Test designsd) All of the above

 

13) Which is not a type of review?a) Walkthroughb) Inspectionc) Management approvald) Informal review

 

14) Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix2. Early test design can find defects3. Early test design can cause to the changes to the requirements4. Early test design can takes more effort

a) 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.b) 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.c) 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.d) 2, 3, and 4 are true. 1 is false

 

15) Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?a) Unreachable code

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b) Faults in requirements c) Undeclared variables d) Too few comments

 

16) What is the best description of static analysis? a) The analysis of bath programsb) The reviewing of test plansc) The analysis of program code or other software a rtifactsd) The use of black-box testing

 

17) What is the more important factor for successful performance of review?a) A separate scribe during the logging meetingb) Trained participants and review leadersc) The availability of tools to support the review processd) A reviewed test plan

 

18) Code Walkthrough is a. type of dynamic testingb. type of static testingc. neither dynamic nor staticd. performed by the testing team

 

19) Static Analysis a. same as static testingb. done by the developersc. both a and bd. none of the above

 

20)  Which review is inexpensive?a. Informal Reviewb. Walkthroughc. Technical reviewd. Inspection

 

21) Who should have technical or Business background?a. Moderatorb. Authorc. Reviewerd. Recorder

 

22) The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review, running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting

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a. Reviewerb. Authorc. Moderatord. Auditor

 

23) Peer Reviews are also called as: a) Inspectionb) Walkthrough c) Technical Reviewd) Formal Review

 

24) The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following a) Explaining the objectiveb) Fixing defects found typically done by authorc) Follow upd) Individual Meeting preparations

25) Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objectiveii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectivelyiii. Management supports a good review process.iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrectb) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrectc) i , iii , iv are correct and ii is in correctd) i, ii are correct and iii, iv are incorrect

 

26) Why static testing described as complementary for dynamic testing? a) Because they share the aim of identifying defects and finds the same types of defect. b) Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find. c) Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect. d) Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.

 

27) Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false?a) Static testing requires the running of tests through the codeb) Static testing includes desk checkingc) Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspectionsd) Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

28) Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection? i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations

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iii. Formal Follow up process.iv. Main objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i, iii, iv are falseb) i, iii, iv are true and ii is falsec) i, iii, iv are false and ii is trued) iii is true and I, ii, iv are false

 

29) The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.i. Planning ii. Review Meetingiii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vib) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,vc) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vid) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi 

 

30) Which of the following is Key Characteristics of Walk Through?a) Scenario, Dry Run, Peer Group b) Pre Meeting Preparationsc) Formal Follow up Processd) Includes Metrics

References1 ISTQB3 Gilb, T & Graham, D (1993) Software Inspection, Addison-Wesley:

London Hatton, L. (1997) 'Reexamining the Fault Density-component Size Connection' in IEEE Software, vol. 14 Issue 2, March 197; pp. 89-97.

2 ISTQB3, Van Veenendaal, E. (2004). The Testing Practitioner, 2nd edition, UTN publishing van Veenendaal, E. and van der Zwan, M. (2000) 'GQM based Inspections' in proceedings of the 11th European software control and metrics conference (ESCOM), Munich, May 2000.

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Chaper 4:  Test Design Techniques – ModulesInternational Software testing & Quality Board, Test design techniques, Categories

Specifcations and White Box / Black Box techniques, BVA and ECP , Decision table testing, state transition , and use case tesing. Test case specification, test design, test execution schedule, test procedure specification, test script, traceability. For more details on testing and related concepts plese refer the main chapter of software testing theory Part 1

4.1 The test development process

Test case specification, test design, test execution schedule, test procedure specification, test script, traceability.

4.2 Categories of test design techniques

Black-box test design technique, specification-based test design technique, white-box test design technique, structure-based test design technique, experience-based test design technique.

4.3 Specification-based or black box techniques

Boundary value analysis, decision table testing, equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, use case testing.

4.4 Structure-based or white box techniques

Code coverage, decision coverage, statement coverage, structure-based testing.

4.5 Experience-based techniques

Exploratory testing, fault attack.

4.6 Choosing test techniques

No specific terms.  

 

Test Design Techniques  Specification-based/Black-box techniques

 Structure-based/White-box techniques

 Experience-based techniques

 

I) Specification-based/Black-box techniques 

 Equivalence partitioning

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 Boundary value analysis Decision table testing State transition testing Use case testing

Equivalence partitioning

o Inputs to the software or system are divided in to groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavioro Equivalence partitions or classes can be found for both valid data and invalid datao Partitions can also be identified for outputs, internal values, time related values and for interface values.o Equivalence partitioning is applicable all levels of testing

 

Boundary value analysis

o Behavior at the edge of each equivalence partition is more likely to be incorrect. The maximum and minimum values of a partition are its boundary values.o A boundary value for a valid partition is a valid boundary value; the boundary of an invalid partition is an invalid boundary value.o Boundary value analysis can be applied at all test levelso It is relatively easy to apply and its defect-finding capability is higho This technique is often considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning.

 

Decision table testing

o In Decision table testing test cases are designed to execute the combination of inputso Decision tables are good way to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions.o The decision table contains triggering conditions, often combinations of true and false for all input conditions o It maybe applied to all situations when the action of the software depends on several logical decisions

 

State transition testing

o In state transition testing test cases are designed to execute  valid and invalid state transitionso A system may exhibit a deferent response on current conditions or previous history. In this case, that aspect of the system can be shown as a state transition diagram.o State transition testing is much used in embedded software and technical automation.

 

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Use case testing

o In use case testing test cases are designed to execute user scenarios o A use case describes interactions between actors, including users and the systemo Each use case has preconditions, which need to be met for a use case to work successfully.o A use case usually has a mainstream scenario and some times alternative branches.o Use cases, often referred  to as scenarios, are very useful for designing acceptance tests with customer/user participation   

II) Structure-based/White-box techniques

o Statement testing and coverage

o Decision testing and coverage

o Other structure-based techniques

 condition coverage

 multi condition coverage

Statement testing and coverage:

Statement

An entity in a programming language, which is typically the smallest indivisible unit of execution

Statement coverageThe percentage of executable statements that have been exercised by a test suite

Statement testingA white box test design technique in which test cases are designed to execute statements

 

Decision testing and coverage

DecisionA program point at which the control flow has two or more alternative routes

A node with two or more links to separate branches

Decision Coverage The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite

100% decision coverage implies both 100% branches coverage and 100% statement coverage

Decision testing A white box test design technique in which test cases are designed to execute decision outcomes.

Other structure-based techniques

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ConditionA logical expression that can be evaluated as true or false

Condition coverageThe percentage of condition outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite

Condition testingA white box test design technique in which test cases are designed to execute condition outcomes

Multiple condition testingA white box test design technique in which test cases are designed to execute combinations of single condition outcomes

 

III) Experience-based techniques

o Error guessingo Exploratory testing

Error guessingo Error guessing is a commonly used experience-based technique

o Generally testers anticipate defects based on experience, these defects list can be built based on experience, available defect data, and from common knowledge about why software fails.

Exploratory testingo Exploratory testing is concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning , based on  test charter containing test objectives and carried out within time boxes

o It is approach that is most useful where there are few or inadequate specifications and serve time pressure.

