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Question Bank for Written Examination (BRIDGES)

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1. Rocker Bearing permits - ( c )

(a) Longitudinal movement (b) Lateral movement

(c) Rotational movement (d) None

2. Sliding bearings are generally used for spans upto - ( b )

(a) 18.30 m (b) 30.50 m (c) 45 m (d) for any spans

3. Toe load of each fastening of steel channel sleepers is ( d )

(a) 1000 kg (b) 600 kg (c) 100 kg (d) Zero

4. While replacing a loose rivet, not more than ____% rivets at a joint should be

cut at a time. ( b )

(a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 30% (d) 50%

5. Loss of camber of steel girders can be due to - ( d )

(a) Heavy over stressing of members (b) Over stressing of joint rivets

(c) Play between rivet holes and rivet shanks (d) Any of these.

6. Minimum spacing of trolley refugees on bridges with spans <100 m.( b )

(a) 50 m (b) 100 m (c) 60 m (d) 200 m

7. The axle load for design of bridges in MBG loading is ( d )

(a) 29 MT (b) 20 MT (c) 22.5 MT (d) 25.0 MT

8. The weight of BG standard welded girder of 12.20 m span is - ( d )

(a) 10.5 MT (b) 17.16 MT (c) 15.00 MT (d) 8.28 MT

9. Flooring is required to be provided for bridges with - ( b )

(a) Deep foundations (b) Shallow foundations (c) Both (d) None

10. Arch Bridges transfer load mainly through __________ stresses. ( b )

(a) Bending (b) Compressive (c) Tensile (d) Shear

11. Diameter of reinforcement bar used as dowels for jacketing of bridge

structures.

(a) 25 m (b) 12 m (c) 20 mm (d) Any dia ( c )

12. Before taking up work on a bridge, banner flag should be erected at a distance

of _______ m from the place of work. (

c )

(a) 5 m (b) 100 m (c) 600 m (d) 1200 m

13. Speed indicator board should be erected at a distance of _______m ahead of

the bridge under repair. (

d )

(a) 5 m (b) at the bridge site (c) 100 m (d) 30 m

14. All Fillet or Butt Welds for fabrication of welded I-sections for bridge girders

are required to be by - ( b )

(a) Metal Arc Welding (b) Submerged Arc Welding

(c) Gas Pressure Welding (d) By any process

15. For field rivetting, if diameter of the rivet is 20 mm, the dia of the hole should

be

(a) 20 mm (b) 21 mm (c) 21.5 mm (d) 22 mm ( c )

16. The ingredient of solvent used in paints is for the purpose of - ( b )

(a) to make the paint thinner (b) to make the paint consistent

(c) to make the paint thicker

17. Aluminum paint is also used in bridge painting work because - ( b )

(a) resistant to ultra violet radiation (b) bright appearance

(c) easy for maintenance.

18. The shelf-life of ready mixed red lead paint is - ( b )

(a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year

19. The purity of aluminum in metallizing as per IS:2590 is - ( d )

(a) 98% (b) 98.5% (c) 99% (d) 99.5%

20. The saving of steel for BG Welded girders when compared to Rivetted girder

is -

(a) 23% (b) 24% (c) 25% (d) 26% ( a )

21. The destructive test used for testing the quality of the weld is called -

(a) Mechanical test (b) Chemical test

(c) Ultrasonic test (d) Supersonic test ( a )

22. The template is a true scale copy of - ( c )

(a) 3-Dimensional object (b) 4-Dimensional object

(c ) 2-Dimensional object (d) No dimensional object

23. For field riveting of main components, if the hole dia is 23.5 mm, then the

rivet dia is - (

b )

(a) 22.5 mm (b) 22 mm (c) 21.5 mm (d) 20 mm

24. Steel for rivets should conform to - ( c )

(a) IS : 2062 (b) IS : 221 (c) IS : 1148 (d) IS : 1929

25. Metalising should be done after sand blasting - ( a )

(a) Immediately (b) After 30 minutes (c) After one hour (d) After one day.

26. Extra Air in the Air Compressor should be released by means of - ( d )

(a) Hole (b) by opening the mount piece (c) Unloder valve (d) Reflex valve

27. Hindi Week Celebrations will be conducted at Headquarters / Divisional level

once in - ( b )

(a) 6 months (b) One year (c) As required (d) 3 months

28. Staff participating on Cultural Dramas at the time of Hindi Week Celebrations

will be treated as - ( a )

(a) Special Casual Leave (b) Extraordinary leave (c) On duty

29. The purpose of providing RajyaBhashaAdhikari at Headquarters level is to –

(a) Promote Telugu (b) Promote English (c) Promote Hindi

(d) Promote Local Language ( c )

30. Speed permitted on loop lines presently is ____kmph, which is being raised to

____kmph progressively. ( d )

(a) 10, 50 (b) 15, 50 (c) 15, 75 (d) 15, 30

31. Nominal Gauge of BG Railway Track is – ( a )

(a) 1676 mm (b) 1673 mm (c) 1766 mm (d) 1500 mm

32. Top width of embankment to be provided for single line BG track is -( c )

(a) 6000 mm (b) 6500 mm (c) 6850 mm (d) 5860 mm

33. The horizontal distance from centre of track to the face of platform coping for

BG high level PF should be within - ( a )

(a) 1670–1680 mm (b)1600 –1700 mm (c)1600 – 1905 mm (d) 1680–1905

mm

34. The normal size of ballast used on Railway Track as per the current

specifications is ____ ( b )

(a) 65 mm (b) 50 mm (c) 40 mm (d) 60 mm

35. Periodicity of opening and examination of Level Crossing is - ( b )

(a) Once a month (b) Once a year (c) Once in 3 months (d) Once in 6

months

36. „Average Emoluments‟ for determining the pension is average of the

emoluments drawn during the last ___ months of service. ( b )

(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 1

37. PL Number is available for - ( a )

(a) Stocked item (b) NS item (c) Both (d) None

38. PNM in Divisions is conducted with each Union once in - ( b )

(a) a month (b) 2 months (c) 4 months (d) 6 months

39. Hindi Day is celebrated every year on - ( d )

(a) 26th

Jan (b) 04th

Aug. (c) 15th

Aug. (d) 14th

Sept.

40. The number of languages in VIII Schedule of Constitution. ( d )

(a) 22 (b) 28 (c) 15 (d) 14

41. The cash award GM can grant to staff for commendable use of Hindi in their

official working. ( d )

(a) Rs.10,000 (b) Rs.5,000 (c) Rs.1,000 (d) Rs.500

42. Cash Awards &Lumpsum Awards given at the time of Hindi Week

Celebrations are exempted from - ( b )

(a) Wealth Tax (b) Income Tax (c) Profession Tax (d) None

43. An employee shall be deemed to have a writing knowledge of Hindi if he has

passed. ( d )

(a) Prabodh (b) Praveen (c) Pragya

(d) Any exam. conducted by Hindi Teaching Scheme of Central Govt.

44. The study leave that can be granted at one time - ( a )

(a) 24 months (b) 18 months (c) 12 months (d) 6 months

45. Staff are not eligible for leave-not-due when their service is less than - ( c

)

(a) One year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Four years

46. Strikes and Lockouts in the Public Sector service needs a notice of – ( b )

(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) One month

47. The payment of Overtime as per Factory Act should not exceed 50 hours in a

–

(a) Month (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 4 months ( c )

48. The payment of Overtime upto 75 hours can be granted in a quarter with prior

approval of - ( a )

(a) Chief Factory Inspector (b) Dy.Director of Factories

(c) Director of Factories (d) Chief Executive of the Factory.

49. Trucking of girder from Station to Mid-section on Dip-lorry should be under –

( a )

(a) Line block (b) Without line block (c) Can be taken under Caution Order

(d) None of these.

50. The Plant & Machinery which is not useful and overaged should be sent to

Scrap Depot on - (

b )

(a) DS-9 Form (b) DS-8 Form (c) DS Form (d) No form is required.

51. The replacement of Old girder with a new Girder should be charged to the

Allocation - ( a )

(a) Revenue (b) OLWR (c) DF (d) DRF

52. Appointment of a Welfare Officer is needed in a Factory where employed

workers are - ( d

)

(a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 500

53. Penalty for loss of a Residential Card Pass for 2nd

class is - ( d )

(a) Rs.10/- (b) Rs.11/- (c) Rs.12/- (d) Rs.12.50

54. On passing ________Exam., in Hindi, a personal pay of one increment will be

granted to an employee for a period of - ( b )

(a) 6 months (b) 12 months (c) 18 months (d) 24 months

55. The total number of staff who can be given awards by General Manager

during Zonal Hindi Week Celebrations is - ( d

)

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40

56. The total number of awards for each Railway during Hindi Week Celebrations

given by Railway Board are - ( d )

(a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Eight

57. DRM and HODs can grant number of Cash Awards during Hindi Week

Celebrations to staff – ( d )

(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) No limit.

58. Railway bridge having total waterway 18m. or more is called- ( a )

a. major bridge b. minor bridge c. important bridge d. None of these

59. When a small area of paint of a steel girder bridge show pronounced

deterioration and require immediate painting, this system of painting is known

as – ( b )

a. through painting b. patch painting c. complete painting

d. preventive painting

60. In S.C.Railway periodicity of painting of steel girder is once in – ( a )

a.4 to 6 years b.1 to 6 years c.3 years d.1 year

61. Bridge having linear water way of 300 m or more or total water way of

1000sqm or more are called – ( b )

a. minor bridge b. important bridge c. major bridge d. none of above

62. Bridges having total waterway of less than 18m or clear span of less than 12m

in single span are called – ( b )

a. important bridge b. minor bridge c. major bridge d. none of above

63. BGML loading stands for – ( c )

a. Broad gauge mineral loading b. Broad gauge modified loading

c. Broad gauge main line loading d. none of above

64. BGML loading evolve in the year – ( c )

a.1924 b.1925 c.1926 d. None of above

65. BGML loading caters for maximum axle load of...........tonnes for locomotive

with trailing load of.................tonnes/metre - ( a )

a.22.9,7.67 b.22.5,7.65 c.25,7.67

66. RBG loading stands for – ( a )

a. Revised Broad gauge loading b. Rolling Broad gauge loading

c. Railway Broad gauge loading d. none of above

67. RBG loading evolve in the year – ( a )

a.1975 b.1987 c.1926 d. none of above

68. RBG loading caters for maximum axle load of...........tonnes for locomotive

with trailing load of.................tonnes/metre of track with maximum axle load

of..............tonnes for wagons- ( b )

a.22.9,7.67,25 b.22.5,7.67,22.9 c.25,7.67,22.9 d. none of

above

69. MBG loading stands for - ( b )

a. Mineral Broad gauge loading b. Modified broad gauge loading

c. Medium Broad gauge loading d. none of above

70. MBG loading evolve in the year – (b )

a.1975 b.1987 c.1926 d. none of above

71. MBG loading caters for maximum axle load of...........tonnes for locomotive

with trailing load of.................tonnes/metre on both side of locomotive -( c)

a.25,7.67 b.22.5,8.25 c.25,8.25 d.none of above

72. Through, Semi-through and Deck bridge are the type of bridge based on –( c )

a. Type of girders b. Grade separation

c. Position of railway with respect to main girder

d. Headway requirement consideration

73. Dynamic Augment is - ( c )

a. Wind effect on railway bridges b. Temperature effect on railway bridges

c. Impact Effect on railway bridges d. Rolling effect on railway bridges

74. Repairing by cement pressure grouting can be adopted in case of –( e )

a. Honeycomb concrete structure b. Hollow masonry

c. Deep leached mortar joints d. Dormant cracks e. All of above

75. Cement pressure grouting is suitable for - ( b )

a. Very fine crack

b. Active crack where cause of cracking has been determined and remedial

action has been taken

c. Crushed masonry d. Weathered concrete or masonry

76. Cement pressure grouting is best suited for - ( a )

a. When masonry is hollow b. Fine and deep crack

c. fine but not very deep crack d. None of above

77. In cement pressure grouting water cement ratio is kept as – ( a )

a. 0.4 to 0.5 b. 0.3 to 0.4 c. 0.25 to 0.35 d. 0.35 to

0.50

78. In cement pressure grouting pressure is kept as – ( a )

a. 2 to 4 Kg/sqcm b. 3 to 6 Kg/sqcm c. 3 to 10 Kg/sqcm

d. 3.5 to 7 Kg/sqcm

79. In guniting/shotcreting water cement ratio is kept as – ( d )

a. 0.4 to 0.5 b. 0.3 to 0.4 c. 0.25 to 0.35 d. 0.35 to 0.50

80. In epoxy grouting pressure is kept as - ( d )

a. 2 to 4 Kg/sqcm b. 3 to 6 Kg/sqcm

c. 3 to 10 Kg/sqcm d. 3.5 to 7 Kg/sqcm

81. Air compressor used for cement pressure grouting should have a capacity of

a. 2-4 cum/min b. 3-4cum/min ( b )

c. 3-5cum/min d. 4-5 cum/min

82. Air compressor used for guniting/shotcreting should have a capacity of

a. 2-4 cum/min b. 3-4 cum/min ( d )

c. 3.5-5.0 cum/min d. 10 cum/min

83. In cement pressure grouting holes along cracks/in or around hollow spots in

staggered manner should be drilled having spacing in both the direction

@............

a. 150-500mm b. 450mm ( c )

c. 500-750mm d. Suitably as decided by DEN

84. In cement pressure grouting G.I. pipe pieces of diameter...... and length.........

should be fixed with rich cement sand mortar in drilled holes. ( a )

a. 12 to 20m.m.,200m.m. b. 12 to 20m.m.,300m.m.

c. 20 to 25m.m.,200m.m. d. 20 to 25m.m.,. 300m.m.

85. In Indian railway, railway bridges are classified for the purpose of

maintenance, on the basis of ( c )

a. Material b. Superstructure c. Extent of waterway d. None of above

86. Air compressor used for epoxy grouting should have a capacity of ( b )

a. 2-4 cum/min b. 3-4cum/min c. 3-5cum/min d. 4-5 cum/min

87. Air compressor used for epoxy grouting should have a pressure of ( c )

a. 2-4 Kg/sqcm b. 3.5-7.0 Kg/sqcm c. 10 Kg/sqcm d. 7 Kg/sqcm

88. Air compressor used for guniting/shotcreting should have a pressure of (d )

a. 2-4 Kg/sqcm b. 3.5-7.0 Kg/sqcm c. Upto 10 Kg/sqcm d. Upto 7

Kg/sqcm

89. Admixture is added in cement pressure grouting mainly due to ( e )

a. Increase initial setting time b. Decrease initial setting time

c. Improve flowability d. Prepare non shrinkable grout e. Both (c) and

(d)

90. Health monitoring of very imp. Bridges in Aggressive environment is to be

done by an independent agency once in ( b )

(a) 2 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 4 20 years.

91. In single line section, under normal circumstances, the length of tunnels upto

which artificial ventilation may not be required is ( b )

(a) 1 km (b) 2 Km (c) 3 km (d) 4 km

92. On bridges with each span of 100 m and more, trolley refuges are to be

provided at a spacing of ( d )

(a) 100 m (b) 50m (c) 150 m (d) on each pier

93. Revision of the existing Danger level for a girder bridge is to be done with the

approval of ( b )

(a) AEN (b) DEN/Sr.DEN (c) THOD (d) PHOD

94. The minimum depth of bridge timber excluding notching for 80‟ span as per

RDSO‟s Drg. No. BA 11075 is – ( c )

(a) 150 mm (b) 125 mm (c) 180 mm (d) 240 mm

95. Inspection schedule of Asst. Engineer with regard to tunnels is ( a )

(a) Once in a year before the monsoon

(b) Once in a year after the monsoon

(c) Twice in a year before and after the monsoon

(d) Not specified or as decided by the C.E.

96. The periodicity of painting of entire steel work of a girder in highly corrosive

prone areas in S.C. Railway. ( c )

(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 4 years (d) 6years.

97.What is the shelf life of Read Lead Ready Mixed (IS-102) paint? ( b )

(a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year

98.Speed restriction required for using CC cribs as temporary arrangement is-

(a) 20 kmph (b) 40 kmph (c) 35 kmph ( a )

99. Designated span of restricted head (RH) girder is equal to- ( a )

(a) overall length (b) c/c of span (c) clear span

100.The minimum cushion specified over an arch bridge is – ( c )

(a)0.5m (b) 0.9m (c) 1.0m

101. In case of water crossing danger level – ( c )

(a) Speed restriction be imposed

(b) Traffic be suspended till water recedes

(c) Traffic be suspended till a responsible person inspects the site and

declares it safe for running traffic

102. Bentonite is used in pile driving ( c )

(a) to facilitate pile driving

(b) to enable proper pile concreting

(c) to stabilize the bore hole walls

103.Bearings for plate girders are – ( b )

(a) Roller bearing

(b) Sliding bearings

(c) Elastomeric bearings

104. In the eight digit code given in the rating system the first digit is called – ( b )

(a) URN (b) ORN (c) CRN

105. Danger level is fixed on the basis of – ( a )

(a) Type of girder (b) Category of track

(c) Velocity of channel flow (d) All of above.

106. Epoxy injection could be resorted to when – ( a )

(a) crack width is less than 1 mm.

(b) crack width is more than 1mm but less than 10 mm.

(c) when the masonry is having large voids.

(d) None of the above.

107. For overhead spalled concrete, the best repair technique would be –( d )

(a) hand applied repairs.

(b) grouting with epoxy.

(c) cement pressure grouting.

(d) guniting.

108. Thickness of the steining is decided upon the consideration of – ( c )

(a) size of the bond rods.

(b) to facilitate manual inspection of the steining.

(c) to enable the well to be self sinking.

(d) maximum size of aggregate in concrete.

109. A detailed inspection of the PSC superstructure of a major bridge will be

done by – ( c )

(a) IOW. (b) AEN (Br). (c) BRI. (d) AEN (Open Line).

110. In stagnant water well construction could be done by – ( c )

(a) floating caisson method.

(b) dry dock method.

(c) artificial sand island method.

(d) Construction in dry river bed.

111. Danger level can be marked below the bottom of girder or slab span less than

6.1m at ( a )

a) 150mm to 300mm b) 300mm c) 500mm

d) at the bottom of slab/girder


12.2m at ( d )

a) 150mm to 300mm b) 300mm c) 500mm d) 450mm


30.5m at ( c )

a) 1.0m b) 300mm c) 600mm d) 450mm

114. Danger level can be marked below the bottom of girder or slab span less

than 61.0m at (

d )

a) 1.0m b) 300mm c) 500mm d) 750mm

115. Danger level can be marked below the bottom of girder or slab span more

than 61.0m at (

a )

a) 1200m b) 1000mm c) 500mm d) 750mm

116. The periodicity of taking soundings (at least one) during floods should be-

( b )

a) every hour b) daily c)alternate day d) every fortnight

117. Water level should be recorded at the specified bridges, during the monsoon

period ( d )

a) Every hour b) Every 12 hours c) Every 6 hours d) Daily

118. The CRN allotted for a condition which warrants rebuilding / rehabilitation

immediately is- ( d )

a) 5 b) 7 c) 4 d) 1

119. The CRN allotted for a condition which requires major / special repairs is –

a) 4 b) 3 c) 0 d) 2 ( b

)

120. The CRN allotted for a condition which requires rebuilding / rehabilitation

on a programmed basis is (

a )

a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) none

OBJECTIVE TYPE OF QUESTIONS ON P-Way

1. Quantity of ballast/ m on concrete sleeper track with 300mm ballast cushion on Straight

[ b ]

a) 1.682 M3

b) 2.158 M3.

c) 2.314 M3 d) 1.962M

3

2. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate abrasion value is [ c

]

a) 10 % b) 20 %

c) 30% d) 40%

3. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate Impact value is [

b ]

a) 10 % b) 20 %

c) 30% d) 40 %

4. The permitted range of % retention on 40mm square mesh sieve in case of machine

crushed ballast. [ c ]

a) 10 - 20 b) 20 - 40

c) 40 - 60 d) 60 - 80

5. In case of ballast supply, if retention is 65 to 70% on 40mm square mesh sieve, how

much % of rate in contracted rate is reduced. [ d ]

a) 25 % b) 20 %

c) 15 % d) 10%

6. The minimum height of ballast stack permitted in plain terrain in meters [

b ]

a) 0.5 b) 1

c) 1.5 d) 2

7. Minimum ballast quantity of each stack permitted is [

c ]

a) 10 M3 b) 20 M

3

c) 30 M3 d) 40 M

3

8. The% deduction for voids in shrinkage permitted on the gross measurement

incess collection for making payment in case of ballast supply [

a ]

a) Nil b) 4 %

c) 8 % d) 12 %

9. Can inadequate ballast depth affect maintenance of track ?

[ d ]

(a) No, it has no concern

(b) No, but drainage will be affected

(c) Yes, but the effect will be marginal

(d) Yes, the formation pressure will increase

10. Concrete Sleeper is a structural member which may fail due to -

[ d ]

(a) High compression stress

(b) High tensile stress

(c) High axial compressive prestressing stress

(d) Fatigue failure due to poor maintenance of fittings and depth of ballast.

11 .Proposal for through fastenings renewal should be initiated when

[ a ]

(a) 20% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5%

sample size

(b) 20% or more of sample size records toe load below 600 kg out more than 400

kg.

(c) 25% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5%

sample size.

(d) 25% or more of sample size records toe load below 300 kg. & confirmed of 5%

sample size.

12. If 20% or more of sample size of ERC records toe load below 600 kg., the frequency

of inspection and sample size shall be respective (for non-corrosion prone area) [

d ]

(a) Once in four years, 1% on every 100 sleepers

(b) Once in four years , 2% on every 700 sleepers

(c) Once in two years, 1% on every 100 sleepers.

