Objective Questions 100. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automobile engines are

a) flat, Radial, Vb) In a row, in-line, opposed c) Inline, V, opposedd) V, double line, opposed

101. An engine with the camshaft in the block operates the valves through a) valve liftersb) push rodsc) rocker armsd) all of the above

102. Six cylinder engines can be a) Inline, V or opposedb) radial, opposed, and linedc) aligned, in a row, and overheadd) adjusted to improve volumetric efficiency

103. A V-8 engine hasa) two four cylinder rows or banks b) a crankshaft with four crankpinsc) two connecting rods attached to each crankpin d) all of the above

104. The cylinder banks of an engine are identified as;a) right or left when viewed form the front of the engine b) right or left when viewed from the output endc) both a and bd) neither a nor b

105. The firing order is thea) order in which the cylinders are numberedb) sequence in which cylinders deliver their power strokesc) sequence in which the connecting rods attach along the crankshaft.d) direction in which the crankshaft rotates.

106. In an even firing six cylinder engine, a firing impulse occurs every

a) 60o of crankshaft rotation.

b) 720o of crankshaft rotation.

c) 30o of crankshaft rotation.

d) 120o of crankshaft rotation.

107. The two stroke cycle enginea) produces a power stroke every crankshaft revolution.b) Is twice as powerful as a similar four stroke cycle engine. c) Is used in most higher priced carsd) Produces a power stroke every other crankshaft revolution.

108. The cylinder head from the upper end of the combustion chamber. The lower end is formed by the.

a) piston and ringsb) connecting rod and crankshaft c) valvesd) cams and camshaft

109. Technician A says turbulence causes the air-fuel mixture to burn rapidly. Technician B says turbulence slows the spread of the flame so the mixture has more time to burn. Who is right?

a) A onlyb) B onlyc) both A and Bd) neither A nor B

110. Technician A says that the precombustion chamber improves turbulence. Technician B says it produces stratified charge? Who is right?

a) A onlyb) B onlyc) both A and Bd) neither A nor B

111. Excessive back and forth movement of the crankshaft is prevented bya) sleeve bearing.b) shaft journal.c) thrust bearing.d) harmonic balancer.

112. Piston pins are usually either a press fit in the rod ora) locked to the rod with a bolt.b) free floating in the rod and piston.c) locked to the piston with a bolt.d) a press fit in the piston.

113. Technician A says worn cylinder walls cause the engine to loose power. Technician B says engine wear increases oil consumption. Who is right?

a) A only b) B onlyc) both A and B d) neither A nor B

114. Two basic type of valve trains area) single overhead camshaft and double overhead camshaftb) pushrod and overhead valvec) camshaft in block and overhead camshaftd) fixed timing and variable timing.

115. When the camshaft is in the cylinder block, the parts in the valve train include the cam and the

a) lifter, pushrod, rocker arm and valve spring.b) bucket tappet, adjustment screw, push rod and rocker arm.c) roller tappet, adjustment screw, pivot and roller rocker.d) lifter, push rod, lash adjuster and valve spring.

116. The camshaft is driven by sprocket and chain or toothed belt or bya) the distribution shaftb) an oil pump gear

c) timing gearsd) a timing belt

117. Technician A says in an engine with one intake and one exhaust valve, the larger valve is the exhaust valve. Technician B says the larger valve is the inlet valve. Who is right?

a) A only.b) B onlyc) both A and Bd) neither A nor B.

118. The functions of the cylinder block are;a) to provide combustion chamberb) to serve as bearings and guides for pistonsc) to provide passage for cooling water circulationd) all of the above

119. The bearings on which the crankshaft is supported in the crankcase is called a) main bearingb) thrust bearing c) sleeve bearingd) low friction bearing

120. The component attached at the top of the cylinder block is called a) timing gearb) ignition distributor c) flywheeld) cylinder head

121. The advantage of monoblock cylinder construction is;a) better water sealing jointsb) more positive water circulationc) simpler manufacturing operations d) all of the above

122. The advantage of individual cylinder construction is;a) less costly replacement of cylinders b) easier handling during repairsc) provision of more heat transfer area for air cooling systems. d) all of the above

123. The advantage associated with Cast Iron as cylinder block material is a) good foundry materialb) high machinabilityc) better retention of lubricating oil d) all of the above

124. Considering different properties, the material suitable for engines with higher compression ratio is;

a) Cast Iron b) Pig Ironc) Aluminium

d) Copper

125. To obtain a cylinder block with light weight and less wearing surface;a) Cast iron block is used b) aluminum block is usedc) aluminum alloy with chromium plated cylinder bore is used d) none of the above

126. The cylinder head usually houses a) combustion chamberb) spark plug holes c) valve openingsd) all of the above

127. The cylinder heads cast integral with cylinder block is employed in a) racing enginesb) truck enginesc) airplane engines d) heavy equipment

128. The advantage of detachable cylinder head construction over the integral construction isa) more simplified productionb) simplified decarbonizing and valve grinding c) possibility of changing compression ratiod) all of the above

129. For heavy duty engines, the cylinder head material used is a) cast iron b) aluminumc) aluminum alloys d) copper alloys

130. The main function of the oil pan is toa) store the oil for engine lubricating system. b) collect the impurities in the lubricating oil. c) both of the aboved) none of the above

131. Baffle plates are provided in the oil pan for the purpose of a) reducing oil surgingb) to decrease the temperature c) to reduce the oil pressured) to remove the impurities from the lubrication oil

132. The main function of pistons in an IC Engine isa) to transmit the force of explosion to the crankshaft b) to form a seal to prevent blowbyc) to serve as a guide and bearing for small end of the connecting rodd) all of the above

133. The part of the piston which remain adjacent to the combustion chamber is a) piston pin bossb) landsc) skirt d) crown

134. A small groove cut near the top of the piston to prevent heat travel from the piston crown to the skirt is called;

a) heat damb) horizontal slot c) vertical slotd) wire winding

135. The function of the piston ring is to(a) to form a seal to prevent blowby(b) to allow heat flow from the piston crown to the cylinder walls(c) to maintain lubricating oil on the cylinder wall(d) all of the above

136. A gap is cut out at the ends of a piston ring so that(a) it can be released into ring groove easily(b) it can provide expansion allowance due to excessive heating(c) it can accumulate solid combustion particles at the gap(d) it can enhance heat transfer