Questions1) Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:a) 1000, 5000, 99999b) 9999, 50000, 100000c) 10000, 50000, 99999d) 10000, 99999e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

 

2) Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:a) Equivalence partitioningb) State transition testingc) Syntax testingd) Boundary value analysis

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3) Error guessing is best useda) As the first approach to deriving test casesb) After more formal techniques have been appliedc) By inexperienced testersd) After the system has gone livee) Only by end users

 

4) Which is not true-The black box testera. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements documentb. should be able to understand the source code.c. is highly motivated to find faultsd. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses.

 

5) A test design technique isa. a process for selecting test casesb. a process for determining expected outputsc. a way to measure the quality of softwared. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

 

6) Which of the following is true?a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of softwarec. the fewer bugs you find, the better your testing wasd. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

 

7) What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?a. how well you know a particular techniqueb. the objective of the testc. how appropriate the technique is for testing the applicationd. whether there is a tool to support the technique

 

8) Which of the following is a black box design technique?a. statement testingb. equivalence partitioningc. error- guessingd. usability testing

 

9) A program validates a numeric field as follows:values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected

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Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions? a. 10, 11, 21b. 3, 20, 21c. 3, 10, 22d. 10, 21, 22

 

10) Using the same specifications as question 9, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?a. 9,10,11,22b. 9,10,21,22c. 10,11,21,22d. 10,11,20,21

 

11) Error guessing:a) supplements formal test design techniques.b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.d) is not repeatable and should not be used. 12) Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?a) Statement testingb) Path testingc) Data flow testingd) State transition testing

 

13) Data flow analysis studies:a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.c) the use of data on paths through the code.d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

 

14) In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?a) £4800; £14000; £28000b) £5200; £5500; £28000c) £28001; £32000; £35000d) £5800; £28000; £32000

 

15) Test cases are designed during:a) test recording.b) test planning.

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c) test configuration.d) test specification.

 

16) An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004The boundary values for testing this field area. 0,1900,2004,2005b. 1900, 2004c. 1899,1900,2004,2005d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

 

17) Boundary value testing a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests? b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes c. Tests combinations of input circumstances d. Is used in white box testing strategy

 

18) When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: a) Equivalence partitioning b) Boundary value analysisc) Decision tabled) Hybrid analysis

 

19) Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing. a) Error Guessing b) Boundary Value Analysis c) Decision Table testing d) Equivalence partitioning

 

20) Features to be tested, approach, item pass/fail criteria and test deliverables should be specified in which document? a) Test case specification b) Test procedure specification c) Test plan d) Test design specification

 

21) Which specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?a) Decision tables and state transition testing

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b) Equivalence partitioning and state transition testingc) Decision tables and boundary value analysisd) Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis

 

22) assume postal rates for ‘light letters’ are:$0.25 up to 10 grams$0.35 up to 50 grams$0.45 up to 75 grams$0.55 up to 100 grams

Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?

a) 0, 9, 19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99, 100b) 10, 50, 75, 100, 250, 1000c) 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, 101d) 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

 

23)  If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating system is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating system is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?  a) 15, 19 and 25 degreesb) 17, 18, 20 and 21 degreesc) 18, 20 and 22 degreesd) 16 and 26 degrees  

 

24) What is a test condition?a) An input, expected outcome, precondition and post conditionb) The steps to be taken to get the system to a given pointc) Something that can be testedd) A specific state of the software, ex: before a test can be run

 

25) What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?a) Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructedb) Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its componentsc) Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the testerd) Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components

 

26) Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?a) They find different types of defect.b) using more techniques is always betterc) both find the same types of defect.

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d) Because specifications tend to be unstructured

 

27) Find the Equivalence class for the following test case Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and99a) All numbers < 1b) All numbers > 99c) Number = 0d) All numbers between 1 and 99

 

28) What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundaryvalue analysis techniques? a) Structural testingb) Opaque testing c) Compatibility testingd) All of the above

 

29) Suggest an alternative for requirement traceability matrix a) Test Coverage matrixb) Average defect aging c) Test Effectivenessd) Error discovery rate

 

30) The following defines the statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during testing activity a) Test scopeb) Test objectivec) Test environmentd) None of the above

 

31) One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a programstatement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices,numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____a) 4 to 6b) 0 to 10c) 1 to 10d) None of the above

 

32) Test design mainly emphasizes all the following excepta) Data planningb) Test procedures planningc) Mapping the requirements and test cases

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d) Data synchronization 33) Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except a) Test datab) Test data planc) Test summary reportd) Test procedure plan

 

34) Test data planning essentially includes a) Networkb) Operational Modelc) Boundary value analysisd) Test Procedure Planning

 

35) Test coverage analysis is the process of a) Creating additional test cases to increase coverageb) Finding areas of program exercised by the test casesc) Determining a quantitative measure of code coverage, which is adirect measure of quality.d) All of the above.

 

36) Branch Coverage a) another name for decision coverageb) another name for all-edges coveragec) another name for basic path coveraged) all the above

 

37) The following example is aif (condition1 && (condition2 || function1()))statement1;elsestatement2; (Testing concepts)a) Decision coverageb) Condition coveragec) Statement coveraged) Path Coverage

 

38) Test cases need to be written for a) invalid and unexpected conditionsb) valid and expected conditionsc) both a and bd) none of these

 

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39) Path coverage includes a) statement coverageb) condition coveragec) decision coveraged) none of these

 

40) The benefits of glass box testing are a) Focused Testing, Testing coverage, control flowb) Data integrity, Internal boundaries, algorithm specific testingc) Both a and bd) Either a or b

 

41) Find the invalid equivalence class for the following test caseDraw a line up to the length of 4 inches a) Line with 1 dot-widthb) Curvec) line with 4 inchesd) line with 1 inch.

 

42) Error seeding a) Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely inserting errors into a supposedly correct program.b) Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the systemmalfunctioning.c) for identifying existing errorsd) Both a and b

 

43) Which of the following best describes the difference between clearbox and opaque box? 1. Clear box is structural testing, opaque box is Ad-hoc testing2. Clear box is done by tester, and opaque box is done by developer3. Opaque box is functional testing, clear box is exploratory testinga) 1 b) 1 and 3c) 2d) 3

 

44) What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test? a) Desk checkingb) Debugging a programc) A mutation errord) Introducing mutation

 

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45) How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : - ………… if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi if (Condition 2) then statement 3 fi  ………… a. 1 test case b. 3 Test Cases c. 4 Test Cases d. Not achievable

 

46) Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:Read PRead QIF P+Q > 100 THENPrint “Large”ENDIFIf P > 50 THENPrint “P Large”ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverageb) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coveraged) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coveragee) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 47) Given the following:Switch PC onStart “outlook”IF outlook appears THENSend an emailClose outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverageb) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coveraged) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragee) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

 

48) If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?

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A. 23, 24, 25 B. 0, 12, 25 C. 30, 36, 39 D. 32, 37, 40

 

49) Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are Falsec) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

 

50) Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE? a) Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviorb) Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the codec) Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run d) Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

 

51) Which of the following is not a white box testing? a) Random testing b) Data Flow testing c) Statement testing d) Syntax testing

 

52) If the pseudo code below were a programming language, how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then 2. Display_messageX; 3. If y=2 then 4. Display_messageY; 5. Else 6. Display_messageZ;

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 

 

53) Using the same code example as question 17, how many tests are required to

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achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 

 

54) Which of the following technique is NOT a black box technique?

a) Equivalence partitioningb) State transition testingc) LCSAJd) Syntax testing

 

55) Given the following code, which is true?

