NAME:___________________ BLAKE BUSINESS SCHOOL ...… · Web view* MAKE-UP HR WORK SHEET # *...

PROGRAM: MEDICAL ASSISTANT M. A. LEVEL II DATE:_________________________ * MAKE-UP HR WORK SHEET #__ *

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. You have been given this project work sheet because after review of your record, we have found that you qualify as such, based on need and on-going progress reports. Please understand that this work sheet is a standing substitution for time and not for education. It is your responsibility as a professional in regards to the latter.

2. You are to complete the attached work in-house, at the school and in a classroom with an instructor present, to whom you will turn this into once completed. You are not to carry this information on your own without supervision.

3. Computation of work related hours regarding this project will not be done immediately. Do understand that this project will be looked at and graded. If not found to be consistent or if any discrepancies are found, the administration reserves the right to null and void the entire project ! Computations will be done once the entire project has been viewed.

DIRECTIONS: IN-HOUSE WORK: MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN FACILITY, IN CLASSROOM SETTING & ASSIGNED TOCLASSRM INSTRUCTOR. NOTES & BOOKS ALLOWED. CONSULTATIONS WITH PEERS OR INSTRUCTORS WILL VOID

THIS WORK SHEET. TOTAL ASSIGNMENT WORTH = SIX (6) HOURS

INSTRUCTOR SIGNATURE: _____________________________

STAFF SIGNATURE: __________________________________

REVIEWED BY (DRD)[PRIOR TO SUBMISSION BY STUDENT]: ________________________

DIRECTOR OR DESIGNEE SIGNATURE: __________________________

MAKE-UP HRS WORK SHEET #___

TOTAL MAKE-UP HRS WORTH = SIX (6) HRS

PROGRAM: MEDICAL ASSISTANT M. A. LEVEL II DATE:_________________________ * MAKE-UP HR WORK SHEET #__ *

CLINICAL FIRSTAID PROCEDURES

DIRECTIONS: IN-HOUSE WORK: MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN FACILITY, IN CLASSROOM SETTING & ASSIGNED TO CLASSRM INSTRUCTOR. NOTES & BOOKS ALLOWED. CONSULTATIONS WITH PEERS OR INSTRUCTORS WILL VOID THIS WORK SHEET. TOTAL ASSIGNMENT WORTH = SIX (6) HOURS

PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Choose the best answer): Answer in letter only. Choose the answer that best describes the question. (QUES. #1 - 166)

1. Why is it important to follow the same basic steps in every emergency ?

a). So that you don't forget anything that might affect personal safety (yours and the victim's) and the victim's survival. b). So that you will be able to give a complete medical history to the EMS personnel who come to help. c). So that bystanders will know exactly what you are doing. d). None of the above.

2. Which of the following is a common signal of a heart attack ?

a). A person with a heart attack may complain of pain in the legs. b). A person with a heart attack may have a rapid pulse/dyspnea. c). Person with heart attack may have pain or pressure in chest.

d). A person having a heart attack may have dizziness, nausea, and vomiting. e). None of the above.

3. What should you do for someone who is coughing hard and seems to have something caught in the throat ? a). Offer a glass of water and instruct the person to drink it slowly. b). Stay with the person, but do not interfere with the person's attempts to cough up the object. c). Apply one hard "thump" with the palm of your hand to the

lower back. d). Apply one hard "thump" with the palm of your hand to the upper back. e). All of the above.

4. Assuming that CPR is started immediately after cardiac arrest, how soon must a victim receive advanced emergency medical care to have the best chance of survival ?

a). Within 5 minutes. c). Within 30 minutes b). Within 10 minutes. d). Within an hour.

5. You give RESCUE BREATHING when a person has stopped _______________.

6. Rescue breathing works because the _____________ you breathe out of your own lungs and into the lungs of the victim contains enough _____________ to keep the person alive until medical help arrives.

7. A person's airway can become obstructed if: The back of the _____________ drops into the throat.

8. A person's airway can become obstructed if: The tissues in the ____________ swell.

9. A person's airway can become obstructed if: A ____________ ___________ gets stuck in the airway.

10. A person's airway can become obstructed if: ____________ collect in the airway.

11. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious person is:

a). The back of the tongue is blocking the throat. b). An object is blocking the airway. c). Fluids are blocking the airway.

d). All of the above. e). None of the above.

12. You see someone collapse on the sidewalk in front of you. You survey the scene and decide it is safe. What should you do upon reaching the victim ? Check for _______________, position the victim, if neccessary, and open the ______________.

13. How do you open the airway ?

a). Tilt the head and lift the chin. c). Push down on the chin. b). Blow into the victim's nose. d). Push up on the chin.

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14. How often should you give rescue breaths to an adult ?

a). Give 1 breath every second. c). Blow 1 breath every 10 seconds. b). Blow 1 breath every 5 seconds. d). Give 1 breath every 30 seconds.

15. You should continue rescue breathing until one of four things happens. Which of the following may represent one of these four things:

a). The victim starts breathing. b). EMS personnel arrive and take over. c). Another trained rescuer takes over for you.

d). You are too exhausted to continue. e). All of the above. f). None of the above.

16. Which of these common actions may lead to choking ? a). Trying to swallow poorly chewed food. b). Drinking alcohol before and during eating. c). Wearing dentures which make it difficult to sense the size of food.

d). Eating while talking excitedly or laughing while eating. e). Walking playing, or running with objects in the mouth. f). All of the above. g). None of the above.

17. A choking victim is coughing forcefully. You should:

a). Slap the person on the back. b). Stay with the person and encourage him or her to continue coughing.

c). Perform an abdominal thrust. d). All of the above. e). None of the above.

18. A person is coughing weakly and having a great difficulty breathing. Which of the following should you do first ?

a). Give first aid for complete airway obstruction. b). Leave the person alone and watch him or her.

c). Slap the person on the back. d). Perform an abdominal thrust.

19. What is the universal distress signal for choking ?

a). Clutching at the throat c). High-pitched wheezing b). Coughing forcefully d). Screaming for help

20. Abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver are given to a victim who is:

a). Coughing weakly and making high-pitched noises. b). Coughing forcefully and wheezing between breaths

c). Coughing weakly and making low-pitched noises. d). Coughing forcefully and wheezing after each breath.

21. When you give abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver, what part of your fist do you place against the victim.

a). The palm side b). The thumb side c). The knuckles d). None of the above

22. When you give abdomimal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver, where do you place your fist ? a). At the lower tip of the breastbone b). Just above the navel and well below the lower tip of the breastbone

c). On the navel d). Just below the navel and well above the lower tip of the breastbone

23. Abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver are given:

a). With a quick upward thrust c). Inward and downward b). Straight back d). Outward and upward

24. The primary reason dangerous or caustic substances should be labeled and not accessible to others is that they:

a). could be mistakenly ingested by children or confused patients. b). could cause burns or injuries.

c). are inappropriate for use in health facilities. d). are costly.

25. Where is it usually easiest to hear the heartbeat (Apical Pulse) ? a). Directly over the sternum at the fourth rib. b). At the left midclavicular line and the fifth interspace

c). At the right midclavicular line and the fourth interspace d). At the left midclavicular line and axillary level

26. For what length of time should pressure be applied to an ARTERY after a blood sample is drawn ?

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a). 30 seconds c). 5 minutes b). 2 minutes d). 10 minutes

27. In counting respirations, you know it is desirable to do so without the patient's knowledge because:

a). he or she may hyperventilate and faint b). respirations are controlled by both involuntary & voluntary means.

c). you don't want the patient to ask what the respiratory rate is d). you don't want the patient to think you are "nosey."

28. Which of the following best describes Cheyne-stokes respirations ?

a). Continuous gasping for air b). Periods of apnea with gradual increase and subsequent decrease in rate and depth

c). Rapid, shallow respirations d). Slow, noisy, labored respirations

29. What is your first action when you discover patient who appears to have had a cardiac arrest ?

a). Begin cardiac compression. b). Begin rescue breathing.

c). Check patient for patent airway. d). Check patient for responsiveness, pulse, and breathing.

30. Which statement about CPR is most correct ?

a). Downward pressure is exerted on the tip of the xiphoid during cardiac compression. b). External cardiac compression is always accompanied by artificial ventilations.

c). The initial ventilatory maneuver is to give "two quick, full breaths." d). The precardial thump is used with all types of cardiac arrest.

31. What is the best indicator to use to determine that external cardiac compression should be started ?

a). Absence of carotid pulse c). Cessation of respirations b). Absence of radial or temporal pulse d). Dilated pupils

32. When performing CPR with two rescuers, the ratio of cardiac compressions to lung inflations is: a). 5:1 b). 7:1 c). 10:1 d). 15:2

33. In performing one-person CPR on an adult, what is the correct ratio of breathing to chest compression ?

a). Interpose one breath after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 80 compressions per minute. b). Interpose two breaths after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 80 compression per minute.

c). Interpose one breath after each 5 chest compressions at a rate of 60 compression per minute. d). Interpose two breaths after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 60 compressions per minute.

34. How far should the sternum be compressed (PMI) when doing cardiac compression on an adult ?

a). 1/2 - 3/4 inch c). 1 1/2 - 2 inches b). 3/4 - 1 1/2 inches d). 2 - 2 1/2 inches

35. What is the correct rate of compression of the sternum (PMI) for CPR with an infant ?

a). 60 per minute c). 80 to 100 per minute b). 70 to 80 per minute d). 100 to 120 per minute

36. CPR is terminated in which of the following situations ? a). A physician pronounces the patient dead. b). Breathing and a spontaneous heartbeat are detected.

c). The rescuer reaches exhaustion, and there is no replacement. d). All of the above.