137. Differential expansion of the piston ring with respect to the cylinder is likely to occur though they are made of same material because

(a) cylinder wall is operating at higher temperature(b) heat flows from cylinder wall to the piston rings (c) piston ring is operating at higher temperature (d) the blowby gases pass over the piston rings

138. The prominent effect of the excessive piston ring end gap is(a) blowby(b) excessive cylinder wear(c) piston rings butting at higher temperatures(d) uniform pressure on the cylinder wall

139. The piston ring end gap usually maintained is(a) 0.15-0.20mm (b) 0.20-o.25mm (c) 0.30–0.35mm (d) 0.40–0.45mm

140. The usually employed piston ring end gap is(a) tapered type(b) seal cut type(c) straight butt type(d) none of the above

141. All these materials are used for piston ring construction except(a) Molybdenum filling(b) Stainless steel(c) Thermochrome(d) Copper

142. The number of rings used in automobile engine is(a) one oil control ring only(b) one oil control ring and two compression rings (c) two oil control rings and one compression ring (d) one compression ring only

143. The number of compression rings required in an I.C. engine is decided by the(a) size of the piston(b) temperature difference between crankcase and combustion chamber(c) pressure difference between crankcase and combustion chamber(d) size of the combustion chamber

144. The pressure difference between combustion chamber and crankcase is usually(a) 50 atmospheres (b) 60 atmospheres (c) 70 atmospheres (d) 80 atmospheres

145. The main function of the compression ring is(a) gas sealing(b) heat transfer(c) assisting oil rings in controlling the oil(d) all of the above

146. The oil control ring is used to prevent excessive amount of oil from passing through(a) between the ring face and the cylinder wall(b) through the ring end gap (c) around behind the rings (d) all of the above

147. The advantage of reduced compression ring width is(a) lower piston height (b) resistance to ring flutter(c) decrease in ring inertia (d) all of the above

148. The stresses acting on the connecting rod is usually(a) axial stresses only(b) bending stresses only(c) combination of axial and bending stresses(d) combination of bending and torsional stresses

149. The cross section of the connecting rod is usually made(a) L-section(b) T-section (c) …-section (d) I-section

150. The end of the connecting rod which holds the piston pin is called(a) small end(b) big end(c) none of the above(d) both of the above

151. The lighter connecting rod is obtained when it is

(a) cast(b) forged(c) cast and machined(d) none of the above

152. The pin which attaches the connecting rod to the piston is called(a) piston pin(b) wrist pin(c) gudgeon pin(d) all of the above

153. Piston pin is generally(a) solid(b) tubular(c) none of the above(d) both of the above

154. Circlips are used with piston pin so that(a) the movement of the piston pin can be prevented(b) the expansion of the piston pin can be prevented(c) the piston pin can be protected from the lubricating oil(d) the piston pin does not heat up

155. The major parts of the crankshaft are(a) crank pins, crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes(b) piston pins, crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes(c) crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes(d) crank webs, bearing journals, oil holes

156. The major part of the crankshaft which is attached to the big end of the connecting rod is(a) crank webs(b) counter weights (c) bearing journals (d) crank pins

157. At the front of the crankshaft, the component attached is(a) flywheel(b) starting motor(c) fan(d) clutch

158. The device which is attached to the crankshaft and serves as energy reservoir is(a) flywheel(b) starting motor(c) fan(d) clutch

159. The components attached at the front end of the crankshaft is(a) timing gear(b) vibration damper(c) pulley for water pump(d) all of the above

160. For most of the car engines, the crank pin length is usually(a) 30% of the crankshaft diameter(b) 40% of the crankshaft diameter (c) 45% of the crankshaft diameter (d) 50% of the crankshaft diameter

161. The value of friction coefficient is least in the case of(a) dry friction(b) hydrodynamic lubrication(c) boundary lubrication(d) none of the above

162. The objective of lubrication is(a) to reduce friction between moving parts(b) to provide cooling effect(c) to provide cushioning effect(d) all of the above

163. The parameter which indicates the change of viscosity of a lubricating oil with respect to temperature is called

(a) viscosity(b) dynamic viscosity(c) kinematic viscosity(d) viscosity index

164. Petroleum based lubricating oils have viscosity index in the range of(a) 70-80 (b) 80-90(c) 90-100(d) 100-110

165. By using additives, viscosity index can be(a) decreased(b) increased(c) kept constant(d) none of the above

166. When the lubricating oil does not separate into solids at lower temperature and does not vaporize at higher temperature, then it is said to be

(a) chemically stable (b) physically stable(c) having good pour point (d) having good viscosity index

167. If the lubrication oil doesnot tend to form oxides at higher temperature, then it is said to be(a) chemically stable (b) physically stable(c) having good pour point (d) having good viscosity index

168. Pour point refers to(a) the minimum temperature at which the oil will pour(b) the temperature at which the lubricating oil ignites (c) the temperature at which the lubricating oil

flashes (d) none of the above

169. To avoid flashing of oil vapour, the flash point of the lubricating oil should be(a) equal to the engine operating temperature(b) greater than the engine operating temperature(c) less than the engine operating temperature(d) none of the above

170. Oiliness refers to the property of the lubricating oils in which the lubricating oils(a) adhere to a metal surface(b) detaches from the metal surface (c) evaporates from the metal surface (d) none of the above171. The most commonly used lubricating oils are derived from(a) animal oils(b) vegetable oils(c) mineral oils(d) synthetics172. The most common material which is used as solid lubricant is(a) copper(b) aluminum (c) graphite (d) brass173. SAE 10W/30 oil has same viscosity as

(a) SAE 10W oil at –18oC and SAE 30 oil at 99oC (b) SAE 10W oil at 99oC and SAE 30 oil at –18oC (c)

SAE 10W oil at 10oC and SAE 30 oil at 30oC

(d) SAE 10 oil at 99oC and SAE 30W oil at –18oC174. The multigrade oil refers to the type of lubricants in which(a) the viscosity is different at different temperatures(b) the viscosity changes are appreciable with respect to temperature(c) the viscosity changes are minimum(d) none of the above175. A measure used to prevent the leakage of products of combustion into the crankcase is called(a) crankcase ventilation(b) crankcase safety(c) Exhaust gas recirculation(d) none of the above176. In case of the positive crankcase ventilations system;(a) air stream due to the motion of the vehicle is circulated in the crankcase(b) air stream due to the cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase(c) air stream due to the vehicle motion and cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase(d) filtered air from the engine air intake is circulated in the crankcase177. The main advantage of the manifold suction type crankcase ventilation is(a) it does not cause pollution of the atmosphere(b) it decreases fuel consumption