IF A>B THENC = A – BELSEC = A + BENDIFRead DIF C = D THENPrint “Error”ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverageb) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coveraged) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coveragee) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

 

56) Consider the following:

Pick up and read the news paperLook at what is on televisionIf there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the television on and watch the programOtherwiseContinue reading the news paperIf there a crossword in the news paper then try and complete the crossword 

a) SC = 1 and DC = 3b) SC = 1 and DC = 2c) SC = 2 and DC = 2d) SC = 2 and DC = 3

 

57) The specification: an integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 12 (number of the month)

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Which equivalence class partitioning is correct?

a) Less than 1, 1 through 12, larger than 12b) Less than 1, 1 through 11, larger than 12c) Less than 0, 1 through 12, larger than 12d) Less than 1, 1 through 11, and above

 

58) Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”IF the customer wants ‘return’         Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”         IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’                   Say: “That will be £11:20”         ELSE                   Say: “That will be £19:50”         ENDIF  ELSE         Say: “That will be £9:75”  ENDIF Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

a) 3 b) 4c) 5d) 6 

 

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Chapter 5: Test organization and independence

International Software Testing & Quality Board, Test management, Test reports

Testers, test leader, test manager, test approach, defect density, failure rate, test manager, test approach, configuration management, version control, Risk, product risk, prject risk, risk based testing, incident logging, incident management. Please refer to the earlier version of Software testing theory part 1

The effectiveness of finding defects by testing and reviews can be improved by using independent testers. Options for testing teams available are:

 

No independent testers. Developers test their own code.

Independent testers within the development teams.

Independent test team or group within the organization, reporting to project management or executive management

Independent testers from the business organization or user community.

Independent test specialists for specific test targets such as usability testers, security testers or certification testers (who certify a software product against standards and regulations).

Independent testers outsourced or external to the organization.

 

The benefits of independence include:

Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

An independent tester can verify assumptions people made during specification and implementation of the system.

Drawbacks include:

Isolation from the development team (if treated as totally independent).

Independent testers may be the bottleneck as the last checkpoint.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

 

b) Tasks of the test leader and tester

Test leader tasks may include:

Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others.

Write or review a test strategy for the project, and test policy for the

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organization.

Contribute the testing perspective to other project activities, such as integration planning.

Plan the tests – considering the context and understanding the test objectives and risks –including selecting test approaches, estimating the time, effort and cost of testing, acquiring resources, defining test levels, cycles, and planning incident management.

Initiate the specification, preparation, implementation and execution of tests, monitor the test results and check the exit criteria.

Adapt planning based on test results and progress (sometimes documented in status reports) and take any action necessary to compensate for problems.

Set up adequate configuration management of testware for traceability.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress and evaluating the quality of the testing and the product.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

Select tools to support testing and organize any training in tool use for testers.

Decide about the implementation of the test environment.

Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing.

 

Tester tasks may include:

Review and contribute to test plans.

Analyze, review and assess user requirements, specifications and models for testability.

Create test specifications.

Set up the test environment (often coordinating with system administration and network management).

Prepare and acquire test data.

Implement tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests, evaluate the results and document the deviations from expected results.

Use test administration or management tools and test monitoring tools as required.

Automate tests (may be supported by a developer or a test automation expert).

Measure performance of components and systems (if applicable).

Review tests developed by others.

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Note: People who work on test analysis, test design, specific test types or test automation may be specialists in these roles. Depending on the test level and the risks related to the product and the project, different people may take over the role of tester, keeping some degree of independence. Typically testers at the component and integration level would be developers; testers at the acceptance test level would be business experts and users, and testers for operational acceptance testing would be operators.

 

c) Defining skills test staff need

Now days a testing professional must have ‘application’ or ‘business domain’ knowledge and ‘Technology’ expertise apart from ‘Testing’ Skills

 

2) Test planning and estimation

a) Test planning activities 

Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.

Defining the overall approach of testing (the test strategy), including the definition of the test levels and entry and exit criteria.

Integrating and coordinating the testing activities into the software life cycle activities: acquisition, supply, development, operation and maintenance.

Making decisions about what to test, what roles will perform the test activities, how the test activities should be done, and how the test results will be evaluated.

Scheduling test analysis and design activities.

Scheduling test implementation, execution and evaluation.

Assigning resources for the different activities defined.

Defining the amount, level of detail, structure and templates for the test documentation.

Selecting metrics for monitoring and controlling test preparation and execution, defect resolution and risk issues.

Setting the level of detail for test procedures in order to provide enough information to support reproducible test preparation and execution. 

 

b) Exit criteria

The purpose of exit criteria is to define when to stop testing, such as at the end of a test level or when a set of tests has a specific goal.

Typically exit criteria may consist of:

Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

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Cost.

Residual risks, such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas.

Schedules such as those based on time to market.

 

c) Test estimation

Two approaches for the estimation of test effort are covered in this syllabus:

The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former or similar projects or based on typical values.

The expert-based approach: estimating the tasks by the owner of these tasks or by experts.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

The testing effort may depend on a number of factors, including:

Characteristics of the product: the quality of the specification and other information used for test models (i.e. the test basis), the size of the product, the complexity of the problem domain, the requirements for reliability and security, and the requirements for documentation.

Characteristics of the development process: the stability of the organization, tools used, test process, skills of the people involved, and time pressure.

The outcome of testing: the number of defects and the amount of rework required.

 

d) Test approaches (test strategies)

One way to classify test approaches or strategies is based on the point in time at which the bulk of the test design work is begun:

Preventative approaches, where tests are designed as early as possible.

Reactive approaches, where test design comes after the software or system has been produced.

Typical approaches or strategies include:

Analytical approaches, such as risk-based testing where testing is directed to areas of greatest risk

Model-based approaches, such as stochastic testing using statistical information about failure rates (such as reliability growth models) or usage (such as operational profiles).

Methodical approaches, such as failure-based (including error guessing and fault-attacks), experienced-based, check-list based, and quality characteristic based.

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Process- or standard-compliant approaches, such as those specified by industry-specific standards or the various agile methodologies.

Dynamic and heuristic approaches, such as exploratory testing where testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.

Consultative approaches, such as those where test coverage is driven primarily by the advice and guidance of technology and/or business domain experts outside the test team.

Regression-averse approaches, such as those that include reuse of existing test material, extensive automation of functional regression tests, and standard test suites.

Different approaches may be combined, for example, a risk-based dynamic approach.

 

The selection of a test approach should consider the context, including

Risk of failure of the project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans, the environment and the company.

Skills and experience of the people in the proposed techniques, tools and methods.

The objective of the testing endeavour and the mission of the testing team.

Regulatory aspects, such as external and internal regulations for the development process.

The nature of the product and the business.

 

3) Test progress monitoring and control

a) Test progress monitoring

 

Percentage of work done in test case preparation (or percentage of planned test cases prepared).

Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

Test case execution (e.g. number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed).

Defect information (e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed, failure rate, and retest results).

Test coverage of requirements, risks or code.

Subjective confidence of testers in the product.

Dates of test milestones.

Testing costs, including the cost compared to the benefit of finding the next

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defect or to run the next test.

b) Test Reporting

What happened during a period of testing, such as dates when exit criteria were met.

Analyzed information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in tested software.

Metrics should be collected during and at the end of a test level in order to assess:

The adequacy of the test objectives for that test level.

The adequacy of the test approaches taken. 

The effectiveness of the testing with respect to its objectives.

 

c) Test control

Test control describes any guiding or corrective actions taken as a result of information and metrics gathered and reported. Actions may cover any test activity and may affect any other software life cycle activity or task.

Examples of test control actions are:

Making decisions based on information from test monitoring.

Re-prioritize tests when an identified risk occurs (e.g. software delivered late).

Change the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.

Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to have been retested (confirmation tested) by a developer before accepting them into a build.

 

4) Configuration managementThe purpose of configuration management is to establish and maintain the integrity of the products (components, data and documentation) of the software or system through the project and product life cycle.

For testing, configuration management may involve ensuring that:

All items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, related to each other and related to development items (test objects) so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process.

All identified documents and software items are referenced unambiguously in test documentation

For the tester, configuration management helps to uniquely identify (and to reproduce) the tested item, test documents, the tests and the test harness.

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During test planning, the configuration management procedures and infrastructure (tools) should be chosen, documented and implemented.

 

5) Risk and testing

a) Project risks

Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives, such as:

Organizational factors:

skill and staff shortages;

personal and training issues;

political issues, such as

o problems with testers communicating their needs and test results;

o failure to follow up on information found in testing and reviews (e.g. not

improving development and testing practices).

improper attitude toward or expectations of testing (e.g. not appreciating the value of finding defects during testing).

Technical issues:

problems in defining the right requirements;

the extent that requirements can be met given existing constraints;

the quality of the design, code and tests.

Supplier issues:

failure of a third party;

contractual issues.

b) Product risks

Potential failure areas (adverse future events or hazards) in the software or system are known as product risks, as they are a risk to the quality of the product, such as:

Failure-prone software delivered.

The potential that the software/hardware could cause harm to an individual or company.

Poor software characteristics (e.g. functionality, reliability, usability and performance).

Software that does not perform its intended functions.

Risks are used to decide where to start testing and where to test more; testing is used to reduce the risk of an adverse effect occurring, or to reduce the impact of an adverse effect.

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Product risks are a special type of risk to the success of a project. Testing as a risk-control activity provides feedback about the residual risk by measuring the effectiveness of critical defect removal and of contingency plans.

A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project. It involves the identification of product risks and their use in guiding test planning and control, specification, preparation and execution of tests. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:

Determine the test techniques to be employed.

Determine the extent of testing to be carried out.

Prioritize testing in an attempt to find the critical defects as early as possible.

Determine whether any non-testing activities could be employed to reduce risk (e.g. providing training to inexperienced designers).

Risk-based testing draws on the collective knowledge and insight of the project stakeholders to determine the risks and the levels of testing required to address those risks.

To ensure that the chance of a product failure is minimized, risk management activities provide a disciplined approach to:

Assess (and reassess on a regular basis) what can go wrong (risks).

Determine what risks are important to deal with.

Implement actions to deal with those risks.

In addition, testing may support the identification of new risks, may help to determine what risks should be reduced, and may lower uncertainty about risks.

6) Incident managementSince one of the objectives of testing is to find defects, the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents. Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution. In order to manage all incidents to completion, an organization should establish a process and rules for classification.

Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product. They may be raised for issues in code or the working system, or in any type of documentation including requirements, development documents, test documents, and user information such as “Help” or installation guides.

 

Incident reports have the following objectives:

Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.

Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under

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test and the progress of the testing.

Provide ideas for test process improvement.

 

Details of the incident report may include:

Date of issue, issuing organization, and author.

Expected and actual results.

Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment.

Software or system life cycle process in which the incident was observed.

Description of the incident to enable reproduction and resolution, including logs, database dumps or screenshots.

Scope or degree of impact on stakeholder(s) interests.

Severity of the impact on the system.

Urgency/priority to fix.

Status of the incident (e.g. open, deferred, duplicate, waiting to be fixed, fixed awaiting retest, closed).

Conclusions, recommendations and approvals.

Global issues, such as other areas that may be affected by a change resulting from the incident.

Change history, such as the sequence of actions taken by project team members with respect to the incident to isolate, repair, and confirm it as fixed.

References, including the identity of the test case specification that revealed the problem.

 

Questions

1) The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

a) Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned testsb) Software delivery is behind schedulec) Threat to a patient’s lifed) 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

 

2) Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

a) Number of detected defects, testing cost;b) Number of residual defects in the test object.c) Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test casesprepared

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d) Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

 

3) A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?

a) Logic-based testingb) Use-case-based testingc) State transition testingd) Systematic testing according to the V-model

4) Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

a) Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test objectb) Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control boardc) Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration managementd) Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

 

5) What test items should be put under configuration management? a) The test object, the test material and the test environmentb) The problem reports and the test materialc) Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing

d) The test object and the test material

 

6) Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product? (I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management. (II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut. (III) The specification was unclear (IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up (V) The testers were not certified

a) (I) and (II) are correctb) (I) through (IV) are correctc) (III) through (V) are correctd) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

 

7) Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?a) For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British unitsb) The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structurec) The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause

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d) Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

 

8) Which of the following project inputs influence testing? (I) contractual requirements (II) Legal requirements (III) Industry standards (IV) Application risk (V) Project size

a) (I) through (III) are correctb) All alternatives are correctc) (II) and (V) are correctd) (I), (III) and (V) are correct

 

9) What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?a) To specify when to stop the testing activityb) To set the criteria used in generating test inputsc) To ensure that the test case specification is completed) To know when a specific test has finished its execution

 

10) Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?a) The version number of the test objectb) Test data and used environmentc) Identification of the test case that failedd) The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

 

11) Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?a) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.b) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test projectc) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cyclesd) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place

 

12) IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:a) test itemsb) test deliverablesc) test tasksd) test environmente) test specification

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13) Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:a) status accounting of configuration itemsb) auditing conformance to ISO9001c) identification of test versionsd) record of changes to documentation over time

 

14) What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:a) to know when a specific test has finished its executionb) to ensure that the test case specification is completec) to know when test planning is completed) to plan when to stop testing

 

15) Test managers should not:a) report on deviations from the project planb) sign the system off for releasec) re-allocate resource to meet original plansd) raise incidents on faults that they have founde) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

 

16) What information need not be included in a test incident report:a) how to fix the faultb) how to reproduce the faultc) test environment detailsd) the actual and expected outcomes

17) Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:a) Test items (i.e. software versions)b) What is not to be testedc) Test environmentsd) Quality planse) Schedules and deadlines

 

18) Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

 

19) Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a) Features to be tested

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b) Incident reportsc) Risksd) Schedule

 

20) A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.b) Facilities to compare test results with expected results.c) The precise differences in versions of software component source code.d) Restricted access to the source code library.

 

21) Testware (test cases, test dataset)

a) needs configuration management just like requirements, design and codeb) should be newly constructed for each new version of the softwarec) is needed only until the software is released into production or used) does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

 

22) ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of

a) The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the systemb) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wardsc) The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phased) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

 

23) An expert based test estimation is also known as

a) Narrow band Delphib) Wide band Delphic) Bespoke Delphid) Robust Delphi

 

24) During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?

a) Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.b) Retest the module and confirm the bugc) Assign the same bug to another developerd) Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

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25) The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to

a) Find bugs in the programb) Check the technical accuracy of the documentc) Ensure the ease of use of the documentd) Ensure that the program is the latest version

 

26) You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources (work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.

a) Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.b) Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occurc) Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testingd) Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

 

27) Item transmittal report is also known as

a) Incident report b) Release notec) Review report d) Audit report

28) The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.