(d) Once in two years, 2% on every 100 sleepers.

13. While doing track renewal, minimum cushion to be ensured in a cutting is

[ b ]

(a) 150 mm

(b) 200 mm

(c) 250 mm

(d) Immaterial, being a solid base

14. When is a concrete sleeper due for next round of packing ? [

d ]

(a) After 1 year in service

(b) After 50 GMT Traffic has passed

(c) Before centre binding produced stresses are 40% of rail seat bottom

stresses

(d) After two years or 100 GMT which ever is earlier.

15. Lubrication of ERCs shall be done in corrosion prone areas -

[ b ]

(a) Every 3 months (b) Every year

(c) Once in 2 years (d) Once in 4 years

16. As per Testing Criteria of Toe Load on ERCs, Which one of the following is

correct [ d]

(a) Testing be done at a frequency of 4 years or passage of 100 GMT

(b) In corrosion prone areas every year testing be done

(c) If 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are less than 600 kg

TFR proposalbe initiated

(d) TFR proposal be initiated if 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are

less than 400 kg

17. Formation cross slope shall be 1 in

[ d ]

a) 10 b) 20

c) 30 d) 40

18. Overhauling of track is essential because it improves: [

c ]

(a) Longitudinal resistance of track (b) load bearing capacity

(c) drainage. (d) Longitudinal resistance of track

19. The sieve size used for manual Deep screening in mm. [ d

]

a) 10 b) 15

c) 20 d) 25

20. In through packing, ballast should be opened out on either side of rail seat

to a depth of [ d ]

a) 15mm. b) 25mm.

c) 35 mm. d) 50 mm.

21. While doing slewing operation, angle between planted crow bar and vertical of rail

should not be more than [ c ]

a) 10 b) 20

c) 30 d) 40

22. Easement gradient at the time of passage of trains while doing lifting should

not be steeper than [ a ]

a) 25 mm. per rail b) 10 mm. per rail

c) 15 mm. per rail d) 30 mm. per rail

23. During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast is being removed from

any sleeper, invariably, there are at least ___________ fully supported sleepers

between it and the next sleeper worked upon.

[ b ]

a) 2 b) 4

c) 6 d) 8

24. The gap at Junction & combination fish plated joint should be [ d ]

a) 6 mm. b) 4 mm.

c) 2 mm. d) Zero

25. The gap at machined joint should be [ d ]

a) 6 mm. b) 4 mm.

c) 2 mm. d) Zero

26. The schedule of inspection of ADEN for manned level crossing is [ d ]

a)once a month b) once in two months

c) once in three months d) once in six months

27. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified

and notified by [ c ]

a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE

28. The authority for introducing or continuing night patrolling outside the stipulated

dates, duly advising all concerned is [ c ]

a) Gang Mate b) PWS

c) PWI d) ADEN

29. Who will prepare patrol charts for each of the sections where monsoon patrolling is

required to be done. [ c ]

a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE

30. Patrolling in pairs can be introduced with the approval of [ d ]

a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE

31. If a patrolman on the arrival at the end of his beat does not find the next patrolman,

then he should [ b ]

a) continue patrolling as per patrol chart. b) Continue further and report to

the SM

c) Wait for him c) Suspend the traffic

32. The selected patrolman should pass…………test and then only should be employed.

[ b ]

a) A-I b) A-III

c) B-I d) Not necessary

33. The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through AEN…………..in advance

before commencement of monsoon.

[ a ]

a) one month b) 2 months

c) 6 months d) 1 year

34. When no danger is apprehended, the patrolman should stand on the ___ on the left

hand side facing the train and exhibit his number plate. [b ]

a) Middle of the Two lines b) Cess

c) Under a Tree d) Ballast

35. The PWI overall Incharge shall cover his entire sub-division once in…….by

train/push trolly in night and check the patrolmen. [ b ]

a) Fortnight b) a month

c) a week d) a year

36.The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and watchman once in a

[ b ]


c) a week d) a year

37.The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights by train once a_________

[b]


c) a week d) a year

38. The Railway affecting tank which still requires heavy repairs, despite repeated

reminders of Railway, should be considered and included in the list of___ locations.

[ a ]

a) Vulnerable b) Bad

c) Important d) Waste

39. A list of vulnerable locations should be maintained by each ________in a register form

and updated. [ a ]

a) AEN b) PWI

c) DEN d) HQ

40. The …………will be responsible for instructing patrolmen in their duties and

stationary watchman to possess the correct equipment. [ c ]

a) APWI b) AEN

c) PWI in charge d) DEN

41. In PQRS working, Auxiliary track should be laid at a gauge of [ a]

a) 3400 mm b) 1676 mm

c) 5400 mm d) 4400 mm

42. There are………….no. of categories of Engineering works. [ c]

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

43. Works of “short duration” are those. [ a ]

a) Can complete one day b)To put Engg. Indicators

c)Dose not require any SR d) Take prior permission from CRS

44. For works of short duration, when train has to stop at worksite, then hand signals

shall be exhibited at _____, _____, and ______.m. in case of BG

[ a]

a) 30, 600, 1200 b) 30, 400, 800

c) At spot, 400, 600 d) at spot, 270, 540

45. The flagman placing detonators should station himself at a distance not less

than………………m from the place of detonators. [ b]

a) 100 b) 45

c) 1200 d) 600

46. The ……………..will be responsible for obtaining sanction of CRS and sending

safety certificate on completion. [ d ]

a)CPWI b)ADEN

c)PCE d)DEN

47. In multi speed restrictions when s1 is less than s2, then minimum length of s1 zone

should be ………………m.

[ b ]

a)100 b)200

c)300 d)400

48. For intermediate tracks on triple or multiple lines, Engineering indicators shall be

fixed between tracks to within……………mm from rail level.

[ c ]

a) 100 b) 200

c) 300 d) 400

49. Indicators shall be placed on the ………….side as seen by the Drivers except on CTC

sections (Single line) [ a ]

a) left b) right

c) centrally d) oblique

50. When works at times of poor visibility are to be undertaken and site is protected by

temporary engineering fixed signals……nos. detonators, 10m apart be fixed not less

than…………..m in rear of CI and a caution hand signal exhibited to approaching

trains.

[ b]

a) 3&600 b) 2&270

c) 2&800 d) 3&1200

51. Whistle Indicators should be provided at a distance of …………..m. [ c

]

a) 500 b) 400

c) 600 d) 300

52. The normal life of detonator is [

b ]

a) 10 years b) 5 years

c) 15 years d) 7 years

53. The life of detonators can be extended to ……………….years on an yearly basis

after testing……………..detonators from each lot of over 7 years.

[ d ]

a) 7&one b) 8 & two

c) 10 & one d) 10 & two

54. The safety radius at the time of testing of detonators is ….m. [ d ]

a)10 b)20

c)40 d)50

55. The bottom most parts of CI, SI should be …………..m above R.L [ b ]

a)1 b)2

c)1.5 d)2.5

56. The bottom most part of T/P & T/G should be ………………m above R.L. [ c]

a)1.20 b)1.55

c)1.65 d)2.00

57. When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the

………………………………is responsible for its safe working. [ c]

a) The Head Trolley man b) Trolley Holder

c)The man who is manning the brakes d) Higher official accompanying trolley

58. The quantity of petrol in the tank of motor trolley should not exceed……liters while

loading into train as per G&SR

[ d ]

a) 3 b) 5

c) 8 d) 9

59. In cuttings and high banks trolley refuges should be provided at …m intervals. [ b

]

a) 50 b) 100

c) 150 d) 20

60. The night signal for trolley/motor trolley/lorry on single line shall be….. [ a

]

a)Both side Red b) red on one side and green on the other

c)both side green d) one side white and otherside red

61. Push Trollys shall be manned by atleast ……men. [ c ]

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)5

62. During night and at times of poor visibility the trollyshoul work under[ d ]

a)supervision of SM b) Trolley memo

c)following a train d) Block Protection

63. Protection of trollies with H.S. flags is required only when the visibility is less

than………………..m [ a ]

a)1200 b)800

c)600 d)350

64. When two or more trollies are running together in the same direction in the same line,

minimum separation required is …………m. [ b ]

a)50 b)100

c)150 d)200

65. When a motor trolly is worked with block protection, it should be manned by

atleast…………men [ c ]

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)5

66. Sample size for measurement of toe load of elastic clip is – [ a ]

(a) 1% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(b) 2% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(c) 3% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(d) 0.5% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers.

67. When the lorry is required to remain stationery for more than…………..minutes in

Station limits then it should be protected. [ d ]

a)5 b)10

c)8 d)15

68. Lorries working in gradients steeper than ………………..should be controlled by hand

brakes as well as by rope tied in rear. [ b ]

a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 100

c) 1 in 400 d) 1 in 300

69. The check rail clearances in BG turnouts and L-Xings are – [ a ]

(a) 44-48mm and 51-57 mm respectively

(b) 38-41mm and 48-51 mm respectively

(c) 48-51mm and 63-68 mm respectively

(d) 63-68mm and 76-80mm respectively

70. While lifting the track on a gradient, the lifting should proceed – [

a ]

(a) from downhill to uphill

(b) from uphill to downhill

(c) from both the ends towards a central meeting point

(d) It does not matter.

71. What is the minimum horizontal distance of a platform coping (goods or passenger)

from the adjacent track centre ? [ a ]

(a) 1670mm (b) 1690mm

( c) 840mm (d) 760mm

72. What is the maximum distance apart of trolley refugees in tunnels

[ d ]

(a) 30.5 mts. (b)50mts.

(c) 80 mts. (d)100 mts.

73. What is the minimum height of the bottom of an ROB in AC traction area

[ a ]

from rail level

(a) 5870 (b)5500

(c)5460 (d)5200

74. What is the minimum centre to centre on B.G. tracks in mid section ?

[ c ]

(a) 4265mm (b)1676mm

(c)4725mm (d) 2350mm

75. For all routes identified for running 22.1 axle load wagons, sleeper density of

___ nos./km must be maintained. [ c ]

(a) 1560 (b) 1620

© 1660 (d) 1600

76. Second hand 52 kg rails can be used on Group ____ routes. [ c ]

(a) A route (b) B route

© D and E route (d) only C route

77. A sleeper density of ___ sleepers per km is a must on Shatabdi/Rajdhani routes. [ c

]

(a) 1880 (b) 1760

© 1660 (d) 1720

78. Life of rail not only depends upon the ___ but also on the maximum [ b

]

axle load moving over it.

(a) Speed (b) GMT

© Both speed and GMT (d) Fastening

79. The width of ballast shoulder to be provided on the outside of the curve [ c

]

in case of LWR is provided on the reverse curve –

(a) 500mm (b) 550 mm (c) 600 mm (d) 650 mm

80. SEJ to be provided from the abutment at a minimum distance away of – [ a

]

(a) 10 m (b) 20 m (c) 30 m (d) 40 m

81. The minimum depth of bridge timber excluding notching for 80‟ span as per RDSO‟s

Drg. No. BA 11075 is –

[ c ]

(a) 150 mm (b) 125 mm (c) 180 mm (d) 240 mm

82. The maximum cant that can be provided on BG has to be [

b ]

(a) 150 mm (b) 165 mm (c) 200 mm (d) 240 mm

83. The Recommended yard gradient for new lines in B.G. [

d ]

(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 400 (c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 1200

84. The formation is said to be very bad when -

[ c ]

a) less than 6 attentions are given per year

b) 6-12 attentions/year are given

c) More than 12 attentions/year are given

d) Formations are classified based on the TRC and OMS-2000 results.

85. The regular greasing of ERC‟s shall be done by – [ a

]

(a) keyman (b) gangs (c) contractor (d) all the above

86. 20 Kmph caution order is prevailing at a deep screening spot. The caution indicator

board should be fixed at a distance of _______meters from the work

spot as per IRPWM [ c ]

(a) 400 m (b) 600 m (c) 800 m (d) 1200 m

87 Existing 90 R rails can be allowed to continue in main line upto max.

permissible speed of - [ a ]

(a) 100 Kmph (b) 130 Kmph (c) 160 Kmph (d) 80 kmph

88. In comparison with non-corrosion prone area, the frequency of toe load testing of ERC

in corrosion prone area is - [ a ]

(a) Doubled (b) Same (c) Half (iv) Norelaltion.

89. 1 in 20 cross cant is not provided at –

[ d ]

(a) SEJ (b) Derailing switch (c) Buffer rails (d) Points and Crossing.

90 Gauge is measured ___________mm below rail table. [

b ]

(a) 10mm (b) 13mm (c) 15mm (d) 18mm

91 Sleeper spacing on a curve is the centre to centre distance between two [

a ]

consecutive sleepers when measured at

(a) Outer rail (b) Inner rail (c) Centre line of track

(d)average of all the above.

92. What is not marked in gang chart [ a ]

(a) Casual rail renewal (b) Deep screening of track

(c) Cleaning of side drains (d) Machine packing

93. Laying tolerance of sleeper spacing are [ a ]

(a) ± 20 mm (b) ± 2mm (c) ±15mm (d) ±10 mm

94. Maximum permissible gradient on LWR is [ a ]

(a) 1in100 (b) 1 in 200 (c) 1 in 300 (d) 1in400

95. Deficiency of ballast on LWR track during summer may result in [ b ]

(a) Creep (b) Buckling (c) sinking (d) cracking

96. Most feasible parameter to judge the health of an LWR will be [ a ]

(a) gaps measured at the SEJs

(b) creep at measuring posts fixed at the ends of breathing lengths

( c) Creep at the measuring post fixed at the centre of LWR

(d) Creep at the middle of the breathing length

97. Hot whether patrolling is to be introduced in LWR territory [ c ]

(a) when the rail temperature goes beyond tm + 10

(b)When the rail temperature goes beyond td + 10

© When the rail temperature goes beyond td +20

(d) When the air temperatures goes beyond tm + 20

98. In PSC sleeper track what speed restriction should be imposed during[ d]

consolidation period on LWR when the temperature goes beyond td +20º

when crib and shoulder ballast compaction has been done.

(a) 15 Kmph (b) 20 Kmph

( c) 30 Kmph (d) 50 Kmph

99. The breathing length of an LWR exhibits movement of – [ a

]

(a) rail sleeper frame (b) rail alone

( c) sleeper alone (d) none of the above.

100. CWR is similar to an LWR except for – [ c ]

(a)its movement at the SEJ is different (b)it requires more careful attention

(c)its distressing has to be done by splitting it into parts (d)always requires patrolling

101. The distressing temperature of a 52 kg rail is - [ c ]

(a) tm to tm –5 (b) tm to tm +5

© tm + 5 to tm +10 (d ) tm + 10 to tm +15.

102. Of the various types of thermometers, the most reliable and quick device

for rail temperature measurement is – [ c ]

(a) Black bulb thermometer (b) rail embedded thermometer

© dial type thermometer (d) the clinical thermometer.

103. Maintenance operations in a LWR should be restricted to a temperature range of –

[ a ]

(a) td + 10 to td – 30 (b) td + 5 to td – 25

© td to td – 20 (d) td + 20 to td - 20.

104. In other than concrete sleeper track, if the temperature rises above td+20oC after a

maintenance job, during the period of consolidation, when only manual ballast

compaction has been done, SR to be imposed is – [ b ]

(a) 50 km/h in BG and 40 km/h in MG(b) 30 km/h in BG and 20 km/h in MG

© 75 km/h in BG and 50 km/h in MG (d) none of the above.

105. While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to

rise above td+10oC, we should do the following – [ c ]

(a) stop the work (b) immediately cut the LWR

© do a temporary destressing at a temperature of tmax – 10oC (d) continue

106. While repairing a fracture in which a gap 'g' has been created and paint marks made at

a distance of 'a' and 'b' from the fractured rail ends, the following relationship should

hold good if a closure rail piece of length 'L' is inserted –

[ b ]

(a) a + b + 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm) (b)a + b + g + 1 mm = L + (2 x

25mm)

© a + b - 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm) – g (d) none of the above.

107. While passing an LWR over a girder bridge the rail-sleeper fittings should be – [

a ]

(a) rail free type (b) rigid type

© two way keys (d) elastic rail clips with effective toe load.

108. The maximum span of a girder bridge with LWR in MG is – [ a ]

(a) 20m (b)30m (c) 43m (d) depends upon bearing arrangements in the

bridge.

109. The gap at SEJ at the time of laying / Subsequent distressing of LWR for a 52 kg Rail

section is [ b ]

(a) 60 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 120 mm.

110. Gap survey of an SWR has to be done – [ c]

(a) Just before the monsoon (b) just after the monsoon

© before the onset of the summer season in Feb / March (d) none of the above.

111. Destressing by tensor has to be resorted to when – [ c ]

(a) labour force available is small (b) the blocks are not available

© the prevailing temperature is less than td

(d) a more sophisticated method has to be used.

112. Hot weather patrolman have a beat of –[ a ]

(a) 2 km on single line track (b) 1 km of a single line track

© 2 km on a double line track (d) not more than 5 km

113. If the temperature rises above td+20oC, hot weather patrolling can be started by – [ d

]

(a) DEN (b)AEN (c) Keyman (d) Gangmate.

114. In a yard with LWR, for track circuiting make use of – [

b ]

(a) insulated block joints (b)glued joints of G3L type

© cut the LWR into SWR (d) none of the above.

115. Gap at fracture in an LWR is more than the theoretical value. This is due to: [

c ]

(a) a sudden fall of temperature (b) the battering received from the moving wheels

© the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilised is less

(d) the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilsed is more.

[ a ]

116. The maximum curvature permitted for laying an LWR is –

(a) 4o Curve (b) 2

o Curve (c) 3

o Curve (d) ) 1

o Curve

117. SEJs are inspected by the PW / APWI once – [ d ]

(a) every 15 days (b) every 7 days (c) As desired by the AEN (Open Line).

(d) every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once in 2

months from the remaining period

118. Generally, while performing through packing manually on LWR, opening of sleepers

is limited to – [ d]

(a) alternate sleeper to be opened (b) upto 100 sleepers to be opened at a time

© no restriction but the temperature restriction to be observed

(d) only 30 sleepers to be opened within a temperature range of td + 10 and td - 30oC.

119. Permissible speed on 1 in 8.5 turnout with curved switch 52/60 kg on PSC sleepers [

b ]

(a) 10 kmph (b) 15 kmph (c) 20 kmph (d) 25 kmph

120. Minimum and maximum rail temperatures at Bareilly shown in the map

as 70 (30) will be [ c ]

(a) –30 and + 30 (b) – 55 and + 35 (c) – 5 and 65 (d) 0 and 60.

121. While maintaining CST-9 track with LWR, it should be ensured that – [ b

]

(a) requisite no. of reverse jaw sleepers are provided (b)reverse jaw sleepers are

removed

©LWR cannot be laid on CST-9 (d) Constant patrolling of track is

done.

122. Emergency repairs to a buckled track involve – [ c ]

(a) Slewing track to original position

(b) Machine cut a rail piece out of track and slew back the track

© Gas cut and slew back to original alignment

(d) Wait for temperature to go down before slewing back track to original position.

123. At an SEJ theoretical calculations of movement of one LWR end indicates an

Expansion of 4 mm and a contraction of 3 mm during rising and falling temperature

trends, Respectively, If the standard gap at td is 20mm what range of gap is permissible as

per LWR manual – [ b ]

(a) 23mm to 16mm (b) 33mm to 6mm (c) 3mm to 4mm (d) None of

the above.

124. Formation is classified on “very bad” when number of attention received in a year are

more than [ d ]

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12

125. Maximum permissible vertical wear on wing rail or nose of crossing shall be [ a]

(a) 10mm (b) 5 mm (c) 15 mm (d) 20 mm

126. SEJ can be laid on transition curve with degree not sharper than – [ b

]

(a) 1° (b)0.5° (c)2° (d) SEJ shall not be located on transition.

127. OMS equipment measures [ a ]

(a) Ride Index (b) CTR (c) TGI (d) Performance index

128. The competency certificate for LWR maintenance is issued by [

a ]

(a) DEN (b)AEN (c) PWI (d) PCE

129. For checking correct curvature of tongue rail, ordinates should be measured [

c ]

(a) at every 3m (b) at mid point of the tongue rail

(c) atmid point and quarter points of the tongue rail

(d) at every 20 m

130. On a fan-shaped lay-out same sleepers can be used for a right hand T/O and left hand

T/O. For this purpose

[ a ]

(a) right end of the sleepers should remain on right side

(b) right end of the sleepers should be brought towards the left side by rotating the

sleepers

© sleepers in the switch should remain as it is but those in the lead should be rotated

to bring the right end to the left side

131. Recommended throw of switch on BG is [

d ]

(a)95mm (b) 105mm (c) 110mm (d) 115mm.

132 Behind the heel of a switch spherical washers should be fitted on left hand side towards

_____surface. [ b ]

(a)vertical (b) inclined (c)gauge (d) horizontal

133. Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turn-out is [ c ]

(a) 3m (b) 4m (c) 6m (d) 9m.