(c) it improves vehicle speed(d) it prevents blowby178. The lubricating system in which the lubricating oil is mixed with petrol is called(a) petrol system(b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) petroil system179. In case of petrol system of lubrication, the ratio of lubricating oil to petrol is(a) ½ (b) ¼(c) 1/5(d) 1/6180. A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod is used to

spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called

(a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) pressure system(d) dry sump system181. The most used lubrication system for modern car engine is

(a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) pressure system(d) dry sump system182. In case of V-engines employing pressure type lubrication system(a) only one main oil gallery is used(b) two main oil galleries are used (c) three main oil galleries are used (d) four main oil galleries are

used183. In case of pressure system, the usual pressure at which the lubricating oil is delivered to the main

oil gallery is(a) 50-100 kPa(b) 100-150 kPa (c) 200-400 kPa (d) 500-600 kPa184. The system of lubrication in which the oil under pressure is sent to the main bearings is called(a) petroil system(b) splash system(c) semi-pressure system(d) dry sump system185. If the vehicle has to be operated at very steep angles, then the preferable lubrication system is

(a) petroil system(b) splash system(c) semi-pressure system(d) dry sump system186. In case of dry sump system of lubrication, number of pumps used is(a) only one(b) two (c) three (d) four187. In case of dry sump system, the oil pressure maintained is(a) 400-500 kPa for main bearings and 50-100kPa for timing gears(b) 550-600 kPa for big end bearings and 20-30 kPa for cam shaft bearings(c) 300 kPa for main bearings and 40 kPa for timing gears(d) 700 kPa for big end bearing and 150 kpa for cam shaft bearings188. Incase of semi-pressure system, the oil which is sent to the main bearings is under the pressure of

(a) 0.1 kg/cm2

(b) 0.2 kg/cm2

(c) 0.3 kg/cm2

(d) 0.4 kg/cm2

189. Pistons are generally lubricated and cooled by(a) splash system(b) dry sump system(c) oil jet system(d) petroil system190. The lubricating system employed for two stroke engine is(a) petroil system(b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) dry sump system

191. Amount of energy converted into the useful work at the crankshaft is(a) 20% of the total energy released in combustion(b) 25% of the total energy released in combustion (c) 30% of the total energy released in combustion

(d) 35% of the total energy released in combustion

192. the main problem of excess cylinder heating is(a) preignition of the charge(b) seizing of the piston(c) damage of the cylinder liner(d) all of the above

193. the burning of the charge even before the flame front has reached it is called(a) preignition of the charge(b) autoignition(c) detonation(d) none of the above

194. Engine cooling beyond optimal limit usually results into(a) decrease in thermal efficiency(b) decrease in combustion efficiency (c) decrease in mechanical efficiency (d) all of the above195. Incase of overcooled engines, the thermal efficiency decreases because(a) the peak temperature is less than usual (b) the peak temperature does not change (c) the peak

temperature is more(d) none of the above196. Incase of overcooled engines, the combustion efficiency decreases because(a) the vaporization of fuel is not sufficient(b) density of air is more(c) amount of fuel is high(d) more blowby takes place197. The mechanical efficiency goes down in case of the overcooled engine because(a) the oil viscosity increases(b) the oil viscosity decreases(c) the oil viscosity does not change(d) the oil has more oiliness198. In case of overcooled engine, the volumetric efficiency(a) increases(b) remains same(c) decreases(d) does not change199. In case of air cooled engines, fins are attached to heated metal surface(a) to increase the heat transfer coefficients(b) to increase the contact area between the heated metal and air stream(c) to provide aesthetic(d) to provide more strength to the structure

200. In case of air cooled engines, the heat dissipated depends upon(a) mass flow rate of air(b) mass flow rate of water in cooling jackets(c) power of the pump(d) none of the above201. the most important parameter to be considered for air cooled engine is(a) surface area of metal into contact with air(b) mass flow rate of air(c) temperature difference between the heated surface and air(d) all of the above202. The main advantage of air cooled engine is(a) light weight(b) operability at extreme conditions(c) easier maintenance(d) all of the above

203. The main defect of the air cooled engine is(a) lack of even cooling(b) low heat transfer capability(c) more noisy(d) all of the above

204. In case of the thermosyphon system,(a) radiator header tank must be located higher than the top of the cylinder water jackets(b) radiator header tank must be located at the same level of the cylinder water jackets(c) radiator header tank must be located lower than the top of the cylinder water jackets(d) none of the above205. In case of thermosyphon system, the rate of water circulation in the system is proportional(a) heat output(b) engine speed(c) engine size(d) size of the radiator206. In case of pump circulation system, the circulation of cooling water is proportional to(a) both the engine load and speed(b) both the heat output and the engine load(c) both the engine size and the size of the radiator(d) speed only207. As compared to the thermosyphon system, in case of the pump circulation system, (a) a pump as

well as a fan is used(b) a pump only is used(c) a fan only is used(d) none of the above

208. The main advantage of the pump circulation system is(a) positive circulation of cooling water(b) no need to place the radiator header tank above the engine level(c) no need to place the radiator on the front(d) all of the above

209. In case of the pump circulation system, the radiator can be located anywhere because(a) there is a water pump to circulate cooling water(b) there is a fan employed to assist air flow(c) road draft of the vehicle is more(d) the system is complicated

210. Incase of the pump circulation system, the pump is driven by(a) flywheel(b) engine crankshaft(c) cam shaft(d) generator211. In case of the pump circulation system, the cooling water circulation is proportional to both the load

and speed because(a) increase in load increases thermosyphonic effect(b) increase in speed increase speed of the pump(c) both of the above(d) none of the above212. The component of the water cooling system which exchanges heat with the outside air is called(a) radiator(b) thermostat(c) pump(d) fan213. In case of tubular radiator core,(a) the coolant passes through the tube and the air flow over it(b) the coolant flows over the tube and the air flows in it(c) both of the above(d) none of the above214. A fin inserted inside the radiator tube to increase the turbulence is called(a) baffle plate(b) turbulator(c) thermostat(d) none of the above215. The material used for radiators should(a) Be resistant to corrosion(b) possess higher thermal conductivity(c) form easily(d) all of the above216. The main function of the radiator cap is to(a) increase the boiling point of the coolant(b) release the excess pressure