37. Which of the following are indicative of shock ?

a). Bradycardia & Dry skin b). Hypotension & Restlessness c). Tachycardia

d). Only answers "a", "b" and "c" are correct. e). Only answers "b" and "c" are correct. f). Only answers "a" and "b" are correct.

38. For what length of time should pressure be applied to a VEIN after a blood sample is drawn ?

a). 30 seconds c). 5 minutes b). 2 minutes d). 10 minutes

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39. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious person is:

a). The back of the tongue is blocking the throat. b). An object is blocking the airway. c). Fluids are blocking the airway.

d). All of the above. e). None of the above.

40. How do you open the airway ?

a). Tilt the head and lift the chin. c). Push down on the chin. b). Blow into the victim's nose. d). Push up on the chin.

41. How often should you give rescue breaths to an adult ?

a). Give 1 breath every second. c). Blow 1 breath every 10 seconds. b). Blow 1 breath every 5 seconds. d). Give 1 breath every 30 seconds.

42. A person is coughing weakly and having a great difficulty breathing. Which of the following should you do first ?

a). Give first aid for complete airway obstruction. b). Leave the person alone and watch him or her.

c). Slap the person on the back. d). Perform an abdominal thrust.

43. Abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver are given to a victim who is:

a). Coughing weakly and making high-pitched noises. b). Coughing forcefully and wheezing between breaths

c). Coughing weakly and making low-pitched noises. d). Coughing forcefully and wheezing after each breath.

44. When you give abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver, what part of your fist do you place against the victim.

a). The palm side b). The thumb side c). The knuckles d). None of the above

45. When you give abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver, where do you place your fist ? a). At the lower tip of the breastbone b). Just above the navel and well below the lower tip of the breastbone

c). On the navel d). Just below the navel and well above the lower tip of the breastbone

46. Abdominal thrusts in the Heimlich Maneuver are given:

a). With a quick upward thrust c). Inward and downward b). Straight back d). Outward and upward

47. Where is it usually easiest to hear the heartbeat (Apical Pulse) ? a). Directly over the sternum at the fourth rib. b). At the left midclavicular line and the fifth interspace

c). At the right midclavicular line and the fourth interspace d). At the left midclavicular line and axillary level

48. Which statement about CPR is most correct ?

a). Downward pressure is exerted on the tip of the xiphoid during cardiac compression. b). External cardiac compression is always accompanied by

artificial ventilations. c). The initial ventilatory maneuver is to give "two quick, full breaths." d). The precordial thump is used with all types of cardiac arrest.

49. What is the best indicator to use to determine that external cardiac compression should be started ?

a). Absence of carotid pulse c). Cessation of respirations b). Absence of radial or temporal pulse d). Dilated pupils

50. When performing CPR with two rescuers, the ratio of cardiac compressions to lung inflations is: a). 5:1 b). 7:1 c). 10:1 d). 15:2

51. In performing one-person CPR on an adult, what is the correct ratio of breathing to chest compression ?

a). Interpose one breath after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 80 compressions per minute. b). Interpose two breaths after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 80 compression per minute. c). Interpose one breath after each 5 chest compressions at a rate of 60 compression per minute.

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d). Interpose two breaths after each 15 chest compressions at a rate of 60 compressions per minute.

52. How far should the sternum be compressed (PMI) when doing cardiac compression on an adult ?

a). 1/2 - 3/4 inch c). 1 1/2 - 2 inches b). 3/4 - 1 1/2 inches d). 2 - 2 1/2 inches

53. What is the correct rate of compression of the sternum (PMI) for CPR with an infant ?

a). 60 per minute c). 80 to 100 per minute b). 70 to 80 per minute d). 100 to 120 per minute

54. CPR is terminated in which of the following situations ? a). A physician pronounces the patient dead. b). Breathing and a spontaneous heartbeat are detected.

c). The rescuer reaches exhaustion, and there is no replacement. d). All of the above.

55. In the order of priorities, which of the following are the three primary first aid measures ?

a). maintain breathing, stop bleeding, manage shock. b). stop bleeding, maintain breathing, reduce shock.

c). prevent shock, stop bleeding, maintain breathing. d). stop bleeding, prevent shock, avoid infection.

56. The primary survey, a search for immediate life-threatening problem, iconducted in the following order:

a). check for bleeding, breathing, and pulse. b). check for airway breathing, pulse, hemorrhage.

c). check for pulse, breathing, and bleeding. d). check for pulse, bleeding, and breathing.

57. The most common temperature taken by First Aiders in the field is the:

a). oral temperature c). rectal temperature b). relative skin temperature d). axillary temperature

58. The First Aider involved in the look, listen, and feel process is:

a). securing the scene c). checking for circulation b). checking for bleeding d). checking for breathing

59. You can tell that you are performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation correctly if you can:

a). see the victim's chest rise and fall. b). feel resistance as you blow air in.

c). feel air escaping from the victim's mouth as he exhales. d). all of the above

60. When you are giving mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should:

a). hold the victim's nostrils closed while breathing into his mouth. b). avoid touching the nostrils unless cardiopulmonary resuscitation

is being given at the same time. c). pinch the nostrils as you lift your mouth from his mouth. d). keep the nostrils pinched all the time.

61. The preferable method of opening the airway is the:

a). jaw thrust c). head-tilt/jaw-thrust b). neck-lift/jaw-thrust d). head-tilt/chin-lift

62. Severe bleeding from the upper arm may be controlled by finger pressure on:

a). femoral artery b). temporal artery c). radial artery d). brachial artery

63. When a dressing becomes saturated with blood, you should:

a). remove it and apply a new dressing b). apply a tourniquet c). leave the dressing in place and apply an additional

dressing on top of it. d). tie the knot on the bandage tighter.

64. How long does clotting take in most instances ?

a). one to two minutes c). ten to twelve minutes b). six to seven minutes d). eighteen to twenty minutes

65. Do not try to stop a nosebleed in the case of:

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a). broken nose b). fractured skull c). fractured jaw d). hypertension 66. A victim with a nosebleed should:

a). sit quietly and then pinch the nostrils to apply pressure. b). blow the nose until the bleeding stops. c). tilt the head back or lie flat while applying pressure to

the bridge of the nose. d). lean forward, pack the nostrils, nd apply heat.

67. Use a tourniquet only if:

a). there is severe hemorrhage. b). bleeding cannot be controlled by direct pressure. c). bleeding cannot be controlled by pressure at the

appropriate pressure points. d). bleeding cannot be controlled by any other means.

68. Management of all but one of the following emergencies should precede shock:

a). bleeding b). burns c). cardiac arrest d). breathing stoppage

69. Anaphylactic shock should be considered:

a). a true medical emergency. b). an emergency only in a sensitized person. c). an emergency only if the person has been

stung on the face or head. d). a non-emergency situation.

70. In what order should the First Aider care for the following emergencies: (1) cardiac arrest; (2) shock; (3) respiratory failure; (4) bleeding. a). 3,1,4,2 b). 1,2,3,4 c). 1,3,4,2 d). 2,3,1,4

71. Which of the following is not an emergency-care technique for anaphylactic shock:

a). elevate the lower extremities and maintain a head-lowered position. b). if the reaction is due to an insect sting, place a constricting band above the site.

c). assist the victim in administering his medication if legally advisable. d). establish an airway.

72. Which of the following is not a means of preventing shock:

a). keep the victim's body temperature above normal. b). reassure the victim. c). loosen constrictive clothing.

d). control hemorrhage by direct pressure, elevation or pressure points.

73. The major objective in treating shock is to:

a). maintain the victim's body temperature. b). improve and/or maintain circulation.

c). help the victim stay conscious. d). keep the victim's head elevated.

74. The soft-tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called ?

a). laceration b). avulsion c). contusion d). abrasion

75. What type of wound has the greatest danger of infection ?

a). an incision b). a laceration c). a contusion d). a puncture

76. A serious injury in which large flaps of skin and tissue are torn loose or pulled off is called an:

a). abrasion b). amputation c). avulsion d). incision

77. To prevent contamination of a deep wound that is bleeding heavily and to help control bleeding, the First Aider should:

a). replace dressings as soon as they become soiled. b). clean the area with an antiseptic solution.

c). immediately remove any foreign object. d). leave the initial dressing in place.

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78. Proper handling of a severed part includes:

a). cleaning the part with an antiseptic solution. b). wrapping the part in gauze or a clean towel.

c). freezing the part as quickly as possible. d). applying a tourniquet to the severed part to preserve fluids.

79. The chief duties of the First Aider in caring for open wounds are:

a). to aid in proper healing of the wound and to treat for shock. b). to cleanse the wound and to apply bandages correctly.

c). to calm and reassure the victim & immobilize the injured part. d). to stop bleeding & prevent germs from entering the wound.

80. The usual dose of syrup of ipecac for a child over one year of age is:

a). 15 milliliters (1 tablespoon) with 1 to 2 glasses of water. b). 30 milliliters (2 tablespoon) with 2 to 3 glasses of water.

c). 15 milliliters (1 tablespoon) with one half glass of water. d). 30 milliliters (2 tablespoon) with 1 to 2 glasses of water.

81. The common signs and symptoms of poisoning by ingestion are:

a). nausea, vomiting, diarrhea b). severe abdominal pain or cramps

c). excessive salivation or sweating d). all of these answers

82. Syrup of ipecac is an effective means of inducing vomiting. What is the proper dose for eliminating poisons in an adult:

a). one teaspoon c). two tablespoons b). one tablespoon d). three tablespoons

83. What is a characteristic symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning ?

a). headache c). complaints of a strange taste in the mouth b). cool, pale skin d). stains around the mouth

84. What signs and symptoms do poison ivy, poison oak and poison sumac have in common ?

a). a red rash that does not itch c). initial redness of the affected area followed by bumps and blisters b). nausea and vomiting d). all of these answers

85. Symptoms of salmonella poisoning usually appear:

a). two to three days after ingestion of contaminated food. b). gradually, becoming worse within six to eight hours. c). suddenly, within 1 – 2 hours of eating contaminated food.

d). within twelve to twenty-four hours after ingestion of contaminated food.