134. As per the provisions of IRPWM, the gauge just ahead of actual toe switch shall be

_______ for switch entry angle (SEA) 020‟0” and ________ for

SEA > 020‟0” [ b ]

(a)+6mm, Neat (b) Neat, +6mm (c) Neat, Neat (d) +6mm, +6mm

135. Frequency of inspection of Points & Crossings on running lines by a PWI

incharge& his Assistant is once in _____ in rotation [ c ]

(a) month (b) two months (c) 3 months (d) 4 months

136. Max. permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ curved switch is ___ kmph and that on 1 in 12

curved switch is ___ kmph. [ a ]

(a)15&30 (b) 30&15 (c) 15&25 (d) 30&50

137. Maximum permissible wear on nose of crossing, wing rail is ___ [ d ]

(a)4mm (b) 6mm (c) 8mm (d) 10mm

138. The maximum permissible value for cant deficiency is _________ mm on group

„A‟ route with nominated rolling stock. [ c ]

(a)50mm (b)75mm ©100mm (d)125mm

139. The maximum permissible value for actual cant, cant deficiency and cant excess

is ___ , ___, __ and mm respectively for BG, group „E‟ route.[ b ]

(a)100,50,50 (b)165,75,75 © 140,65,65 (d) 180,100,100

140. The maximum in built twist on a transition curve is ____mm/meter

for BG. [ b ]

(a)1.4mm/m (b)2.8mm/m ©3.6mm/m (d)4.2mm/m

141. Frequency of inspection of a curve by PWI in BG group-A routes is once in [ b

]

(a)3 months (b)4 months (c) 5 months (d) 6 months

142. Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve double line in LWR is __

[ b ]

(a) 200mm (b) 300mm © 400mm (d) 500mm

143. On wooden sleeper track, the number of spikes/under each rail seat on the outside of

a curve is ____________ [ c ]

(a)Zero (b)One ( c) Two (d)Three

144. Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is _________mm.

[ a ]

(a)15mm (b)10mm ©20mm (d)40mm

145. Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of [ b ]

(a)90 to 100 kmph (b)25 to 30 kmph (c)10 to 15 kmph (d) 50 to 75 kmph

146. As per IRCA rules, the rejection limits for wheel flange thickness is –[ c ]

(a) 38 mm (b) 25.4mm (c) 16 mm (d) 20mm

147. The standard play on B.G. is [ b]

(a) 25 mm (b) 19 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 15mm

148. Emergency crossovers should be [ a ]

(a) lubricated on the gauge faces to reduce derailment proneness

(b) lubricated on the rail table to reduce derailment proneness

(c) lubricated on the gauge tie plates to reduce derailment proneness

(d) Lubricated on non gauge face to reduce derailment proneness

149 Track Geometry to be achieved after track maintenance should be better than [ b ]

(a) New Track Tolerance (b) Maintenance Tolerance

(c) Service Tolerance (d) Safety tolerance

150. TGI can not assume the following value – [ c ]

(a) Less than 100 (b) Less than 50 (c) Less than 0 (d) Less than 25

151. Radius of a 5˚ curve is [ c ]

(a) 1750 (b) 875 (c) 350 (d) 550

152. The suffix with track category A, B, C etc. pertains to number of peaks

exceeding the outer limit of which category [ b ]

(a) „A‟ Category (b) „B‟ Category (c) „C‟ Category (d) „D‟ Category

153. Acceleration peaks exceeding following is taken for track quality [ b ]

assessment on BG high speed routes.

(a) 0.2g (b) 0.15g (c) 0.35 g (d) 0.3g

154. Which Index is based on SD Values – [ c ]

(a) CTR (b) A, B, C categorisation (c) TGI (d) OMS

155. Track is classified as „Very Good‟ if the average no.of total vertical and

lateral acceleration peaks/Km on High speed routes is – [ b ]

(a) >1.0 (b) <1.0 (c) <1.5 (d) <2.0

156. Urgent attention is required at all locations where vertical & lateral [ d ]

acceleration peaks exceed -

(a) 0.2g (b) 0.15g (c) .30g (d) 0.35g

157. If the average number of peaks of vertical and lateral accelerations exceeding 0.3g is

more than____per km. Or more than____ in any particular km.,the track will need

attention. [ c ]

(a) 1 &1 (b) 0.5 & 1 (c) 0.25 & 1 (d) 0.25 & 2

158. Need for urgent maintenance of track, arises when the value of individual

indices of different parameters of TGI is less than [ d ]

(i) 100 (ii) 75 (iii) 50 (d) 35

159. Frequency of overhauling of a level crossing is once a _______ [ a ]

(a) year (b) two year © six months (d) three

160. Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of ___ m

from the gatepost. [ b ]

(a) 6 (b)8 ©10 (d)20

161. Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to 1,00,000

will be ___years. [ d ]

(a) 1 (b)1 ½ (c)2 (d)2 1/2

162. In skew level crossings, the angle of crossing should not be less than _______0

[ d ]

(a)20 (b)30 ©40 d)45

163. Drivers of trains shall get no light indication except at ________ [ a ]

level crossings where they will observe red lights when the gates are closed across

the railway line and are open for road traffic.

(a)Special (b)A class ©B class (d) C class

164 Level crossings beyond the ____________signals shall be under [ c ]

the control of the Permanent Way Inspectors both as regards to their operation and

maintenance.

(a) Home (b)LSS ©Outermost Stop (d) Starter

165. A gateman should have certificate of fitness of Class _________ [ b ]

from Medical Department.

(a)A-I (b)A-III ©B-I (d)B-II

166. At night the gateman should lit ____nos. hand signal lamps. [ a ]

(a) 2 (b)1 © nil (d)3

167. The minimum clearance of check rails at a level [ b ]

crossing should be ____mm

(a) 41 (b 51 © 61 (d) 31

168. For level crossing with PSC sleepers, in no case opening be [ d ]

delayed by more than __________ years.

(a)half (b)one © one and half (d)Two

169. As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided [ c ]

on either approach of level crossing located within the railway boundary at a distance

maximum feasible but not exceeding __________ m.

(a)5 (b)10 ©20 (d)30

170. There should be no rail joint on running rails for a distance [ c ]

of _____m on either side at a level crossing in SWR

(a)1 (b)2 © 3 (d) 6

171. Minimum number of gate keepers on „B‟ class level crossing should be __________

[ b ]

(a) 1 (b) 2 © 3 (d) 4

172. Whistle indicator board on the approaches of unmanned level crossings [ c ]

should be provided at a distance of

(a) 200m (b) 400 m (c) 600 m (d) 800 m

173. At the close of tamping work in mechanised maintenance [ c ]

P.Way Manual prescribes a ramp gentler than

(a) 1 in 100 b) 1 in 500 (c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 720

174. Hot weather patrolling in LWR/CWR shall be introduced when temperature is [b]

(a) td+ 10˚ or above (b) td + 20˚ or above (c) td + 30˚ or above (d) td + 50˚ or above

175. Formation slope is 1 in _________ [ d ]

(a)10 (b)20 ©30 (d)40

176. Name the equipment that can be effectively used to warn [ a ]

the driver of an approaching train on a track fouled by a derailed train on

an adjacent track _____________

(a)Flare signal (b)Detonator ©Red flag (d)Red lamp

177. What distance from a danger location should [ d ]

3-detonators be fixed on BG?

(a) 270 mtrs. (b) 600 mtrs © 800 mtrs. (d)1200 mtrs

178. During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast [ d ]

is being removed from any sleeper, invariably, there are at least ___ fully supported

sleepers between it and the next sleeper worked upon.

(a)1 (b)2 ©3 (d)4

179. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during [ c ]

monsoon will be identified and notified by the ___________

(a)PWI (b)ADEN ©DEN (d)CTE

180 Who is authorized level of supervisor for deep screening works in LWR works [ c ]

(a)PWM (b)PWI (C) Mate (d) Keyman

181 After emergency repairs to fracture in LWR Track, the first train has to pass at a speed of [ a

]

(a) Stop Dead & 10 kmph (b) Stop Dead & 20 kmph (c) 20 kmph (d) 30 kmph

182 CWR/LWR shall not be laid as curves sharper than __________m radius both[ a ]

For BG and MG track

(a) 440 m (b) 340m (C) 240m (d) 140m

183 Clearance between Guard rail and Running rail on bridges in case of BG track [ a ]

(a) 250 + 50 mm (b) 200 + 25 mm (c) 150 + 25 mm (d) 25 + 25 mm

184. The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through [ a ]

AEN _______ in advance before commencement of monsoon.

(a)1 month (b) 2 months © 3 months (d) 4 months

185. The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and [ a ]

watchmen once in a ____________


186. The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights [ a ]

by train once a __________


187. The _________will be responsible for instructing patrolmen [ a ]

in their duties and ____________will be responsible to ensure that the

patrolmen and stationary watchmen posses the correct equipment.

(a)PWI and MATE (b)ADEN& PWI © DEN & AEN (d) CTE&DEN

188. Overhang beyond the last lifting/ slinging point while [ c ]

lifting 90 UTS rails should not exceed ________ m.

(a)2.5 (b) 3.0 © 3.25 (d)3.5

189. After ignition of „portion‟ in AT welding, efforts should be [ b ]

made to follow a tapping time of very near to ____ sec.

(a)10 (b)20 ©30 (d)40

190. Class „C‟ ODC is one where net clearance available is less [ a ]

than _________mm.

(a) 75 (b)100 ( c) 125 (d) 150

191. For spans more than 6.1m, rail joints should preferably [ c ]

be provided at ____ of span from either end.

(a)full length (b)half ©1/3rd

(d)2/3rd

.

192. Length of bridge timbers should be distance of outside to outside [ b ]

of girder flanges plus _______ mm but not less than _________mm

for B.G.

(a)205 &2340 (b)305&2440 © 405&2220 (d)505&1320

193. The clear distance between bridge timbers at joints [ d ]

should not exceed ________mm both B.G and M.G. is

(a)100 (b)450 ©200 (d)50

194. The top table of the guard rail should not be lower than that of [ d ]

the running rail by more than___________mm.

(a)10 (b)15 ©20 (d)25

195. On the bridge approaches, for a length of about ______mtrs. [ b ]

the width of cess should be ____ cm clear of full ballast section.

(a)50 &100 (b)100 &90 ©150&120 (d)120&60

196. Permissible amount of creep on BG track [ b ]

(a) 100 mm (b) 150 mm (c) 200 mm (d) 250 mm

197. Any deviations from the dimensions of Schedule I will require [ c ]

prior sanction of _______

(a) RDSO (b) PCE © RB (d) CTE

198. In tunnels, through and semi-through girder bridges, the minimum [ b ]

distancecentre to centre of tracks for B.G. shall be ____mm

(a)4495 (b)4725 ©4265 (d)1676

199. The maximum gradient in station yards BG should be __________ [ b ]

unless special safety devices are adopted and/or special rules enforced.

(a)1in260 (b)1in400 ©1in1000 (d)1in1200

200. The recommended minimum distance centre to centre of track BG is [ c ]

_______m, for B.G.

(a)4265 (b)4725 ©5300 (d)1676

201. For B.G, the minimum radius of a curve is ____________m. [ d ]

(a)350 (b)275 ©200 (d)175

202. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for [ b ]

B.G. single line is _______mm

(a)5300 (b)6850 ©6250 (d)4725

203. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for [ b ]

B.G. double line is ____________ mm

(a) 4495 (b)12155 © 4265 (d)1676

204. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. Single line [ c ]

(a) 4495 (b)12550 © 6250 (d)1676

205. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. double line [ b ]

(a)4495 (b)11550 ©4265 (d)1676

206. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is [ d ]

______m or less in B.G.

(a)158 (b)258 ©318 (d)218

207. On B.G., minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at [ b ]

a level crossing are _________mm & ___________mm respectively.

(a)44 &48 (b) 51 & 57 © 41 &45 (d) 48 &54

208. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in B.G. [ c ]

is _________mm.

(a)18 (b)28.5 ©38 (d)44

209. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal [ b ]

distance from centre of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm

above rail level is __________mm.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675 © 1905 (d)1690

210. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal [ c ]

distance from centre of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm

above rail level is __________mm for new works or alterations to existing works.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675 © 1905 (d)1690

211. Minimum distance of any telegraph post measured from the center [ d ]

of track and at right angles to the nearest track excluding the height of postis

__________ mm for B.G.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675 © 1905 (d)2135

212. Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on [ b ]

either side of the centre of track for B.G. for overhead structures is____ mm.

(a) 4540 (b) 4875 © 5905 (d)4690

213 For B.G., maximum height above rail level of any part of [ d ]

interlocking or signal gear for a width of 1600 mm is __________mm.

(a) 95 (b) 85 © 75 (d)65

214. The maximum and minimum horizontal distances from centre of track [ b ]

to face of passenger platform coping for B.G. are ________ mm & ________

mm respectively.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1680 &1670 © 1905 &1675 (d)1690&1575

215. ______mm & _______mm are the maximum and minimum [ c ]

distances from centre of track to the face of goods platform coping for B.G.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1905 &1675 © 1680 &1670 (d)1690&1575

216. The maximum and minimum distances from center of track to [ b]

the face of any platform wall are ___________mm & ____________mm respectively.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1905 &1675 © 1680 &1670 (d)1690&1575

217. Maximum and minimum heights above rail level for B.G. high level [ a ]

passenger platforms are __________ mm & ___________ mm.

(a) 840 &760 (b) 950 &1050 © 1680 &1670 (d)1690&1575

218. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platforms is _____mm [ c ]

(a) 1500 (b) 1200 © 1065 (d)1690

219. The minimum horizontal distance of any building on B.G. passenger [ c ]

platforms fromcentre line of track, from platform level to 305mm above

platform level is

(a) 5540mm (b) 5180

© 5180mm gradually increasing

uniformly to 5330mm (d)5330 gradually decreasing to 5180

220. The minimum horizontal distance from centre line of track to [ a ]

a pillar, column, lamp or similar isolated structure on a passenger

platform or any building on a goods platform from platform

level to 305mm above platform level for B.G_________ mm.

(a) 4570mm increasing uniformly to 4720mm

(b)4720mm decreasing uniformly to 4570mm

©4570 mm. (d)4720 mm.

221. A pillar or column which has more than ___________cm2 in plan for [ c ]

B.G. must be classed building and not as isolated structure.

(a) 1550 (b) 1915 © 3716 (d)2560

222. The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted[ a ]

bridge on BG should not exceed_____________

(a)510 mm (b)650 mm (c)450mm (d)150

223. The width of BG wooden sleeper over bridge should be ___________mm [ c ]

(a)180 mm (b)210 mm ( c) 250 mm (d) 300 mm

224. Vertical curves are introduced when the algebraic difference between two [ b]

grades becomes equal to or more than _______%

a) 0.04 b) 0.40 c) 4.00 (d) 0.20

225. In single line CST-9 sleeper track, the keys are to be driven in the direction [ c]

a) Along the traffic b) Against the traffic

c) Opposite to each other on alternate sleepers

d) Three sleepers in one direction and fourth in opposite direction

226. In need based system of USFD testing, rail with IMR defect should be [ c]

replaced within

a) 10 days b) 5 days c) 3 days (d) 7 days

227. In BG track, the opening of road for through packing should be done [ a]

from end of sleeper to a distance of ______ inside the rail seat

a) 450 mm b) 350mm c) 250mm (d) 150mm

228. In case of mass lubrication by gangs, the minimum level of supervision [ a]

should be

a) PWay Supervisor b) APWI c) Gang Mate d) CPWI

229. Toe Load should be tested for ERC in other than corrosion prone areas [ b]

for every

a) 2 years or after passage of 100 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

b) 4 years or after passage of 200 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

c) None of the above.

230. The minimum depth of ballast cushion for SWR track is [ b]

a) 150mm b) 200 mm c) 250mm (d) 300 mm

231. In a turnout, the turnout side stock rail should be given a bend at [ c]

a) Actual Toe of Switch b) Heel of Switch © Theoretical Toe Switch

(d) SRJ

232. The work that requires CRS sanction is [ c]

(a) Alteration in main line turnouts

b) Permanent diversion of 1 km length with station

c) All the above

233 IR Designation of a curve is done by [ a]

a) degree

b) radius

c) degree or radius

d) Curvature

234. Degree of a curve of radius 1750m [ b]

a) 1.25 b) 1 c) 2 c) 0.5

235. Dynamic gauge for BG [ a]

a)1750mm b) 1776 mm b)1676mm c) 1057mm

236. The difference between actual cant provided on track and the cant [ b]

calculated corresponding to minimum speed in the section

a) cant deficiency

b) cant excess

c) rate of change of cant

d) equilibrium cant

237. Maximum permissible cant deficiency on BG Group D route is [ c]

a) 100mm. b) 65mm .c) 75mm d) 50 mm

238. Cant gradient is [ b]

a) actual cant/cant defficiency

b) actual cant / transition length

c) actual cant/cant excess

d) actual cant / length of a curve

239. The compensation for curve when added to the Existing gradient should not exceed

the______ [ c]

(a) Falling gradient (b) Rising gradient (c) Ruling gradient (d) Exceptional gradient

240.Recommended center to center distance of tracks for new lines_______ [ c]

(a) 7265mm (b)4265mm ©5300mm (d)4725mm

241.Minimum radius of curve___________mtrs. [

a]

(a) 175 (b) 200 © 225 (d)250

242. Maximum clearance of check rail at level crossing___________ [

d]

(a) 44mm (b) 51mm © 48mm (d)57mm

243. Minimum horizontal distances, Telegraph posts measured from the center of

track and at right angles to the nearest track is Ht. of Telegraph post__mm

(a)1635 (b) 1915 © 1675 (d)2135 [ d]

244. The maximum distance apart from refuges in the tunnel_______mtrs. [ c]

(a) 125 (b) 80 © 100 (d) 50

245. Maximum gradient of the station yard 1 in __________ [

b]

(a) 1200 (b) 400 © 100 (d)500

246. Recommended gradient in station yard_________________________[ a]

(a) 1200 (b) 400 © 100 (d)500

247. Horizontal distance from center of track to place of any platform wall Minimum

________mm. and Maximum______________mm [ b]

(a) 1600,1800 (b) 1675,1905 © 1905,1670 (d)1670,1680

248. The Maximum height above the rail level for high level platform_________________ [

d]

(a) 760mm (b) 1000mm © 900mm (d)840mm

249. Minimum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing is [ b ]

(a) 57mm (b) 44mm © 48mm (d)51mm

250. Maximum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing__________[ c]

(a) 57mm (b) 44mm © 48mm (d)51mm

251. Minimum length of tongue rail ______________________ [ d

]

(a) 1200m (b)1425mm © 3200mm (d)3660mm

252. The range of Destressing temperature for 52 kg. rails is Tm+5Deg. To Tm+10 Degrees

Centigrade

254. Minimum radius of vertical curve in LWR of Group `A‟ route is -- [ d]

(a) 1550 m (b) 1915m © 3716m (d) 4000 m

284. How many Fuses to be available with the gate keeper on Double and multiple

lines?________________________ [ c ]

(a) 1 (b)2 ©3 (d)4

287. Rail dolly shall not work where gradient is steeper than________ [ b ]

(a) 1 in 400 (b)1 in 200 (c)1 in 100 (d) 1 in 300

288.Minimum no. of men required for working of Trolleys [ d ]

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

289. Tolerance for head finishing on side at welding with 10 cm. straight edge

(a) +-0.1mm (b)+0.3mm. (c)-0.3mm (d) +-0.3mm [ d ]

290. Preheating time for AT welding by SKV process is in minutes for

60kg.(90UTS) rails [ c ]

(a)6-8 (b)8-10 (c)10-12 (d)4-6

291. Frequency of refresher course for keyman/ Mate/PWM is once in

(a) 2 years (b)6 years (c)8 years (d) 5 years [ d]

292. When more than one track machine is running in a block section, there should be a

minimum distance of ________ m between two units. [ a]

(a) 120m (b)160m (c)200m (d)220m

293.Lubrication of ERCs should be done once in a _________in corrosion prone area. [ d ]

(a)4 years (b)3 years (c)2 years (d) year

294. Metal lines are used in track circuit areas with PSC track [ b ]

(a) True (b) False (c) irrelevant

295. Medical category of LC gateman is [ c ]

(a) A1 (b)A2 (c)A3 (d)B1

296. Speed restriction on the fourth day after Deep screening manually in BG line

[ c ]

(a) 30 Kmph (b)20Kmph (c)45 Kmph (d)50 Kmph

297. Limiting lateral wear for rail renewal in `A‟ route curved track [ d ]

(a) 6mm (b) 7mm (c) 4mm (d) 8mm

298. The limit for vertical wear for 60 kg. rail is [ d ]

(a) 4.5mm (b)5.0mm (c) 8.0mm (d)13.0mm

299.Whereever LWR is followed by fish plated track/SWR, the same track

structure as that of LWR shall be continued beyond SEJ for- [ b ]

(a)two rail length. (b)three rail length.

(c)four rail length. (d)five rail length.

300. In other than concrete sleeper track, if the temperature rises above td + 20deg.C after

a maintenance job, during the period of consolidation, when only manual ballast

compaction has been done, SR to be imposed is –[a]

(a)50 km/h in BG and 40 km/h in MG

(b)30 km/h in BG and 20 km/h in MG

(c)75 km/h in BG and 50 km/h in MG

(d) 30 km/h in BG and 10 km/h in MG

301 .While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to rise

above td+10 deg. C, [ c]

(a)stop the work (b)cut the LWR

(c)do a temporary distressing at 10 deg.C lower than maximum anticipated

rail temperature

(d) Tamping destressing is not necessary

302. While continuiong the LWR over a girder bridge the rail- sleeper fittings

should be [ a ]

(a)rail free type (b)rigid type (c)two way keys (d) Freed type

303. Gap survey of a SWR has to be done – [ c ]

(a)just before the monsoon (b)just after the monsoon

(c)before the onset of the summer season in Feb /March

(d) during summer

304. The distressing by tensor can be done whem temperature

prevailing (tp) is – [ b ]

a)More than td

(b)Less than td

(c)Equal to td

(d) td + 5˚ C

305. In a yard with LWR/ glued joints are used for track circuiting areas [ b ]

(a)_______________ joints (b)glued joints

(c)fish plated joint (d) _____________ fish plated joint

306.The maximum curvature permitted for laying an LWR is [ a ]

(a)4 degree (b)2 degree (c)1 degree (d) 50 degree

307. SEJs are inspected by the PWI / APWI once [ b ]

(a)every 15 days

(b)every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once in e

months from the remaining period

(c)every 7 days

(d)Once in every month

308.Generally, while performing through packing manually on LWR, opening of

sleepers is limited to – [ c ]

(a) upto 100 sleepers to opened at a time

(b) no restriction but the temperature restriction to be observed

(c) only 30 sleepers to be opened within a temperature range

of td + 10 and td- 30 deg.C

(d) Only 50 sleepers

310. For checking correct curvature of tongue rail, ordinates should be measured

[ c ]

(a)at every 3m (b)at mid point of the tongue rail

(c)atmid point and quarter points of the tongue rail

(d) at every 6 m.