I. Phase injectedII. Phase detectedIII. Phase fixedIV. Phase removed

a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) II, III and IV d) I, III and IV

 

29) Which are not the project risks

a) Supplier issues b) Organization factorsc) Technical issues d) Error-prone software delivered

 

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30) Poor software characteristics are

a) Only Project risksb) Only Product risksc) Project risks and Product risksd) Project risks or Product risks

 

31) Bug life cycle

a) Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closedb) Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closedc) Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixedd) Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

 

32) Which is not the fundamental test process

a) Planning and control b) Test closure activitiesc) Analysis and design d) None

 

33) A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

a) Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.b) Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.c) Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.d) Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

34) A Project risk includes which of the following:a) Organizational Factorsb) Poor Software characteristics c) Error Prone software delivered.d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

35) In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :i. Determine the test technique to be employedii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.iv. Determine the cost of the projecta) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are Falseb) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

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36) Which of the following is the task of a Tester?i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Dataiii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is falseb) ii,iii,iv is true and i is falsec) i is true and ii,iii,iv are falsed) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

 

37) Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.b) Logging the outcome of test execution. c) Assessing if more tests are needed.d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

 

38) Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :- a) Test Analysis and Design b) Test Implementation and executionc) Test Closure Activities d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

 

39) Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?a) Operating systemsb) Test documentation c) Live datad) User requirement document

 

40) Which of the following is a major task of test planning? a) Determining the test approach.  b) Preparing test specifications. c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. d) Measuring and analyzing results.

 

41) What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan? a) To communicate how incidents will be managed. b) To communicate how testing will be performed. c) To produce a test schedule. d) To produce a work breakdown structure.

 

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42) In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?a) After the software or system has been produced. b) During development. c) As early as possible. d) During requirements analysis.

 

43) What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers? a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes. b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested. c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users. d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

 

44) What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk? a) Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.b) Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.c) Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.d) Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

 

45) Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? a) Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete. b) Testing is isolated from development. c) Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality. d) Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

 

46) Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing? a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software. b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

 

47) For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;

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iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.

a) i, iv, vi. b) ii, iii, v. c) i, iii, iv. d) iv, v, vi.

 

48) Which one is not the task of test leader?a. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and othersb. Decide about the implementation of the test environmentc. Write test summary reportsd. Review and contribute to test plans

49) Defect Tracking a) Is the communication channel between test team and development teamb) Is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the teamc) Is the communication channel between the testing team and end users   d) all of the above

 

50) What needs to be done when there is an insufficient time for testing?1) Do Ad-hoc testing2) Do usability testing3) Do sanity testing4) Do a risk based analysis to prioritize

a) 1 and 2b) 3 & 4c) All of the aboved) None of the above

 

51) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used during software maintenance? a) Project management plan.b) Customer support hot line.c) Software problem reports.d) Change control board.

52) Test planning should begin a) At the same time that requirement definitions beginsb) When building startsc) When code build is completed) After shipping the first version

 

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Chapter 6: Types of test toolsTypes of test tools

Management of testing and tests 

Requirement management tools

Incident management tools

Configuration management tools

Static testing  

Review tools

Static analysis tools (D)

Modeling tools (D)

Test specification

Test design tools

Test data preparation tools

Test execution and logging 

Test execution tools

Test harness/unit test framework tools (D)

Test comparators

Coverage measurement tools (D)

Security tools

Performance and monitoring

Dynamic analysis tools

Performance/Load/Stress Testing tools

Monitoring tools

Specific application areas

Special tools for web-based applications

Special tools for specific development flat forms

Special tools for embedded systems

Tool support using other tools 

 

Test Tools and their purposes

Requirement management tools

 Store requirements, check for consistency, allow requirements to be prioritized, trace changes, coverage of requirements etc.

 

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Incident management tools

 Store and manage incident reports, facilitating prioritization, assessment of actions to people and attribution of status etc.

 

Configuration management tools

 Store information about versions and builds of software and testware; enable traceability between testware and software work products etc. 

 

Review tools

 Store information, store and communicate review comments etc.

 

Static analysis tools (D)

 The enforcement of coding standards, the analysis of structures and dependencies, aiding in understanding the code etc.

 

Modeling tools (D)

 Validate models of the software, find defects in data model, state model or an object model etc.

 

Test design tools 

 Generate test inputs or executable tests, generate expected out comes etc.

 

Test data preparation tools 

 Preparing test data, Manipulate databases, files or data transmissions to set up test data etc.

 

Test execution tools

 Record tests, Automated test execution, use inputs and expected outcomes, compare results with expected outcomes, repeat tests, dynamic comparison, manipulate the tests using scripting language etc.

 

Test harness/unit test framework tools (D)

 Test components or part of a system by simulating the environment, provide an execution framework in middleware etc.

 

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Test comparators

 Determine differences between files, databases or test results post-execution comparison, may use test oracle if it is automated etc.

 

Coverage measurement tools (D)

 Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure (ex: statements, branches or decisions, and module or function calls)

 

Security tools 

Check for computer viruses and denial of service attacks, search for specific vulnerabilities of the system etc

.

Dynamic analysis tools (D)

 Detect memory leaks, identify time dependencies and identify pointer arithmetic errors.

 

Performance/Load/Stress Testing tools

 Measure load or stress, Monitor and report on how a system behaves a variety of simulated usage conditions, simulate a load on an application/a database/or a system environment, repetitive execution of tests etc.

 

Monitoring tools 

 Continuously analyze, verify and report on specific system resources; store information about the version and build of the software and testware, and enable traceability.

Tool support using other tools 

Some tools use other tools (Ex: QTP uses excel sheet and SQL tools)

 

Potential benefits and risks of tool support for testing

Benefits:

o Repetitive work is reduced

o Greater consistency and repeatability

o Objective assessment

o Ease of access to information about tests or testing

 

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Risks:

o Unrealistic expectations for the tool

o Underestimating the time and effort needed to achieve significant and continues benefits from the tool

o Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

o Over-reliance on the tool

 

Special considerations for some types of tools

Following tools have special considerations  

Test execution tools

Performance testing tools

Static testing tools

Test management tools

 

Introducing a tool into an organization 

The following factors are important in selecting a tool:

o Assessment of the organization maturity

o Identification of the areas within the organization where tool support will help to improve testing process

o Evaluation of tools against clear requirements and objective criteria

o Proof-of-concept to see whether the product works as desired and meets the requirements and objectives defined for it

o Evaluation of the vendor (training, support and other commercial aspects) or open-source network of support

o Identifying and planning internal implementation (including coaching and mentoring for those new to the use of the tool)

 

The objectives for a pilot project for a new tool

o To learn more about the tool

o To see how the tool would fit with existing processes or documentation

o To decide on standard ways of using the tool that will work for all potential users

o To evaluate the pilot project agonist its objectives

 

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Successes factors for the deployment of the new tool within an organization

o Rolling out the tool to the rest of the organization incrementally

o Adapting and improving process to fit with the use of the tool

o Providing training and coaching/mentoring for new users.

o Defining usage guidelines

o Implementing a way to learn lessons from tool use.

o Monitoring tool use and benefits.

 

Questions: 1) The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition

b) Invite a vendor to give a demo

c) Analyse your needs and requirements

d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool

 

2) Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:

i. static analysis

ii. Performance testing

iii. Test management

iv. Dynamic analysis

v. test running

vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v

b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi

c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi

d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v

e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

 

3)  A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

a) generating expected outputs

b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script

c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

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d) recording test inputs

e) reading test values from a data file

 

4) Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

a. State analysis

b. Coverage analysis

c. Dynamic analysis

d. Memory analysis

5) The software engineer's role in tool selection is

a) To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management

b) To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it

c) To initiate the tool search and present a case to management

d) To identify, evaluate and select the tools

 

6) Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware?

a. Test Management tool

b. Requirements management tool

c. Configuration management tool

d. Static analysis tool

 

7) Static analysis tools are typically used by

a. Testers

b. Developers

c. Business analysts

d. Customers

 

8) What type of tools to be used for Regression testing?

a. configuration management

b. Record/Playback

c. test management

d. incident management tool

 

9) Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?

