NEET - (WEEKEND BATCH) - RJ · PDF file · 2017-05-18The relation 3t 3x 6 describes...

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NEET - (WEEKEND BATCH)

(UNIT TEST – 1(ENG))

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :____________________ Roll Number : ___________________

TIME : 3 HR MM : 720 This Booklet contains 15 pages

TEST ID : 901

Physics (syllabus)

Vector, Unit & Dimension, Units and Measurements, Motion in one dimension, Motion in two dimension

Chemistry (syllabus)

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter

Biology (syllabus)

Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom

[UNIT – 1] RJ VISION PVT. LTD. (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)

H.O. : Baroda [211/A Taksh Complex, Vasna Rd], Centres : Karelibaug [201, NBCC Plaza] Kota (R & D) www. rjvision.org 1

PHYSICS

1. The sum of two forces acting at a point is 16 N. If

the resultant force is 8 N and its direction is

perpendicular to minimum force then the forces

are

(a) 6 N and 10 N

(b) 8 N and 8 N

(c) 4 N and 12 N

(d) 2 N and 14 N

2. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the action of

a force F such that the value of its linear

momentum )(P at anytime t is

.sin2,cos2 tptP yx The angle between F and P

at a given time t. will be

(a) 0

(b) 30

(c) 90

(d) 180

3. The position of a particle is given by )2( kjir

momentum ).243( kjiP The angular

momentum is perpendicular to

(a) x-axis

(b) y-axis

(c) z-axis

(d) Line at equal angles to all the three axes

4. The value of )()( BABA is

(a) 0

(b) 22 BA

(c) AB

(d) )(2 AB

5. If A

and B

are perpendicular vectors and vector

kjiA ˆ3ˆ7ˆ5

and .ˆˆ2ˆ2 kajiB

The value of a is

(a) – 2

(b) 8

(c) – 7

(d) – 8

6. If ,.3|| BABA

then the value of || BA

is

(a)

2/1

22

3

ABBA

(b) BA

(c) 2/122 )3( ABBA

(d) 2/122 )( ABBA

7. A body is in equilibrium under the action of three

coplanar forces P, Q and R as shown in the figure.

Select the correct statement

(a) sinsinsin

RQP (b)

coscoscos

RQP

(c) tantantan

RQP (d)

sinsinsin

RQP

8. The dimensions of universal gravitational

constant are

(a) 222 TLM (b) 231 TLM

(c) 21 TML (d) 22 TML

9. The equation of state of some gases can be

expressed as RTbVV

aP

)(

2. Here P is the

pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute

temperature and Rba ,, are constants. The

dimensions of '' a are

(a) 25 TML (b) 21 TML

(c) 030 TLM (d) 060 TLM

10. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m

suspended from a spring of spring constant K is

given by a relation of this type yx KmCf ; where C

is a dimensionless quantity. The value of x and y

are

(a) 2

1,

2

1 yx (b)

2

1,

2

1 yx

(c) 2

1,

2

1 yx (d)

2

1,

2

1 yx

11. If the velocity of light )(c , gravitational constant

)(G and Planck's constant )(h are chosen as

fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass in

new system is

(a) 2/12/12/1 hGc (b) 2/12/12/1 hGc

(c) 2/12/12/1 hGc (d) 2/12/12/1 hGc

12. Out of the following pair, which one does not have

identical dimensions?

(a) Moment of inertia and moment of force

(b) Work and torque

(c) Angular momentum and Planck's constant

(d) Impulse and momentum

Q

P

R



13. The resistance R =i

V where V= 100 5 volts

and i = 10 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in

R

(a) 5% (b) 7%

(c) 5.2% (d) 2

5%

14. Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid

rod AB. The rod slides along perpendicular rails as

shown here. The velocity of A to the right is 10 m/s.

What is the velocity of B when angle α = 60o?

(a) 9.8 m/s (b) 10 m /s

(c) 5.8 m/s (d) 17.3 m/s

15. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1

speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average

speed is

(a) 212

1vv (b)

2

21 vv

(c) 21

212

vv

vv

(d)

21

21

23

5

vv

vv

16. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time

are given by 2atx and 2bty . The speed of

the particle at any moment is

(a) )(2 bat (b) )(2 22 bat

(c) 22 bat (d) )(2 22 bat

17. The relation between time and distance is

xxt 2 , where and are constants. The

retardation is

(a) 32 v (b) 32 v

(c) 32 v (d) 322 v

18. What is the relation between displacement, time

and acceleration in case of a body having uniform

acceleration?