311 On a fan shaped layout same sleepers can be used for a right hand T/O and

left hand T/O. For this purpose [ a ]

(a)right end of the sleepers should remain on right side

(b)right end of the sleepers should be brought towards the left side by

rotating the sleepers

(c)sleepers in the switch should remain as it is but those in the lead should be ratated

to bring the right end to the left.

(d) Sleeper can be laid in any way.

312. Behind the heel of a switch spherical washers should be fitted on [ a ]

(a)left hand side(b) right hand side(

313.Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turn-out is 6m.

314. As per the provisions of IRPWM, the gauge just ahead of actual toe switch shall be Neat

for switch entry angle (SEA) < 0˚ 20‟ 0” and + 6mm SEA > 0˚ 20‟ 0”

315.Frequency of inspection of Points & Crossings on running lines by a PWI incharge& his

assistant on running lines is once in 3 months by rotation

316. Max. Permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ curved switch is 15kmph and that on 1 in 12 curved

switch is 30 kmph

317. Max. permissible wear on nose of crossing & wing rail is 10 mm.

318. The gap to be maintained at a Machined joint is Zero

319. Rail Joints should be avoided within 3m of a bridge abutment.

320. Desirable clearance between top of stretcher bar and bottom of stock rail is 1.5 to 3.0

mm

321.Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve is 150 mm.

322. On wooden sleeper track, the number of spikes/ sleeper on the outside of a

curve is Two

323.The permitted gauge variation on 3 deg. Curve is – 3 mm. to + 6 mm.

324.Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is 15 mm

325.TrackGeomentry to be achieved after track maintenance should be

better than [ b]

(a)New Track Tolerance (b)Maintenance Tolerance

(c)Service Tolerance (d) Normal tolerance

326. Track is classified as „Very Good‟ if total no. of vertical and lateral acceleration

peaks/km on High speed routes is – [ b ]

(a)>1.0 (b)<1.0 (c)<1.5 (d) <0.5

327.The standard play on BG is [ b ]

(a)25mm (b)19mm (c)20mm (d) 16mm

328.Emergency crossovers should be [ a]

(a)lubricated on the gauge faces to reduce derailment proneness

(b)lubricated on the rail table to reduce derailment proneness

(c)lubricated on the gauge tie plates to reduce derailment proneness

(d)Lubricated on non-guageface to reduce derailment proneness

329. The effect on wheel off loading in a vehicle having spring defect in two

diagonally opposite spring is a result of [ a ]

(a) twist

(b) alignment

(c) versine

(d)Superelevation

330.Wear on switches can be reduced by [a ]

(a)Lubrication of guage face of tongue rail

(b) Lubrication of guage face of stove rail

© Lubrication of non-guage face of tongue rail

(d) Lubrication of non-guage face of stove rail

331. A false flange may split open points while traveling in [ b ]

(a)leading direction (b)trailing direction (c)both the above condition

(d) Straight track

332.In design mode of levelling, lift values should be fed at [ a ]

(a)front bogie of tamping machine (b)at middle measuring trolley

(c)at the rear measuring trolley (d) Rear bogie of tamping machine

333.At the close of tamping work in mechanized maintenance, P.Way Manual

prescribes a ramp gentler than [ c ]

(a)1 in 100 (b)1 in 500 (c)1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 400

334.Minimum length of check rail, for a square crossing, should be 3 m more than

width of gate

335.Frequency of overhauling of a level crossing is Once a year

336.Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to 1,00,000 will be

2 1/2 years.

337.Level crossings beyond the outermost stop signals shall be under the control of the

Permanent Way Inspectors both as regards to their operation and maintenance.

338.At night the gateman should lit Two nos hand signal lamps.

339.For level crossing with PSC sleepers , in no case opening be delayed by more than Two

years.

340. As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided on either approach of level

crossing located within the railway boundary at a distance maximum feasible but not

exceeding 20 m.

341. If a patrolman on the arrival at the end of his beat does not find the next patrolman he

should still continue patrolling as per patrol chart

342. When no danger is apprehended, the patrolman should stand on the cess on the right

hand side facing the train and exhibit his number plate.

343. The Railway Affecting Tank which still requires heavy repairs, despite repeated

reminders of Railway, should be considered and included in the list of vulnerable

locations.

344. Distance pieces are used to obviate the possibility of infringement of the horizontal

distance from centre of track to face of platform coping.

(a)True (b) False [ a ]

345. Caked cushion below sleeper causes increased fractures [ a ]

(a)True (b)False

346.The minimum width of Cess in formation [ b ]

(a)600mm (b)900mm (c)500mm (d) 1000mm

347. Works of “short duration” are the works which can be completed by sunset

and no S/R thereafter is required.

348. The device used for compensating the wear of the fishing planes of at free rail joint

Tapered shims

349.At what distance from a danger location should 3 detonators be fixed on BG

1200 mtrs.

350.Easement gradient at the time of passage of trains while doing lifting should

not be steeper than 25 mm per rail length of 13 mtrs.

351. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified

and notified by the DEN

352 A formation is classified as bad when number of attentions required in a year is 6 to

12

353. Patrolling in pairs can be introduced with the approval of Chief Engineer

354. The selected patrolman should pass A3 medical test and then only should be

employed.

355. The PWI incharge should check the gang tools once in a month

356. The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and watchmen once in a month

357. The PWI in charge should check over patrolling at nights by train once a month

358. A list of vulnerable locations should be maintained by each ADEN/DEN in a register

form and updated.

359. The flagman placing detonators should station himself at a distance not less than 45 m

from the place of detonators.

360. Indicators shall be placed on the left side as seen by the drivers except on CTC sections

(S/L) where they should be placed on rightside

361. When works at times of poor visibility are to be undertaken and site is protected by

temporary engineering fixed signals Twodetonators, 10m apart be fixed not less than

270 m in rear of Caution Indicator and caution hand signal exhibited to approaching

trains.

362. The safety radius at the time of testing of detonators is 50 m.

363. The bottom most parts of Caution & speed Indicators should be 2 m above R.L and

that of T/P & T/G should be 1.65 m above R.L

364. When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the

man

who is manning the brakes is responsible for its safe working

365. Guard rails should be provided on all girder bridges whether major or minor

(a) True (b) False [ a]

366. In through girder bridges on double line, the guard rails should be splayed on both

end/ends on both line/lines

367. For spans more than 6.1 m, rail joints should preferable be provided at 1/3 of span

from

either end.

368. Depth of bridge timbers excluding notching should not be less than 150

mm for B.G.

369. Length of bridge timbers should be distance from outside to outside of girder flanges

plus 305 mm but not less than 2440 mm for B.G.

370. On the bridge approaches for a length of 100 m, the width of cess should be 90 cm.

clear of full ballast section.

371. In tunnels, through and semi through girder bridges, the minimum centre to centre

distance of tracks for B.G shall be 4725 mm for new works.

372. In tunnels, through and semi through girder bridges, the minimum centre to centre

distance of tracks for B.G shall be 4495mm for existing lines

373. The recommended minimum widths of cutting excluding side drains for B.G. single

line is 6.25 m

374. The recommended minimum widths of embankment of B.G. single line is 6.850 m

375. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in B.G is 38 mm.

376. For B.G. maximum height above rail level of any part of interlocking or signal gear

for a width of 1600mm is 64 mm.

377. The maximum and minimum horizontal distances from centre of track to face of

passenger platform coping for B.G are 1680 mm & 1670 mm respectively

378. 1680 mm & 1670 mm are the maximum and minimum distances from centre of track

to the face of goods platform coping for B.G.

379. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platforms ( except horse and

end loading platforms) is 1065 mm.

380. Maximum accumulation of LAP is _______days [ c ]

(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400

381. LAP is and advance credit at the rate of _______ days for every

half year. [ b ]

(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25

382. The maximum days Lap can be availed at a time is _______days. [ a ]

(a) 180 (b) 200 (c) 20 (d) 300

383. LHAP is an advance credit at the rate of _______days for every half year. [ d ]

(a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 10

384 The eligibility of CL for field staff is _______ [ a ]

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12

385. If a male employee undergone family planning operation, then he is

eligible for _______days as a special casual leave [ b ]

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 12

386 If a female employee undergone family planning operation, then she is

eligible for _______days as a special casual leave [ c]

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16

387.If a male employee‟s wife undergone for family planning operation

then male employee is eligible for _______days as special casual leave [ d ]

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 7

388. Maternity leave for female Rly.employee is eligible for _______days[ a ]

(a) 135 (b) 120 (c) 150 (d) 90

389.Paternity leave for male Rly.employee is eligible for _______days.

[ c ]

(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20

390.The no. of privilege passes eligible for a Rly.Employee having three

and a half years of service is _______ set. [ a ]

(a) 1 set (b) 2 sets (c) 3 sets (4) 4 sets

391. The Standard Form (SF) used for minor penalty charge sheet is_______

[ c ]

(a) SF 5 b) SF 1 c) SF11 d) SF3

392. The Standard Form (SF) used for major penalty charge sheet is

_______ [ a ]

(a) SF 5 b) SF 1 c) SF1 d) SF3

393. The validity of half set privilege pass_______ [ c ]

(a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 4 months

394 When employee is kept under suspension, he is eligible for

_____________________ [ a ]

(a) Subsistence Allowance (b) Failing Allowance (c) Supervision Allowance

395 When was the official language act formed _____ [ c ]

(a) 1947 b) 1956 c) 1963 d) 1976

396. When the official language rules were formed _______[ c ]

(a) 1947 b) 1956 c) 1963 * d) 1976

397. As per OL policy Jammu& Kashmir comes under ________ region

[ b ]

(a) A b) B* c) C d) none

398. Leave on average pay of a Railway servant will be credited with

_______days in a year. [ a ]

(a) 30 b) 20 c) 10 d) 40

399.A railway servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay of

_______ days in respect of each completed year of service.[ b ]

(a) 15 b) 20 c) 15 d) 30

400.Maximum leave on half average pay that can be granted at one time is _______

Months [ c ]

(a) 12 b) 16 c) 24 d) 18

401.LHAP can be converted into half the period of such leave on an

average pay on medial grounds is called ________[ d ]

(a) Sick Leave b) Rest Leave c) Hospital Leave d) Commuted

Leave

402.LAPupto a maximum of _______days shall be allowed to be

commuted during entire service. [ d ]

(a) 90 b) 120 c) 150 d) 180

403.„Leave not due‟ during the entire service shall be limited to a

maximum of _______ days on medical certificate [ c ]

(a) 180 b) 250 c) 360 d) 300

404.Maximum number of dependents can be included in a pass / PTO

_______ [ a ]

(a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1

405.Group „D‟ employees with service 25 years and more are eligible

for ____ set of post retirement complimentary passes every year

[ b ]

(a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

406.Reduction to a lower time scale of grade is a _______penalty.[ c]

(a) Censure b) Minor c) Major d) Stipulated

407.The appointment of enquiring authority is done on a standard form

no. _______ [a ]

(a) 7 b) 5 c) 11 d) 8

408.In case of major penalties, the final orders passed by the disciplinary

authority, giving reasons for, are known as_______. [a ]

(a) Speaking (b) Penalty (c) Punishment (d) passing

****0000000****

Question Bank for Works- Objective Type Questions

1. For construction of Independent Bungalows shall be approved by ------

2. Requirement of Water per head/per day in quarters = ----------

3. Group latrines shall not located with in --- meters of living quarters.

4. Group latrines shall not located with in --- meters of Cook House/Food Stall.

5. Group latrines shall not located with in ---meters of well supplying drinking

water.

6. GAD of Buildings hall be approved by ----- officer in PCE‟s office.

7. No of water closets required for male in Office having 40 persons are-----

8. No of water closets required for male in Office having 51 persons are-----

9. No of water closets required for Female in Office having 40 persons are -----

10. No of water closets required for Female in Office having 46 persons are -----

11. No of Urinals required in Office having 6 persons are -----

12. No of Urinals required in Office having 7 -20 persons are -----





17. No of Wash Basins required in Office having 15 persons are -----

18. No of Wash Basins required in Office having 26 persons are -----

19. No of Drinking Water Fountains required in Office having 100 persons are ---

--

20. Height of Dado for wall in Hospitals/Dispensaries is --------

21. Annual Zonal Contract commences from ----------

22. The Chairman of Colony Committee is -------

23. The Colony Committee will hold meeting once in every ------ months

24. Colony Committee should be formed in colonies having more than ------

quarters

25. The Inspection of Colony by Colony Committee shall be once in every ------

months

26. Inspection of Work Shops, Running Sheds, Platform covers by SE (Works)

shall be once in ----

27. Inspection of Hoardings by the side of running lines by SE (Works) shall be once

in----

28. All structures constructed and commissioned by Construction Organization

shall be taken over by Open line within --- days

29. A minimum retention of ---- days is required for anaerobic digestion.

30. Area of Type I quarter is ---------

31. Area of Type II quarter is --------

32. Area of Type III quarter is -------

33. Area of Type IV quarter is -------

34. Area of Type V quarter is --------

35. In Type V Qrs car garrage will be provided for ----% of the number of Units

36. For effective drainage in Water Proofing System Slope required is -----

37. The fillet of ------ mm is to be provided at the junction of parapet with roof.

38. The categorization of stations shall be reviewed in once in every -------- Years.

39. All suburban stations are included in ----- category.

40. Augmentation of Passenger Amenities for existing stations shall be charged

under ----------------- Plan Head.

41. Expand PAMS - -------------------------

42. Size of Booking Cubical =--------------

43. Booking Counter width = -------m

44. Booking Counter height above floor level = -------m

45. The length of the platform should be adequate to accommodate -------

46. Height of the High Level Plat form of BG =

47. Height of the High Level Plat form of MG =

48. Height of the Low Level Plat form of BG =

49. Height of the Low Level Plat form of MG =

50. In case of Single face Plat forms the Platform should have a slope of -----------

away from the coping up to edge of the Berm

51. In case of two face (Island) Plat forms the Platform should have a slope of ----

------- away from the canter of platform up to Coping on either side.

52. A demarcation line should be drawn ------ m from the edge of the platform

53. The height of fencing of hedging for all single faced platforms = -------

54. The height of berm of Platform fencing = -------

55. Where the electricity is not available the responsibility of provision, repairs

and Maintenance of the lampposts will be the responsibility of ----------

Department.

56. The capacity of station platforms in discharging passengers per meter width in

suburban stations is --------

57. The capacity of station platforms in discharging passengers per meter width in

Non suburban stations is --------

58. At non suburban stations other than Junction & Terminal stations, waiting

rooms shall only be provided if the number of upper class passengers dealt

with daily is equal or more than -------

59. The central horizontal axis of the board should be at a height of ----- m above

the platform surface.

60. Height of letters of Principal & Secondary Name boards = -------

61. Height of letters of Tertiary Name boards = -------

62. Colour of letters of Name board in non suburban stations is ------

63. The colour of Platform sign boards for passenger Amenities is ------

64. The colour of Platform sign boards for Important Offices is -------

65. ----------- colour arrows at a height of --------- m above platform level should

be painted for passenger amenities.

66. Size of the Platform Number sign Board is ---------

67. Size of the letters of Platform Number sign Board is ---------

68. Colour of letters of Platform number sign boards = ---------

69. Category „A‟ station should have an annual passenger earning of Rs. -------

70. Category „B‟ station should have an annual passenger earning of. -------

71. Category „D‟ station should have an annual passenger earning of. -------

72. Category „E‟ station should have an annual passenger earning of. -------

73. Category „F‟ stations are --------- Stations

74. Min. number of Taps in „A‟ Category station PF = -----

75. Min. number of Taps in „B‟ Category station PF = -----

76. Min. number of Taps in „C‟ Category station PF = -----

77. Min. number of Taps in „D‟ Category station PF = -----

78. Min area of Waiting Room in „A‟ Category Station ----- Sqm

79. Min area of Waiting Room in „B‟ Category Station ----- Sqm

80. Min area of Waiting Room in „C‟ Category Station ----- Sqm

81. Min area of Waiting Room in „D‟ Category Station ----- Sqm

82. Min. number of Urinals in „A‟ Category station PF = ----------

83. Min. number of Urinals in „B‟ Category station PF = ----------

84. Min. number of Urinals in „C‟ Category station PF = ------

85. Min. number of Urinals in „D‟ Category station PF = ------

86. Min. number of Urinals in „E‟ Category station PF = ------

87. Min. number of Latrines in „A‟ Category station PF = -----

88. Min. number of Latrines in „B‟ Category station PF = -----

89. Min. number of Latrines s in „C‟ Category station PF = -----

90. Min. number of Latrines in „D‟ Category station PF = -----

91. Min. number of Latrines in „E‟ Category station PF = ------

92. Requirement of water per head in Office is -----------

93. Requirement of water per head in Work Shop is -----------

94. Requirement of water for Apron washing per Sqm -----------

95. Requirement of Platform washing per Sqm -----------

96. Requirement of water per passenger on Railway Station -----------

97. Requirement of water for washing of carriages on washing lines -----------

98. Requirement of water for cleaning of carriages on platform -----------

99. Requirement of water for Gardens per Hectare -----------

100. Requirement of water in Hospital per bed -----------

101. Commission of railway safety works under ----------------------

A) Ministry of Railways C) Ministry of civil aviation

B) Home ministry D) Zonal railway concerned.

102.The position of a point can be fixed more accurately --------------

A) Cross staff. C) Oblique square

B) Optical square D) Perpendicular offset.

103. Different grades are joined together by -----------

A) Compound curve C) Reverse curve

B) Transition curve D) Vertical curve

104.The height of stacks of cement while cement is being stored should not exceed

A) 10 bags C) 20 bags

B) 15 bags D) None of above

105. Bricks before being used in works must be soaked in water

for a period not less than

A) A full night C) 10 hours

B) 6 hours D) None of above

106. Grades of concrete for reinforced shall not be lower than

A) M 10 C) M 20

B) M 15 D) M 7..5

107. Size of cubicle of a booking office is kept as

A) 1.20 m * 1.50 m C) 1.50m * 1.80m

B) 1.50 m * 1.20 m D) 1.80 m * 1.50 m

108. The width of bank at the top of formation B.G single line is kept as

A) 9.25 m C) 6.85 m

B) 1.676 m D) None of above

109. The maximum thickness of earth layer while doing earthwork in embankment.

A) 60 cm B)1 m C) 45 cm D) 30 cm.

110. While taking sample of water from tap

A) The mouth of tap is heated for 5minutes

B) The mouth of tap is heated for10 minutes

C) The mouth of tap is not heated

111. Demand of water for passengers on railway station

A) 10 liters per passenger C) 20 liters per passenger

B) 15 liters per passenger D)25 liters

112. A commonly used hand-pump is the

A) Centrifugal pump C) Rotary pump

B) Reciprocating pump D) Axial flow pump

113.Traps are used in household drainage systems to

A) Prevent entry of foul gases in the houses

B) Restrict the flow of water

C) Provide partial vacuum

D) Trap the solid wastes

114. In case of water crosses danger level of a bridge

A) Speed restriction is imposed.

B) Traffic be suspended till water recedes

C) Traffic be suspended till a responsible person

inspects the site and

declares it safe for running

115. Drift method of tunneling is used to construct tunnel in

A) Soft ground. B) Rock

C) Self supporting ground D) broken ground

116.The hardness of water that can be removed simply by boiling is called

A) Permanent hardness. B) Temporary hardness

C) No hardness is removed D) Both type of hardness is removed

117. Specific yield of well is

A) Discharge per unit time.

B) Yield of well per meter of draw –down

C) Velocity of water per unit time.

118. Side slopes in cutting are kept as

A) 2:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:3 D) 1: 2

119. The nominal size of modular bricks is

A) 20CMx 10CMx 10 CM B) 23 cm x 11.4 x 7.6 cm

C) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm D) 23 cm x 13 cm x 10 cm

120. Slump value of concrete while doing work under water

A) Not less than 180 mm

B) Not more than 180 mm

C) Dry concrete is to poured

121. Each blank muster sheet before issue should be initialed on the top by the

A) Office clerk in charge

B) S E (p.way /works /bridge)

C) Assistant engineer

122. The colour scheme to be maintained for buffer stops ---------------------------------

123.The annual zonal contract, which generally commences from --------------- of

each year.

A) 1st January B) 1

st July C) Any date

124. On flat roof, slope of 1 in 60 shall be given True / false

125 .The railway stations categorized A, B, C, D, E& F depending up on

A) Annual goods earnings

B) Annual passenger earnings

C) According to plat-form area, passenger amenities etc

126. The ends of the platforms should be provided with ramps at a slope not steeper

than

A) 1 in 15 B) 1 in 10 C) 1 in 6

127. The height of the lower edge of the principal and secondary name boards should

be----------- above the plat-form

A) 1.8 m B) 2.0 C) 2.5

128. The requirement of water railway office -------------------------- is estimated as

A) 30 liters per head.