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a) Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.

b) Complete the testing of a key project.

c) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.

d) Discover what the requirements for the tool are.

 

10) Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?

a) Dynamic Analysis tool.

b) Test Execution tool.

c) Static Analysis tool.

d) Security tool.

 

11). When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool

b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

c. The independent testing team

d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

 

12) Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.

b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.

c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

d) They capture aspects of user behavior.

 

13) Which tools help to support static testing?

a) Static analysis tools and test execution tools

b) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools

c) Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools

d) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools

 

14) Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?

a) Test management and control

b) Test specification and design

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c) Test execution and logging

d) Performance and monitoring

 

15) Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

a) Data-driven and keyword-driven

b) Data-driven and capture-driven

c) Capture driven and keyhole-driven

d) playback-driven and keyword-driven

 

16) What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

a) Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much

b) Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased

c) The tool may find defects that aren’t there.

d) The till will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous thing

 

17) Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?

a) Test management and control

b) Test specification and design 

c) Test execution and logging

d) Performance and monitoring

 

18) Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?

1 over reliance on the tools

2 greater consistency and repeatability

3 objective assessment

4 unrealistic expectations

5 underestimating the effort require maintaining the test assets generated by the tool

6 ease of access to information about tests or testing

7 repetitive work is reduced

a) Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5

b) Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7. Risks: 4, 5 and 6

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c) Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5

d) Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7

 

19) Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?

a) Decide tool to acquire

b) Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool

c) Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects

d) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets

 

20) Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?

a) Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it

b) Adopting process to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits

c) Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them. 

d) Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.  

  

 21) Which of the following factor is Not important in selecting a tool?

a) Cost of the tool

b)  evaluation of tools against clear requirements  and objective criteria 

c) Assessment of the organization’s maturity

d) Identifying and planning internal implementation

 

22) Which of the following are not strictly  testing tools?

a) Test execution tools

b) Configuration management tools

c) Unit test framework tools

d) Incident management tools

 

23) Coverage measurement tools are useful to

a) Record tests and Automated test execution

b) Test components or part of a system by simulating the environment

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c) Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure

d) Check for computer viruses and denial of service attacks

 

24) Determining differences between files, databases or test results are objectives of

a) Security tools

b) Test data preparation tools

c) Test comparators

d) Monitoring tools

 

25) Which of the following types of tools haven’t special considerations?

a) Static analysis tools

b) Performance testing tools

c) Test management tools

d) Test design tools

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Examples: Summary

Set 1

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1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:a) an errorb) a faultc) a failured) a defecte) a mistake

2 Regression testing should be performed:v) every weekw) after the software has changedx) as often as possibley) when the environment has changedz) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are falseb) w, x & y are true, v & z are falsec) w & y are true, v, x & z are falsed) w is true, v, x y and z are falsee) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:a) test itemsb) test deliverablesc) test tasksd) test environmente) test specification

4 Testing should be stopped when:a) all the planned tests have been runb) time has run outc) all faults have been fixed correctlyd) both a) and c)e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:a) 1000, 5000, 99999b) 9999, 50000, 100000c) 10000, 50000, 99999d) 10000, 99999e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:i. early test design can prevent fault multiplicationii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

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iii. early test design can find faultsiv. early test design can cause changes to the requirementsv. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are falseb) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are falsec) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are falsed) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us falsee) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:a) testing to see where the system does not function properlyb) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usabilityc) testing a system feature using only the software required for that actiond) testing a system feature using only the software required for that functione) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:a) status accounting of configuration itemsb) auditing conformance to ISO9001c) identification of test versionsd) record of changes to documentation over timee) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequatelyb) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networksc) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at onced) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small teame) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:a) to know when a specific test has finished its executionb) to ensure that the test case specification is completec) to set the criteria used in generating test inputsd) to know when test planning is completee) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statementsi. an incident may be closed without being fixedii. incidents may not be raised against documentationiii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixingiv. the incident record does not include information on test environmentsv. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

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b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are falsec) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are falsed) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are falsee) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

 

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12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:Read PRead QIF P+Q > 100 THENPrint “Large”ENDIFIf P > 50 THENPrint “P Large”ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverageb) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coveraged) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coveragee) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:Switch PC onStart “outlook”IF outlook appears THENSend an emailClose outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverageb) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coveraged) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragee) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14 Given the following code, which is true:IF A > B THENC = A – BELSEC = A + BENDIFRead DIF C = D ThenPrint “Error”ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverageb) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coveragec) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coveraged) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coveragee) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:

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Pick up and read the newspaperLook at what is on televisionIf there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the programOtherwiseContinue reading the newspaperIf there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1b) SC = 1 and DC = 2c) SC = 1 and DC = 3d) SC = 2 and DC = 2e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:a) Attend a tool exhibitionb) Invite a vendor to give a democ) Analyze your needs and requirementsd) Find out what your budget would be for the toole) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:a) A small team to establish the best way to use the toolb) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the toolc) The independent testing teamd) The managers to see what projects it should be used ine) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?a) The use of a variable before it has been definedb) Unreachable (“dead”) codec) Whether the value stored in a variable is correctd) The re-definition of a variable before it has been usede) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:a) Equivalence partitioningb) State transition testingc) LCSAJd) Syntax testinge) Boundary value analysis

20 Beta testing is:a) Performed by customers at their own siteb) Performed by customers at their software developer’s sitec) Performed by an independent test teamd) Useful to test bespoke softwaree) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

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21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:i. static analysisii. performance testingiii. test managementiv. dynamic analysisv. test runningvi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and vb) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vic) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vid) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and ve) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:a) finding faults in the systemb) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all usersc) testing the system with other systemsd) testing for a business perspectivee) testing by an independent test team

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement techniqueb) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement techniquec) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement techniqued) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design techniquee) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:a) inspection is the most formal review processb) inspections should be led by a trained leaderc) managers can perform inspections on management documentsd) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documentse) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:a) generating expected outputsb) replaying inputs according to a programmed scriptc) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomesd) recording test inputse) reading test values from a data file

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26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing isa) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effectsb) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those testsc) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlierd) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environmente) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:a) only important in system testingb) only used in component testingc) never specified in advanced) most useful when specified in advancee) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:a) report on deviations from the project planb) sign the system off for releasec) re-allocate resource to meet original plansd) raise incidents on faults that they have founde) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:a) code reviewsb) code inspectionsc) a coverage toold) a test management toole) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:a) a dynamic analysis toolb) a test execution toolc) a debugging toold) a test management toole) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:a) how to fix the faultb) how to reproduce the faultc) test environment detailsd) severity, prioritye) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review

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processes:1. led by author2. Undocumented3. No management participation4. Led by A trained moderator or leader5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspectiont) peer reviewu) informal reviewv) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:a) business process-based testingb) performance, load and stress testingc) requirements-based testingd) usability testinge) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviorb) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the codec) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databasesd) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is rune) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:a) ISO/IEC 12207b) BS7925-1c) BS7925-2   

d) ANSI/IEEE 829e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:a) Is not importantb) Increases as we move the product towards live usec) Decreases as we move the product towards live used) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional designe) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of