86. Emergency care for the victim who has ingested a strong alkali or acid should include:

a). neutralization of the acid or alkali with activated charcoal. b). dilution with water and immediate transportaion.

c). inducement of vomiting with syrup of ipecac. d). all of these answers.

87. A common emergency among drug-abusing victims is: a). cardiac arrhythmias b). tremors c). hyperventilation d). convulsions 88. A pulse rate _________ should be considered a life-threatening drug emergency in an adult: a). below 60 or above 130 b). below 80 or above 100 c). below 60 or above 100 d). below 60 or above 120 89. Which of may the following indicate that an alcohol/drug emergency is life-threatening ? a). impaired coordination c). disturbance of vision b). pancreatitis d). vomiting while not fully conscious 90. Which of the following is part of the "talk-down" technique for communication with a drug/alcohol emergency victim:

a). restrain a violent victim if necessary b). encourage the victim to rest and sleep. c). forewarn the victim about what will happen

when the drug wears off. d). allow the victim some time alone if he feels that he needs it.

91. When you encounter an alcohol-abused victim, which of the following signs may indicate that medical attention is needed immediately ?

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a). high blood pressure b). increased breathing rate c). grand mal seizures d). hypoglycemia

92. Serious potential danger from inhalants includes:

a). psychic dependence c). allergic reaction that produces hay fever symptoms b). hallucinations and delusions d). altered heart rhythm 93. Most poisonous snakes have: a). multicolored rings around the body c). small teeth b). flat heads d). elliptical pupils

94. The constricting band applied for a snakebite wound should: a). limit the flow of venous blood but not arterial blood. b). limit the flow of both arterial and venous blood.

c). limit the flow of arterial blood but not venous blood. d). not limit the flow of either arterial or venous blood.

95. Care of the victim who has been bitten by a snake with fangs includes:

(1) have the victim lie down, remain quiet, and position the bitten extremity slightly lower that the heart; (2) cleanse the wound area with water and soap or hydrogen peroxide;

(3) wrap a constrictive band around the bitten extremity above the fang marks, restricting venous, but not arterial, blood flow; (4) apply suction to the wound

a). 2,3 and 4 c). 1,2 and 4 b). 1,2,3 and 4 d). 1,2 and 3 96. The emergency care for black widow and brown recluse bites always has one of the following in common:

a). application of a constricting band. b). application of an ice pack.

c). try to identify the spider. d). administering mouth-to-mouth ventilation.

97. If a sting has been inflicted by a honeybee and the stinger is still in the victim's skin, the First Aider should:

(1) never squeeze the area where the sting has occurred (2) remove the stinger by scraping with a fingernail or knife edge

(3) keep the victim lying down with his legs elevated slightly (4) apply moist heat to the area of the sting

a). 1,2,3 and 4 b). 1,2 and 3 c). 2,3 and 4 d). 1,3 and 4

98. Characteristics of the majority of poisonous snakes include:

a). irregularly shaped blotches on the skin c). elliptical pupils b). fangs d). all of these answers 99. In most cases, the pain from myocardial infarction is: a). in the upper abdomen and feels like indigestion b). very sharp, especially during inhalation c). located beneath the breastbone and feels like someone is

squeezing the chest d). between the shoulder blades in the back

100. Most acute heart attacks are caused by blockage of the _______ arteries. a). coronal b). carotid c). cephalic d). coronary 101. You are asked to assist a forty-seven -year-old employee who had a sudden onset of severe chest pain that traveled down his left shoulder to his hand. When you arrive, he is short of breath, frightened, and restless. What should you suspect ? a). angina pectoris b). heart attack c). chronic heart failure d). stroke 102. Which of the following is not a recommended practice in caring for a conscious, suspected heart-attack victim ? a). keep the victim moving, if possible. b). comfort and reassure the victim.

c). always have the victim transported to a hospital. d). loosen any tight-fitting clothing.

103. Which of the following is true regarding angina pectoris and myocardial infarction ? a). The pain usually lasts only three to eight minutes in angina pectoris and myocardial infarction. b). Extremes in weather, physical exertion, or stress usually

precipitate a myocardial infarction, but angina pectoris often occurs without warning. c). Nitroglycerine often relieves angina pectoris & myocardial

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infarction. d). The pain for both conditions is in the same general area, but it is more intense with angina pectoris.

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104. Which of the following are risk factors in heart disease: (1) lack of physical exercise (2) heavy cigarette smoking (3) dietary indiscretion (4) hypotension (5) chronic unhappiness a). 1,2, and 3 b). 1,2,3 and 4 c). 1,2,3, and 5 d). 1,2,3,4 and 5 105. Which of the following statements about the pain experienced as a result of myocardial infarction is not true ? a). the pain is usually centered underneath the breastbone. b). the pain may be centered in the upper abdomen where it is often mistaken for indigestion.

c). the right arm is usually more involved than the left arm. d). the victim often has a squeezing sensation.

106. Which of the following cerebral conditions is not a cause of stroke? a). thrombosis b). embolism c). hemorrhage d). hypotension

107. Which of the following are general signs and symptoms of stroke?

(1) change in level of mental ability (2) change in personality (3) trouble speaking or understanding speech (4) paralysis or weakness on one or both sides of the body

(5) convulsions (6) unequal pupils (7) drooping facial features (8) loss of bladder or bowel control

a). 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 and 8 c). 3,4,5,6, and 7 b). 1,3,4,7 and 8 d). 2,3,4,6 and 7

108. Which of the following are recommended procedures in the emergency care of a stroke victim? (1) handle the victim calmly (2) position the victim on back with head and shoulders slightly raised (3) remove all dentures, bridges, or false teeth

(4) keep the victim as warm as possible (5) if the victim is conscious, give small sips of water (6) administer smelling salts

a). 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 c). 1,2,3 and 4 b). 1,2,3 and 5 d). 1,2 and 3 109. When the blood supply to part of the brain is cut off, impairing the function of cells in that part of the brain, the victim is said to have suffered a (n). a). epileptic seizure c). coma b). stroke d). angina pectoris attack

110. Before an actual stroke, a person may suffer: a). complete speech loss c). loss of bladder control b). convulsions d). TIA's 111. The most critical stroke victim is the: a). one who becomes rigid and completely paralyzed on the involved side. b). one who has loss of vision and inability to speak.

c). one who has severe headache and unequal pupils. d). one who loses consciousness completely and becomes flaccid on the involved side.

112. Which of the following is not considered a category of COPD ? a). chronic bronchitis b). asthma c). atherosclerosis d). emphysema 113. Status asthmaticus is: (1) a true emergency requiring measures to maintain respirations. (2) a severe, prolonged asthmatic attack. (3) best cared for with the victim in the coma position.

(4) is often caused by allergic reaction, respiratory infection, or emotional stress. (5) when the airway becomes obstructed by swelling or mucus.

a). 1,2,3,4, and 5 b). 1,2,3, and 5 c). 1,2, and 5 d). 1,2,4, and 5

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114. Anxiety hyperventilation may be treated by: a). having the victim breathe into a plastic bag. b). encouraging the victim to walk rapidly. c). having the victim breathe at a slower rate.

d). all of these answers. e). none of these answers.

115. Which of the following statements about dyspnea is not true ? a). dyspnea is often caused by chronic heart disease. b). dyspnea is often caused by chronic lung disease.

c). dyspnea is often associated with edema in the legs. d). dyspnea is a progressive disease.

116. A "pink puffer" has: a). congestive heart failure b). diabetes c). chronic bronchitis d). emphysema 117. Victims with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are prone to episodes of which of the following ? a). angina pectoris b). severe difficulty in breathing c). hyperglycemia d). all of these answers

118. The terms "pink puffers" and "blue bloaters" are used to describe: a). victims with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. b). victims with heart disease.

c). newborn victims who are having respiratory difficulties. d). all of these answers.

119. A fruity odor on the breath is often a characteristic of: a). ketoacidosis b). stroke c). an ulcer d). hypoglycemia 120. Which of the following symptoms is a characteristic clue indicating diabetic coma ? a). involuntary muscular twitching. c). moist, clammy skin. b). a sickly, sweet breath odor. d). cherry red lips. 121. The major emergency-care procedure for a victim in diabetic coma is: a). to give a glass of orange juice. b). to try to keep him awake. c). to administer insulin. d). to treat for shock. 122. Insulin shock onset generally occurs within: a). twenty-four hours after injection of insulin. b). five to twenty minutes after injection of insulin.

c). forty-eight hours after injection of insulin. d). ten to twelve hours after injection of insulin.

123. Which of the following statements about diabetic coma (hyperglycemia) is not true ? a). diabetic coma is generally a less serious condition than insulin shock. b). diabetic coma is the result of insufficient insulin

or too much sugar. c). diabetic coma may be brought about by excessive exercise. d). diabetic coma occurs gradually over several days.

124. Which of the following statements about insulin shock (hypoglycemia) is not true ? a). insulin shock may be caused by excessive exercise. b). insulin shock should always be treated by giving the victim sugar.

c). insulin shock always requires immediate transportation to a medical facility. d). insulin shock may be brought about by eating too much food.