(c) increase the pressure of the coolant(d) all of the above

217. Usually the radiator cap is set at(a) 5 psi(b) 10 psi (c) 15 psi (d) 20 psi

218. In case of the Bellows type thermostat, the valve is fully open at about

(a) 75-80oC

(b) 80-85oC

(c) 85-89oC

(d) 90-95oC219. In case of the Wax thermostat, the plunger is usually made of

(a) plastic(b) rubber(c) aluminum(d) copper220. In case of car overheating, all the windows are opened and the heater is run with the fan going

at full blast because(a) heater mirrors the cooling system(b) heater derives heat from the hot engine coolant(c) heater is not operated electrically(d) all of the above

221. The main function of the storage battery is

a) to supply current for the starting of the vehicle b) to supply current to the electrical systemc) to supply current to the ignition system d) all of the above

222. Battery containers are generally made of a) hard rubberb) plasticc) copper plate d) ceramics

223. The bridge ribs in the battery container preventsa) deposition of the sediments resulting from the chemical action. b) shorting of the positive and

negative platesc) chemical reaction between cathode and anode d) none of the above

224. The percentage of antimony in the supporting frame of the battery plate varies betweena) 1-4 % b) 5-10% c) 11-16%d) 17-22%

225. The function of the gird in the battery is to a) to support the containerb) to carry current in the plates c) to carry the active materialsd) none of the above

226. The active material in the positive plate gird is a) red leadb) sulphuric acid c) litharged) lead peroxide

227. The active material in the negative plate gird is a) red leadb) sulphuric acid c) litharged) lead peroxide

228. The number of plates in negative plate group isa) equal to the number of plates in the positive plate groupb) one less than the number of plates in the positive plate groupc) one more than the number of plates in the negative plate group d) none of the above

229. Thin sheets of non-conducting negative plates inserted between positive and negative plates is called

a) active material b) separatorc) container d) cell covers

230. Cell covers are provided with vents so thata) specific gravity of the electrolyte can be measuredb) gases produced during battery charging can escape to atmosphere c) topping up of the battery

can be carried out easilyd) none of the above

231. The usual electrolyte used in the Lead-acid battery is a) hydrochloric acidb) nitric acid c) acetic acidd) sulphuric acid

232. While preparing the electrolyte,a) distilled water should be added to the acid b) acid should be added to the distilled water c)

there is no need to add distilled waterd) there is no need for acid

233. In the fully charged condition, the specific gravity of the electrolyte is a) 1.920 at 15oC

b) 1.290 at 15oC

c) 1.110 at 15oC

d) 2.290 at 15oC

234. A six volt battery usually consists of a) only one cellb) two cells

c) three cells d) four cells

235. The capacity of an automotive battery depends on a) number of plates in the cellb) area of the plates in the cell c) quality of the electrolyted) all of the above

236. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 hours after which the cell voltage does not fall below 1.75, then the battery rating is

a) twenty hour ratingb) twenty minute rating c) cold rated) none of the above

237. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 minutes with the cell not dropping below 1.5, the battery rating is

a) twenty hour ratingb) twenty minute rating c) cold rated) none of the above

238. The number of minutes a battery can continuously deliver 300 amperes current till the cell voltage drops to 1.0 volts is called

a) twenty hour ratingb) twenty minute rating c) cold rated) none of the above

239. The main advantage of the alkaline battery is a) lightness in weightb) rigidityc) higher rate of charging d) all of the above

240. The main advantage of zinc-air battery is a) high energy densityb) availabilityc) good discharge characteristics d) all of the above

241. In a 6-cylinder 4 stroke engine running at 5000 rpm, the number of sparks required per minute will be

a)10,000b)15,000c)20,000d)25,000242. The main requirement of an ignition system isa) Spark at the plug electrode must be regular and synchronously timed with respect to the

cylinder piston position.b) The spark should be sufficiently strong so as to start ignition of the chargec) The system should function efficiently at the maximum and minimum speeds of the engine.d) All of the above

243. The voltage surge required for ignition system is equal to a) 15,000 Voltsb) 20,000 Volts c) 25,000 Voltsd) 30,000 Volts244. The period when the energy grows exponentially in the primary circuit is called;a) break periodb) storage period c) make period

d) discharge period245. The break period is characterized by,a) exponential growth of current in the primary circuitb) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the primary circuit.c) Continuation of the growth of the current in primary till 25,000 volts isreached.d) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the secondary circuit.246. The main factor determining the actual voltage required is a) speedb) compression ratioc) spark plug gap width d) all of the above

247. The primary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 300 turns of 20 S.W.G. wireb) 400 turns of 20 S.W.G. wire c) 300 turns of 30 S.W.G. wired) 400 turns of 30 S.W.G. wire

248. The secondary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 5,000 turns of thin wireb) 10,000 turns of thin wire c) 15,000 turns of thin wired) 20,000 turns of thick wire249. When the contact breaker points are closeda) a magnetic field is built up in the ignition coil b) a magnetic field is collapsed in the ignition coil

c) current is absorbed by the condenserd) high voltage surge is induced in the secondary coil250. In case of the core type ignition coil, a) primary is wound on the coreb) secondary is wound on the corec) H.T. wire is directly connected to the core d) None of the above251. Ballast resistance is required in the case of the core type ignition coil because, a) the primary

winding has relatively long mean turnb) the secondary winding has relatively short mean turn c) battery current has to be limited in the

coild) none of the above252. At lower speeds, overheating of the induction coil takes place because a) contact breaker

points are closed for short timeb) contact breaker points are closed for long time. c) secondary winding has high voltage surged) none of the above253. The value of ballast resistance generally varies between a) 1-4 ohmsb) 5-9 ohmsc) 10-14 ohms d) 15-19 ohms254. For a four cylinder engine operating at 4,000 rpm, the number of contacts to be made and

broken is equal toa) 4,000 times per minute b) 6,000 times per minutec) 8,000 times per minute d) 10,000 times per minute255. )The essential requirement of a good contact breaker isa) opening and closing of the contacts at proper time b) closure of the contacts without bouncec) minimum corrosion of the contact points d) all of the above256. The main function of the condenser in an ignition system is a) minimizing pitting of the