(a) 2

2

1ftutS

(b) tfuS )(

(c) fsvS 22

(d) None of these

19. The relation 633 xt describes the displacement

of a particle in one direction where x is in metres

and t in sec. The displacement, when velocity is

zero, is

(a) 24 metres (b) 12 metres

(c) 5 metres (d) Zero

20. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the

top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity

u3 . The height of the tower is

(a) gu /3 2 (b) gu /4 2

(c) gu /6 2 (d) gu /9 2

21. A man drops a ball downside from the roof of a

tower of height 400 meters. At the same time

another ball is thrown upside with a velocity 50

meter/sec. from the surface of the tower, then

they will meet at which height from the surface of the

tower

(a) 100 meters (b) 320 meters

(c) 80 meters (d) 240 meters

22. Two balls are dropped from heights h and h2

respectively from the earth surface. The ratio of

time of these balls to reach the earth is

(a) 2:1 (b) 2 : 1

(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

23. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a)

versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The

maximum speed of the particle will be

(a) 110 m/s (b) 55 m/s

(c) 550 m/s (d) 660 m/s

24. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate

for some time, after which it decelerates at a

constant rate and comes to rest. If the total

time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity

acquired by the car is

(a) t

22

(b) t

22

(c)

t)( (d)

t

a

t(s)

10 m/s2

11



25. A stone dropped from a building of height h

and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From

the same building if two stones are thrown (one

upwards and other downwards) with the same

velocity u and they reach the earth surface after 1t

and 2t seconds respectively, then

(a) 21 ttt (b) 2

21 ttt

(c) 21 ttt (d) 22

21 ttt

26. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the

following graph/graphs represent velocity-time

graph of the ball during its flight (air resistance is

neglected)

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) D

27. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above

the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up

vertically to a height 2/d . Neglecting subsequent

motion and air resistance, its velocity v varies with

the height h above the ground is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

28. If the overbridge is concave instead of being convex,

the thrust on the road at the lowest position will be

(a) r

mvmg

2

(b) r

mvmg

2

(c) r

gvm 22

(d) r

gv 2

29. Two masses M and m are attached to a vertical

axis by weightless threads of combined length l .

They are set in rotational motion in a horizontal plane

about this axis with constant angular velocity . If

the tensions in the threads are the same during

motion, the distance of M from the axis is

(a) mM

Ml

(b)

mM

ml

(c) lM

mM (d) l

m

mM

30. In a circus stuntman rides a motorbike in a circular

track of radius R in the vertical plane. The minimum

speed at highest point of track will be

(a) gR2 (b) gR2

(c) gR3 (d) gR

31. A body slides down a frictionless track which

ends in a circular loop of diameter D , then the

minimum height h of the body in term of D so

that it may just complete the loop, is

(a) 2

5Dh (b)

4

5Dh

(c) 4

3Dh (d)

4

Dh

32. A particle originally at rest at the highest point of a

smooth vertical circle is slightly displaced. It will leave

the circle at a vertical distance h below the highest

point such that

(a) Rh (b) 3

Rh

(c) 2

Rh (d)

3

2Rh

33. The tension in the string revolving in a vertical

circle with a mass m at the end which is at the

lowest position

(a) r

mv 2

(b) mgr

mv

2

(c) mgr

mv

2

(d) mg

R

h

t

v

(a)

t

v

(b)

t

v

(c)

t

v

(d)

v

d h h

d

v

v

d h h

d

v



34. As per given figure to complete the circular loop

what should be the radius if initial height is 5 m

(a) 4 m (b) 3 m

(c) 2.5 m (d) 2 m

35. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of

600 km/h at a height of 1960 m. When it is vertically

at a point A on the ground, a bomb is released from

it. The bomb strikes the ground at point B. The

distance AB is

(a) 1200 m (b) 0.33 km

(c) 3.33 km (d) 33 km

36. A large number of bullets are fired in all

directions with same speed v . What is the

maximum area on the ground on which these

bullets will spread?