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the Test Documentation Standard:a) Test items (i.e. software versions)b) What is not to be testedc) Test environmentsd) Quality planse) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:a) No, because they apply to development documentationb) No, because they are normally applied before testingc) No, because they do not apply to the test documentationd) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve qualitye) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:a) Measuring response timeb) Measuring transaction ratesc) Recovery testingd) Simulating many userse) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best useda) As the first approach to deriving test casesb) After more formal techniques have been appliedc) By inexperienced testersd) After the system has gone livee) Only by end users

 

Set 2

 

1. Which of the following is true?

a. Testing is the same as quality assurance

b. Testing is a part of quality assurance

c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance

d. Testing is same as debugging

 

2. Why is testing necessary?

a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software

b. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software

c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality

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d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

 

3. Integration testing has following characteristics

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV. It includes non-functional tests

a. I, II and III are correct

b. I is correct

c. I, III and IV are correct

d. I, II and IV are correct

 

4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.

a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.

b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules

c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing

d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect other modules

 

5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?

a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers

b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis

c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects

d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

 

6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct?

a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1

b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1

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c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number

d. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

 

7. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools

a. They help you find defects rather than failures

b. They are used by developers only

c. They require compilation of code

d. They are useful only for regulated industries

 

8. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the

Quality of a product than with manual testing

c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and preconditions.

d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

 

9. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?

a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects

b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed

c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects

d. A goal is to fulfill all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.

 

10. In system testing...

a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested

b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review

c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review

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d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

 

11. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?

a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process

b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional

c. A walkthrough requires meeting

d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

 

12. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?

a. Because it is an industry standard

b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the ‘edges’ of the range of values

c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test cases

d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits

 

13. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?

a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing

b. System testing, performance testing

c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing

d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

 

14. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests

b. Software delivery is behind schedule

c. Threat to a patient’s life

d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

 

15. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;

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b. Number of residual defects in the test object.

c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

 

16. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution

b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different configurations

c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load

d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

 

17. What makes an inspection different from other review types?

a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists

b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected

c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code

d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

 

18. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15

a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15

b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15

c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15

d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

 

19. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.

a. Visa, Master, Amex;

b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option

c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card

d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex

 

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20. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?

a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing

b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing

c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning

d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

 

21. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?

a. Logic-based testing

b. Use-case-based testing

c. State transition testing

d. Systematic testing according to the V-model

 

22. This part of a program is given:-

WHILE (condition A) Do B

END WHILE

How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?

a. 2

b. Indefinite

c. 1

d. 4

 

23. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the

Test-ware and the test object

b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board

c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

 

24. What test items should be put under configuration management?

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a. The test object, the test material and the test environment

b. The problem reports and the test material

c. Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing

d. The test object and the test material

 

25. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?

(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.

(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.

(III) the specification was unclear

(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up

(V) The testers were not certified

a. (I) and (II) are correct

b. (I) through (IV) are correct

c. (III) through (V) are correct

d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

 

26. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?

a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units; the other one used British units

b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure

c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause

d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

 

27. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?

(I) contractual requirements

(II) Legal requirements

(III) Industry standards

(IV) Application risk

(V) Project size

a. (I) through (III) are correct

b. All alternatives are correct

c. (II) and (V) are correct

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d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

 

28. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

a. To specify when to stop the testing activity

b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

 

29. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?

a. The version number of the test object

b. Test data and used environment

c. Identification of the test case that failed

d. The instructions on how to correct the fault

 

30. V-Model is:

a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with

Software development phases

b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing

c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB

d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

 

31. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?

a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability

b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications

c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up” development model

d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component testing

 

32. Maintenance testing is:

a. Testing management

b. Synonym of testing the quality of service

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c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software

d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

 

33. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.

b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

 

Set 3

 

1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004The boundary values for testing this field area. 0,1900,2004,2005b. 1900, 2004c. 1899,1900,2004,2005d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?a. System testingb. Usability testingc. Performance testingd. b & c both

3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?a. Data testerb. Boundary testerc. Capture/Playbackd. Output comparator.

4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:a. Statement Coverageb. Pole Coveragec. Condition Coveraged. Path Coverage

5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126

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Standard?a. Functionalityb. Usabilityc. Supportabilityd. Maintainability

6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.a. Stubb. Driverc. Proxyd. None of the above

7. Boundary value testinga. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests?b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classesc. Tests combinations of input circumstancesd. Is used in white box testing strategy

 

8. Pick the best definition of qualitya. Quality is job oneb. Zero defectsc. Conformance to requirementsd. Work as designed

 

9. Fault Masking isa. Error condition hiding another error conditionb. creating a test case which does not reveal a faultc. masking a fault by developerd. masking a fault by a tester

 

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10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is: a. Lack of technical documentationb. Lack of test tools on the market for developers’c. Lack of trainingd. Lack of Objectivity

11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?a. When the code is complete.b. When the design is complete.c. When the software requirements have been approved.d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person whoa. Takes minutes of the meetingb. Mediates between peoplec. Takes telephone callsd. Writes the documents to be reviewed

13. Acceptance test cases are based on what?a. Requirementb. Designc. Coded. Decision table

14. “How much testing is enough?”a. This question is impossible to answerb. This question is easy to answerc. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirementsd. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

15. A common test technique during component test isa. Statement and branch testingb. Usability testingc. Security testingd. Performance testing

16. Independent Verification & Validation isa. done by the Developerb. done by the Test Engineersc. Done By Managementd. done by an Entity outside the Project’s sphere of influence

17. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?a. Defectsb. Trends analysis

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c. Test Effectivenessd. Time Spent Testing

 

Set 4

 

1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:a) Each test stage has a different purpose.b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.c) We can run different tests in different environments.d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?a) Regression testingb) Integration testingc) System testingd) User acceptance testing

3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4 Which of the following requirements is testable?a) The system shall be user friendly.b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5 Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”IF the customer wants ‘return’Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’Say: “That will be £11:20”ELSESay: “That will be £19:50”ENDIFELSESay: “That will be £9:75”ENDIF

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Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that allthe questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and allreplies given.a) 3b) 4c) 5

d) 6

 

6 Error guessing:a) supplements formal test design techniques.b) Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.c) Is only performed in user acceptance testing.d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8 In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:a) find as many faults as possible.b) Test high risk areas.c) Obtain good test coverage.d) Test whatever is easiest to test.

 

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9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v – test controlw – test monitoringx - test estimationy - incident managementz - configuration control

1 - calculation of required test resources2 - maintenance of record of test results3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun4 - report on deviation from test plan5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11 Which of the following is false?a) Incidents should always be fixed.b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.c) Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12 Enough testing has been performed when:a) time runs out.b) The required level of confidence has been achieved.c) No more faults are found.d) The users won’t find any serious faults.

13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?a) Syntax testingb) equivalence partitioning

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c) stress testingd) modified condition/decision coverage

15 which of the following is false?a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?a) They are used to support multi-user testing.b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.d) They capture aspects of user behavior.

17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?a) Metrics from previous similar projectsb) Discussions with the development teamc) Time allocated for regression testingd) a & b

18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.b) It only models the testing phase.c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.d) It includes the verification of designs.

19 The oracle assumption:a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.b) Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.d) Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20 Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

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a) To find faults in the software.b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.d) To prove that the software is correct.

22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?a) Boundary value analysisb) Usability testingc) Performance testingd) Security testing

23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?a) Features to be testedb) Incident reportsc) Risksd) Schedule

24 which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?a) Test managementb) Test designc) Test executiond) Test planning

25 which of the following is NOT a white box technique?a) Statement testingb) Path testingc) Data flow testingd) State transition testing

26 Data flow analysis studies:a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.b) The rate of change of data values as a program executes.c) The use of data on paths through the code.d) The intrinsic complexity of the code.