contact breaker pointsb) to intensify the spark

c) to absorb the energy stored in the primary winding d) all of the above257. The usual capacity of the condensers used in automobiles is a) 0.1 microfaradb) 0.2 microfarad c) 0.3 microfaradd) 0.4 microfarad258. The main function of the distributor is toa) distribute energy between the primary and secondary windings b) distribute battery current for

various electrical systemsc) distribute high voltage pulses to each of the spark plugs d) none of the above259. The most common firing order for a four cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4b) 1-2-4-3 c) 2-3-4-1 d) 4-3-1-2260. The most common firing order for a six cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4-5-6b) 1-3-5-6-4-2 c) 1-5-3-6-4-2d) 1-5-3-6-2-4261. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder inline engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6262. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder V-engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3 d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6263. The main requirement of a spark plug is a) high resistance to current leakage b) gas

tightnessc) resistance to corrosion d) all of the above

264. The optimum temperature for the spark plug electrodes is a) 100oC

b) 300oC

c) 500oC

d) 700oC265. Sintered alumina is preferred over porcelain for the spark plug assembly because a) they are

much stronger

b) they can be attacked by leaded fuel c) they are brittled) they have low thermal conductivity266. If the length of the threaded portion of the spark plug is less, then it is called a) short reach spark

plugb) long reach spark plug c) slow reach spark plugd) quick reach spark plug267. Hot plugs runs hotter than cold plugs because a) they are located near radiatorb) they are not insulatedc) they have longer path of heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket d) they have shorter path of

heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket268. The usual spark plug air gap is equal to a) 0.6 mmb) 1.2 mm c) 0.6 cmd) 1.2 cm269. In the Magneto Ignition system, the current is supplied to the primary winding by a) batteryb) alternator c) magnetod) none of the above270. The advantage of the rotating magnet type ignition system is a) larger armatureb) no centrifugal stressc) stationary contact breaker and condenser d) all of the above271. In the semi transistorized electronic ignition system, the contact breaker adjustments are required

aftera) 20,000 km b) 30,000 kmc) 40,000 kmd) 50,000 km272. The advantage of the semi transistorized electronic ignition system is a) less pitting of the

contact pointsb) better performance at low speeds c) ease of maintenanced) all of the above273. The advantage of the fully transistorized electronic ignition system is a) stable secondary voltage

at high speedsb) quick cold starting c) self cleaningd) all of the above274. A mechanism which enables the rotary motion of one shaft to another shaft at the same axis is

calleda) gear boxb) differential c) clutchd) flywheel275. The main advantage of a good clutch is a) good torque transmissionb) rapid engagement c) large sized) high inertia276. Hard shifting of gears would result whena) there is rapid engagement of gears b) there is less heat dissipationc) the clutch inertia is very highd) there is no clutch free pedal play277. The torque transmitted by a clutch is given by a) T = µWR

b) T = µ/WR c) T = µW/R d) T = 1/µWR278. The coefficient of friction for the Asbestos-based materials used for clutch facing is a) 0.07b) 0.17 c) 0.27d) 0.37279. The maximum amount of axial load to be applied on a clutch plate is a) 100 kNb) 200 kNc) 300 kNd) 400 kN280. Mean effective radius of contact surfaces of a clutch plate is decided by a) coefficient of frictionb) axial pressurec) space available in the vehicled) amount of torque to be transmitted

281. Axial force to keep the clutch in engaged position is provided by a) springs arranged circumferentially

b) pressure plate c) flywheeld) clutch pedal282. The friction plate is always mounted on a) flywheelb) pressure platec) internally splined hub d) clutch spring283. The main advantage of single plate clutch over cone clutch is a) easier gear changingb) less binding of contact surfaces c) less pedal movementd) all of the above284. The main function of transmission isa) to provide means to vary the torque ratio between the engine and the road wheelsb) to provide neutral positionc) to provide means to back the car d) all of the above285. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude remain constant with respect to the

vehicle speed isa) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to the roadc) resistance due to the tyre friction d) all of the above286. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude various with the square of the vehicle

speed isa) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to roadc) resistance due to the tyre frictiond) resistance due to wind287. If the tractive effort is the highest for a given velocity, then the vehicle must be in a) top gearb) third gearc) second gear d) first gear288. The point of interaction of the tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve is calleda) stabilizing speed point b) low speed pointc) high speed pointd) normal speed point289. If the given tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve does not intersect, thena) the vehicle will accelerate b) the vehicle will deceleratec) the vehicle will not be able to go at this gradient for the given gear d) none of the above290. The main disadvantage of sliding mesh type of gear box is a) high noise levelb) low mechanical efficiencyc) high skill required by the driver d) all of the above291. Double declutching is used for the engagement of gears ina) sliding mesh type of gear boxb) constant mesh type of gear boxc) synchromesh type of gear box d) none of the above292. High speed gear is obtained in the case of sliding mesh gear box when a) motion is transferred through the clutch gear to lay shaft gearb) main shaft is coupled to the clutch shaftc) smallest gear on the lay shaft is engaged

d) largest gear on the lay shaft is engaged

293. The Figure 1 depicts a) top gearb) second gearc) first geard) reverse gear

Figure 1

294. In case of a constant mesh gear box, when the left dog clutch is slid to the left by means of the selector mechanism,

a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtainedc) second gear is obtained d) reverse gear is obtained295. In a constant mesh gear box, when the right dog clutch is engaged with the gear on the right side

of the main shaft,a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtainedc) second gear is obtainedd) reverse gear is obtained296. Double declutching is required in constant mesh gear boxa) to equalize the speed of mainshaft gear and the sliding dog b) to provide direct gearc) to equalize the speed of countershaft gear and the sliding dog d) none of the above

297. The number of spring loaded balls provided circumferentially in a synchromesh gear box is

a) 3b) 4c) 5d) 6298. In a synchromesh device, when members G1 and F1 are slid to left and cones M1 and

M2 are in contact,a) direct gear is obtained b) second gear is obtainedc) third gear is obtainedd) reverse gear is obtained299. For the second gear in a synchromesh system, the drive transfer will be through a)