(a) g

v 2

(b) 2

4

g

v

(c) 2

42

g

v (d)

2

22

g

v

37. For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height reached

to the square of flight time is (g = 10 ms–2

)

(a) 5 : 4 (b) 5 : 2

(c) 5 : 1 (d) 10 : 1

38. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same

range R for two angles of projection if t1 and t2

are the times of flight in the two cases then

(a) 221 Rtt (b) Rtt 21

(c) R

tt1

21 (d) 221

1

Rtt

39. A body of mass m is thrown upwards at an angle

with the horizontal with velocity v. While rising up

the velocity of the mass after t seconds will be

(a) 22 )sin()cos( vv (b) gtvv 2)sincos(

(c) gtvtgv )sin2(222 (d) gtvtgv )cos2(222

40. A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5

m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity

10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so

as to take the shortest possible path to go to the

south?

(a) 30° with downstream

(b) 60° with downstream

(c) 120° with downstream

(d) South

41. Match the Column I with Column II and mark the

correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

i. Boltzmann constant p. ][ 12 TML

ii. Coefficient of viscosity q. ][ 11 TML

iii. Planck’s constant r. ][ 13 KMLT

iv. Thermal conductivity s. ][ 122 KTML

Codes :

i ii iii iv

(a) p q r s

(b) s p q r

(c) s q p r

(d) s p r q

42. A projectile is projected from top of a pole 80 m

with a speed of 15 ms-1

at an angle 37o with

horizontal. Find range.

(a) 30 (b) 45

(c) 60 m (d) 90

43. The position-time graph for a culprit and police

are shown in the figure. Find the time after which

police caught the culprit.

(a) 1 s (b) 2 s

(c) 3 s (d) 12 s

44. A juggler keeper four balls in air after throwing

the balls in equal interval of time. Each ball rises

upto height 20 m.

Mark the correct option (s) for the following

questions.

Find the position of other balls from hand at the

time when fourth ball is in hand. (g = 10 ms-2

).

(a) 15 m, 20 m, 15 m (b) 5 m, 15 m, 20 m

(c) 5 m, 15 m, 15 m (d) None of these

45. The equation of trajectory of a particle is

253 yyx

The particle is at origin at t = 0. Its acceleration is

.̂10ia Its initial speed is

(a) 1 ms-1

(b) 2 ms-1

(c) 10 ms-1

(d) Cannot be determined

h = 5 m



46. The molality of 15% (mass/vol.) solution of H2SO4 of

density 1.1 g/cm3 is approximately:

(a) 1.2 (b) 1.4

(c) 1.8 (d) 1.6

47. The modern atomic weight scale is based on:

(a) C12

(b) O16

(c) H1

(d) C13

48. In a compound C, H, N atoms are present in

9 : 1 : 3.5 by mass. Molecular mass of compound is

108. Its molecular formula is:

(a) C2H6N2 (b) C3H4N

(c) C6H8N2 (d) C9H12N3

49. H2O2 solution used for hair bleaching is sold as a

solution of approximately 5.0g H2O2 per 100 mL of

the solution. The molecular mass of H2O2 is 34. The

molarity of this solution is approximately:

(a) 3.0 (b) 1.5

(c) 0.15 (d) 4.0

50. The amount of anhydrous Na2CO3 present in 250 mL

of 0.25M solution is:

(a) 6.625g (b) 6.0g

(c) 66.25g (d) 6.225g

51. A compound contains atoms X, Y, Z. The oxidation

number of X is +2, Y is +5 and Z is –2. The possible

formula of compound is :

(a) XY1Z2 (b) Y2(XZ3)2

(c) X3(YZ4)2 (d) X3(Y4Z)2

52. A sample of an alloy weighing 0.50 g and containing

90% Ag was dissolved in conc. HNO3. Ag was

analysed by Volhard method in which 25 mL of

KCNS were required for complete neutralization. The

normality of KCNS is:

(a) 0.167 (b) 1.67

(c) 0.0167 (d) 0.1

53. 45 g of acid of mol. mass 90 neutralised by 200 mL

of 5 N caustic potash. The basicity of the acid is:

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

54. The first emission line of Balmer series for H-

spectrum has the wave no. equal to _______ cm–1

:

(a) 400

9 HR (b)

144

7 HR

(c) 4

3 HR (d)

36

5 HR

55. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr

orbit of a hydrogen atom : [a0 is Bohr radius]

(a) 20

2

2

4 ma

h

(b)

20

2

2

16 ma

h

(c) 20

2

2

32 ma

h

(d)

20

2

2

64 ma

h

56. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of

an electron in 5th orbit is:

(a)

h25 (b)

h

(c)

h10 (d)

h5.2

57. A ball of mass 200 g is moving with a velocity of 10

m sec–1

. If the error in measurement of velocity is

0.1%, the uncertainty in its position is :