B) 45 liters per head

C) 50 liters per head

129. Minimum residual chlorine available at the farthest end of distribution system of

water supply shall be

A) 0.1 mg per liter

B) 0.2 mg per liter

C) 0.5 mg per liter

130. The PH value of standards of quality of drinking water

A) 5 to 6.5

B) 6.5 to 8.5

C) >10

131. The septic tank acts as sedimentation –cum-digestion tank. True / false

132.The drawing sheet AO the size

A) 210 mm x 297 mm

B) 297 mm x 420 mm

C) 841 mm x 1189 mm

D) 594 mm x 841 mm

133. Minimum horizontal distance from center of track to any structure from R.L to

305 mm above R.L -----------------------------

134. Maximum distance apart of refuges in tunnels ------------------------

135. Recommended gradient in station yards------------------------------------

136. Minimum height above R.L of signal gantry or FOB in a passenger station -------

137. Minimum width of cutting for single line in B.G section -----------------------------

--

138. A fouling mark is provided between two converging track at a point beyond

which the center to center distance of track is less than the minimum TRUE /

FALSE

139. Minimum free board of Railway Bridge is---------------------------------

A) 600 mm

B) 750 mm C) 1000 mm

140. The minimum thickness of jacketing should be ------------------- for strengthening

of old bridge.

A) 150 mm B) 200 mm C) 300 mm

141. Demand No:4 -------------------------------------------------

142. Inspection of building & structuredone by Section Engineer (works) in

A) Once a month C) Once a year

B) Once in 6 months D) Once in 3 years

143. If the RL of a B.M is 100.00 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and the fore sight is

1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m; the R.L of the forward station is

A) 99.345 m C) 100.665 m

B) 100.345 m D) 101.870 m

144. Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete is

A) 0.30 C) 0.50

B) 0.40 D) 0.6

145. Trestles can be used up to a height of ---------

A) 6.10 m B) 12.20 m C) 18.3 m

146. Bentonite is used in pile driving

A) To facilitate pile driving C) To stabilize the bore hole walls

B) To enable proper pile concreting

147. For how much time contractor is to maintain the bank or cutting done by him

A) 12 months

B) 6 months

C) 10 months.

148. Expansion joints in a masonry walls are provided in wall lengths greater than

A) 10 m C) 30 m

B) 20 m D) 40 m

149. For DAR purpose to impose major penalty for employee which Standard Form to

be issued by administration

A) Form no: 11 B) Form no: 5 C) Form no: 8

150. Train Drivers and guards can be classified as per HOER

A) Intensive C) Excluded

B) Essentially intermittent D) Continuous

151. Waiting rooms should be considered only if the number of upper class

passengers dealt with daily is more than………nos.

152. There should be a waiting hall of …………Sq/m in „D‟ category station

153. A sound, well burnt first class brick should give a clear…………….sound when

struck

154. The specification for ordinary port land cement shall confirm to IS…………

155. Earth work should be compacted in layers of………..cm

156. Under normal circumstances the mix proportion for plastering of inside of

building is 1:…………

157. The height of brick work in one day shall not generally exceed………meters.

158. Pitching work should be test checked by AEN by………..percentage.

159. M-150 design mix concrete approximately correspond to 1:……:……

160. Brick masonry weigh……….Kg/Cubicmetre

161. How many urinals are required for an office where 75 persons work ?

162. How many water closets are required for a workshop where 64 persons work?

163. Staff canteens, kitchens should be provided with a dado of……….meters in

height on the walls.

164. Addition, alteration to staff quarters only of a temporary nature may be permitted

to be done by the occupant with the prior approval of…………….Engineer.

165. Write the full form of SMR

166. Waiting rooms need not be provided at Suburban stations in…….category

stations.

167. The minimum diameter of railway water pipe is………….mm

168. In what languages and order in which station names will be written?

169. The booking counter is placed at a height of…………..mm above floor level.

170. The minimum self-cleaning velocity is………meter /sec.

171. Vertical joints in brick work shall be …………….mm thick and bed joints shall

be the same with a permissible variation of + 1mm.

172. New brickwork shall be jointed to the old brickwork by toothing out alternate

course of the old work at least by……….cm deep.

173. How many grades of concrete are there?

174. The script for the station names in Hindi shall be…………….

175. The rate of flow at delivery end on Hydrant shall not be less

than………….liters/minute.

176. A water main line should be laid such that there is at least…………m separation,

horizontally from any existing or proposed drain or sewer line.

177. Consumption of water for office per head is…………liters

178. There should be…………Nos of taps of each platform on „A‟ category station.

179. Sewer should be designed for a maximum velocity of…………meters/sec.

180. Expand the abbreviation DRG.

181. Sand should not contain more than……….percentage of silt or clay.

182. Water used for concreting shall be fit for……….

183. Earth work should be compacted so as to obtain value not less

than………..percentage of the maximum dry density.

184. No excavated earth is dumped within……….meters on the top of cutting of any

excavation unless permitted by the Engineer.

185. When hand mixing of concrete is specifically permitted by appropriate

authority,……. percentage of extra cement at the cost of the contractor shall be

used.

186. When the super structure of a building is 0.6 metre or more in height above

plinth level, the plinth area shall be filled with earth or sand in……..cms layers.

187. Black cotton soil if stacked and taken measurement, a deduction of……to……

percentage will be done at the description of the Engineer.

188. The highest size of sieve for sewing sand is……….mm.

189. Ordinary cement weigh……….Kg/Cubic metre.

190. Dry loose earth weigh………..Kg/Cubic metre

191. What is the minimum residual pressure for water supply at Ferrule point for a

two storied building?

192. Where depths are measured by levelling instruments and staff, measurements

shall be taken correct to……..mm.

193. Sand……….. to a substantial extent when it is wet.

194. How many grading zones for sand?

195. For reinforced concrete work, coarse aggregate having a maximum size

of………mm is generally considered satisfactory.

196. Building register shall be maintained up to date and show complete details of

each structure, as per para…… of the Indian Railway code of engineering

department.

197. Section Engineer should inspect all the buildings, water supply installations etc

once

in…….months.

198. Structures situated along side of running lines to be inspected by section

Engineer once in… months.

199. Colony committee should be formed in big colonies having more

than……quarters normally

200. Rest houses interior white washing schedule is once in…. ..years.

201. For systematic plantation, each Division should prepare ………..plan for every

subdivision and plantation work should be carried out accordingly.

202. Hedges cutting should be done once in ……months.

203 Survey of surviving trees should be made once in a………….

204. Mates and supervisors should be trained using facilities available with……..

institutions or elsewhere.

205. Land Acquisition Act is of…..(mention the year)

206. The ownership of all land held by the Railway vests in the…. ….,the interest of

the Railway being confined to the rights of occupation as user.

207. Land records register should be maintained in the …….office.

208. Indian explosive Act is of…..(mention year)

209. Blasting operations within……meters of a running line should normally be

carried out under block protection.

210. The destruction of explosives should, in all cases be supervised by the… ...

211. D&A rules come into force with effect from…..(Write date,month and year)

212. A Railway Servant may be placed under suspension by the competent authority

as mentioned in the …. …. …..

213. Time limit for appeal is … days from the date on which the appellant receives a

copy of the punishment order.

214. ……..is not a punishment

215. While forming the 2002 SSR, the rates of materials and labor prevalent in the

year…….have been taken into consideration.

216. As per SSR item for earth work, rates include lead up to…..meter and lift up

to…..meter.

217. Deduction towards voids for sandy material is…..percentage.

218. M 30 Concrete corresponds approximately to nominal mix of………

219. Sample of bricks to be used on the work shall be got approved by……. after

testing.

220. The minimum end overlapping for roofing shall be……mm

221. The charges leviable as departmental charges for the outside agencies work

is…….percent.

222. ….……..may at his discretion, waive wholly or partially the recovery of the

departmental charges.

223. ………square meter is one acre.

224. The unit of velocity is……

225. Railway Act is enacted in the year……

226. General rules for the Indian Railway is of the year….

227. Height above rail level for high passenger platform in BG is……metre

228. Minimum horizontal distance from center of track to any structure from rail

level to 305mm above rail level in BG is ….meter.

229. The proportion for plastering outside Railway building is 1:…

230. The cut spoil lead specified in standard specification of material is…..meter.

231. Every…. shall be responsible for the payment to be made under payment of

wages Act.

232. A paid weekly rest is provided in ….Act.

233. The number of hours of work for an adult worker shall not be more than….hours

234. Permanent land will be shown in … color in land plans.

235. The assessed rent for each class of quarters should be fixed at …% of the total

cost of all the quarters in that class.

236. Rent of quarters to be assessed once in… years.

237. There will be only two classes of building ie….building and……building

238. If the glass of survey instrument is dusty a soft….brush may be used to clean.

239. If the screws of survey instrument becomes stiff, a paste made of……and

Vaseline in suitable proportion and melted together may be used.

240. SCR/T/I stands for……

241. The authority to sanction acquisition of land for railway purpose is…….

242. Each stock holder should verify his stock once in every…….months.

243. .. …..….. of land is not permitted except when it is approved by Railway board.

244. Standing committee of …. to be set up to fix the rental value and to review

traffic commitments by the Licensees.

245. Nominal License fee of Rs… …to be charged for the existing religious

structures.

246. No trees to be planted on the ….curves.

247. Liberal use of…. …. …Act 1971 should be made to remove all the

encroachment existing on Railway Land.

248. Leasing of land to recognized unions for construction of office ….permitted

249. Plant at least… ..saplings for each mature tree disposed off.

250. Licensing of Railway land for purpose not connected with Railway working….

..since 1984.

251. Accounts code is known by the index letter „A‟, and hence Commercial code is

known by ………

252. Land records register should be maintained in…… office

253. No smoking shall be allowed within………meters of a magazines storing

explosive material

254. All works in which cement mortar is used must be kept wet for at

least……..weeks

255. As per SSR, Earth work lead beyond…………. will be paid separately

256. Corrugated GI sheet surface shall be included with plain surface after increasing

the areas by………….percentage .

257. …………..will be the chairman of the colony care committee

258. Write the full form of SIG inspection

259. Write the size of a standard brick

260. A lamp post on platform should not be less than……meters clear from platform

face.

261. The minimum overhead for a sub way should be……..meter.

262. The height for a high level platform BG is………..mm

263. Sun cracks on bullies, which are not more than………..mm deep and are not

continuous for more than 60cm in length may be permitted

264. Cutting in rocks will be with a slope of…………..horizontal to one vertical.

265. If the work is stopped, the top surface shall be kept filled with of water until the

work starts again or for………days whichever is lesser

266. Expand BM in survey.

267. Lawns should be mowed once in a……………

268. Hedge cutting should be done once in………..months.

269. The unit of earth work is……………….cum.

270. The minimum compressive strength of first class brick should be…….Kg/sq.cm.

271. Bricks should not absorb more than…………..percentage of its own dry weight

of water when immersed in water for 24 hours.

272. All lease and licenses of Railway Land should be covered by…………….in

approved form.

273. The diameters specified for the bully shall be the diameter at the…………of the

length of the bully.

274. Assistant Engineer should test check………percentage of levels on the central

line for an earth work.

275. Earthen Bund shall be set up by the contractor at interval of……….meters on the

straight on completion of earth work profile

276. Brickwork should be built with………….bond.

277. No face stone shall be less in width in plan than………..cm for wall of 40cm

thick.

278. The criteria for acceptance or rejection of concrete is based on…days

compressive strength.

279. No structures shall be less in depth than………….times than its height.

280. 100 hectares is equal to………..Sq.Km

281. Tolerance in width and height of factory made shutters shall be + or - ……..mm.

282. ………… liter is equal to one gallon.

283. Dry clean sand weighs………..Kg/cum.

284 ……….Kg is equal to one quintal.

285. One metric tone is equal to………ton.

286. Cutting of steel for fabrication may be done by ………. , sawing or by gas

287. In steel work, holes for rivets shall be ……. larger in diameter than the rivet or

bolt.

288. Making and drilling of holes in members of steel shall be done with the use of

………..

289. The rivet testing hammer size is …….. gram.

290. Electrodes to be used in welding shall confirm to the relevant ……..

specification.

291. Painting work of Iron & steel shall confirm to specification No. ……..

292. In no case shall mortar which has been allowed to stand more than ………

minutes after mixing, be used.

293. The surface to be plastered shall be cleared and scrubbed with fresh water and

kept wet for at least ……….. hours prior to commencement of the plastering.

294. While commencing plaster work, patches of plaster 15 cm X 15 cm shall first be

put about ……. metres apart both horizontally and vertically as gauges to ensure

even plastering in one place.

295. All plastering shall be kept wetted for ….. days.

296. Any subsequent coat of paint shall not be applied till the preceding one has set

for at least ….. hours.

297. After all the coats of paint have been applied and set, the surface shall be kept

damp for a period of ….. days.

298. Expand D&A rules.

299. Railway Act is of ……. Year.

300. …………. is General Manager of South Central Railway.

301. The degree of a curve is 2.5. What is the radius?

302. What is initial lead for earthwork prescribed in S.S.R?

303. D&A rules came into force with effect from ……….. ( Write date month and

year)

304. A paid weekly rest is provided in ……… Act.

305. The rent of a quarter to be assessed once in …… years.

306. Section Engineer/Works shall maintain …… books at all stations buildings and

other important buildings.

307 Section Engineer/Works shall be……… responsible for the accurate setting out

and execution of all works.

308. Section Engineer/works shall maintain……. Of measurement books.

309. Section Engineer/works shall examine all tools and plant with the artisans once

in ………months

310. ………Nos of Wash basins to be provided in a building occupied by 48 persons.

311. ………Nos of urinals to be provided in a factory where 67 person work.

312. The overhead tanks should be cleaned and applied ….. on walls as per laid down

schedule.

313. Categorization of stations shall be reviewed every…… years starting from 1995-

96.

314. Non suburban stations with an annual passenger earnings between Rs 3 corers to

6 corers is ……category station.

315. On a C class station the drinking water taps on each platform is…. Taps.

316. The daily scale of water supply for Officers per day is… liters.

317. Pump Horse Power PHP is…..

318. For pressure mains galvanized screwed pipes up to….mm may be used

319. ……..pipes are best suited where pressure is low and danger of shock is small.

320. Keep the top of pipe at least… meters below ground surface when pipes are laid.

321. The bed of the trench shall be finished to an even gradient/level and filled with

soil rammed in ….mm layers when pipes are layed.

322. Provide…. Valves at all summits and… valves at all sags.

323. ……. and ……… pipe should face the direction from which the water will flow.

324. ……. the open end of the last pipe at the end of the days pipe laying work.

325. Provide…….as necessary in order to divide the main pipe into convenient

section for repairs..

326. For treatment of water on large scale,…..is generally used as treatment for

disinfections.

327. A system for removal of any unwanted liquid is called as…..

328. Minimum self cleansing velocity adopted in sewarage design is….mps for peak

flow.

329. Minimum diameter of sewer shall be …mm in ordinary areas.

330. Standard drawing should not be departed from without specific permission of

…..Engineer.

331. Additions and alterations to an existing plan should be shown in…….colour.

332. The trimme size of A0 sheet is……

333. The title block in a drawing should be placed at the bottom….corner of the sheet.

334. The size of the title block in a drawing is….mm X …mm

335. The existing work that has to remain should be marked in …… line in drawings.

336. Standard drawings issued by RDSO shall not be……

337. The desirable PH value in water ranges from…..to….

338. The radius of the curve is 3500 meters and hence the degree of curvature is…..

339. The shape of transition curve is …….

340. The formula for shift is……

341. E stands for Engineering code and R stands for……code

342. The unit of earth work is….cubic meter as per SSR.

343. ISRD is expanded as…..

344. A vertical curve shall be provided at the junction of the grade where the

algebraic difference between the grade is …. to one more than….mm per metre.

345. Platform should have a slope of 1 in…. away from the coping.

346. Height of platform fencing is….mm

347. Drinking water pipe on platform should be fixed as to obviate the possibility

of…. under them.

348. Station name board letter script should be…..mm in height.

349. Height of platform name board should be at least…metres from platform level to

the underside.

350. The center of the station building should be marked a ……arrow on the outside

face of the building.

351. Leave on average pay of a Railway servant will be credited with……days in a

year

352. Maximum leave on average page that can be accumulated at any time

is…….days

353. Leave can not be claimed by a Railway servant as a matter of ……..

354. Maximum leave on average pay that may be granted at a time to a Railway

servant shall be…….

355. A Railway servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay of …….days in

respect of each completed year of service.

356. Maximum leave on half average pay that can be granted at one time is

……months

357. LHAP can be converted in to half the period of such leave on an average pay on

medical grounds is called…………

358. LHAP up to a maximum of …….days shall be allowed to be commuted during

entire service.

359. „Leave not due‟ during the entire service shall be limited to a maximum of

………days on medical certificate

360. The payment of cash equivalent of leave salary shall be limited to a maximum of

………days of leave on average pay.

361. A male Railway servant with less than two surviving children may be

granted………leave for a period of………days during the confinement of his

wife.

362. A female Government servant with less than two surviving children may be

granted maternity leave for a period of…….days.

363. In case an employee‟s family member is suffering from infectious

disease……..leave may be granted on the certificate of Medical officer

364. Study leave is not granted for………..pursuits.

365. For donation of blood for one day…………leave can be granted.

366. Employees who are appointed after 1.2.1999 in pay scale minimum of which is

Rs.6,500/- or above, are eligible for……….class pass

367. If a pass is issued only for one journey it can be made available for…….months

only

368. Maximum number of dependents can be included in a pass/PTO……..

369. When a dependent is included the maximum number of persons for which a

pass/PTO can be obtained……..

370. If both husband and wife are employees in the Railway, children are permitted

passes on which account……….

371. Will casual labour be entitled to the privilege of passes and PTOs………..

372. How many sets of PTOs may be granted to licensed porters in every year………

373. A parent or a guardian may be included in a school pass which is issued for a girl

of…….age or a boy under ……..years of age

374. While applying for school passes………must be always be produced.

375. Group „D‟ employees with service 25 years and more are eligible for ………set

of post retirement complimentary passes every year.

376. Reduction to a lower time scale of grade is a. ………penalty

377. Compulsory retirement of a Railway servant in accordance with the rules relating

to his superannuation or retirement is ………penalty.

378. The appointment of enquiring authority is done on a standard form No…….

379. Disciplinary authorities may nominate……..officer to present the case before the

inquiry authorities.

380. In case of major penalties, the final orders passed by the disciplinary authority,

giving reasons there for, are known as…………….orders.

381. The competent authority shall not be lower than that by which employee was

appointed, to impose……….

382. A detention period of _________ for Septic tanks serving for less than 50

persons

a) 10 to 18 hrs. b) 24 to 36 hrs. c) 24 to 48 hrs. * d) 48 hrs.

383. A detention period of _________ for Septic tanks serving for more than 50

persons

a) 10 to 18 hrs.* b) 24 to 36 hrs. c) 24 to 48 hrs. d) 48 hrs.

384. The periodical cleaning of septic tank should normally should not exceed ____

months

a) 12 * b) 24 c) 36 d) 48

385. The recommended bottom slope of septic tank is _________ towards inlet pipe.

a) 3 to 5 % b) 5 to 10 % * c) 5 to 8 % d) 5 %

386. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of living quarter.

a) 15* b) 30 c) 45 d) 50

387. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of any cook

house/food stall.

a) 15 b) 30 * c) 45 d) 50

388. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of any well supplying

drinking water.

a) 15 b) 30 c) 45 * d) 50

389. The No. of water closets to be provided in an office building for male persons (as

per IRWM – 2000)

a) 1 for every 10 b) 1 for every 15 c) 1 for every 25* d) 1 for every 30

390. The No. of water closets to be provided in an office building for female persons

(as per IRWM – 2000)

a) 1 for every 10 * b) 1 for every 15 c) 1 for every 25 d) 1 for every 30

391. For estimating requirements of water _____ lits. Per day may be considered for

residential area house hold consumption for officers and staff per head.

a) 135 b) 175 c) 200 * d) 225

392. The practical value of yield may be obtained by multiplying the critical velocity

with

a) circumference of well b) height of well

c) area of floor of well * d) volume of well

393. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for pumping from Open wells.

394. In average condition of tub soil the critical velocity is between_____ m per sec.

a) 500 to 700 b) 700 to 900 c) 750 to 1200 * d) 750 to

900

395. Reciprocating pumps are not suitable for pumping from Tube wells.

396. RCC pipes are capable to cater the needs, where pressures are upto

a) 2.5 kg/sq cm b) 3.0 kg/sq cm * c) 5 kg/sq cm d) 7.5 kg/sq cm

397.C.I and steel pipes can cater the needs where pressures are around.

a) 15 kg/sq cm b) 20 kg/sq cm c) 24 kg/sq cm * d) 30 kg/sq cm

398. Air value of proper size are required to be provided at

a) high gradient b) low gradient

c) summits * d) change of direction of pipe

399. In a water supply scheme/project the distribution system will be approximately

___ of the estimated water supply project.

a) 20 to 30 % b) 30 to 40 % * c) 40 to 50 % d) 40 to 70

%

400. The recommended peak factor for average consumption of water supply is ( as

per IRWM)

a) 1.5 b) 1.8 c) 2.0 d) 2.5 *

401. For a 40 mm distribution main, the No. of service pipes of 15 mm dia is _____

a) 10 b) 12 * c) 15 d) 16

402. Distribution system should not ordinarily be designed for residual pressures

exceeding

a) 18 m b) 20 m c) 22 m * d) 24 m

403. Distribution system for single storied building should be designed for minimum

residual pressures at ferrule point is

a) 5 m b) 7 m * c) 10 m d) 8

404. Distribution system for two storied building should be designed for minimum


a) 12 m * b) 17 m c) 10 m d) 18

405. Distribution system for 3 storied building should be designed for minimum


a) 12 m b) 17 m * c) 10 m d) 18

406. The prescribed rate of flow at delivery and on hydrant for carriage watering shall

not be less than __________ lit/min.

a) 100 * b) 125 c) 150 d) 175

407. The alignment of the sewer is determined from a survey plan which should be

prepared to a scale of__________

a) 50 m to a cm b) 100 m to a cm *

c) 75 m to a cm d) 150 m to a cm

408. The velocity of flow in a sewer is recommended not to exceed _________

a) 1.0 mps b) 1.5 mps c) 2.0 mps d) 2.5 mps

409. Minimum velocity of _________ is recommended for peak flow

a) 0.4 mps b) 0.6 mps * c) 0.8 mps d) 1.0 mps

410. Railway land can be given for housing societies on licensing (T/F) F.

411. Railway land can not be given for constructions of union offices on licensing

(T/F) T.