125. An excess of insulin, which may result when a diabetic victim has taken too much insulin, has not eaten, or has over-exercised, is called: a). insulin coma b). diabetic coma c). insulin shock d). diabetic shock

126. A diabetic person is exhibiting the following signs: rapid, weak pulse, cold, clammy skin, and convulsions. What do these signs indicate ? a). insulin coma b). diabetic coma c). insulin shock d). diabetic shock 127. A victim lying on his side with his knees drawn up, with rapid, shallow breathing and a rapid pulse, who is quiet, anxious, and reluctant to move is likely to be suffering from: a). insulin shock b). myocardial infarction c). stroke d). acute abdominal distress

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128. Pain from acute abdominal distress is often: a). pain that radiates c). colicky b). pain that shifts d). all of the above 129. Which of the following is not appropriate emergency care for ruptured esophageal varices ? a). treat the victim for shock. b). position the victim to allow drainage from mouth and throat.

c). activate the EMS system without delay. d). put the victim in a supine position.

130. Which of the following is not true about vomiting ? a). a medical emergency can develop if vomit is aspirated. b). vomiting is never a serious condition.

c). a victim can vomit enough to cause shock. d). most vomiting is caused by a self-limiting infection.

131. Any abdominal pain that lasts longer than _______ should be considered an emergency. a). 2 hours b). 30 minutes c). 24 hours d). 6 hours 132. A characteristic of petit mal seizures is: a). loss of consciousness. b). convulsive movements of one part of the body. c). repetition of inappropriate acts.

d). brief periods where the victim appears to be day-dreaming or staring.

133. The most serious threat in status epilepticus is: a). swallowing the tongue. b). lack of oxygen due to impaired breathing.

c). dehydration. d). fractures

134. A grand mal seizure is usually caused by: a). psychological stress. b). an abnormal release of impulses in the brain.

c). loss of consciousness. d). all of these answers.

135. The most common cause of status epilepticus in adults is: a). history of injury to the head. b). failure to take prescribed medication.

c). high fever. d). history of stroke.

136. Which of the following is not an emergency-care procedure for seizure ? a). stay with the victim until the seizure has passed. b). do not attempt to restrain the victim unless he is in immediate danger.

c). put a padded object between the victim's teeth. d). stay calm and reassure the victim.

137. Anaphylactic shock should be considered: a). a true medical emergency b). an emergency only in a sensitized person c). an emergency only if the person has been

stung in the face or hand d). a non-emergency situation

138. Shock can occur: a). even though one area of the body may be impaired b). only when large amounts of blood are lost

c). when the extremities do not get enough blood d). in conjunction with severe cases of high blood pressure.

139. Which of the following shock processes occurs first ? a). brain loses its ability to function. b). vital organ and brain do not receive enough blood. c). blood rushes to the brain and vital organs, thus depriving

other body cells nutrients. d). internal organs and brain cells begin to die.

140. In what order should the First Aider care for the following emergencies: (1) cardiac arrest (2) shock (3) respiratory failure (4) bleeding

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a). 3,1,4,2 b). 1,2,3,4 c). 1,3,4,2 d). 2,3,1,4 141. What is the first event in the ongoing cycle of shock ? a). The brain loses its ability to function. b). blood rushes to the brain, depriving other organs of oxygen

c). blood flow in the entire body is disrupted. d). the internal organs and brain cells start to die.

142. The most important single requirement in management of shocks is to:

a). reassure the victim so neurogenic shock does not compli- cate the victim's condition. b). establish an airway, stop bleeding, and prevent loss of body heat.

c). arrest and reverse progressive deterioration and restoration of the circulatory system.

d). treat the injuries quickly and efficiently

143. Which of the following is not an emergency-care technique for anaphylactic shock ?

a). elevate the lower extremities and maintain a head-lowered position b). if the reaction is due to an insect sting, place a constricting band above the site

c). assist the victim in administering his medication if legally advisable. d). establish an airway.

144. Which of the following is not a means of preventing shock ?

a). keep the victim's body temperature above normal b). reassure the victim c). loosen constrictive clothing

d). control hemorrhage by direct pressure, elevation, or pressure points.

145. Which of the following is not a type of shock ?

a). hypothermic b). neurogenic c). septic d). cardiogenic

146. Which of the following is not an indication of shock ?

a). dull, lackluster eyes. b). constricted pupils.

c). cold, clammy, moist skin. d). shallow respiration, possibly irregular or labored.

147. In anaphylactic shock, the shorter the time before symptoms appear:

a). the greater the chance of a recovery in short time. b). the greater the chance of swelling of the larynx

c). the greater the risk of fatal reaction d). the greater the chance of an antigen-antibody reaction

148. A person may be in anaphylactic shock from which preceding event ?

a). sight of bloody accident c). head injury b). eating berries d). severe illness

149. The major objective in treating shock is to:

a). maintain the victim's body temperature. b). improve and/or maintain circulation

c). help the victim stay conscious d). keep the victim's head elevated

150. Which of the following procedures for management of shock comes first ?

a). prevent loss of body heat . b). establish an airway

c). monitor the victim's state of conscious. d). elevate lower extremities except when contraindicated

151. Poisoning is now the_____most common cause of death in the United States.

a). first b). third c). fifth d). second

152. Which of the following is not a way that poisons may enter the body ?

a). absorption b). emesis c). inhalation d). injection

153. In all but one of the following victims, the First Aider should not induce vomiting ?

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a). a victim who ingested petroleum products b). a victim in early pregnancy

c). a stuporous victim d). a victim with seizures

154. The signs and symptoms of poisoning by ingestion are:

a). nausea,vomiting diarrhea c). excesive salivation or sweating b). severe abdominal pain or cramps d). all of these answers.

155. If the victim has ingested poison, vomiting should never be induced when:

a). the victim has severe abdominal pain and cramps b). the victim is stuperous or unconscious

c). diarrhea is present. d). respiration and circulation are slowed

156. Syrup of ipeac is an effective means of inducing vomiting. What is the proper dose for eliminating poisons in an adult ?

a). one tablespoon c). two tablespoons b). one teaspoon d). three tablespoons

157. To induce vomiting, syrup of ipecac should be followed by:

a). a rigorous excercise b). large doses of activated charcoal

c). two to three glases of water d). nothing, syrup of ipecac works by itself.

158. It is important that care be given immediately to the person who has inhaled a poison because:

a). Inhaled poisons are more toxic than ingested poisons b). The body absorbs inhaled poisons more rapidly. c. Inhaled poisons remain in the system longer than ingested

poisons d). The victim may experience convulsions that make treatment difficult

159. What is a charateristic symptom of carbon-monoxide poisoning ?

a). headache b). cool, pale skin

c). complaints of a strange taste in the mouth d). stains around the mouth.

160. Severe bleeding from an upper arm may be controlled by finger pressure on: a). femoral artery c). radial artery b). temporal artery d). brachial artery

161. When a dressing becomes saturated with blood, you should:

a). remove it and apply a new dressing b). apply a tourniquet c). leave the dressing in place and apply an additional

dressing on top of it. d). tie the knot on the bandage tighter.

162. How long does clotting take in most instances ?

a). one to two minutes c). ten to twelve minutes b). six to seven minutes d). eighteen to twenty minutes

163. Do not try to stop a nosebleed in the case of:

a). broken nose b). fractured skull c). fractured jaw d). hypertension 164. A victim with a nosebleed should:

a). sit quietly and then pinch the nostrils to apply pressure. b). blow the nose until the bleeding stops. c). tilt the head back or lie flat while applying pressure to nose-

bridge. d). lean forward, pack the nostrils, and apply heat.

165. Use a tourniquet only if:

a). there is severe hemorrhage. b). bleeding cannot be controlled by direct pressure. c). bleeding cannot be controlled by pressure at the

appropriate pressure points. d). bleeding cannot be controlled by any other means.

166. The chief duties of the First Aider in caring for open wounds are:

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a). to aid in proper healing of the wound and to treat for shock. b). to cleanse the wound and to apply bandages correctly.

c). to calm and reassure the victim & immobilize the injured part. d). to stop bleeding & prevent germs from entering the wound.

PART II (TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS) (QUES. #167 - 200): 167. It is important to follow the same basic steps in every emergency. ___________

168. When performing rescue breathing on an infant you use the mouth-to-mouth and nose seal technique. ___________

169. An adult victim should be provided with one breath every eight to nine seconds. ___________

170. The First Aider is performing CPR on Ms. X, you know that compression to the abdominal area should be 1 ½ to 2 inches. ___________

171. Chest compresions should be performed on the upper left half of the sternum. ___________

172. Another name for blood rich with oxygen is "de-oxygenated blood." ___________ 173. In cases of traumatic amputations, a completely severed artery can construct and seal itself. ___________

174. The most common cause of internal bleeding due to trauma is a fracture. ___________

175. The fifth most common cause of accidental death in the US is poisoning. ___________

176. Baby Blake is found crying with an empty bottle of aspirin and liquid draino near by. As an FA you should induce vomiting. ___________

177. After vomiting four times Mr. Jones is tired, it is okay for him to go to sleep lying on his back. ___________

178. Compulsive drug use cannot lead to addiction. ___________

179. Addiction involves physical and pyschological tolerance, and compulsive drug use. ___________

180. It is easy to tell if a person is abusing drugs/alcohol and are having an emergency. ___________

181. Alcohol is known as a stimulant, so John drinks to keep himself awake. ___________

182. Sue is at a party and has a headache, she knows its okay to take her OTC Medication with her drink. ___________

183. It does not matter what drug is abused they all have the same signs and symptoms of withdrawal. ___________

184. DT's are rarely life threatening. ___________

185. Seizures are not that common in an alcoholic withdrawal. ___________

186. All snake bites are poisonous. ___________

187. Amy, while at the picnic is bitten by a yellow jack. She starts swelling and is flushed. This is a life ___________ threatening sign and symptom.