(a) 3.3 10–31

m (b) 3.3 10–27

m

(c) 5.3 10–25

m (d) 2.64 10–32

m

58. A 3p-orbital has:

(a) Two non-spherical nodes

(b) Two spherical nodes

(c) One spherical and one non-spherical node

(d) One spherical and two non-spherical nodes

59. Which set of quantum numbers is wrong?

(a) n = 2, l = 1 m = 0, s = 2

1

(b) n = 2, l = 2 m = 0, s = 2

1

(c) n = 3, l = 2 m = 0, s = 2

1

(d) None of these

60. Which orbital is represented by the complete wave

function 420?

(a) 4d (b) 3d

(c) 4p (d) 4s

61. The orbital angular momentum for an electron

revolving in an orbit is 12

llh

. This momentum

for a s-electron is:

(a)2

h (b)

22

h

(c) 22

1 h (d) Zero

62. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l:

(I) n = 4, l = 1 (II) n = 4, l = 0

(III) n = 3, l = 2 (IV) n = 3, l = 1

Can be placed in order of increasing energy as:

(a) (IV) < (II) < (III) < (I)

(b) (II) < (IV) < (I) < (III)

(c) (I) < (III) < (II) < (IV)

(d) (III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)

CHEMISTRY



63. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in

ground state is –13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd excited

state is:

(a) – 1.51 Ev (b) – 3.4 eV

(c) – 6.04 eV (d) – 13.6 eV

64. Consider the following conversions :

(i) O(g) + e–

)g(O , H1

(ii) F(g) + e–

)g(F , H2

(iii) Cl(g) + e–

)g(Cl , H3

(iv)

)g(O + e–

2)g(O , H4

That according to given information the incorrect

statement is :

(a) H3 is more negative than H1 and H2

(b) H1 is less negative than H2

(c) H1, H2 and H3 are negative whereas H4 is

positive

(d) H1 and H3 are negative whereas H2 and H4

are positive

65. Which of the following is the incorrect match?

(a) [Ar]3d54s

1 4

th period, 6

th group

(b) [Kr]4d10

5th period, 12

th group

(c) [Rn]6d27s

2 7

th period, 3

th group

(d) [Xe]4f14

5d26s

2 6

th period, 5

th group

66. Which of the following order is correct for the property

mentioned in brackets?

(a) S2–

> Cl– > K

+ > Ca

2+ (Ionisation energy)

(b) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)

(c) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (Electronegativity)

(d) Na+ > Li

+ > Mg

2+ > Be

2+ > Al

3+ (Ionic radius)

67. Incorrect order of ionic size is :

(a) La3+

> Gd3+

> Eu3+

> Lu3+

(b) V2+

> V3+

> V4+

> V5+

(c) Tl+ > In

+ > Sn

2+ > Sb

3+

(d) K+ > Sc

3+ > V

5+ > Mn

7+

68. Which among the following factors is the most

important in making fluorine, the strongest oxidising

halogen?

(a) Bond dissociation energy

(b) Ionisation enthalpy

(c) Hydration enthalpy

(d) Electron affinity

69. The ground state electronic configurations of the

elements, U, V, W, X, and Y (these symbols do not

have any chemical significance) are as follows :

U 1s22s

22p

3

V 1s22s

22p

63s

1

W 1s22s

22p

63s

23p

2

X 1s22s

22p

63s

23p

63d

54s

2

Y 1s22s

22p

63s

23p

63d

104s

24p

6

Determine which sequence of elements satisfy the

following statements :

(i) Element forms a carbonate which is not

decomposed by heating

(ii) Element is most likely to form coloured ionic

compounds

(iii) Element has largest atomic radius

(iv) Element forms only acidic oxide

(a) V W Y U (b) V X Y W

(c) V W Y X (d) V X W U

70. If the ionization enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy

of an element are 275 and 86 kcal mol–1

respectively,

then the electronegativity of the element on the

Pauling scale is :

(a) 2.8 (b) 0.0

(c) 4.0 (d) 2.6

71. The correct order of increasing electron affinity of the

following elements is :

(a) O < S < F < Cl (b) O < S < Cl < F

(c) S < O < F < Cl (d) S < O < Cl < F

72. Which of the following attraction is strongest?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

73. The ratio of a-bond and n-bond in tetracyano

ethylene is :

(a) 2: 1 (b) 1: 1

(c) 1: 2 (d) None of these

74. The hybridization of the central atom will change

when:

(a) NH3 combines with H+

(b) H3BO3 combines with OH–

(c) NH3 forms 2NH

(d) H2O combines with H+



75. Which molecular geometry is least likely to result

from a trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry?