U1,U2, C, F2, and splinesb) U1,U2, C, F1, and splines c) U1,U3, D, F3, and splinesd) U1,U4, U5,E, F2, and splines300. Interlocking mechanism is provided in the gear box cover a) to prevent engagement of

two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse gearc) to facilitate the gear selectiond) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear301. Stiff spring is used in the selector mechanisma) to prevent engagement of two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse

gearc) to facilitate the gear selectiond) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear302. Propeller shaft is used for the purpose ofa) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the bevel pinion of the final driveb) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the road wheelsc) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the road wheelsd) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the bevel pinion of the final drive303. Slip joints are provided in the propeller shafta) to adjust the inclination of the propeller shaft b) to adjust the length of the propeller shaftc) to prevent the whirling of the propeller shaftd) to adjust the up and down movement of the rear axle304. If two shafts used for transfer of drive are inclined to each other, then a) slip joint is usedb) flange coupling is used c) universal joint is usedd) none of the above

305. The Hook’s joint works efficiently when the propeller shaft inclination is a) 18o

b) 28o

c) 38o

d) 48o

306. The number of arms provided to the Cross of the Hook’s joint isa) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4307. The function of the final drive is to

a) provide a permanent speed reduction b) to turn the drive round through 90o

c) to provide drive to the rear wheels d) all of the above

308. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in car is a) 4:1b) 6:1c) 8:1d) 10:1309. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in heavy vehicle isa) 4:1b) 6:1c) 8:1d) 10:1310. Single reduction is used in final drive when it is about a) 6:1 b) 8:1 c) 10:1 D) 12:1311. The function of Differential isa) to prevent wheel skiddingb) to reduce the speed of the inner wheels during turningc) to keep the speed of all the wheels same when going straight ahead d) all of the above312. The crown wheel of the final drive is connected to a) cageb) spiderc) cross pind) axle half shaft313. In a vehicle, which is going straight ahead at N rpm, if the left wheel rotates forward at n

rpm, then the resultant speed of the right wheel will bea) N+nb) N-nc) N/nd) Nn

314. The requirements of a good steering system is a) accuracyb) ease of operation c) directional stabilityd) all of the above315. The front axle is usually subjected to a) bending and torque loadsb) compressive and bending loads c) shear and compressive loadsd) tensile and torque loads316. The component which connects main axle beam to the stub axle is a) adjusting nutb) king pinc) thrust washer d) brake drum317. The commonly used stub-axle is a) Elliot typeb) Reversed Elliot c) Lamoined) Reversed Lamoine

318. If the front wheels of a vehicle is pointing inwarda) they are said to toe in b) they are said to toe outc) camber is positive d) Castor is positive319. Steering system is governed by

a) Factors pertaining to wheels b) Steering linkagesc) Suspension systemd) All of the above

320. Camber is defined asa) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the verticalc) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center lined) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel321. The effect of positive camber isa) more tyre wear on the middleb) more tyre wear on the inner sides c) more tyre wear on the outer sides d) none of the

above322. In right hand drive vehicles,a) more camber angle is provided on the right b) more camber angle is provide on the leftc) zero camber angle is provided to both the right and left wheels d) none of the above

323. The amount of usual king pin inclination is a) 4o

b) 5o

c) 6o

d) 7o

324. King pin inclination usually helps in a) preventing toe-inb) preventing toe-out c) directional stabilityd) none of the above325. Combined angle is defined asa) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the verticalc) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center lined) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel326. If the scrub radius is zeroa) wheels tend to toe-in b) wheels tend to toe-outc) wheels remain in straight position d) wheels wear out very fast327. Castor is defined asa) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the verticalc) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center lined) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel328. If the wheel axis meets the king pin axis above the ground, then a) scrub radius is

positive

b) scrub radius is negativec) scrub radius is equal to zero d) all of the above329. The amount of camber usually provided to automobile wheels should not exceed

a) 2o

b) 3o

c) 4o

d) 5o

330. For directional stability, the castor on the car wheels must be a) negativeb) positive c) zerod) none of the above331. Greater control on directional stability is governed by a) camberb) castorc) combined angled) king pin inclination332. The effect of positive castor on the wheel is to a) toe outb) toe inc) remain straightd) none of the above333. The effect of negative castor on the wheel is to a) toe outb) toe inc) remain straightd) none of the above334. When a wheel is turned towards the centre of the vehicle, the camber angle is reduced in

direct proportion to the amount ofa) combined angle provided on the wheelb) steering axis inclination provided on the wheel c) scrub radius provided on the wheeld) castor angle provided on the wheel

335. The main function of an automobile wheel is a) to take the vertical loadb) to provide cushioning effect c) to cope with steering controld) all of the above336. The main requirements of an automobile wheel isa) must be balanced both statically and dynamically b) lightness in weightc) easier mounting and removal d) all of the above

337. The main advantage of pressed steel disc wheel is a) robust constructionb) simplicity and low cost of manufacturing c) ease in cleaningd) all of the above338. The main disadvantage of wire wheel is a) more weightb) less heat dissipationc) difficulty in fitting and removing d) tubeless tyres can not be used339. Aluminum and magnesium alloys are used in the construction of a) pressed steel disc

wheelb) wire wheelc) light alloy cast wheel d) all of the above340. Better road adhesion is obtained in light alloy cast steel wheel because of a) use of light

alloys of aluminum and magnesiumb) good heat conduction c) less corrosiond) using wider rims and low aspect ratio341. Modern pressed disc wheels are usually swaged for a) providing better tyre mountingb) accommodating tube valvec) preventing splashing of mudd) compensating for the loss of strength due to holes

342. In a pressed disc wheel, the seat of the rim is provided with 5o taper for the purpose ofa) accommodating tube valve b) making room for disc holesc) giving wedge fit to the inflated tyred) all of the above

343. If the centre line of the rim is located inboard of the attachment face of the disc, thena) it is zeroset wheel b) it is inset wheelc) it is outset wheeld) all of the above344. If the centre line of the rim coincides with the attachment face of the disc, then it is calleda) inset wheel b) outset wheelc) zeroset wheeld) none of the above345. A wheel whose disc can be mounted on either face to provide inset or outset is calleda) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheelc) reversible wheel d) divided wheel346. A wheel constructed in two parts, which when securely fastened together combine to form

a rim having two fixed flanges is calleda) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheelc) reversible wheel d) divided wheel