412. For Union offices, only structure should be given on rent bases only, no leasing

or licensing of land for union offices (T/F) T.

413. Licensing of land is permitted on commercial exploitation for Railway working

only.

414. Leasing of land can be given without boards approval (T/F) F.

415. Limited usage of land for the purpose of passage etc is called as way leave

facility.

416. The width of land is limited to as way leave facility.

a) 1 m * b) 2 m c) 2.5 m d) 3 m

417. In way leave facility length is more than 100 mt _________ approval is required.

a) DRM * b) DEN c) GM d) AEN

418. Railway land licensed to private parties (connected to Railway working only),

fixation of license fee is minimum _______ of the market value.

a) 5% b) 6% * c) 10 % d) 12 %

419. Other than large tower and commercial center, the periodical revision of rent for

Railway land licensed to private parties.

a) 5 years b) 7 years c) 8 years d) 10 years

*

420. Security deposit in the case of Railway land licensed to out siders, equivalent to

___

of occupation fee.

a) 6 months b) 12 months * c) 18 months d) 24

months

421. In case of railway land licensed for use as religious places the fee should be

recoved as a uniform rate of _______ per annum.

a) Rs. 100/- * b) Rs. 200/- c) Rs. 300/- d) Rs.

500/-

422. Licensing of land for schools to be opened by state government in Railway

colonies the period of license should not exceed __________ years.

a) 25 b) 30 * c) 50 d) 99

423. According to __________ land can be acquired in emergency.

a) Section 14 * b) Section 17 c) Section 18 d) Section 20

424. According to ___________ land can be acquired urgent works.

a) Section 14 b) Section 17 * c) Section 18 d) Section 20

425. In acquisitions process Capitalized value of land revenue is a deposit

amount____

a) Paid to Central Govt.

b) Paid to Forest Dept.

c) Paid to Local Govt. *

d) None of the above.

426. Public Premises means

1) Wholly owned by Private party

2) Wholly owned by Govt.

3) Govt. is having more than 50% share

4) Private party is having more than 50% share

a) 1 is correct b) 2 is correct c) 2 & 3 are correct * d) 1 & 4 correct

Key to objective type questions [Works]:

1. GM

2. 200 liters

3. 15m

4. 30m

5. 45m

6. SAG

7. 2 Nos

8. 3 Nos

9. 3 Nos

10. 4 Nos

11. NIL

12. 1 No

13. 2 Nos

14. 3 Nos

15. 4 Nos

16. 4 Nos+3% over 100 persons

17. 1 Nos

18. 2 Nos

19. 1 No

20. 1200 mm

21. 1st July in each year

22. Assistant Engineer

23. Two

24. 1000

25. Three

26. A year

27. 6 months

28. 90

29. 30

30. 34.00 Sqms

31. 45.00 Sqms

32. 55.75 Sqms

33. 83.60 Sqms

34. 139.35 Sqms

35. 75%

36. 1 in 100

37. 75 mm

38. Five

39. „C‟

40. „Passenger and other user Amenities‟

41. „Passenger Amenities Management System‟

42. „1.80m x 1.50m‟

43. „0.60 m‟

44. „1.00 m‟

45. „The longest train received at the station‟

46. „760 mm‟

47. „405 mm‟

48. „455 mm‟

49. „305 mm‟

50. „1 in 60‟

51. „1 in 60‟

52. „1.80 m‟

53. „1.80 m‟

54. „600 mm‟

55. Engineering

56. 60 per minute

57. 40 per minute

58. 25 or more

59. 2.00 m

60. 300 mm

61. 75 mm

62. Black on Traffic yellow back ground

63. Blue letters on White back ground

64. Bright Red letters on White back ground

65. Blue, 1.50 m

66. 600 mm Square

67. 300 mm Square

68. White figure on Blue background.

69. 6.00 Crores or more

70. Between Rs.3.00 and 6.00 Crores

71. Between Rs.1.00 and 3.00 Crores

72. Less than Rs.1.00 Crores.

73. Halt

74. 12 Nos.

75. 12 Nos.

76. 6 Nos.

77. 6 Nos.

78. Sqm(100)

79. Sqm(50)

80. Sqm(15)

81. Sqm(30)

82. 10 Nos.

83. 6 Nos.

84. 4 Nos.

85. 4 Nos.

86. 1 Nos

87. 10 Nos

88. 6 Nos.

89. 2 Nos.

90. 4 Nos.

91. 1 No.

92. 45 Liters

93. 30 Liters

94. 10 Liters

95. 5 Liters

96. 25 Liters

97. 3600 Liters

98. 500 Liters

99. 22500 Liters

100. 450 Liters

101) C

102) D

103) D

104) A

105) B

106) C

107) D

108) C

109) D

110) A

111) D

112) B

113) A

114) C

115) B

116) B

117) B

118) B

119) D

120) A

121) C

122) Structural part Black

Buffer beam Red

123) B

124) True

125) B

126) C

127) B

128) B

129) B

130) B

131) True

132) C

133) 1675 mm

134) 100m

135) 1 in 1200

136) 6248 mm

137) 9250mm

138) True

139) C

140) A

141) Repairs and maintenance of way and works

142) C

143) A

144) B

145) B

146) C

147) B

148) D

149) B

150) D

151. 25

152. 30

153. Ringing

154. IS 269 of 1989

155. 30 cm

156. 1:6

157. 1 metre

158. 100%

159. 1:2:4

160. 1920 Kg.

161. 4 No.s

162. 3 No.s

163. 1.2 metre

164. Senior Divisional Engineer

165. Standard Measurement register

166. C

167. 50 mm.

168. Regional Language, Hindi, English

169. 100 mm

170. 0.6 metre per second

171. 6mm.

172. 7 cm.

173. 7

174. Devanagari

175. 100 lit/min

176. 3 metre.

177. 45 litres

178. 12 No.s

179. 2 m/sec

180. Drawing

181. 5 %

182. Drinking

183. 98%

184. 6 metres

185. 10%

186. 20 cm

187. 15 to 25

188. 5.6

189. 1440

190. 1280

191. 12 metre

192. 5mm

193. bulks

194.Four

195. 20 mm.

196) 1977

197) Twelve

198) Six

199) 1000

200) Two

201) Tree planting plan

202) Twelve

203) Every Year

204) State government.

205) 1894

206) Central Government

207) Chief Engineers

208) 1884

209) 100

210) Assistant Engineer

211) 1-10-1968

212) Shedule of Powers.

213) 45 days

214) Suspension

215) 2000

216) Lead 50 meter; lift 1.5 meter.

217) 7.5%

218) 1:1:2

219) Divisional Engineer

220) 150mm

221) 12.5%

222) General manager

223) 4047

224) Metre/second

225) 1989

226) 1976

227) 0.76metre

228) 2.135metre

229) 1:5

230) 30metre

231) Employer

232) Minimum wages

233) 9 hours.

234) Pink

235) 6%

236) 5 years

237) Pucca building and Kutcha Building

238) Camelhair

239) Beeswax

240) South central Railway Theodlite No. one

241) Railway Board.

242) Six months

243) Leasing

244) HOD‟s

245) Rs 500

246) Inside

247) Public premises Eviction

248) Not

249) Three

250) Banned.

251) T

252) Chief Engineer‟s

253) 100 m

254) 2 weeks

255) 50 m.

256) 14%

257) Asst. Engineer

258) Service Improvement group

259) 19 cm X 9 cm X 9 cm

260) 4.5 m.

261) 2.75 m.

262) 760 mm.

263) 2mm.

264) One and quarter (1 ¼)

265) 14 days

266) Bench Mark

267) Month

268) Two

269) 100 cum

270) 35 kg/cm2

271) 25

272) Agreement

273) Middle

274) 100

275) 30

276) English

277) 15

278) 28

279) 1 ½

280) 1

281) Three

282) 4.55

283) 1600

284) 100

285) 0.98

286) Shearing

287) 1.5 mm

288) Templates

289) 110

290) IRS

291) 1105

292) 30

293) 2 hours.

294) Three

295) 14

296) 24

297) 2

298) Disciplinary and Appeal

299) 1890

300) D.N.Mathur

301) 4375 m

302) 50m

303) 1-10-1968.

304) Minimum wages Act.

305) 5

306)petty repair

307) personally

308) Register

309) Month

310) Two

311) Three

312) Lime

313) Five

314) B

315) Six

316) 200

317) L(H+h)/4560

318) 80

319) concrete

320) One

321) 150mm

322) Air, Scour

323) Spigot and socket

324) Close

325) Sluices

326) Chlorination

327) Drainage.

328) 0.6

329) 200mm

330) Chief

331) Red

332) 841X1189mm

333) Right

334) 170X65mm

335) Full

336) Traced

337) 6.5 to 8.5

338) 2Degree

339) Parabola

340) 4.2L2 /R

341) Establishment

342) 100

343) Indian Standard Railway Drawing.

344) Equal, 4mm

345) 60

346) 1800

347) Bathing

348) 300mm

349) 2

350) Vertical

351) 30 days

352) 300 days

353) Right

354) 180 days

355) 20 days

356) 24

357) Commuted Leave

358) 180

359) 360

360) 300

361) Paternity, 15

362) 135

363) Quarantine Leave

364) Literary and Academic

365) Special Casual

366) First

367) Three

368) 2 Nos.

369) 5 Nos.

370) Both

371) No

372) One

373) any, 15

374) School certificate

375) One

376) Major

377) Not a

378) 7

379) Presenting

380) Speaking

381) Dismissal from service.

# # #

QUESTION BANK (OBJECTIVE TYPE)- (DRAWING)

1. The number of cement bags required for casting one cum 1:2:4 mix cement

concrete is

a) 8.26 b) 4.49

c) 3.41 d) 6.36*

2. The number of cement bags required for casting one cum. 1:1.5:3 mix cement

concrete is

a) 8.26 * b) 4.49

c) 3.41 d) 6.36

3. The number of cement bags required for casting one cum. 1:3:6 mix cement

concrete is

a) 8.26 b) 4.49 *

c) 3.41 d) 6.36

4. The number of cement bags required for casting one cum. 1:4:8 mix cement

concrete is

a) 8.26 b) 4.49

c) 3.41* d) 6.36

5. The number of cement bags required for construction of one cum. of brick masonry

in cement mortar 1:6 is

a) 1.70 b) 1.45 *

c) 2.15 d) 1.29

6. The number of cement bags required for construction of one cum. of stone masonry

(random rubble) in cement mortar 1:6 is

a) 1.70* b) 1.45

c) 2.15 d) 1.29

7. The number of cement bags required for construction of one cum. of stone masonry

(Coursed rubble)in cement mortar 1:6 is

a) 1.70 b) 1.45 *

c) 2.15 d) 1.29

8. The number of cement bags required for doing ten sqm. of 20 mm cement plaster

over stone masonry in cement mortar 1:6 is

a) 1.72 b) 1.45

c) 2.10 d) 1.29*


over stone masonry in cement mortar 1:4 is

a) 1.72* b) 1.45

c) 2.10 d) 1.29


over brick masonry in cement mortar 1:6 is

a) 1.61 b) 1.45

c) 2.00 d) 1.18*


over brick masonry in cement mortar 1:4 is

a) 1.61* b) 1.45

c) 2.00 d) 1.18*

12. The weight of one cum. of Ordinary Portland Cement is

a) 1282 kg b) 50 kg

c) 1442 kg * d) None of the above

13. The floor of the godown where cement is to be stored is to be kept higher than

ground level by at least

a) 1.00 m b) 30 cm*

c) 60 cm d) None of the above

14. The height of stack of cement, while cement is being stored should not exceed

a) 10 bags* b) 15 bags

c) 20 bags d) None of the above

15. The representative sample of cement should be sent to laboratory for testing for

the cement which is stored for a period more than

a) 1 month b) 6 month *

c) 12 month d) None of the above

16. The concrete shall not be placed in water having a temperature

a) 4.5 o C b) Below 4.5

o C *

c) Above 4.5 o C d) None of the above

17. Slump value of concrete while doing work under water

a) Not less than 100 mm * b) Not less than 180 mm

c) Both a) and b) above d) None of the above

18. Mass concrete is to be deposited in layers not more than

a) 230 mm * b) 300 mm

c) 450 mm d) None of the above

19. Water absorption after 24 hours immersion in cold water for second class bricks

a) Not more than the wight of the brick

b) Not less than 20%

c) Not more than 20% *

d) None of the above

20. Bricks before being used in work must be soaked in water for a period not less

than

a) A full night b) 6 hours*

c) 10 hours d) None of the above

21. A good building stone should not absorb water more than

a) 5% * b) 10%

c) 15% d) 20%

22. What is efflorescence?

a) Fromation of white patches on the brick surface due to insoluble

salts in

the brick clay*

b) Swelling of brick due to presence of carbonaceous matter and gas

c) Deformation of bricks due to exposure to rain

d) Impurities in the brick clay which show after burning

23. Pozzolanic cement contains percentage of pozzolana in the following range

a) 10 to 20 b) 10n 30

c) 20 to 40 * d) 14 to 30

24. First class bricks should not absorb water more than X% by weight where X is

a) 15 b) 20

c) 22 * d) 25

25. Minimum crushing strength of bricks is

a) 35 kg/cm2 b) 55 kg/cm

2

c) 70 kg/cm2* d) 105 kg/cm

2

26. Which of the following lime can set under water also

a) Fat lime b) lean lime *

c) hydraulic lime d) All of the above

27. Arrange the following operations of manufacture of bricks in proper order

i) preparation of clay ii) Moulding

iii) Burning iv) Drying

a) i), ii), iii), iv) b) i), iii), ii) iv) *

c) i), iv), ii), iii) d) i), ii), iv), iii)

28. The nominal size of modular brick is

a) 20 x 10 x 10 b) 19 x 9 x 9 *

c) 23 x 11.4 x 7.6 d) 23 x 13 x 10

29. The maximum percentage of water absorption in 24 hours of class I bricks should

be limited to

a) 15% b) 20% *

c) 25% d) 30%

30. Consider the following statements : Sand in mortar is needed for : 1. decreasing

the quantity of cement, 2. reducing shrinkage, 3. decreasing the surface area of

bending material, 4. increasing the strength of these materials

a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct *

c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

31. The frog of a brick is normally made on its

a) Top face * b) Bottom face

c) Longer face d) Shorter side

32. Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete is

a) 0.30 b) 0.40 *

c) 0.50 d) 0.60

33. A good brick when immersed in water bath for 24 hours, should not absorb more

than

a) 20% of its dry weight b) 30% of its saturated weight *

c) 10% of its dry weight d) 20% of its saturated weight

34. Grades of concrete for reinforced concrete shall not be lower than

a) M 10 b) M 15

c) M 20* d) M 7.5

35. Quantity of water per 50 kg of cement for M 20 grade of Nominal mix concrete

shall be

a) 45 lit. b) 34 lit. *

c) 32 lit. d) 30 lit.

36. Hand mixing of concrete is permissible in exceptional cases subject to adding

a) 5% extra cement b) 10% extra cement *

c) 15% extra cement d) 20% extra cement

37. Underwater concreting shall contain following percentage of extra cement than

that required

a) 5 % b) 10 % *

c) 15 % d) 20 %

38. Size of furrow for demarcation of earthwork is

a) 20 x 20 cm b) 15 x 15 cm

c) 20 x 15 cm * d) 15 x 20 cm

39. No excavation shall be done for borrow pits

a) within 1.8 m of the limits of acquired land *

b) within 1.5 m of the limits of acquired land

c) within 2.8 m of the limits of acquired land


40. The depth of borrow pits is

a) No limits b) Less than 1.8 m

b) Not more than 1.5 m* d) Not less than 1.5 m

41. A berm… wide is to be left untouched initially at every … between adjacent

borrow pits

a) 20m, 80m b) 15m, 50m

c) 15m, 75m * d) No berm is to be left

42. Borrow pits should not be dug within ……….. m of the boundary of an inhabited

area

a) 500m b) 600m

c) 800m * d) None of the above

43. Who will bear the cost of refilling of wrongly excavated borrow pits

a) Railway b) Contractor *

c) Engineer – in – charge d) None of the above

44. The width of bank at top of formation ( BG Single line) is kept as

a) 9.25 m b) 1.676 m

c) 6.85 m * d) None of the above

45. For how much time contractor is to maintain the bank or cutting done by him

a) 12 months b) 6 months *

c) 10 months d) 24 months

46. Side slopes in bank are kept as

a) 2:1 * b) 1:2

c) 1:1 d) None of the above

47. Side slopes in cutting are kept as

a) 2:1 b) 1:1 *

c) 1:3 d) 1:2

48. The maximum thickness of earth layer while doing earthwork in bank

a) 60 cm b) 1 m

c) 45 cm d) 30 cm *

49. Subsidence allowance for earthwork in bank with black cotton soil is

a) 8% b) 16%

c) 12% d) 25% *

50. Specific yield of well is

a) Discharge per unit time b) Yield of well per meter of draw down

*

c) velocity of water per unit time d) None of the above

51. Formula for recuperation test is

a) 2.303 x A x S/T x D b) 2.303 x A x S/T x hl x h2

c) 2.303 x A x S/T x log10(hl/h2) * d) None of the above

52.While taking sample of water from tap

a) The mouth of tap is heated for 5 minutes *

b) The mouth of tap is heated for 10 minutes

c) The mouth of tap is not heated


53. While taking sample of water from well, sample is collected

a) About 2 meter above the bottom of well

b) About 1 meter above the bottom of well *

c) About 1 meter below the bottom of well


54. Per capita demand of water ( for officer & staff)

a) 200 lit. * b) 180 lit.

c) 140 lit. d) 150 lit.

55. Demand if water for passengers on railway station

a) 10 lit. per passenger b) 15 lit. per passenger

c) 20 lit. per passenger d) 25 lit. per passenger *

56. Requirement of treated water

a) It should be colourless b) It should be odourless

c) It should be clear & tasty d) All of the above *

57. P-H value of drinking water as per WHO standards should lie between

a) 5 & 5.5 b) 6 & 7

c) 7 & 7.5* d) 7 & 8.5

58. Fluoride value of drinking water as per WHO standards should lie between

a) 0.5 – 0.75 ppm b) 0.75 – 1.00 ppm

c) 0.5 – 1.5 ppm * d) 1.00 – 2.00 ppm

59. Total hardness of drinking water as per WHO standards should be

a) 100 ppm b) 200 ppm

c) 300 ppm * d) 400 ppm

60. Pathogenic bacteria permitted in drinking water as per WHO standards should be

a) 10 nos. per 100cc. b) 10 nos. per 200cc.

c) 1 nos. per 100cc. d) Nil. *

61. The check rail clearances in BG turnouts and L-Xings are ___

a) 44-48mm and 51-57mm respectively *

b) 38-41mm and 48-51mm respectively

c) 48-51mm and 63-68mm respectively

d) 63-68mm and 76-80mm respectively

62. What is minimum horizontal distance of a platform coping (goods or passenger)

from the adjacent track centre?

a) 1670 mm * b) 1690 mm c) 840 mm d) 760mm

63. What is the max.distance apart of trolley refugees in tunnels

a) 30.5m b) 50 m c) 80 m d) 100 m *

64. What is the min. height of the bottom of an ROB in AC traction area from rail

level

a) 5870 * b) 5500 c) 5460 d) 5200

65. What is the minimum centre to centre on BG tracks in mid section?

a) 4265 mm b) 1676 mm c) 4725 mm * d) 2350mm

66. The min. depth of bridge timber excluding notching for 80‟ span as per RDSO‟s

Drg.No. BA 11075 is ___

a) 150 mm * b) 125 mm c) 180 mm d) 240 mm

67. The max. cant that can be provided on BG has to be

a) 150 mm b) 165 mm * c) 200 mm d) 240 mm

68. The yard gradient for new lines in BG to be

a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 400 c) 1 in 1000 d) 1 in 1200 *

69. Max. permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ curved switch is __ kmph and that 1 in 12

curved switch is ___ kmph

a) 15 & 30 * b) 30 & 15 c) 15 & 25 d) 30 & 50

70. Max. permissible wear on nose of crossing, wing rail is ___

a) 4mm b) 6 mm c) 8 mm d) 10 mm *

71. The max. permissible value for cant deficiency is ____ mm on group „A‟ route

with nominated rolling stock.

a) 50 mm b) 75 mm c) 100 mm * d) 125 mm

72. The max. permissible value for actual cant, cant deficiency and cant excess is

___, ___, ___ and mm respectively for BG group „E‟ route.

a) 100, 50, 50 b) 165, 75, 75 * c) 140,65, 65 d) 180,100,100

73. The max. in built twist on a transition curve is ___ mm/meter

a) 1.4mm/m b) 2.8 mm/m * c) 3.6mm/m d) 4.2 mm/m

74. Frequency of inspection of a curve by PWI in BG group-A routes is once in

a) 3 months b) 4 months * c) 5 months d) 6 months

75. Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve double line in LWR is ___

a) 200 mm b) 300 mm * c) 400 mm d) 500 mm

76. Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is ____ mm

a) 15 mm * b) 10 mm c) 20 mm d) 40 mm

77. Height gauges should be located at a min distance of ___ m from the gatepost.

a) 6 b) 8 * c) 10 d) 20

78. Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to

1,00,000 will be ____ years.