(a) Trigonal planar (b) See-saw

(c) Linear (d) T-shaped

76. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following

statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is

false :

(I) The order of repulsion between different pair of

electrons is lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp

(II) In general, as the number of lone pair of

electrons on central atom increases, value of

bond angle from normal bond angle also

increases

(III) The number of lone pair on O in H2O is 2 while

on N in NH3 is 1

(IV) The structures of xenon fluorides and xenon

oxyfluorides could not be explained on the basis

of VSEPR theory

(a) TTTF (b) TFTF

(c) TFTT (d) TFFF

77. The correct order of H – M – H bonds angle is :

(a) NH3 < PH3 < SbH3 < BiH3

(b) AsH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < NH3

(c) NH3 < PH3 < BiH3 < SbH3

(d) BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3

78. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is

polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is because:

(a) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom

(b) N – F bond is more polar than B – F bond

(c) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular

(d) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not

79. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion gives

40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The

hydrocarbon is:

(a) C4H5 (b) C8H10

(c) C4H8 (d) C4H10

80. The correct order of strength of H-bond in the

following compound:

(a) H2O > H2O2 > HF > H2S

(b) HF > H2O2 > H2O > H2S

(c) HF > H2O > H2S > H2O2

(d) HF > H2O > H2O2 > H2S

81. According to Charles' law :

(a) (dV/dT)P = K

(b) (dV/dT)P = –K

(c) (dV/dT)P = – K/T

(d) none of these

82. V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2 for

an ideal gas are shown in figure. Which is correct?

(a) P1 > P2 (b) P1 < P2

(c) P1 = P2 (d) All of these

83. A gas is heated from 0°C to 100°C at 1.0 atm

pressure. If the initial volume of the gas is 10 L, its

final volume would be:

(a) 7.32 L (b) 10.0 L

(c) 13.66 L (d) 20.0 L

84. Density of air at NTP is 0.001293g/mL. Its vapour

density is:

(a) 0.001293

(b) 1.293

(c) 14.48

(d) cannot be calculated

85. O2 is collected over water at 20°C. The pressure

inside shown by the gas is 740 mm of Hg. What is

the pressure due to O2 alone if vapour pressure of

H2O is 18 mm at 20°C?

(a) 722 mm (b) 740 mm

(c) 758 mm (d) None of these

86. The ratio of rates of diffusion of CO2 and SO2 at the

same P and T is:

(a) 11:4 (b) 4:11

(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 6

87. As the temperature is raised from 20°C to 40°C, the

average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a

factor

(a) 2 (b) 293

313

(c) 293

313 (d)

2

1

88. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of

molecules H2, N2, O2 and HBr is :

(a) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr

(b) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2

(c) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2

(d) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr



89. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted

by C*, average speed by C and mean square speed

by C, then for a large number of molecules the ratios

of these speeds are:

(a) C* : C : C = 1.128 : 1.225 : 1

(b) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225

(c) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.125 : 1.128

(d) C* : C : C = 1.225 : 1.128 : 1

90. The value of van der Waals' constant 'a' for gases

O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and

2.253 litre2

atm mol–2

respectively. The gas which

can most easily be liquefied is

(a) O2 (b) N2

(c) NH3 (d) CH4



BIOLOGY 91. Green algae are kept in:

(a) Phaeophyceae

(b) Xanthophylls

(c) Chlorophyceae

(d) Rhodophyceae

92. Zoospores are formed during asexual

reproduction of algae and formed in:

(a) Sporangia

(b) Zoosporangia

(c) Microsporangia

(d) Megasporangia

93. The algae possess chlorophyll a, c,

carotenoids and xanthophylls belong to:

(a) Green algae

(b) Brown algae

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) None of these

94. The photosynthetic leaf like organ found in

some of the algae are called

(a) Sporophyll

(b) Fronds

(c) Leaves

(d) Sealy leaves

95. The biflagellate pear-shaped zoospores are

characteristic of:

(a) Red algae

(b) Green algae

(c) Brown algae

(d) All of the above

96. Floridean starch is similar to:

(a) Amylopectin

(b) Glycogen

(c) Fructose

(d) Both (a) and (b)