188. In some victims, anaphylactic symptoms may be delayed for as long as two weeks. ___________

189. The chest pain caused by an M.I. can be treated by using nitroglycerin tablets/spray. ___________

190. Chronic bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema are both considered COPD and have the same signs and symptoms. ___________

191. Signs and symptoms of insulin shock are the same as in diabetic comas. ___________

192. There are two basic types of diabetes: insulin dependent and insulin-independent. ___________

193. Diarrhea is rarely a medical emergency. ___________

194. Prolonged vomiting is rarely a medical emergency. ___________

195. All seizures signs and symptoms are the same. ___________

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196. A person experiencing status epilepticus should stop within five minutes and is no dire emergency. ___________

197. A person experiencing true vertigo knows he can have hallucinations of motion. ___________ 198. Syncope is a transient loss of consciousness due to inadequate oxygen to the brain. ___________

199. Status asthmaticus is a severe, prolonged asthnma attack that is not really life threatening. ___________

200. The blood vomited with a ruptured esophageal varices is the consistency of coffee grounds. ___________

PART III: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Choose the best answer): Answer in letter only. Choose the answer that best describes the question. (Q #201 - 223)

201. The first crucial step in basic life support is:

a). make victim comfortable c). assessment b). yell for help d). none of the above

202. You are about to start rescue breathing, the first thing you do is:

a). open airway c). check for foreign body b). give breaths d). none of the above

203. If the victims chest doe not move when given first breath you:

a). blow harder c). give up b). blow through nose d). reposition the head

204. You come across a person coughing hard and seems to have something caught in the throat, you: a). start hitting him on the back b). give him a drink of water c). do not interfere with the person attempts to cough up

object but, stay with him d). none of the above

205. Ms. Blake has suffered a cardiac arrest, you know to establish pulselessness you would check the:

a). radial pulse c). carotid artery b). brachial pulse d). none of the above

206. When looking at a cut the First Aider can tell an artery has been cut when there is:

a). slow even flow b). steady flow of dark red

c). spurting blood pulsing dark color d). none of the above

207. People who are called bleeders:

a). are called Hemophiliacs b). have abnormalitie in clotting mechanism

c). transported to hospital immediately d). all the above

208. The best way of controlling hemorrhage is:

a). elevation c). tourniquet b). indirect pressure d). direct pressure

209. If a tourniquet must be used, do all of these procedures but: a). make written note of time applied and vital signs b). call EMS as soon as possible

c). cover tourniquet d). apply a pad over injury

210. Baby Blake injured his nose in a car accident. As a First Aider you know you must stop it because:

a). the blood is soiling his clothes b). his face is getting dirty

c). if enough blood is lost he may go into shock d). none of the above

211. There are how many ways poisons may enter the body:

a). one b). three c).five d). four

212. As a First Aider you know some signs and symptoms of poisoning are:

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a). nausea, vomiting, diarrhea b). slow circulation

c). severe cramps and abdominal pain d). all the above

213. A sign and symptom of inhaled poison may be:

a). nausea/vomiting c). SOB b). chest pain d). all the above

214. The person has stopped breathing, you know it is important to ventilate because brain damage begins when it is without air:

a). immediately c). 4-6 minutes b). 2 minutes d). none of the above

215. When a person is having a seizure the first things you do:

a). hold the person down c). provide safe environment b). put a spoon in the mouth

d). maintain a patent airway e). C & D f). A & B

216. Anaphylactic Shock only happens if a person is allergic to:

a). bee sting b). food ingested b). medications d). all of the above

217. Common risk factors for angina pectoris are:

a). coronary artery disease d). A & B b). history of cardiac problems

c). type A personality e). All of the above

218. When the body's pumping output fails to meet the needs of bodily tissues this is known as:

a). poor circulation c). angina pectoris b). CHF d). all of the above

219. Signs and symptoms of CHF are all of these except:

a). anxiety and cyanosis b). slow heart rate c). SOB and normal BP d). rates

220. There are how many early signals of a heart attack:

a). two b). one c). four d). eight

221. The four general causes of strokes are:

a). thrombus b). embolus and hemorrhage b). compression d). all of the above

222. The general signs and symptoms of a stroke are all except:

a). nausea, vomiting and diarrhea c). convulsions b). severe headache d). inability to speak

223. Signs and symptoms of insulin shock that are the same as in diabetic comas:

a). confusion b). vomiting and diarrhea c). rapid weak pulse d). fruity odor of breath

PART IV (FILL IN THE BLANK) (QUES. #224 - 226): When providing CPR:

224. Depth of compression on adult sternum is________________________.225. Depth of compression on a child sternum is______________________.226. Depth of compression on an infant is____________________________.

PART V: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Choose the best answer): Answer in letter only. Choose the answer that best describes the question. (QUES. #227 - 316).

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227. What should be looked for while conducting the body survey ?

a). blood in the hair. c). paralysis of the extremities. b). abdominal spasms and tenderness. d). all of the above.

228. Which step in emergency care should be taken first ?

a). treat for shock. b). remove victims from life-threatening situations.

c). summon police authorities to control bystanders and traffic. d). determine the mechanism of injury.

229. The secondary survey is:

a). a repetition of the primary survey, to locate anything that you may have missed. b). a full-body assessment, head to toe.

c). an assessment of the extremities. d). a check of internal injuries.

230. As you approach a conscious victim of an accident or illness, the first thing you should do is:

a). get close to the victim and introduce yourself. b). start a victim survey without delay.

c). secure the scene, get bystanders to direct traffic. d). get consent from the victim for you to treat him.

231. The first thing to do in history taking is:

a). assess the scene. c). take the primary survey. b). talk to bystanders. d). obtain the victim's chief complaint.

232. Vital signs should be taken:

a). during the primary survey. c). during the secondary survey. b). after all fractures are immobilized. d). after the chief complaint.

233. The first priority in an emergency is:

a). establish and maintain an airway. c). activate the EMS system. b). check for a pulse. d). get consent to treat.

234. A major sign of a respiratory emergency is:

a). no rising of the chest. d). constricted pupils.

b). distended abdomen. e). all of the above.

c). hot, flushed skin. f). none of the above.

235. Clinical death occurs:

a). after biological death. b). when respiration and heart action cease.

c). when brain cells are irreversibly damaged. d). four to six minutes after respiration ceases.

236. The three facets of basic life support are:

a). primary survey, secondary survey, transport. b). assess the airway, breathing and circulation.

c). maintain life, prevent injury, get medical attention. d). treatment for the ABCH's, shock, bleeding.

237. The artificial ventilation rate for an infant is:

a). once every three seconds. c). once every five seconds. b). once every second. d). about ten breaths per minute.

238. When ventilating non-breathing adult victims by the mouth-to-mouth method, the First Aider should provide breaths approximately:

a). every sixty seconds, or about sixty times a minute. b). every two seconds, or about thirty times a minute.

c). every five seconds, or about twelve times a minute. d). every ten seconds, or about six times a minute.

239. To avoid airway obstruction:

a). cut food into small pieces. b). avoid talking and laughing during chewing and swallowing.

c). don't allow children to run about when they are eating. d). all of the above are correct.

240. The universal distress sign for choking is:

a). cyanosis b). pointing at the throat with a finger.

c). inability to speak d). clutching the throat

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241. The most reliable indication of a blocked airway in a conscious person is:

a). the inability to speak b). a compression accident

c). partially digested food in mouth d). cherry-red skin color

242. The correct hand position for administering CPR to an infant is:

a). two fingers above the sternal notch. b). at the base of the sternum.

c). in the lower one-third of the sternum. d). two fingers, one finger width below the intermammary line.

243. After each chest compression, during CPR, your hands should:

a). come completely off the chest. b). apply small amount of pressure on the chest.

c). rest on the chest in the normal CPR position. d). none of the above.

244. If you are alone, giving adult CPR, you should give ________ ventilations after each _________ compressions.

a). 2, 15 b). 15, 2 c). 1, 2 d). 1, 4

245. To check the carotid pulse for circulation:

a). use your thumb. b). take the pulse on the opposite side of the trachea so that you can feel air exchange in the trachea.

c). check the pulse with your fingertips after you give two full breaths. d). none of the above.

246. You should periodically stop and check to see if the heartbeat has returned by:

a). checking the pupils. b). checking the pulse.

c). listening to a heartbeat with the stethoscope. d). never stop CPR unless the victim is obviously revived.

247. Which of the following is not a sign of a successful CPR ?

a). improvement of skin color. b). reactive pupils.

c). perceptible pulse when the chest is compressed. d). vomiting by the victim.

248. Which of the following is the best method for controlling severe bleeding (and should therefore be applied first) ?

a). elevation c). direct pressure b). pressure point d). tourniquet 249. List the four methods of controlling bleeding in order of preference: (1) elevation; 2) direct pressure at the wound; (3) indirect pressure (pressure points); (4) tourniquet

a). 2,1,3,4 b). 2,3,1,4 c). 1,2,3,4 d). 3,2,1,4

250. Which pressure points are used most often ?

a). brachial, femoral c). subclavian, axillary b). ulnar, carotid d). temporal, dorsalis pedis 251. One of the greatest dangers in bleeding from a neck wound is:

a). an air bubble that may be sucked into the wound. b). shock

c). you cannot apply a tourniquet or use pressure points. d). later infection.

252. Perfusion means:

a). the process of blood clotting. b). manufacture of red blood cells.

c). another word for transfusion. d). circulation of blood within an organ.

253. Which of the following characterizes arterial bleeding ?

a). dark red color and spurting flow. b). bright red color and spurting flow.

c). dark red color and steady flow. d). bright red color and steady flow.

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254. What is a pressure point ?

a). a point where the blood pressure drops low enough to stop bleeding. b). a place where the artery is protected on all sides by bone and muscle.

c). a place where an artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone. d). a point where an artery is near the wound.