a) 1 b) 1 ½ c) 2 d) 2 ½ *

79. In skew level crossings, the angle of crossing should not be less than ___ degree

and gate posts shall be fixed ____ to the road.

a) Special * b) A class c) B class d) C class

80. Level crossings beyond the ____ signals shall be under the control of the


a) Home b) LSS c) Outermost Stop * d) Starter

81. A gateman should have certificate of fitness of Class ____ from medical

department.

a) A-I b) A-III * c) B-I d) B-II

82. The minimum clearance of check rails at a level crossing should be_______mm

a) 41 b) 51* c) 61 d) 31

83. For level crossing with PSC sleepers, in no case opening be delayed by more

than___years.

a)half b)one c)one and half d)Two*

84. As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided on either approach of level

crossing located within the railway boundary at a distance maximum feasible but not

exceeding__________m.

a)5 b)10 c)20* d)30

85. Minimum number of gate keepers on „B‟ class level crossing should be______

a)1 b)2* c)3 d)4

86. Class „C‟ ODC is one where net clearance available is less than______mm.

a)nil* b)100 c)125 d)150

87. The minimum centre to centre distance of a B.G.track in mid-section is___mm.

a)4265 b)4725* c)5300 d)1676

88. Any deviations from the dimensions of schedule 1 will require prior sanction

of____

a)RDSO b)PCE c)RB* d)CTE

89. In tunnels,through and semi-through girder bridges,the minimum distance centre

to centre of tracks for B.G. shall be______mm.

a)4495* b)4725 c)4265 d)1676

90. The maximum gradient in station yards B>G> should be_______unless special

safety devices are adopted and/or special rules enforced.

a)1 in 260 b)1 in 400* c)1 in1000 d)1 in 1200

91. The recommended maximum gradient in the yard B.G. is___________

a)1 in 260 b)1 in 400 c)1 in 1000 d)1 in 1200*

92. The recommended minimum distance centre to centre of track B.G. is____m, for

B.G.

a)4265 b)4725 c)5300* d)1676

93. For B.G., the minimum radius of a curve is_________m.

a)350 b)275 c)200 d)175*

94. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for B.G. single line

is___mm.

a)5300 b)6850* c)6250

d)4725

95. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for B.G. single line

is_____mm.

a)4495 b)12155* c)4265

d)1676

96. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. single line

a)4495 b)12550 c)6250*

d)1676

97. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. double line.

a)4495 b)11550* c)4265

d)1676

98. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is _____m or less in

B.G.

a)158 b)258 c)318

d)218*

99. On B.G., minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are

________mm&_________________mm respectively.

a)44&48 b)51&57* c)41&45

d)48&54

100. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in B.G. is___mm.

a)18 b)28.5* c)38 d)44

101. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal distance from

centre of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is____mm.

a)1540 b)1675 c)1905* d)1690

102. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal distance

fromcentre of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is

______ mm for new works or alterations to existing works.

a)1540 b)1675 c)1905* d)1690

103. Minimum distance of any telegraph post measured from the center of track and

at right angles to the nearest track excluding the height of posts______mm for B.G.

a)1540 b)1675 c)1905 d)2135*

104. Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on either side of the

centre of track for B.G. overhead structures is______mm.

a)4540 b)4875* c)5905

d)4690

105. For B.G., maximum height above rail level of any part of interlocking or

signal gear for a width of 1600 mm is_____mm.

a)95 b)85 c)75 d)65*

106. The maximum and minimum horizontal distances from centre of track to face of

passenger platform coping for B.G. are ______ mm&______mm respectively.

a)1540&1500 b)1680&1670* c)1905&1675

d)1690&1575

107. ____mm&_____mm are the maximum and minimum distances from centre of

track to the face of goods platform coping for B.G.

a)1540&1500 b)1680&1670* c)1905&1675

d)1690&1575

108. The maximum and minimum distances from center of track to the face of any

platform wall are _______mmm&________mm respectively.

a)1540 b)1905&1675* c)1680&1670

d)1690&1575

109. Maximum and minimum heights above rail level for B.G. high level passenger

platforms are _______mm&______mm.

a)840&760* b)950&1050 c)1680&1670

d)1690&1575

110. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platforms is___mm.

a)1500 b)1200 c)1065*

d)1690

111. The minimum horizontal distance of any building on B.G. passenger platforms

from centre line of track ,from platform level to 305mm above platform level is

a)5540mm b)5180 c)5180mm gradually increasing uniformly to

5330mm* d)5330 gradually decreasing to 5180mm.

112. The minimum horizontal distance fromcentre line of track to a pillar

,column,lamp or similar isolated structure on a passenger platform or any building on

a goods platform from platform level to 305mm above platform level for

B.G.________mm.

a)4570mm increasing uniformly to 4720mm*.

b)4720mm decreasing uniformly to 4570mm

c)4570mm. d)4720mm.

113. A pillar or column which has more than _____cm2 in plan for B.G. must be

classed building and not as isolated structure.

a)1550 b)1915 c)3716* d)2560

114. The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on

B.G. should not exceed_______

a)510mm* b)850mm c)450mm d)150

115. Vertical curves are introduced when the algebraic difference between two

grades becomes equal to or more than ______%

a)0.04 b)0.40* c)4.00

116. In a turnout the turnout side stock rail should be given a bend at

a)Actual toe of a switch b)Heel of switch* c)Theoretical toe switch

117. In IR designation of a curve is done by

a)degree* b)radius c)degree or radius

118. Degree of a curve of radius 1750m

a)1.25 b)1* c)2

119. Dynamic gauge for B.G.

a)1750mm* b)1676mm c)1057mm

120. The difference between actual cant provided on track and the cant calculated

corresponding to minimum speed in the section

a)cant deficiency b)cant excess* c)rate of change of cant

121. Maximum permissible cant deficiency on B.G. group D route is

a)100mm b)65mm c)75mm*

122. Cant gradient is

a)actual cant/cant deficiency b)actual cant/transition length* c)actual

cant/cant excess.

123. The compensation for curve when added to the existing gradient should not

exceed the____________

a)Falling gradient b)Rising gradient c)Ruling gradient*

124. Minimum length of check rail, for a square crossing, should be 3m more than

width of gate. (YES).

125. Frequency of overhauling of a level crossing is __________ (Once in a year

or

more frequently )

126. An unmanned level crossing where TVU is more than ___________ no

approval

of Railway Board is required for manning. (10,000 )

127. As per IRPWM Correction Slip No. 35, there are __________ categories of

unmanned level crossings to be manned priority wise.( 5 )

128. Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of _______ m from the

gate-post. ( 8 )

129. Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to

1,00,000 will be _________ years. (2 ½ ).

130. In skew level crossings, the angle of crossing should not be less than ____0

and the gate posts shall be fixed ________ to the road. (45, square )

131. Drivers of trains shall get no light indication except at ________ level crossings

where they will observe red lights when the gates are closed across the railway

line and are open for road traffic. (Special Class )

132. Level crossings beyond the _____ signals shall be under the control of the


( Out et most ).

133. A gateman should have certificate of fitness of Class _______ from Medical

Department. ( A3 )

134. At night the gateman should lit ________ nos. hand signal lamps. ( 2 )

135. The minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing should

be __________ mm& ________ mm . (51, 57 )

136. For level crossing with PSC sleepers, in no case opening be delayed by more

than _________ years. ( 2 ) .

137. As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided on either approach of

level crossing located within the railway boundary at a distance

maximum feasible but not exceeding ____________ m. ( 20 )

138. There should be no rail joint on running rails for a distance of _______ m on

either side at a level crossing. ( 3 )

139. Minimum number of gate keepers on „ B „ class level crossing

should be ___________ ( 2 )

140. Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turn-out is

a) 3m b)4m c)6m d)9m

141. As per the provisions of IRPWM, the gauge just ahead of actual toe swithch shall

be ________________ for swithch entry angle (SEA) S O 20‟O” and

______________

(nominal, +6 mm)

142. In a left hand turnout, ______________ hand side stock rail will be given

straight bend and the location of this bend will be at

_______________________

( left, TTS )

143. Frequency of inspection of Points & Crossings on running lines by a PWI

incharg& his Assistant is _______________________

(Once in 3 months by rotation on passenger lines, once in 6 months by rotation

on other running lines & yard lines)

144. Max. permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ Curved switch is __________________

kmph. and that on 1 in 12 Curved switch is _______________ kmph.

( 15, 30 )

145. Maximum permissible wear on nose of crossing, wing rail is ______________

( 10 mm)

146. Maximum permissible wear on switch rail is ___________________________

(lateral 6mm, vertical 5mm)

147. Which joints in a T/O are desirable to be made gapless 9_______________

( between tongue rail and lead rail, toe & heel of crossing )

148. Dia. of drill bit for hole in a gapless joint should be__________

(26 mm)

149. Maximum check rail clearance opposite crossing on a T/O with 1673mm gauge

is

______________ mm. ( 45 )

150. Desirable clearance between top of stretcher bar and bottom of stock rail is

_____________ mm. ( 1.5 to 3 )

151. Level crossings over colliery, factory and other similar sidings where railway

traffic is light may be commissioned without consulting CRS. ( YES)

152. In case of an emergency, the gateman can leave his gate. (YES)

153. Maximum accumulation of LAP is 300 days.

154. LAP is an advance credit at the rate of 15 days for every half year.

155.The maximum days LAP can be availed at a time is 180days.

156. LHAP is an advance credit at the rate of 10days for every half year.

157. Maximum accumulation of LHAP is nildays.

158. The eligibility of cc for field staff is 8.

159. If a male employee undergone family planning operation then he is eligible for

6days as spl casual leave.

160. If a female employee undergone family planning operation then she is eligible

for14days as spl casual leave.

161. If a male employee‟s wife undergone for family planning operation then male

employee is eligible for 7days as special casual leave.

162. Maternity leave for a female RLY employee is eligible for 135days.

163. Paternity leave for a male RLY employee is eligible for 15 days.

164. The no of privilege passes eligible for a Rly employee having three and a half

years of service is one set.

165. The Standard Form (SF) used for major prenataly charge sheet is

a) SF 5 * b)SF 1 c)SF 11 d) SF 3

166. The validity of half set privilege pass

a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months* d) 4 months

167. When employee is kept under suspension, he is eligible for __Subsistence

Allowance

168. When was the official language act formed ________

a) 1947 b) 1956 c)1963* d) 1976

169. When the official language rules were formed _________

a) 1947 b) 1956 c)1963* d) 1976*

170. As per OL policy Jummu&Kishmar comes under ________ region

a) A b) B* c) C d) none

171. As per Article 342(1) of the Constitution, Hindi is Devanagari Script will be the

official language of the union.

172. Communications from Central Govt. offices to Regions A states, offices and

persons shall be _______.

a) Hindi only b) English only c) Hindi & English * d) Hindi or

English

173. Communications from Central Govt. offices to Regions C states, offices and

persons shall be _______.

a) Hindi only b) English only * c) Hindi & English d) Hindi or

English

174. Communications from Central Govt. offices to Regions A shall be _______.

a) Hindi only * b) English only c) Hindi & English d) Hindi or

English

175. An Employee will be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if

1) He has passed metric or equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as

a subject.

2) He has passed pragya examination under Govt‟s Hindi Teaching

Scheme

3) He‟s mother tongue is hindi.

a) 1,2,3 are correct b) 2&3 are correct c) 1&2 are correct * d)1&3

correct

176. Which part of the constitution contains provision regarding official language?

a) Part XV b) Part XVI c) Part XVII * d) Part

XXI

177. On which date part XVII of the constitution was passed in Parliament.

a) 15th

Aug 1947 b) 26th

Jan 1956

c) 14th

Sept 1949 * d) 31st March 1950

178. How many articles are there in the Part XVII of the constitution?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 9 * d) 11

179. What are all the nine Articles covered under part XVII of the Constitution?

a) Article 341 to 349 b) Article 340 to 348

c) Article 343 to 351 * d) Article 345 to 353

180. Which Articles Constitution contain provision regarding the official language of

Union of India?

a) Article 341 & 343 b) Article 343 & 344 *

c) Article 343 & 346 d) Article 343 & 345

181. When was official language Act, 1963 amended

a) 1965 b) 1967 * c) 1970 d) 1979

182. How many sections are there on the official language Act, 1963, as amended in

the year 1967?

a) 7 sections b) 8 sections c) 19 sections * d) 10

sections

183. Name of the sections of official language Act, 1963 ( as amended in 1967) which

are not applicable to Jammu & Kashmir?

a) Sec. 5&6 b) Sec. 6&7 * c) Sec 7&8 d) Sec.

9&10

184. When was official language rules passed?

a) 1947 b) 1956 c) 1961 * d) 1976

185. When was official language rules amended?

a) 1980 b) 1987 * c) 1989 d) 1990

186. Into how many regions India states have been classified according to official

language policy.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 * d) 4

187. How many States and UnionTerritories are there in Region A.

a) 6 States and 2 UnionTerritories *

b) 5 States and 2 UnionTerritories

c) 5 States and 1 UnionTerritories

d) 6 States and 1 UnionTerritories

188. How many States and UnionTerritories are there in Region B.

a) 5 States and 2 UnionTerritories

b) 3 States and 2 UnionTerritories

c) 3 States and 1 UnionTerritories *

d) 5 States and 1 UnionTerritories

189. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year?

a) 12th

Feb b) 12th

April c) 14th

Feb d) 14th

Sept.*

190. According to official language rules, TamilNadu falls under which regions.

a) Region A b) Region B c) Region C * d) None

191. According to official language rules, Andaman & Nicobar islands fall under

which region?

a) A * b) B c) C d) none

192. Which is only UnionTerritory classified under regions B?

a) Andaman & Nicobar b) Pondicheary

c) Chandigarh * d) Daman & Diu

193. State in which urdu has been declared as are of the official language?

a) A.P b) Bihar c) Both a & b * d) Maharastra

194. Which is the official language of Arunachal Pradesh?

a) Hindi b) English * c) Sanskrit d) Marathi

195. A detention period of _________ for Septic tanks serving for less than 50

persons

a) 10 to 18 hrs. b) 24 to 36 hrs. c) 24 to 48 hrs. * d) 48 hrs.

196. A detention period of _________ for Septic tanks serving for more than 50

persons

a) 10 to 18 hrs.* b) 24 to 36 hrs. c) 24 to 48 hrs. d) 48 hrs.

197. The periodical cleaning of septic tank should normally should not exceed ____

months

a) 12 * b) 24 c) 36 d) 48

198. The recommended bottom slope of septic tank is _________ towards inlet pipe.

a) 3 to 5 % b) 5 to 10 % * c) 5 to 8 % d) 5 %

199. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of living quarter.

a) 15* b) 30 c) 45 d) 50

200. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of any cook

house/food stall.

a) 15 b) 30 * c) 45 d) 50

201. Group of latrines or urinals should not be located _____ m of any well supplying

drinking water.

a) 15 b) 30 c) 45 * d) 50

202. The No. of water closets to be provided in an office building for male persons (as

per IRWM – 2000)

a) 1 for every 10 b) 1 for every 15 c) 1 for every 25* d) 1 for every 30

203. The No. of water closets to be provided in an office building for female persons

(as per IRWM – 2000)

a) 1 for every 10 * b) 1 for every 15 c) 1 for every 25 d) 1 for every 30

204. For estimating requirements of water _____ lits. Per day may be considered for

residential area house hold consumption for officers and staff per head.

a) 135 b) 175 c) 200 * d) 225

205. The practical value of yield may be obtained by multiplying the critical velocity

with

a) circumference of well b) height of well

c) area of floor of well * d) volume of well

206. Minimum velocity of _________ is recommended for peak flow

a) 0.4 mps b) 0.6 mps * c) 0.8 mps d) 1.0 mps

207. Reciprocating pumps are not suitable for pumping from Tube wells.

208. RCC pipes are capable to cater the needs, where pressures are upto

a) 2.5 kg/sq cm b) 3.0 kg/sq cm * c) 5 kg/sq cm d) 7.5 kg/sq cm

209.C.I and steel pipes can cater the needs where pressures are around.

a) 15 kg/sq cm b) 20 kg/sq cm c) 24 kg/sq cm * d) 30 kg/sq cm

210. Air value of proper size are required to be provided at

a) high gradient b) low gradient

c) summits * d) change of direction of pipe

211. In a water supply scheme/project the distribution system will be approximately

___ of the estimated water supply project.

a) 20 to 30 % b) 30 to 40 % * c) 40 to 50 % d) 40 to 70

%

212. The recommended peak factor for average consumption of water supply is ( as

per IRWM)

a) 1.5 b) 1.8 c) 2.0 d) 2.5 *

213. For a 40 mm distribution main, the No. of service pipes of 15 mm dia is _____

a) 10 b) 12 * c) 15 d) 16

214. Distribution system should not ordinarily be designed for residual pressures

exceeding

a) 18 m b) 20 m c) 22 m * d) 24 m

215. Distribution system for single storied building should be designed for minimum


a) 5 m b) 7 m * c) 10 m d) 8

216. Distribution system for two storied building should be designed for minimum


a) 12 m * b) 17 m c) 10 m d) 18

217. Distribution system for 3 storied building should be designed for minimum


a) 12 m b) 17 m * c) 10 m d) 18

218. The prescribed rate of flow at delivery and on hydrant for carriage watering shall

not be less than __________ lit/min.

a) 100 * b) 125 c) 150 d) 175

219. The alignment of the sewer is determined from a survey plan which should be

prepared to a scale of__________

a) 50 m to a cm b) 100 m to a cm *

c) 75 m to a cm d) 150 m to a cm

220. The velocity of flow in a sewer is recommended not to exceed _________

a) 1.0 mps b) 1.5 mps c) 2.0 mps d) 2.5 mps

221. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for pumping from Open wells.

222. In average condition of tub soil the critical velocity is between_____ m per sec.

a) 500 to 700 b) 700 to 900 c) 750 to 1200 * d) 750 to

900

223. A masonry consists of

a) Stone block b) Brick and mortar *

c) Mosaic and mortar d) Mason and water

224. An assemblage of stone blocks laid with mortar is called

a) masonry * b) stone pitching

c) stone soling d) Assemblage

225. A loading bearing wall is designed to carry:

a) vertical loads b) live loads plus self weight

c) imposed loads * d) live load/wind load

226. A partition wall is designed to carry

a) live loads b) imposed loads

c) no external loads * d) partition loads from roof

227. The ultimate settlement of a structure resting on a soil:

a) increases with an increase in the void ratio

b) decreases with an increase in the initial void ratio *

c) decreases with a decrease in the plastic limit

d) increases with a decrease in the porosity of the soil

228. The safe bearing capacity of a soil can be defined as:

a) ultimate load on the bearing area

b) safe ultimate load on the bearing area

c) load intensity at which the soil will fail

d) Load intensity beyond which the soil should not be loaded *

229. The bearing capacity of a soil.

a) depends on the size of the footing *

b) does not depend on the shape of the footing

c) depends on the load d) depends on the direction of load

230. The bearing capacity of a soil.

a) load intensity b) type of soil only

c) shape of the footing also * d) rate of loading

231. The bearing capacity of a soil depends on

a) grain size of the soil * b) load intensity

c) mass of the foundation d) none

232. A foundation may be classified as shallow if

a) depth to width ratio is more than 2

b) depth to width ratio is less than 2*

c) length to width ratio is between 1 and 2

d) length to width ratio is more than 2

233. A foundation can be called a deep foundation if

a) depth to width ratio is more than 2 *

b) depth to width ratio is less than 2



234. A foundation can be called a spread foundation if


b) depth to width ratio is less than 2

c) length to width ratio is between 1 and 2 *


235. A foundation can be called a continuous foundation if


b) depth to width ratio is less than 2 *



236. A foundation can be called a strip foundation if

a) length is large b) length is larger as compared with a uniform width *

c) load is applied at long intervals d) none

237. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil can be defined as:



c) load intensity beyond which the soil will fail *

d) load intensity beyond which the soil should not be loaded

238. The safe bearing capacity of a soil can be defined as:



c) load intensity beyond which the soil will fail

d) load intensity beyond which the soil should not be loaded *

239. The net bearing capacity of a soil :

a) includes the weight of the overburden soil

b) excludes the weight of the overburden soil *

c) uses the net area of contact of the soil

d) uses the net load on the soil

240. The total bearing capacity of a soil :

a) includes the weight of the overburden soil *

b) excludes the weight of the overburden soil

c) uses the net area of contact of the soil

d) uses the net load on the soil

241. The reduction factor to the bearing capacity of a soil due to the water table just

below the footing is:

a) 0.5 * b) 0.75 c) 1.0 d) 0.25

242. The reduction factor to the bearing capacity of a soil due to the water table just

below the footing is:

a) 0.5 b) 0.75 * c) 1.0 d) 0.25

243. The approximate bearing capacity of hard rock such as granites is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 3000 to 3500 * b) 1500 to 1700

c) 800 to 900 d) 400 to 500

244. The approximate bearing capacity of soft rock is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 3000 to 3500 b) 1500 to 1700

c) 800 to 900 d) 400 to 500 *

245. The approximate bearing capacity of broken bed rock, hard shale etc, is (in

kN/sq.m)

a) 3000 to 3500 b) 1500 to 1700

c) 800 to 900 * d) 400 to 500

246. The approximate bearing capacity of laminated rock such as sand or lime stone is

(in kN/sq.m)