97. Most reduced type of sexual reproduction

found in members of

(a) Red algae

(b) Green algae

(c) Brown algae


98. Poly sulphate esters are present in the cell

wall of:

(a) Ectocarpus and Dictyota

(b) Gelidium and Gracilaria

(c) Ectocarpus and Sargassum

(d) Spirogyra and Chara

99. Organisms referred as to amphibians of plant

kingdom are:

(a) Pteridophytes

(b) Bryophytes

(c) Angiosperms

(d) Gymnosperms

100. Bryophytes required ______ for fertilization

(a) Nutrients

(b) Water

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) None of these

101. Sporophyte of bryophytes is:

(I) Multicellular body

(II) Parasite on gametophyte

(III) Partially undergoes reduction division to

form spores

(IV) Derives the water from gametophytes

(a) II and III

(b) III and IV

(c) Only I


102. The male sex organ of bryophyte is called:

(a) Antherozoids (b) Testes

(c) Globule (d) None of these

103. Division in zygote results in formation of ____

in bryophytes:

(a) Gametophyte (b) Sporophyte

(c) Antherozoids (d) Archegonium

104. Liverworts are found in:

(a) Moist shady places

(b) Banks of steams, marshy ground

(c) Damp soil, bard of trees and deep in the

woods




105. Marchantia is:

(a) An algae

(b) Gymnosperm

(c) Fern

(d) Bryophyte

106. Spore in bryophytes are formed:

(a) On the gametophyte

(b) On the sporophyte

(c) In the seta of sporophyte

(d) In the capsule of sporophyte

107. Protonema is found in:

(a) Liverworts

(b) Selaginella

(c) Funaria

(d) None of these

108. Vegetative reproduction in mosses takes place

by

(a) Fragmentation and budding in secondary

protonema

(b) Binary fission

(c) Spore dispersal


109. Sphagnum belongs to:

(a) Ferns

(b) Liverworts

(c) Mosses

(d) None of these

110. The plant body of pteridophyte is:

(a) Not wall-developed

(b) Lacks vascular tissue

(c) Is thalloid

(d) Posses true root, leaves and stem

111. Which one is false about pteridophyte?

(a) They flourish well moist and shady

condition

(b) They are found in cool damp and shady

place

(c) The xylem posses vessels

(d) None of these

112. Vascular plants which do not bear seeds is

(a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes

(c) Gymnosperms (d) None of these

113. The production of spores by the spore mother

cells is the result of:

(a) Mitosis

(b) Meiosis

(c) Mitosis and Meiosis both

(d) Amitosis

114. The male and female sex organs of

pteridophyte are called:

(a) Globule and nucule respectively

(b) Antheridia and archegonia respectively

(c) Spermatangia and oogonia respectively

(d) Tests & ovary respectively

115. Heterosporous plants are:

(a) Producing one kind of spores

(b) Producing large and small spores

(c) Producing two type of spores which are

similar in size

(d) None of these

116. Vascular plants, with seeds but no fruits are:

(a) Bryophyte

(b) Angiosperms

(c) Gymnosperms

(d) Pteridophytes

117. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovaries in:

(a) Pteridophytes (b) Angiosperms

(c) Gymnosperms (d) All of the above

118. Gymnosperms

(a) Are naked seeds plants

(b) Are have tap roots

(c) Are heterosporous


119. Male gametophyte which is highly reduced

and confined to only limited numbers of cells is

called:

(a) Autherozoid

(b) Spermatozoid

(c) Pollen grain




120. Angiosperms include

(a) Vascular plants with naked seeds

(b) Vascular plants with covered seeds

(c) Few vascular plants with naked seeds

(d) Few vascular plants with covered seeds

121. Height of eucalyptus tree is approximately?

(a) 100 m

(b) 1000 m

(c) 10 m

(d) 10 ‒ 20 m

122. Embryo sacs in angiosperms is:

(a) Male gametophyte

(b) Well-developed female gametophyte

(c) Highly reduced female gametophyte

(d) Well-developed female sporophyte

123. The cells of embryo sac are:

(a) Diploid

(b) Haploid

(c) May be haploid or diploid

(d) None of these

124. Ovary is the characteristic feature of:

(a) Gymnosperms

(b) Angiosperm

(c) Pteridophyte


125. Fruit formation in angiosperm takes place by:

(a) Development of ovule after fertilization

(b) Development of ovary after fertilization

(c) Axillary bud

(d) Terminal bud

126. The haploid plant body produces ______ and

is referred to as ______.