27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%the next £28000 is taxed at 22%any further amount is taxed at 40%to the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?a) £1500b) £32001c) £33501d) £28000

28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

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a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.b) Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.c) Can be performed by inexperienced staff.d) Are cheap to perform.

29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?a) Actual resultsb) Program specificationc) User requirementsd) System specification

30 what is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.c) It reduces defect multiplication.d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32 Integration testing in the small:a) Tests the individual components that have been developed.b) Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.c) Only uses components that form part of the live system.d) Tests interfaces to other systems.

33 Static analysis is best described as:a) The analysis of batch programs.b) The reviewing of test plans.c) The analysis of program code.d) The use of black box testing.

34 Alpha testing is:a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.b) The first testing that is performed.c) Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.d) Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35 A failure is:a) found in the software; the result of an error.

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b) Departure from specified behavior.c) An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.d) A human action that produces an incorrect result.

36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%the next £28000 is taxed at 22%any further amount is taxed at 40%which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?a) £4800; £14000; £28000b) £5200; £5500; £28000c) £28001; £32000; £35000d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37 The most important thing about early test design is that it,a) makes test preparation easier.b) Means inspections are not required.c) Can prevent fault multiplication.d) Will find all faults.

38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39 Test cases are designed during:a) Test recording.b) Test planning.c) Test configuration.d) Test specification.

40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.b) Facilities to compare test results with expected results.c) The precise differences in versions of software component source code.d) Restricted access to the source code library.

  

Set 5

 

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1. Software testing activities should starta. as soon as the code is writtenb. during the design stagec. when the requirements have been formally documentedd. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

2.Faults found by users are due to:a. Poor quality softwareb. Poor software and poor testingc. bad luckd. insufficient time for testing

3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?a. to show that system will work after releaseb. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to releasec. to find as many bugs as possible before released. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. Which of the following statements is not true,a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole systemb. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression testc. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possibleb. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixedc. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticismd. All of the above

6.In which order should tests be run?a. the most important tests firstb. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.b. wages are risingc. the fault has been built into more documentation, code, tests, etcd. none of the above

8. Which is not true-The black box testera. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document

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b. should be able to understand the source code.c. is highly motivated to find faultsd. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

9. A test design technique isa. a process for selecting test casesb. a process for determining expected outputsc. a way to measure the quality of softwared. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

10. Test-ware (test cases, test dataset)a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and codeb. should be newly constructed for each new version of the softwarec. is needed only until the software is released into production or used. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

11. An incident logging systema only records defectsb is of limited valuec is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidentsd. should be used only by the test team.

12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:a. reducing test timeb. no changec. increasing test timed. can’t say

13. Coverage measurementa. is nothing to do with testingb. is a partial measure of test thoroughnessc. branch coverage should be mandatory for all softwared. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

14. When should you stop testing?a. when time for testing has run out.b. when all planned tests have been runc. when the test completion criteria have been metd. when no faults have been found by the tests run

15. Which of the following is true?a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software

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c. the fewer bugs you find, the better your testing wasd. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?a. how well you know a particular techniqueb. the objective of the testc. how appropriate the technique is for testing the applicationd. whether there is a tool to support the technique

17. If the pseudo code below were a programming language, how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then2. Display_messageX;3. If y=2 then4. Display_messageY;5. Else6. Display_messageZ;7. Else8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

18. Using the same code example as question 17, how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

19 which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?a. State-Transitionb. Usabilityc. Performanced. Security

20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?a. State analysisb. Coverage analysisc. Dynamic analysisd. Memory analysis

21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?a. IEEE829

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b. IEEE610c. BS7925-1d. BS7925-2

22.which of the following is the component test standard?a. IEEE 829b. IEEE 610c. BS7925-1d. BS7925-2

23 which of the following statements are true?a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fixd. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?a. Design basedb. Big-bangc. Bottom-upd. Top-down

25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?a. statement testingb. equivalence partitioningc. error- guessingd. usability testing

26. A program with high Cyclo-metric complexity is almost likely to be:a. Largeb. Smallc. Difficult to writed. Difficult to test

27. Which of the following is a static test?a. code inspectionb. coverage analysisc. usability assessmentd. installation test

28. Which of the following is the odd one out?a. white boxb. glass boxc. structurald. functional

29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values

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greater than or equal to 22 are rejected

which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?a. 10,11,21b. 3,20,21c. 3,10,22d. 10,21,22

30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?a. 9,10,11,22b. 9,10,21,22c. 10,11,21,22d. 10,11,20,21

Set 6

 

1. COTS is known asA. Commercial off the shelf softwareB. Compliance of the softwareC. Change control of the softwareD. Capable off the shelf software

2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’A. Performance TestingB. System testingC. Smoke testingD. Regression testing

3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms ofA. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system

B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wardsC. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found in a test phase,D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system,

4. ‘Be bugging’ is known asA. Preventing the defects by inspectionB. Fixing the defects by debuggingC. Adding known defects by seedingD. process of fixing the defects by the tester

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5. Expert based test estimation is also known asA. Narrow band DelphiB. Wide band DelphiC. Bespoke DelphiD. Robust Delphi

6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

A. Equivalence partitioningB. Boundary value analysisC. Decision tableD. Hybrid analysis

7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except

A. Desk checkB. Manual support testingC. WalkthroughD. Compiler based testing

 

8. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?

A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applicationsB. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users,C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform,D. The capability of the system to be coupled with another system

9. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?A. Baseline identification

B. Configuration auditingC. Change control

D. Version control

10. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?

I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

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A. I, II&III

B.II, III&IV

C.I, II&IV

D.I, III&IV

 

11. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?

I. Ease of useII. Capacity for incremental implementation,III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project,IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

A.I, II &III

B.I, II &IV

C.II, III&IV

D.I, III&IV

12. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be toA. Establish a relationship with the customerB. Learn the project objectives and the existing project planC. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management styleD. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

13. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?I. Record keepingII. System designIII. Evaluation schedulingIV. Error reporting

A.I, II&III

B.II, III &IV

C.I, III &IV

D.I, II & IV

14. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?

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A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.B. Retest the module and confirm the bugC. Assign the same bug to another developerD. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

15. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to

A. Find bugs in the programB. Check the technical accuracy of the documentC. Ensure the ease of use of the documentD. Ensure that the program is the latest version

16. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.A. System Testing

B. Big-Bang TestingC. Integration Testing

D. Unit Testing

17. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.A. Error Guessing

B. Boundary Value AnalysisC. Decision Table testing

D. Equivalence partitioning

18. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?

A. Integrity, Response time

B. Concurrency test, ScalabilityC. Update & Rollback, Response time

D. Concurrency test, Integrity

19. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after

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the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time. (

A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occurC. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testingD. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

20. Item transmittal report is also known as

A. Incident report

B. Release noteC. Review report

D. Audit report

21. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systemsA. Data driven testing

B. Migration testingC. Configuration testing

D. Back to back testing

22. Big bang approach is related to

A. Regression testing

B. Inter system testingC. Re-testing

D. Integration testing

23. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done byA. Horizontal traceability

B. Depth traceabilityC. Vertical traceability

D. Horizontal & Vertical traceability

24. A test harness is aA. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testingB. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a projectC. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a testD. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

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25. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as

I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can useA. I, II and IV

B. I, II and III

C. I, II, III and IV

D. II, III and IV.

26. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited forA. Water fall model

B. Spiral modelC. Incremental model

D. V-Model

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