a) 3000 to 3500 b) 1500 to 1700 *

c) 800 to 900 d) 400 to 500

247. The approximate bearing capacity of compacted coarse sand is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 b) 120 to 250

c) 200 to 300 d) 300 to 400 *

248. The approximate bearing capacity of compacted fine dry sand is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 b) 120 to 250 *

c) 200 to 300 d) 300 to 400

249. The approximate bearing capacity of compacted dry medium sand is (in

kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 b) 120 to 250

c) 200 to 300 * d) 300 to 400

250. The approximate bearing capacity of loose fine sand is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 * b) 120 to 250

c) 200 to 300 d) 300 to 400

251. The approximate bearing capacity of compacted gravel is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 b) 120 to 250

c) 200 to 300 d) 300 to 400 *

252. The approximate bearing capacity of loose gravel is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 80 to 120 b) 120 to 250 *

c) 200 to 300 d) 300 to 400

253.The approximate bearing capacity of stiff clay is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 * b) 200 to 250

c) 100 to 180 d) 80 to 120

254. The approximate bearing capacity of stiff clay is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 * b) 200 to 250

c) 100 to 180 d) 80 to 120

255. The approximate bearing capacity of medium stiff clay is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 b) 200 to 250 *

c) 100 to 180 d) 80 to 120

256. The approximate bearing capacity of soft clay is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 * b) 200 to 250

c) 100 to 180 d) 80 to 120 *

257. The approximate bearing capacity of sandy clay is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 b) 200 to 250

c) 100 to 180 * d) 80 to 120

258. The approximate bearing capacity of black cotton soil is (in kN/sq.m)

a) 400 to 450 b) 200 to 250

c) 100 to 180 d) 80 to 120 *

259. The bearing capacity of a soil:

a) increases with increase in the area of the footing

b) increases with a increase in the area of the footing *

c) is not affected by the size of the footing

d) none

261. The bearing pressure distribution under a footing resting on clay is:

a) Uniform throughout

b) More at the edges as compared to that at the middle *

c) Less at the edges as compared to that at the middle

d) unpredictable

262. The bearing pressure distribution under a footing resting on clay is:

a) Uniform throughout

b) More at the edges as compared to that at the middle

c) Less at the edges as compared to that at the middle *

d) unpredictable

263. The sewerage system originates from

a) House sewers * b) Lateral sewer c) main sewer d) branch sewer

264. The diameter of sewer is 225 mm, the gradient required to generate self- cleaning

velocity is

a) 1 in 1000 b) 1 in 50 c) 1 in 120 * d) none of these

265. The drop manholes are generally provided in sewers for:

a) industrial areas b)large townships c) hilly town ships* d) none

266. The sewer pipes:

a) carry sewage as gravity conduits

b) should be designed for self cleansing velocity at different discharges

c) should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion

d) all the above *

267. Pathogens in water may cause:

a) typhoid b) cholera c) dysentery d) any of the above *

268. Aerobic bacteria:

a) Flourish in the presence of free oxygen *

b) consume organic matter as their food

c) oxides organic mater in sewage

d) all the above

269. The average temperature of sewage in India is

a) 10o C b) 20

o C * c)50

o C d) 15

o C

270. In sewage having fully oxidized organic matter the nitrogen is founding the form

of

a) nitrites b) albuminoid nitrogen c) nitrates * d) all of these

271. The standard BOD of water sewage is taken for:

a) 1 day b) 3 days c) 5 days * d) 20 days

272. During preliminary treatment of sewage

a) oil and grease are removed by skimming tanks *

b) floating materials are removed by screening

c) grit and sand are removed by grit chamber

d) all the above

273. For preliminary treatment of sewage

a) perpendicular to the direction of flow

b) parallel to the direction of flow

c) at a angle 30 to 60 to the direction of flow *

d) neither of these

275. The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks is usually

a) 24 to 36 hours b) 4 to 8 hours * c) 8 to 16 hours d) 1 to 2

hours

276. The discharge per unit plan area of sedimentation tank is called

a) overflow rate b) overflow velocity c) surface loading d) above

all *

277. The normal values of overflow rates for sedimentation tanks, using coagulant,

ranges between,

a) 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sq.m/day b) 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sq.m/day

c) 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sq.m/day * d) 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sq.m/day

278. The first stage of natural process of sludge digestion is

a) acid fermentation * b) alkaline fermentation

c) acid regression d) any one of these

279. Water supply of an industrial township industrial and commercial water demand

of total supply is assumed.

a) 20 to 25 % * b) 80 % c) 50 to 60 % d) none

280. Water losses in water supply is assumed as

a) 5 % * b) 15 % c) 25 % d) 50 %

281. B.O.D of treated water should be

a) 10 ppm * b) 50 ppm c) nil d) 5 ppm

282. The best method of disinfection of public water supply is

a) boiling b) addling lime and soda ash c) chlorination*

d)none

283. To find out strength parameter for sandy soil we use:

a) UU test b) CD test c) UC test * d) all

284. Vane shear test is used to find out shear strength of

a) sandy soil * b) clayey soil c) gravelly soil d) all of the above

285. A cylinder of soil fails under an axial vertical stress of 16 f/m when it is laterally

confined. The failure plane makes an angle of 50o with the horizontal. Calculate of

value of cohesion of the soil will be

a) 0.8 kg/cm b)0.89 kg/cm c) 0.67 kg/cm * d)0.91

kg/cm

286. Sheep foot rollers are best for compacting soil

a) clay soils * b) sandy soil c) silty soil d) gravelly

287. For long term stability of structures we use:

a) undrained cohesion and angle of internal friction

b) drained cohesion and angle of internal friction *

c) any of the above d) none

288. According to IS code maximum settlement permitted for the foundation on the

clay is

a) 40 to 65 mm b) 50 mm c) 65 to 100 mm * d) 40 mm

289. According to IS code maximum settlement permitted for the deep foundation and

sandy soil is

a) 40 to 65 mm b) 50 mm c) 65 to 100 mm d) 25 mm

*

290. Cohession less soil is

a)sands * b) silts c) clays d) siltyclay

291. Sand is almost incompressible (T/F) T.

292. Black cotton soil

a) is inorganic in nature b) contains large percentage of clay minerals

c) exhibits high compressibility d) all the above *

293. The maximum size of the particles of clay is about:

a) 0.0002 mm b) 0.002 mm * c) 0.02 mm d) 0.2 mm

294. If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said to be:

a) wet soil b) fully saturated c) dry soil * d) partly saturated

295. The submerged unit wt. in equal to _____ of unit wt. of sat. soil and unit wt. of

water

a) sum b) product c) difference * d) ratio

296. The strength of a soil is usually identified by

a) direct tensile stress b) direct compressive stress

c) ultimate shear stress * d) effective stress

297. The coefficient of earth pressure at rest is given by

a) ____ b) ____ *

1+ 1-

c) ___1+ d) _1-

298. The coefficient of active earth pressure for cohesionless granular soil is given by

a) 1 + Sin _ b) 1 + Cos_

1 - Sin 1 -Cos

c) 1 - Sin _ d) 1 - Cos _

1 + Sin 1 + Cos

299. The coefficient of active earth pressure for cohesionless granular soil is given by

a) 1 + Sin _ b) 1 + Cos_

1 - Sin 1 -Cos

c) 1 - Sin _ d) 1 - Cos _

1 + Sin 1 + Cos

300. The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon:

a) grain size of the soil b) shape of footing

c) size of the footing d) all of the above *

301. The minimum height of the bottom of a ROB in AC traction area is 6248 mm

302. The minimum center to center distance of a B.G track in mid section is 4725 mm

303. Pink coloured pages of BG S O D contain Recommended dimensions of schedule

Std.II.

304. Any deviations from the dimensions of Schedule I will require prior sanction of

Railway board.

305. In tunnels, through and semi-through girder bridges, the minimum distance

center to centre of track for BG shall be 4.725 m and in station yards 4.265 m.

306. The maximum gradient in station yards should be 1 in 400 unless special safety

devices are adopted and/or special rules enforced.

307. The recommended maximum gradient in the yard is 1 in 1200 .

308. The recommended minimum distance centre to centre of track is 530 m for BG.

309. For BG the minimum radius of a curve is 175 m.

310. The recommended minimum width of embankment for BG single line is 6.85 m

and for double line is 12.155 m

311. The recommended minimum width of cutting excluding side drains for BG

single line & double line are 6.25 m &11.555 m respectively.

312. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is 218 m or less in BG.

313. On BG minimum and maximum clearances of check rail at a level crossing are

51 mm &57 mm respectively.

314. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in BG is 38.5 mm.

315. For buildings and structures on BG the minimum horizontal distance from centre

of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is 1675 mm.

316. Minimum distance of any telegraph post measured from the centre of and at right

angles to the nearest track is Ht. of post + 2135 mm for BG.

317. Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on either side of the

centre of track for BG for overhead structures is 4875 mm.

318. The minimum horizontal distance measured at right angles to the nearest track

for BG to any part of a rigid and well founded post carrying electrical conductors is

1675 mm from rail level to 305 mm above rail level.

319. For BG maximum height above rail level of any part of interlocking or signal

gear for a width of 1600 mm is 64 mm

320. The maximum and minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of

passenger platform coping for BG are 1680 mm &1670 mm respectively.

321. 1680 mm &1670 mm are the maximum and minimum distance from centre of

track to the face of goods platform coping for BG.

322. The maximum and minimum distance from center of track to the face of any

platform wall are 1950 mm &1675 mm respectively.

323. Maximum and minimum heights above rail level for BG high level passenger

platform are 840 mm &760 mm.

324. The maximum height above rail level for BG goods platforms is 1065 mm.

325. The minimum horizontal distance of any building on BG passenger platforms

from centre line of track, from platform level to 305 mm above platform level is 5180

mm.

326. The minimum horizontal distance from center line of track to a pillar, column,

lamp or similar isolated structure on a passenger platform or any building on a goods

platform from platform level to 305 mm above platform level of BG 3960 mm.

327. A pillar or column which has more than 3716 sq.cm in plan for BG must be

classed building and not as isolated structure.

328. In a routine pile load test the test load is

a) 1.25 times the design load b) 1.5 times the design load *

c) 1.75 times the design load d) 2 time the design load

329. In the eight digit code given in the rating system the first digit is called

a) URN b) ORN * c) CRN d) none

330. The maximum permissible value for cant deficiency is 100 mm on group „A‟

route with nominated rolling stock.

331. The maximum permissible value for actual cant, cant deficiency and cant excess

is 165, 75, 75 and mm respectively for BG, group „E‟ route.

332. The maximum in built twist on a transition curve is 2.8 mm/meter for BG.

333. Frequency of inspection of a curve by PWI is on A & B route once in 4 months

other routes once in 6 months.

334. Frequency of inspection of a curve by AEN is one curve every quarter year for

each PWI.

335. Frequency of inspection of a curve by DEN is not specified.

336. Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve is 150 mm.

337. On wooden sleeper track, the number of spikes/sleeper on the outside of a curve

is 2 Nos.

338. A 2.5o curve on 20 meter chord length will have 71.4 mm versine on circular

portion

339. The cant requirement for 2o BG curve with equilibrium speed of 90 kmph will be

120 mm.

340. The permitted gauge variation on 3o curve is – 5 mm to + 3 mm.

341. Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is 15 mm.

342. If cumulative percentage of stations having versine variation within 4 mm on a

route falls below 80 %, realignment is required.

343. Standard drawings shall not be departed from without the specific permission of

the C.E.

344. Index plans and sections should be prepared in A0 size of drawing sheet.

345. Site plans for buildings, road over bridges should be prepared in A3size of

drawing sheet.

346. A temporary diversion is one which is not likely to be use, for more than 10

days.

347. For estimation of design discharge for water way, the probable recurrence

interval of computed flood is 50years.

348. In general, a length of plate girders is restricted to about 13.3 m so as to facilitate

transport in single lengths.

349. For estimating requirements of water 200 liters per day may be considered for

residential area household consumption for officers and staff per head.

350. The interval of cleaning septic tank should not normally exceed 12 months.

351. The minimum distance centre to center of tracks for new works / additions to

existing works is 5300 mm in case of BG.

352. The minimum radius of curves in case of BG is 175 m.

353. The minimum width of formation in embankment and cutting for a double line

straight track in case of BG are 12150 mm &11550 mm respectively.

354. The minimum and maximum clearance of wing rail at nose of crossing in case of

BG are 45 mm and 48 mm respectively.

355. The maximum clearance between toe of open switch and stock rail for existing

works and new works in case of BG are 95 mm and 115 mm respectively.

356. The maximum distance apart of refuses on tunnels is 100 m and on bridges with

main spans of less than 100 m is 100 m.

357. The maximum and minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of

goods platform coping are 1680 mm and 1670 mm respectively.

358. The maximum limit of accumulation of LAP is up to 300 days and Railway

employee can avail LAP of 180 days at a time.

359. Expand DRF Depreciation Reserve Fund.

360. Expand SRSF Special Railway Safety Fund.

361. Suspension is a penalty (Yes/No) Yes.

362. Casual leave can be combined with LAP (Yes/No) Yes.

363. In calculating TVU, the No. of road vehicles passing through the level crossing

for a continuous period of _____________ is noted.

a) one year b) 6 months c) 1 month d) one

week *

364. In calculating TVU, the Bullock carts is taken as

a) ½ unit b) 1 unit * c) not considered d) 2 units

365. In calculating TVU, cycle rickshaw/auto rickshaw is taken as

a) ½ unit * b) 1 unit c) not considered d) 2 units

366. Census of traffic at unmanned level crossing is taken as once in _____

a) one year b) 2 years c) 3 years * d) 5 years

367. The prepared and finished surface of earth work on which the track is laid is

called subgrade.

368. The track construction involves preparation of subgrade, plate laying and

ballasting the track.

369. The art of changing rails, sleepers and fittings of a railway track is called

relaying of track.

370. Relaying of track becomes necessary when the track material are completely

wornout

371. Points and crossings, are provided for

a) change of direction on P-way * b) change of gradient

c) both of above d) none of the above

372. A switch consists of a tongue rail and a stock rail.

373. The tapered end of a tongue rail is called toe/heel of switch (toe).

374. Check rails are provided to check the tendency of the wheels to climb over the

crossing.

375. The position of points when the train wheels pass over switch first and their over

the crossing is called facing/trailingpoint (facing).

376. The arrangement made when left hand rail of one track crosses right hand rail of

another track is called acute crossing.

377. The complete set of point and crossings is known as turnout/cross over (turnout)

378. The arrangement made when one cross over overlaps on other cross over is

called diamond crossing (Yes/No) No.

379. The width of right of way of a railway track on cutting is more than/less

than/equal to that in embankment. (less than)

380. Schedule for preparing refixing of plate screws in a PSC turnout is awarded for

a) Crossing portion b) Lead portion

c) Switch portion * d) Approach track of turnout

381. The unit measurement for computing the length of the rails replaced

a) ETKM b) LM * c) ITKM d) GMT

382. The unit of measurement for computing the length of track for through packing.

a) TRM * b) LM c) MTKM d) GMT

383. The unit of measurement for computing the weight transported per kilometer

travel.

a) TRM b) Kgs c) MTKM * d) GMT

384. While preparing gradient profile in the track estimated during permanent way

renewal the level are taken at evey

a) 20 meters * b) 50 meters c) 100 meters d) 75 meters

385. If the speed restriction are imposed in a stretch of track, or number of attentions

to the stretch exceeds more than 12 times the formation is classified as

a) good b) bad c) very bad * d) moderate

386. The periodicity of deep screening is

a) 8 years * b) 10 years c) 5 years d) during track renewals

387. In deep screening estimates the longitudinal sections are plotted and rail levels

established at evey


388. Cross section of track in deep screening estimates are taken at every

a) 30 meters b) 50 meters* c) 10 meters d) 20 meters

389. If a rail failure is occurred the test piece is required to be sent to Zonal Rail

Chemist & Metallurgist if the rail is

a) Within 10 years of primary renewal *

b) Within 20 years of primary renewal

c) Within 8 years of primary renewal

d)W prescribed GMT of rail.

390. The purpose of OMS 2000 is to record

a) Track geometry

b) Rail profile

c) Acceleration monitoring in vertical & lateral *

d) Track feature measurement

391. Frequency of OMS 2000 recording for the speed above 100 kmph

a) Once every month * b) Once in two months

c) Once in six d) Yearly

392. The values of acceleration peaks required to be considered for high speed routes

if peaks exceed greater then

a) 0.2 g b)1.5 g c) 0.35 g d) 0.15 g *

393. The OMS report has to be entered in OMS register duly allotting one page for

every

a)Block section b) 500 meters c) 200 meters d) 1 K.M *

394. Colour code used to indicate exsedence of acceleration level in a run is

a) Blue b) Green c) Red * d) Yellow

395. The data logged to maintain track features such as Bridge, LC, SEJ, Curve,

Turnout etc is called

a) TMS b) TFMS * c) TRRC d) OMS 2000

396. OMS acceleration has to be kept while recoding on close to

a) ADEN of section traveling in OMS car

b) Draftsman traveling in OMS car

c) Engine driver working on OMS car

d) The bogie pivot on loco or coach floor *

397. The arrow mark while fixing the accelerometer should face in OMS 2000 car

a) Draftsman traveling in OMS car

b) PWI in the OMS car

c) Senior most officer in the car

d) The direction of travel of OMS car *

398. Tar, bitumen and ash palt are few examples of

a) Water proofing material b) Building material

c) Temperature proofing material d) Damp proofing material *

399. A footing supporting two columns is known as

a) Continuous footing b) Combine footing *

c) Strap footing d) Strip footing

400. When two footings are joined by a beam it is called

a) Continuous footing b) Combine footing

c) Strap footing * d) Strip footing

401. If stone slabs are used to provide flooring it is called

a) Brick flooring b) C.C. flooring

c) Flag stone flooring * d) Granolithic flooring

402. Hair crack in an irregular pattern on a plastered surface is called

a) Pointing b) Raking c) Plastering d) Crazing *

403. The original investment on an asset less the depreciation for the period of

existence is called

a) Salvage value b) Book value * c) Scrap value d) Market value

404. Value of an asset at the end of useful period without being dismantled is known

as

a) Salvage value * b) Book value c) Scrap value d) Market value

405. The value of the dismantled material of an asset less than the cost of dismantling

a) Salvage value b) Book value c) Scrap value * d) Market value

406. Expand BOD

a) Bachelor of Drawing b) Board of Director

c) Be on Deathbed d) Biological Oxygen Demand *

407. Break of gauge means

a) Track gauge broken b) Rails damaged

c) Gauge of the track distorted d) More than one gauge if adopted *

408. Standard length of Engineer‟s chain is

a) 60 feet b) 100 feet * c) 33 feet d) 45 feet

409. Tapes used for linear measurement of a very high degree of precision such as

base line is called

a) Base tapes b) Steel tapes c) Inver tapes * d) Girls tape

410. A tangent to a circle is

a) Parallel to radius b) Diagonal to radius

c) Perpendicular radius * d) Depends upon radius of circle

411. The tangential angles of equal area are

a) Unequal b) Equal * c) Approximately equal d) none

412. Point of contact of a tangent and a circle is called

a) Tangent point * b) Tangent distance

c) Tangent length d) Versine

413. The perpendicular distance at the middle point of the chord to the arc is called

a) Tangent length b) Apex c) Versine * d) Degree of curve

414. If the schedule provided separate rate for supply of distance blocks and separate

items for fixing check rail of a curve, it is best example of

a) Rate for combined item b) Rate for work executed

c) Rate for supply item * d) Rate for contract value

415. The standard film thickness required to be achieved after each successive coat

during anti corrosive painting schedule of work is

a) 100 microns b) 50 microns c) 175 microns * d) 350 microns

416. The incidental work required to be included in schedule before undertaking

through turnout renewal is

a) Shallow screening b) Deep screening *

c) Through packing d) Picking up slacks

417. The perpendicular distance between any point of a tangent and the arc of a circle

is called

a) Tangent length b) Apex distance c) Offset * d) Tangent angle

418. During technical check on Pre/Post tamping by agency additional information

required to be verified in

a) Field book b) Site order book c) Gang man‟s diary

d) Machine progress register indicating the time, location, duration of block

working where machine is deployed. *

419. Platform construction on sharper then 2o Curve requires

a) Railway Board condonation b) CRS condonation

c) Not permitted d) No condonation required *

420. Grades steeper than 1 in 400 requires

a) Condonation of CRS & Board * b) not required

c) Grades steeper than 1 in 400 not permitted d) Condonation of PCE

421. Provision of making payment for preparing service rails in PQRS work is

a) Payment item * b) Not a payment item

c) No service rail required d) Supply item of contractor

422. Closure of LC requires

a) DEN‟s sanction b) DRM‟s orders

c) CRS sanction * d) PCE‟s sanction

423. For opening diversion after derailment for early restoration requires

a) AEN‟s certificate * b) DRM‟s orders

c) CRS sanction d) PCE‟s sanction

424. Payment for chiseling and blasting the rock is having

a) Same monetary value b) Blasting is free of cost

c) Chiseling is more expensive * d) Blasting is more expensive

425. The picking up slacks after 1st packing separate rate is given in schedule

a) No * b) Yes c) Picking up slacks not required

d) Some time separate is given

426. Deep screening is done before CTR

a) No b) Yes *

c) Deep screening has nothing much to do with CTR d) Some time

427. During deep screening pegs are provided in the intervals of


428. Nodal officer for out of Turn works in Engineering Dept. is

a) CTE b) PCE c) CGE * d) CBE

429. While during technical check on widening of cutting work, safety certificate

issued by AEN to agency is to be checked

a) Not required b) It is not safety work

c) Should be checked * d) Some times to be checked

# # #

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