(a) Spores, Sporophyte

(b) Gametes, Gametophyte

(c) Zoospores, Zoosporangia

(d) Conidia, Conidiophores

127. In haplontic life cycle zygote divides by:

(a) Mitosis

(b) Meiosis

(c) Any of them

(d) Amitosis

128. How many organisms show diplontic life

cycle?

Selaginella, Equisetum, Cycas, Cedrus,

Ectocarpus, Fucus, Sequoia

(a) 7 (b) 5

(c) 4 (d) 6

129. Identify A and B:

(a) A: Porphyra, B: Laminaria

(b) A: Polysiphonia, B: Porphyra

(c) A: Porphyra, B: Polysiphonia

(d) A: Volvox, B: Chara

130. The earliest classification used only:

(a) Physiological characters

(b) Gross Anatomical characters

(c) Gross morphological characters


131. Vegetative reproduction in algae is by:

(a) Binary fusion

(b) Fragmentation

(c) Budding

(d) Cyst formation

132. Carrageen is secreted by

(a) All the algae

(b) Only brown algae

(c) Only red algae

(d) Both red and brown algae

133. Pyrenoids store:

(a) Protein

(b) Starch

(c) Lipids


134. Kelps may reach height up to

(a) 120 m

(b) 100 m

(c) 1000 m

(d) 10 m



135. The plant body attached to substratum in

brown algae by:

(a) Rhizoids

(b) Multicellular hair

(c) Holdfast

(d) Roots

136. The arrangement of flagella in brown algae is:

(a) One and equally arranged

(b) Two unequal and laterally arranged

(c) Many flagella arranged anywhere on the

body

(d) Depend from organism to organism

137. How many of the following algae belong to the

category of red algae:

Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Laminaria,

Spirogyra, Porphyra, Fucus,

Chlamydomonas

(a) 2 (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 5

138. Female sex organ of bryophytes is:

(a) Oval in shape

(b) Irregular

(c) Flask shaped

(d) Depends on the organism

139. Zygote of bryophyte

(a) Multiply and form gametophyte

(b) Multiply and form the sporophyte

(c) Undergoes reduction division just after

formation


140. Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is

found in:

(a) Ferns (b) Mosses

(c) Liverworts (d) None of these

141. In open type of circulatory system

(a) Blood flow in sinuses

(b) Blood pressure is low and irregular

(c) Found in arthropods and mollusc (except

cephalopods)

(d) All are true

142. When body of animal can be divided into

equal left and right halves by one plane

symmetry. It is known as

(a) Bilateral

(b) Radial

(c) Biradial

(d) Asymmetric

143. Triploblastic animal contains

(a) Ectoderm

(b) Mesoderm

(c) Endoderm


144. Metameric segmentation is found in

(a) Annelida

(b) Arthropod

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) Platyhelminthes

145. Radial symmetry is shown by

(a) Ctenophores

(b) Coelenterates

(c) Adult echinodermatas


146. Select total number of organism from the

following those are sessile

Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla,

Hydra, Jelly fish, Earthworm

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

147. Match the following columns:

Column I Column II

(A) Sycon (1) Bath sponge

(B) Spongilla (2) Scypha

(C) Euspongia (3) Fresh water

sponge

(a) A:2, B:3, C:1

(b) A:1, B:2, C:3

(c) A:3, B:2, C:1

(d) A:3, B:1, C:2



148. In sponge, sperm and ova are produced by

same individual. Such type of organism are

called

(a) Asexual (b) Unisexual

(c) Hermaphrodite (d) Dioecious

149. Which of the following is correct about

reproduction in sponges

(a) The mode of asexual reproduction

gemmule formation, budding and

fragmentation

(b) Fertilization is internal

(c) Development is indirect


150. First diploblastic animal showing tissue level of

organization is.

(a) Sycon (b) Gorgonia

(c) Taenia (d) Locust

151. Some cnidarians examples corals have a

skeleton composed of:

(a) Spongin fibres

(b) Silica

(c) Calcium carbonate

(d) Any of the above

152. Gastro-vascular cavity with single opening is

found in:

(a) Porifera

(b) Coelenterate

(c) Aschelminthes

(d) Annelida

153. Body bears eight external rows of ciliated

comb plates present in phylum ______.