255. Which of the following may not be a sign of internal bleeding ?

a). vomiting of bright, red blood. c). strong, bounding pulse. b). pale, moist skin. d). dizziness

256. The body's response to shock can be observed by summarizing the general signs and symptoms of shock. All but which one of the following are signs and symptoms of shock ? a). restlessness and anxiety c). feeling of impending doom. b). weakness d). bounding pulse. 257. It is critical that care be given immediately to the person who has inhaled a poison because:

a). inhaled poisons are more toxic than ingested poisons. b). the body absorbs inhaled poisons rapidly. c). inhaled poisons remain in the system longer than ingested

poisons. d). the victim may experience convulsions that make treatment difficult.

258. What is the initial emergency-care procedure for inhalation poisonings ?

a). remove the victim to fresh air. b). begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.

c). treat the victim for shock. d). seek medical care immediately.

259. The First Aider's primary responsibility in the emergency care of poisoning is to:

a). maintain the airway and prevent aspiration of vomitus. b). determine what substance caused the poisoning.

c). assess the level of consciousness. d). assess respirations.

260. The difference in appearance between poison ivy and poison oak is:

a). poison oak has round leaves while poison ivy has jagged leaves. b). poison ivy has greenish-white berries, while poison oak has

red berries. c). poison ivy leaves are dull, while poison oak leaves are shiny. d). all of these answers are correct.

261. After vomiting has ceased, give a victim:

a). activated charcoal. c). raw egg to coat the stomach. b). lemon juice in a glass of water. d). more ipecac and water. 262. A late stage symptom often indicating carbon monoxide poisoning results when the lips turn:

a). cyanotic blue c). cherry red b). cyanotic gray d). pale marble white

263. The most common form of food poisoning results from contamination of the food by which of the following ?

a). staphylococcus c). streptococcus b). salmonella d). clostridium 264. Which of these is not true of staphylococcus caused food poisoning ?

a). the symptoms usually appear one to five hours after eating. b). recovery usually occurs in three to five days. c). victims should not eat or drink until diarrhea stops.

d). the victim may experience diarrhea, abdominal cramping, nausea and/or vomiting.

265. If a victim experiences double vision and impaired speech after eating canned peaches, the First Aider should suspect:

a). salmonella poisoning c). staph poisoning b). botulism d). perfringens poisoning 266. Typically, most emergency drug/alcohol victims fall into all but one of the following consciousness categories: a). semicomatose c). comatose b). awake d). hyperactive 267. Hyperventilation in a drug emergency should be treated by:

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a). removing the victim from the crisis situation as soon as possible. b). quieting the victim and leaving him alone to calm down.

c). encouraging the victim to place his head lower than his knees. d). having the victim breathe into a paper bag.

268. The most important information to be gathered from an emergency drug/alcohol victim concerns:

a). the type of drug taken. b). whether a lethal dose of the drug has been taken.

c). level of consciousness and vital signs. d). whether a victim is armed.

269. Which of the following is the most serious danger from overdose of a depressant drug ?

a). decrease in body temperature. c). loss of inhibition. b). allergic reaction. d). respiratory depression. 270. Which of the following is not a recommended procedure in dealing with a drug-overdose victim ?

a). induce vomiting if the victim is conscious and the drug was ingested within the last thirty minutes. b). be alert for allergic reactions.

c). splash cold water on the victim who is semicomatose. d). be firm in dealing with the victim.

271. Which of the following is not a major indicator of a drug or alcohol emergency ?

a). rapid speech b). high, low or irregular pulse

c). temperature above 100 degrees F or 38 degrees C. d). convulsions or seizures.

272. Which of the following is not a guideline for dealing with an overdose victim ?

a). if the victim is conscious, induce vomiting. b). throw a little cold water on the victim who appears semi-conscious.

c). be alert for allergic reactions. d). be firm but friendly in dealing with the victim.

273. What is the preferred method for handling an individual experiencing a "bad trip" ?

a). Throw cold water on the victim. b). the "talk-down" technique. c). get the victim to walk around.

d). put the victim in an isolated room where he cannot hurt himself.

274. The signs of acute intoxication may be mimicked by a _______ victim.

a). comatose c). convulsive b). diabetic (insulin shock) d). violent 275. Which of the following is not a guideline for managing a drug/alcohol crisis ? a). encourage the victim to communicate. b). provide appropriate non-verbal support for the victim.

c). provide a reality base for the victim. d). let the victim make decisions on what he needs to do.

276. Delirium tremens occurs as a result of:

a). alcohol overdose. b). alcohol taken with tranquilizers.

c). high alcohol concentrations ingested very quickly. d). alcohol withdrawal.

277. Which of the following is not a symptom of delerium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal ?

a). confusion c). shaking hands b). hallucinations d). deep, comatose sleep 278. Phencyclidine, better known as angel dust or PCP, is:

a). a very dangerous hallucinogen, and extremely unpredictable. b). physically addicting.

c). a central nervous system depressant. d). a drug that has a wide margin of safety.

279. Which of the following is not a stimulant ?

a). amphetamines b). caffeine c). valium d). cocaine

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280. Heroin is a:

a). hallucinogen b). narcotic c). barbiturate d). stimulant 281. Venoms of aquatic organisms:

a). may cause severe vomiting. c). are destroyed by heat. b). can cause anaphylactic shock. d). are activated by cold.

282. Which of the following statements about venoms of aquatic organisms is not true ?

a). the First Aider should immediately pack wounds from marine organisms in ice. b). bites and stings from aquatic organisms should be treated as soft-tissue injuries.

c). aquatic organism venoms may produce more extensive tissue damage than land organism venoms. d). aquatic organism venoms are usually destroyed by heat.

283. Which of the following is not a symptom of a coral snake bite ?

a). blurred vision b). paralysis c). black-and-blue skin tissue, accompanied by considerable

pain and swelling. d). drowsiness and slurred speech.

284. Coral snakes inject poisons through:

a). long fangs in the forward part of the upper jaw. b). long fangs in both the upper jaw and the lower jaw.

c). a chewing motion. d). long fangs in the forward part of the lower jaw.

285. Unless contraindicated by local protocol, a First Aider should treat a coral snake bite by:

a). application of a constricting band and an ice bag. b). application of a constricting band only.

c). incision and suction of the wounded area. d). application of rubbing alcohol and an ice pack to the wound.

286. Which of the following should you do as part of the emergency care for a victim of an allergic reaction to a sting on the extremity ?

a). apply warm compresses to increase circulation. b). elevate the extremity to reduce swelling.

c). apply a tourniquet above the sting. d). apply a constricting band above the sting.

287. The final step in providing emergency care for a honeybee sting is to:

a). grasp the sac or stinger with a pair of tweezers and gently pull it out. b). apply wet mud to the sting area; let it drop.

c). apply baking soda to the affected area. d). remove the stinger by gently scraping it with your fingernail or the edge of a knife.

288. Which of the following is not a recommended practice in caring for a marine-life poisoning ?

a). vigorously scrub the area. b). apply a constricting band between the wound and the heat. c). carefully remove stingers or barbs with a knife blade

fingernails. d). irrigate the would with water.

289. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of a poisonous snake bite ?

a). severe pain and burning. b). swelling of the wound.

c). discoloration of the wound. d). series of small, shallow puncture wounds.

290. Which of the following is not a type of pain associated with myocardial infarction ?

a). chest, neck, jaws and inside arms. b). mid-chest and inside arms.

c). lower center neck to upper neck (both sides). d). inside right arm from elbow to wrist.

291. The signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include all of the following except:

a). pale skin color. c). decreased pulse rate. b). shortness of breath. d). feeling of impending doom. 292. The buildup of fatty deposits in arteries is called:

23

a). atherosclerosis c). coronary thrombosis b). angina pectoris d). cholesterol 293. Congestive heart failure:

a). is the result of congenital heart damage. b). may happen within a week of a heart attack due to the heart's inability to pump blood effectively.

c). usually accompanies a stroke. d). is frequently the result of pneumonia.

294. Angina pectoris:

a). is often accompanied by weakness and nausea. b). is a term that describes any kind of chest pain.

c). usually lasts longer than thirty minutes. d). is pain in the heart caused by insufficient oxygen.

295. Another heart condition, often mistaken for indigestion, is brought on by emotional stress, strenuous exercise, or agitation and is character- ized by pain in the chest or arm. This condition is known as:

a). chronic heart failure c). stroke b). heart attack d). angina pectoris 296. You would most likely expect which of the following heart conditions to develop over several months ? a). acute myocardial infarction c). cardiogenic shock b). heart attack d). congestive heart failure 297. Which of the following is not an emergency care measure for a cardiac victim ?

a). loosen constrictive clothing. b). place the victim in a semi-reclining position. c). have the victim cease all movements.

d). do not help the victim administer his medication until a physician has seen him.

298. The term "dyspnea" refers to:

a). shortness of breath while lying down. b). profuse sweating.

c). lack of oxygen. d). shortness of breath.

299. Emergency care for a victim with congestive heart failure:

a). includes watching for signs of angina pectoris. b). is exactly the same as that for myocardial infarction.

c). includes immediate CPR. d). sit victim upright with legs dangling over the side.

300. America'a number one killer is:

a). stroke c). accidents b). heart attack and heart disease d). cancer 301. A victim with swelling in the extremities and a frothy, pink sputum would be manifesting symptoms of:

a). angina pectoris c). congestive heart failure b). cardiac arrest d). none of the above 302. Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true ?

a). nitroglycerine should not be given to an angina pectoris victim. b). angina pectoris often results in damage to heart tissues and is sometimes fatal.

c). administering oxygen can worsen angina pectoris. d). angina pectoris is temporary pain that can be brought on by emotional stress.

303. Dyspnea means:

a). painful, labored breathing. c). shortness of breath. b). excess sputum prouction. d). fatigue 304. Initial care for a person who is hyperventilating includes:

a). establishing an airway. b). encouraging the victim to rapid shallow breaths.

c). loosening tight clothing. d). showing calmness and reassurance.