347. In heavier vehicles, the wheel rims used are a) well rimsb) v-rims c) w-rimsd) flat rims348. In heavier vehicles, tubeless tyre cannot be used because a) rims are well shaped and

airtightness is presentb) rims are well shaped but no airtightness present c) rims are flat based and they are airtightd) rims are flat based and they are not airtight349. In a wire wheel, wheel rim is attached toa) disc through a number of wire spokes b) hub through a number of wire spokes c) axled) none of the above350. The spokes of a wire wheel sustains a) vehicle weightb) driving torque c) braking forced) all of the above351. The hub of the wire wheel is fastened to the axle shaft by means of

a) lock nut b) circlipc) wing nut d) splines352. The advantage of wire wheel is a) light weightb) high strengthc) better cooling and easier changing d) all of the above353. Light alloy cast wheels are generally made of a) aluminum alloysb) copper alloys c) zinc alloysd) none of the above354. The main advantage of forged wheel is a) reduced weightb) reduced unsprung weight c) better heat dissipationd) all of the above355. For the wheel specification of 5.50B-13, B stands for a) width of the wheelb) rim typec) diameter of the wheel d) offset356. In a wheel specification 4½ J-14, 14 represents a) width of the wheelb) rim typec) diameter of the wheel d) offset357. The main function of a tyre isa) to support the vehicle loadb) to provide cushion against shocksc) to transmit driving and braking forces to the road d) all of the above358. The main desirable property of a tyre is a) non-skiddingb) uniform wear c) cushioningd) all of the above359. Ply rating of a tyre usually refers toa) exact number of plies in the tyre b) tread pattern of the tyrec) number of beads in the tyred) index of tyre strength and load carrying capacity

360. The part of the tyre which contacts the road surface is called a) carcassb) bead c) treadd) ply361. The desirable properties of side walls are a) good flexibilityb) bending without deflection c) high fatigue strengthd) all of the above362. Beads usually providea) support for treadb) support for carcassc) bearings against the rim d) all of the above363. All plies are tied to the bead so thata) tread does not wear off quicklyb) change of shape of the plies is prevented c) breaking torques are effectively carriedd) driving forces are effectively carried364. As compared to tubed tyre, the advantage of tubeless tyre is a) less unsprung weightb) better coolingc) slower leakage of air d) all of the above

365. The fuel supply system in which the fuel drops into the carburetor float chamber by gravity is called

a. pressure system b. gravity systemc. vaccum system d. pump system366. If the engine suction is used for the movement of fuel from the main tank, then it isa. pressure system b. gravity systemc. vaccum system d. pump system367. In case of Pump type of fuel system, the most suitable location for placing an electrical

pump will bea. near the engineb. on the rear side of the vehicle c. on the front side of the vehicled. none of the above368. Use of engine exhaust to create pressure is done in a. pressure systemb. gravity system c. vaccum system d. pump system369. For front engine vehicles, the suitable location for the fuel tank is a. Next to the radiatorb. around the gear box c. above the rear axled. above the front axle370. Dead fuel storage is always provided in a fuel tank becausea. it helps in supplying fuel when the fuel tank is about to empty b. it helps in preventing

vapour lockc. it helps in depositing the sediment d. it helps in priming the fuel tank371. The fuel tank cap is vented to atmosphere fora. maintaining fuel tank pressure at the atmospheric level b. maintaining normal fuel delivery

c. preventing the collapse of the fuel tank d. all of the above372. The main disadvantage of mechanical pump is a. they need to be located near the

engine b. they are prone to vapour lockc. they operate only after the engine has started d. all of the above373. A fuel pump used in automobile which is operated by the camshaft through an eccentric,

rocker arm assembly isa. mechanical pump b. gear pumpc. electrical pumpd. none of the above

374. The main advantage of providing vapour return line in a fuel system is a. to prevent vapour lock

b. to keep the pump cool in operationc. to prevent the flow of vapour to carburetor d. all of the above375. The main function of an air cleaner is a. to act as a silencerb. to act as flame arrestor c. to filter the aird. all of the above376. The main function of a carburetor isa. to keep a small reserve of fuel at a constant head b. to prepare a homogeneous air fuel

mixturec. to supply correct amount of air fuel mixture at the correct strength d. all of the above377. The fuel mixture required at the time of engine start is a. rich mixtureb. stoichiometric mixture c. lean mixtured. none of the above378. For cruising speeds, the air fuel ratio used is around a. 5:1b. 10:1 c. 15:1d. 20:1379. The main function of the float chamber of a carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head

fuelb. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocityd. to inject the fuel into the air stream

380. The main function of the venture in the carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head fuelb. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocityd. to inject the fuel into the air stream381. Fuel level maintained in the float chamber is usually a. 1 mm below the nozzle outletb. 3 mm below the nozzle outlet c. 5 mm below the nozzle outlet d. 7 mm below the nozzle outlet382. The most commonly used carburetor is a. up draughtb. horizontalc. down draughtd. none of the above383. The main advantage of the down draught carburetor is a. gravity assisted flow of mixtureb. higher volumetric efficiencyc. more accessible carburetor position d. all of the above384. The main disadvantage associated with using carburetor for metering fuel supply of a

multicylinder engine isa. difficulty in ensuring uniformity of mixture quality by a single carburettorb. restriction posed by the venturi throat in the flow of air c. acute problem of suitable mixture supply

at low speedsd. all of the above385. The main advantage of petrol injection system is a. high quality fuel distributionb. less fuel consumptionc. rapid response of the engine to throttle control d. all of the above386. The main disadvantage of petrol injection system is a. high initial costb. much complicated mechanismc. increased maintenance required d. all of the above387. The process of supercharging air fuel mixture to the engine is characterized bya. higher pressureb. higher charge densityc. increased weight of the charge per stroke d. all of the above

388. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "A dispersion of solid or liquid particles of microscopic size in gaseous media, such as fog, smoke or mist" is called

a. dustb. fly ash c. smoke d. soot389. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " Agglomeration of particles of

carbon impregnated with 'tar' formed in the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials " is called

a. dustb. fly ash c. sootd. smoke390. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " A term loosely applied to solid

particles predominantly larger than colloidal, and capable of temporary suspension in air or other gases " is called

a. dustb. fly ash c. sootd. smoke391. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " The finely divided particles of

ash entrained in flue gases arising from the combustion of fuel " is calleda. dustb. fly ash c. sootd. smoke

392. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "Finely divided aerosol particles resulting from incomplete combustion. Consists mainly of carbon and other combustible materials " is called

a. dustb. fly ash c. sootd. smoke

393. The first ever ban on burning coal was imposed ina.1300b.1578c.1661d.1952

394. The first ever publication on pollution took place in the year a.1300 b.1578c.1661 d.1952395. The first year pollution disaster struck a. London in 1952b. London in 1962c. Meuse valley in 1930 d. Donora 1948396. The main effect of air pollution is a. reduction in visibilityb. economic damage to property c. annoyance to human sensesd. all of the above397. The combination of fog and smoke is called a. smazeb. smust c. smogd. none of the above398. The combination of haze and smoke is called a. smazeb. smust c. smogd. none of the above399. The combination of dust and smoke is called a. smazeb. smust c. smogd. none of the above400. The effects of various concentrations and dosages of pollutants on people is usually measured

bya. experimental exposure of men and animals to the controlled environment b. clinical studiesc. epidemiological studiesd. all of the above401. Photochemical smog is produced bya. complex chemical reaction between hydrocarbon and oxides of nitrogen b. complex chemical

reaction between carbon monoxide and hydrocarbon c. complex chemical reaction between carbon monoxide and nitrogen

d. complex chemical reaction between SOx and NOx402. The major area of the automobile which can produce pollutant to the atmosphere is a. fuel tank

and carburettorb. crankcasec. exhaust tail pipe d. all of the above

403. The main emission control measure to decrease the vehicular pollution in atmosphere is

a. redesigning engine ventilation system, carburettor and fuel tank b. improving combustion efficiencyc. destroying pollutants after they are formedd. all of the above404. Spring loaded PCV valve used in crankcase ventilation system opens a. less with more vacuumb. more with more vacuum c. does not open at alld. remains open all the time405. Breathing refers toa. blow-off gases being recirculated into the inlet manifoldb. escape of blow-off gases to the atmosphere through the crankcase c. escape of gasoline vapour

from fuel tank to the atmosphered. escape of gasoline vapour from the carburettor to the atmosphere406. From combustion chamber design point of view, the amount of pollutants decreases fora. flat shaped combustion chamberb. hemispherical combustion chamber c. spherical combustion chamberd. none of the above407. If the thermostat setting is maintained at higher temperature, then a. better combustion ensues

which reduces pollutantsb. combustion worsens and pollutant formation increases c. does not have bearing on the pollutant

formationd. none of the above408. During idling, the pollutant formation will decrease if a. stoichiometric fuel-air mixture is suppliedb. too rich fuel-air mixture is supplied c. lean fuel-air mixture is suppliedd. none of the above409. The invisible emission from the engine tail pipe is a. smokeb. particulate c. aldehydesd. soot410. More amount of NOx formation takes place whena. amount of O2 present is high and the temperature is also high b. amount of O2 present is low and the temperature is highc. amount of O2 present is high and the temperature is lowd. amount of O2 present is low and the temperature is also low411. The maximum NOx formation takes place when air-fuel ratio is a. 5:1b. 10:1 c. 15:1d. 20:1412. Oxides of Nitrogen are usually measured bya. chemiluminescence methodb. non-dispersive infrared analyzerc. flame ionization detection methodd. obscuration method413. The analyzer fitted in chemiluminescence method usually measuresa. NOb. N2Oc. NO2d. NO3414. The use of converter in chemiluminescence method isa. to measure the amount of NO

b. to measure the amount of NO2c. to convert all NO into NO2d. to convert all NO2 into NO

415. Complete elimination of CO from vehicles is not possible and hence the reasonable goal of carbon monoxide emission is

a. 5% b. 1% c.0.5% d. 0.05%416. Carbon monoxide emissions are high usually when a. vehicle is cruisingb. vehicle is accelerating c. vehicle is deceleratingd. vehicle is idling417. Closure of the throttle valve during the vehicle operation results in a. more CO emissionb. less CO emission c. no CO emissiond. more CO2 emission418. Carbon Monoxide measurement is usually carried out by means of a. chemiluminescence

methodb. non-dispersive infrared analyzerc. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method419. The method of selective absorption of the infrared energy of a particular wavelength peculiar to a

certain gas, which will be absorbed by that gas is employed ina. chemiluminescence methodb. non-dispersive infrared analyzerc. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method420. Main operating variable affecting the emission of unburnt hydrocarbon emission is a. speed & loadb. air-fuel ratioc. mode of operation and maintenanced. all of the above421. . Fuel quenching refers toa. termination of combustion of fuel at the cylinder walls b. continuation of fuel combustionc. initial stage of preignition d. final stage of detonation422. Unburnt hydrocarbon emission can be lowered by a. lower compression ratiob. higher stroke to bore ratioc. larger displacement per cylinder and fewer cylinders d. all of the above423. Hydrocarbon emissions are higher, when the air/fuel ratio is a. too leanb. too reachc. stoichiometricd. near stoichiometric424. . Hydrocarbon emissions are usually measured by a. chemiluminescence methodb. non-dispersive infrared analyzerc. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method425. Measurement of current flow due to electrically charged particles is usually made in a.

chemiluminescence methodb. non-dispersive infrared analyzerc. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method426. Aldehydes emission usually results from the combustion of a. leaded hydrocarbon fuelb. sulphur added hydrocarbon fuel c. oxygenated hydrocarbon fueld. coal427. Measurement of aldehydes are carried out by a. iodine titration technique

b. chromotropic acid methodc. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. all of the above428. Formaldehyde is usually measured by a. iodine titration techniqueb. chromotropic acid methodc. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine method429. Total aldehydes measurement is carried out by a. chromotropic acid method

b. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method c. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine methodd. none of the above430. Compared to invisible pollutants, visible pollutants are a. more toxicb. more irritant c. less toxicd. less irritant431. In comparison method of smoke measurement, if the result is Ringelmann no. 5, thena. there is less smoke present in the exhaustb. there is medium amount of smoke present in the exhaust c. there is great deal of smoke present in

the exhaustd. none of the above432. Ratio of electric output from photocell when smoke sample is passed through the column to

the electric output when clean air is passed through it is calleda. air densityb. smoke density c. smoke massd. smoke level433. The reduction of light beam by the smoke to measure the smoke level is used in a. Ringelmann

chart methodb. light extinction methodc. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method434. Hartridge smoke meter is based on a. Ringelmann chart methodb. light extinction methodc. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method435. Van Brand Smokemeter is based on a. Ringelmann chart methodb. light extinction methodc. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method436. If the measurement of smoke intensity is achieved by continuously passing exhaust gas

through a moving strip of filter paper and collecting particles, then this method isa. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction methodc. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method437. Bosch Smokemeter is based ona. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction methodc. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method