(a) Coelenterata

(b) Porifera

(c) Ctenophora

(d) Platyhelminthes

154. Platyhelminthes called flat worms because

(a) They are triploblastic

(b) They are without coelom

(c) They have organ level of organization

(d) There body is dorso-ventrally flattened

155. Flame cells help in excretion and

osmoregulation in

(a) Earthworm

(b) Hookworm

(c) Roundworm

(d) Tapeworm

156. Which character not belongs to phylum

Aschelminthes?

(a) Excretory tube (branched ducts) remove

body waste form the body cavity through

excretory pore

(b) Usually sexes are separate (unisexual or

dioecious)

(c) Development may be direct or indirect

(d) Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well

developed muscular pharynx

157. Metamerism is found in:

(a) Ascaris

(b) Leech

(c) Loligo

(d) Octopus

158. Annelids may be:

(a) Aquatic (marine and fresh water),

terrestrial

(b) Free living

(c) Parasite


159. First true coelomates are:

(a) Nereis (b) Centipede

(c) Crab (d) Wuchereria

160. Which of the following is largest phylum?

(a) Mollusca

(b) Echinodermata

(c) Arthropoda

(d) Annelida

161. Which of the following phylum shows

segmentation?

(a) Annelida

(b) Arthropoda

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) Platyhelminthes



162. Respiration occur through organs like gills,

book gills, book lungs or tracheal system

found in phylum

(a) Mollusca

(b) Annelida

(c) Arthropoda

(d) Echinodermata

163. Ecdysis seen in case of:

(a) Nereis (b) Pila

(c) Sea−urchin (d) Cockroach

164. Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic,

segmented, coelomate and covered by

chitinous exoskeleton are feature of

(a) Annelida (b) Vertebrata

(c) Amphibia (d) Arthropoda

165. Select from the following total no. of organism

belongs to phylum arthropoda.

Locust, Butterfly, Scorpion, Prawn, Salpa,

Doliolum, Pila, Chiton, Antedon, Catla,

Hyla, Myxine, Locust, Loligo, Culex,

Cucumaria, Cuttlefish

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 12

166. Which of the following is true about

reproduction in mollusca?

(1) Mostly dioecious

(2) Oviparous

(3) Mainly indirect development

(4) Fertilization in external or internal

(a) All except (4)

(b) All except (3)

(c) All except (2)


167. Mantle cavity is a site of:

(a) Excretion

(b) Respiration

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) None of these

168. Common name of which organism contain

‘sea’ in their name?

(a) Chaetopleura (b) Dentalium

(c) Sepia (d) Aplysia

169. Water vascular system helps in:

(a) Locomotion

(b) Capture and transport of food

(c) Respiration


170. Another name of cucumaria is:

(a) Sea urchin

(b) Sea mouse

(c) Sea pen

(d) Sea Cucumber

171. Excretory organ proboscis gland present in:

(a) Ascidia

(b) Salpa

(c) Doliolum

(d) Saccoglossus

172. Following are features of chordate

(1) Notochord present

(2) CNS is dorsal, hollow and single

(3) Pharynx perforated by gill slits

(4) Heart ventral

(5) A post-anal is present

(a) All except (4) (b) All except (2)

(c) All of the above (d) All except (5)

173. Other name of Branchiostoma is:

(a) Amphioxus

(b) Lancelot

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) None of these

174. Following are marine but migrate for spawning

to fresh water. After spawning, within a few

days, they die. Their larvae, after

metamorphosis, return to ocean. Specify the

correct one.

(a) Petromyzon (Lamprey)

(b) Myxine (Hagfish)

(c) Scoliodon




175. Scales found in chondrichthyes is/are:

(a) Placoid

(b) Cycloid

(c) Ctenoid


176. External fertilization in found in:

(a) Sting ray

(b) Flying fish

(c) Saw fish

(d) Dog fish

177. Respiration in tadpole larva is by

(a) Gills (b) Lungs

(c) Skin (d) All of the above

178. Skin is moist and a tympanum represent ear is

found in:

(a) Hyla (b) Frog

(c) Ichthyophis (d) All of the above

179. Which of the following is a ‘rat’?

(a) Felis (b) Canis

(c) Camelus (d) Rattus

180. Find out total number of organism given in

figure belongs to marine habitat:

(a) 1 (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 5

NEET - (WEEKEND BATCH) - RJ · PDF file · 2017-05-18The relation 3t 3x 6 describes...

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