305. In status asthmaticus:

24

a). the victim is not in much danger. b). the chest is sunken.

c). wheezing is very audible. d). the victim uses accessory muscles of respiration.

306. Which of the following is not a symptom of hyperventilation ?

a). slow heart rate. c). tingling in the hands or feet. b). fainting. d). a feeling of weakness.

307. Emergency care for COPD victims is aimed primarily at:

a). causing expectoration of sputum. b). enhancing oxygenation.

c). humidifying the air. d). transporting as soon as possible.

308. Which of the following statements about diabetes is true ?

a). another term that may describe insulin shock is hypoglycemia. b). a diabetic can suffer from too much insulin & from too little insulin.

c). diabetes renders the body incapable of metabolizing sugar as an energy source because of lack of insulin. d). all of these answers.

309. The onset of diabetic coma generally occurs:

a). in five to twenty minutes. c). in one to two hours. b). in ten to twelve hours. d). in twelve to forty-eight hours.

310. If the First Aider can't distinguish between diabetic coma and insulin shock, what should be do ?

a). nothing, the wrong treatment can be deadly. b). treat for shock and activate the EMS system.

c). give a shot of insulin or put an insulin tablet in the mouth. d). assist the victim in taking some type of sugar.

311. What is the emergency care for insulin shock if the victim is unconscious?

a). administer a glass of orange juice. b). do nothing; activate the EMS system immediately.

c). put an insulin tablet in his mouth or give an insulin shot. d). put instant glucose between the victim's cheek and gums.

312. Which of the following is not true about diabetic coma and insulin shock ?

a). the skin is usually red, dry and warm in diabetic coma; it is usually pale and moist in insulin shock. b). the victim is usually intensely thirsty in diabetic coma; insulin shock generally produces an absence of thirst.

c). rapid, deep breathing and frequent sighing in both diabetic coma and insulin shock. d). the pulse may be rapid in either condition.

313. Insulin:

a). absorbs excess sugar that has been consumed. b). converts sugar in glucose in the digestive tract.

c). permits sugar to pass from the blood into the body cells. d). all of these answers.

314. Victims suffering from acute abdominal distress should be allowed to:

a). determine the most comfortable position for themselves. b). drink liquids.

c). take personal medications. d). all of these answers.

315. Which of the following is not a sign of epilepsy ?

a). a clonic phase c). an aura b). a tonic phase d). a catatonic phase 316. Which of the following emergency care measures is used when dealing with an epileptic victim ?

a). rush the victim to the hospital; this is a true emergency. b). move objects away from the victim which may harm him.

c). forcibly restrain the victim until his convulsions pass. d). force a padded object in between the victim's teeth.

TOTALS = 316

25

* ANSWER KEY *

BLAKE BUSINESS SCHOOL M. A. LAB./CLINIC CLINICAL FIRSTAID PROCEDURES

Final Examination Term Three

PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #1 - 166)

1. (A) 40. (A) 79. (D) 2. (C) 41. (B) 80. (A) 3. (B) 42. (A) 81. (D) 4. (A) 43. (A) 82. (C) 5. BREATHING 44. (B) 83. (A) 6. AIR, OXYGEN 45. (B) 84. (C) 7. TONGUE 46. (A) 85. (A) 8. THROAT 47. (B) 86. (B) 9. SOLID OBJECT 48. (B) 87. (C) 10. FLUIDS 49. (A) 88. (C) 11. (A) 50. (A) 89. (D) 12. UNRESPONSIVENESS, AIRWAY 51. (B) 90. (C) 13. (A) 52. (C) 91. (C) 14. (B) 53. (C) 92. (D) 15. (E) 54. (D) 93. (D) 16. (F) 55. (B) 94. (A) 17. (B) 56. (B) 95. (B) 18. (A) 57. (B) 96. (C) 19. (A) 58. (D) 97. (B) 20. (A) 59. (A) 98. (D) 21. (B) 60. (A) 99. (C) 22. (B) 61. (D) 100. (D) 23. (A) 62. (D) 101. (B) 24. (A) 63. (C) 102. (A) 25. (B) 64. (B) 103. (C) 26. (C) 65. (B) 104. (C) 27. (B) 66. (A) 105. (C) 28. (B) 67. (D) 106. (D) 29. (D) 68. (B) 107. (A) 30. (B) 69. (A) 108. (D) 31. (A) 70. (C) 109. (B) 32. (A) 71. (A) 110. (D) 33. (B) 72. (A) 111. (D) 34. (C) 73. (B) 112. (C) 35. (C) 74. (C) 113. (D) 36. (D) 75. (D) 114. (C) 37. (E) 76. (C) 115. (D)

38. (B) 77. (B) 116. (D) 39. (A) 78. (B) 117. (B)

26

¤ 2 (CON'D) (FIRSTAID) [TERM #_] / M.A. [FINAL EXAM/STANDARD] PAGE - 2 -

.l :60 PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #1 - 166) (CON'D):

118. (A) 135. (B) 151. (C) 119. (A) 136. (B) 152. (B) 120. (B) 137. (A) 153. (B) 121. (D) 138. (A) 154. (D) 122. (B) 139. (C) 155. (B) 123. (C) 140. (C) 156. (C) 124. (D) 141. (C) 157. (C) 125. (C) 142. (B) 158. (A) 126. (C) 143. (A) 159. (A) 127. (D) 144. (A) 160. (D) 128. (D) 145. (A) 161. (C) 129. (D) 146. (B) 162. (B) 130. (B) 147. (C) 163. (B) 131. (D) 148. (B) 164. (A) 132. (D) 149. (B) 165. (D) 133. (B) 150. (B) 166. (D) 134. (B)

PART II (TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS) (QUES. #167 - 200):

167. FALSE 176. FALSE 185. FALSE 193. TRUE 168. TRUE 177. FALSE 186. FALSE 194. FALSE 169. FALSE 178. FALSE 187. TRUE 195. FALSE 170. FALSE 179. TRUE 188. TRUE 196. FALSE 171. FALSE 180. FALSE 189. FALSE 197. TRUE 172. FALSE 181. FALSE 190. FALSE 198. TRUE 173. TRUE 182. FALSE 191. FALSE 199. FALSE 174. TRUE 183. FALSE 192. FALSE 200. FALSE 175. TRUE 184. FALSE

PART III: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #201 - 223)

201. (C) 209. (C) 217. (E) 202. (A) 210. (C) 218. (C) 203. (D) 211. (D) 219. (B) 204. (C) 212. (D) 220. (D) 205. (C) 213. (D) 221. (D) 206. (D) 214. (C) 222. (A) 207. (D) 215. (E) 223. (B) 208. (D) 216. (D)

PART IV (FILL IN THE BLANK) (QUES. #224 - 226):

224. 1 « - 2 inches 225. 1 - 1 « inches 226. « - 1 inches

27


.l :60

PART V: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #227 - 316)

227. (D) 257. (B) 287. (D) 228. (B) 258. (A) 288. (A) 229. (B) 259. (A) 289. (D) 230. (A) 260. (A) 290. (D) 231. (A) 261. (A) 291. (C) 232. (A) 262. (C) 292. (A) 233. (C) 263. (A) 293. (B) 234. (A) 264. (B) 294. (D) 235. (B) 265. (B) 295. (D) 236. (B) 266. (D) 296. (D) 237. (A) 267. (A) 297. (D) 238. (C) 268. (C) 298. (D) 239. (D) 269. (D) 299. (D) 240. (D) 270. (C) 300. (B) 241. (A) 271. (A) 301. (C) 242. (D) 272. (B) 302. (D) 243. (B) 273. (B) 303. (A) 244. (A) 274. (B) 304. (D) 245. (C) 275. (D) 305. (D) 246. (B) 276. (D) 306. (A) 247. (D) 277. (D) 307. (B) 248. (C) 278. (A) 308. (D) 249. (A) 279. (C) 309. (D) 250. (A) 280. (B) 310. (D) 251. (A) 281. (C) 311. (D) 252. (D) 282. (A) 312. (C) 253. (B) 283. (C) 313. (C) 254. (C) 284. (C) 314. (A) 255. (D) 285. (B) 315. (D) 256. (D) 286. (D) 316. (B)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------TOTALS = 316

28

╔════════════════════╗ ║ EXAM QUESTION POOL ║ ║════════════════════║

* CORRELATIVE ANSWER KEY *

BLAKE BUSINESS SCHOOL M. A. LAB./CLINIC CLINICAL FIRSTAID PROCEDURES

Final Examination Term Three

PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #1 - 166)

1. (a) So that you don't forget 13. (a) Tilt the head and anything that might affect lift the chin. personal safety (yours and the victim's) & victim's 14. (b) Blow 1 breath survival. every 5 seconds. 2. (c) A person having a heart 15. (e) All of the above. attack may have pain or pressure in the chest. 16. (f) All of the above. 3. (b) Stay with the person, but 17. (b) Stay with the person and do not interfere with the encourage him or her to person's attempts to cough continue coughing. up the object. 18. (a) Give first aid for complete 4. (a) Within 5 minutes. airway obstruction. 5. BREATHING 19. (a) Clutching at the throat 6. AIR, OXYGEN 20. (a) Coughing weakly and making high-pitched noises. 7. TONGUE 21. (b) The thumb side 8. THROAT 22. (b) Just above the navel and 9. SOLID OBJECT well below the lower tip of the breastbone 10. FLUIDS 23. (a) With a quick upward thrust 11. (a) The back of the tongue is blocking the throat. 24. (a) could be mistakenly ingested by children 12. UNRESPONSIVENESS, AIRWAY or confused patients.

29


.l :60

25. (b) At the left midclavicular 43. (a) Coughing weakly and making line and the fifth interspace high-pitched noises.

26. (c) 5 minutes 44. (b) The thumb side

27. (b) respirations are controlled by 45. (b) Just above the navel and both involuntary and voluntary well below the lower tip means. of the breastbone

28. (b) Periods of apnea with gradual 46. (a) With a quick upward thrust increase and subsequent decrease in rate and depth 47. (b) At the left midclavicular line and the fifth interspace29. (d) Check patient for responsiveness, pulse, and breathing. 48. (b) External cardiac compression is always accompanied by art-30. (b) External cardiac compression ificial ventilations. is always accompanied by artificial ventilations. 49. (a) Absence of carotid pulse

31. (a) Absence of carotid pulse 50. (a) 5:1

32. (a) 5:1 51. (b) Interpose two breaths after each 15 chest compressions at33. (b) Interpose two breaths after a rate of 80 compression per each 15 chest compressions at minute. a rate of 80 compression per minute. 52. (c) 1 1/2 - 2 inches

34. (c) 1 1/2 - 2 inches 53. (c) 80 to 100 per minute35. (c) 80 to 100 per minute 54. (d) All of the above.36. (d) All of the above. 55. (b) stop bleeding, maintain37. (e) Only answers "b" and "c" are breathing, reduce shock. correct. (Hypotension, Restlessness, Tachycardia) 56. (b) check for airway breathing, pulse, hemorrhage.38. (b) 2 minutes 57. (b) relative skin temperature39. (a) The back of the tongue [ pg. #41 ] is blocking the throat. 58. (d) checking for breathing40. (a) Tilt the head and [ pg. #58 ] lift the chin. 59. (a) see the victim's chest41. (b) Blow 1 breath rise and fall. every 5 seconds. 60. (a) hold the victim's nostrils42. (a) Give first aid for complete closed while breathing into airway obstruction. his mouth.

30


.l :60

61. (d) head-tilt/chin-lift 80. (a) 15 milliliters (1 tablespoon with 1 to 2 glasses of water 62. (d) brachial artery 81. (d) all of these answers 63. (c) leave the dressing in place and apply an additional 82. (c) two tablespoons dressing on top of it. 83. (a) headache 64. (b) six to seven minutes 84. (c) initial redness of the affec-65. (b) fractured skull ted area followed by bumps and blisters 66. (a) sit quietly and then pinch the nostrils to apply pressure 85. (a) two to three days after ing- 67. (d) bleeding cannot be controlled estion of contaminated food by any other means 86. (b) dilution with water and 68. (b) burns immediate transportaion 69. (a) a true medical emergency 87. (c) hyperventilation 70. (c) 1,3,4,2 88. (c) below 60 or above 100 71. (a) elevate the lower extremities 89. (d) vomiting while not and maintain a head-lowered fully conscious position 72. (a) keep the victim's body 90. (c) forewarn the victim about temperature above normal what will happen when the drug wears off. 73. (b) improve and/or maintain circulation 91. (c) grand mal seizures 74. (c) contusion 92. (d) altered heart rhythm 75. (d) a puncture 93. (d) elliptical pupils 76. (c) avulsion 94. (a) limit the flow of venous 77. (b) clean the area with an blood but not arterial blood. antiseptic solution 95. (b) 1,2,3 and 4 78. (b) wrapping the part in gauze or a clean towel 96. (c) try to identify the spider. 79. (d) to stop bleeding and to pre- 97. (b) 1,2 and 3 vent germs from entering the wound 98. (d) all of these answers

31


.l :60

99. (c) located beneath the breast 119. (a) ketoacidosis bone and feels like someone is squeezing the chest 120. (b) a sickly, sweet breath odor

100. (d) coronary 121. (d) to treat for shock.

101. (b) heart attack 122. (b) five to twenty minutes after injection of insulin.102. (a) keep the victim moving, if possible. 123. (c) diabetic coma may be brought about by excessive exercise.103. (c) Nitroglycerine often relieves angina pectoris and myocardial 124. (d) insulin shock may be brought infarction. on by eating too much food.

104. (c) 1,2,3, and 5 125. (c) insulin shock

105. (c) the right arm is usually more 126. (c) insulin shock involved than the left arm. 127. (d) acute abdominal distress106. (d) hypotension 128. (d) all of the above107. (a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 and 8 129. (d) put the victim in a supine108. (d) 1,2 and 3 position.

109. (b) stroke 130. (b) vomiting is never a serious110. (d) TIA's condition.

111. (d) one who loses consciousness 131. (d) 6 hours completely and becomes flaccid on the involved side. 132. (d) brief periods where the victim appears to be day dream112. (c) atherosclerosis ing or staring.

113. (d) 1,2,4, and 5 133. (b) lack of oxygen due to impaired breathing.114. (c) having the victim breathe at a slower rate. 134. (b) an abnormal release of impulses in the brain.115. (d) dyspnea is a progressive disease. 135. (b) failure to take prescribed medication.116. (d) emphysema

117. (b) severe difficulty in 136. (b) do not attempt to restrain breathing the victim unless he is in immediate danger.118. (a) victims with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. 137. (a) a true medical emergency

32


138. (a) even though one area of 152. (b) emesis the body may be impaired 153. (b) a victim in early pregnancy139. (c) blood rushes to the brain and vital organs, thus de- 154. (d) all of these answers. priving other body cells nutrients. 155. (b) the victim is stuperous or unconscious140. (c) 1,3,4,2 156. (c) two tablespoons141. (c) blood flow in the entire body is disrupted. 157. (c) two to three glases of water

142. (b) establish an airway, stop 158. (a) Inhaled poisons are more bleeding, and prevent loss toxic than ingested poisons of body heat. 159. (a) headache143. (a) elevate the lower extremities and maintain a head-lowered 160. (d) brachial artery position 161. (c) leave the dressing in place144. (a) keep the victim's body temper- and apply an additional ature above normal dressing on top of it.

145. (a) hypothermic 162. (b) six to seven minutes146. (b) constricted pupils. 163. (b) fractured skull147. (c) the greater the risk of fatal reaction 164. (a) sit quietly and then pinch nostrils to apply pressure.148. (b) eating berries 165. (d) bleeding cannot be control-149. (b) improve and/or maintain led by any other means circulation 166. (d) to stop bleeding and to pre-150. (b) establish an airway vent germs from entering151. (c) fifth the wound

PART II (TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS) (QUES. #167 - 200):

167. FALSE 176. FALSE 185. FALSE 193. TRUE 168. TRUE 177. FALSE 186. FALSE 194. FALSE 169. FALSE 178. FALSE 187. TRUE 195. FALSE 170. FALSE 179. TRUE 188. TRUE 196. FALSE 171. FALSE 180. FALSE 189. FALSE 197. TRUE 172. FALSE 181. FALSE 190. FALSE 198. TRUE 173. TRUE 182. FALSE 191. FALSE 199. FALSE 174. TRUE 183. FALSE 192. FALSE 200. FALSE 175. TRUE 184. FALSE

33


PART III: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #201 - 223)

201. (c) assessment 212. (d) all the above 202. (a) open airway 213. (d) all the above 203. (d) reposition the head 214. (c) 4-6 minutes 204. (c) do not interfere with the 215. (e) C & D person attempts to cough up object but, stay with him 216. (d) all of the above 205. (c) carotid artery 217. (e) All of the above 206. (d) none of the above 218. (c) angina pectoris 207. (d) all the above 219. (b) slow heart rate 208. (d) direct pressure 220. (d) eight 209. (c) cover tourniquet 221. (d) all of the above 210. (c) if enough blood is lost 222. (a) nausea, vomiting he may go into shock and diarrhea 211. (d) four 223. (b) vomiting and diarrhea

PART IV (FILL IN THE BLANK) (QUES. #224 - 226):

2س - 1 .224 inches 225. 1 - 1 س inches 226. - 1س inches

PART V: MULTIPLE CHOICE (QUES. #227 - 316)

227. (d) all of the above. 234. (a) no rising of the chest.

228. (b) remove victims from life- 235. (b) when respiration and threatening situations. heart action cease. 229. (b) a full-body assessment, 236. (b) assess the airway, breath- head to toe. ing and circulation. 230. (a) get close to the victim 237. (a) once every three seconds. and introduce yourself. 238. (c) every five seconds, or 231. (a) assess the scene. about twelve times a minute. 232. (a) during the primary survey. 239. (d) all of the above are 233. (c) activate the EMS system. correct.

34


240. (d) clutching the throat 259. (a) maintain the airway and prevent aspiration of 241. (a) the inability to speak vomitus. 242. (d) two fingers, one finger 260. (a) poison oak has round leaves width below the inter- while poison ivy has jagged mammary line. leaves. 243. (b) apply small amount of 261. (a) activated charcoal. pressure on the chest. 262. (c) cherry red 244. (a) 2, 15 263. (a) staphylococcus 245. (c) check the pulse with your 264. (b) recovery usually occurs fingertips after you give in three to five days. two full breaths. 265. (b) botulism 246. (b) checking the pulse. 266. (d) hyperactive 247. (d) vomiting by the victim. 267. (a) removing the victim from 248. (c) direct pressure the crisis situation as soon as possible. 249. (a) 2,1,3,4 268. (c) level of consciousness 250. (a) brachial, femoral and vital signs. 251. (a) an air bubble that may 269. (d) respiratory depression. be sucked into the wound. 270. (c) splash cold water on the 252. (d) circulation of blood victim who is semicomatose. within an organ. 271. (a) rapid speech 253. (b) bright red color and spurting flow. 272. (b) throw a little cold water 254. (c) a place where an artery on the victim who appears is close to the skin sur- semi-conscious. face and over a bone. 273. (b) the "talk-down" technique. 255. (d) dizziness 274. (b) diabetic (insulin shock) 256. (d) bounding pulse. 275. (d) let the victim make deci-

257. (b) the body absorbs inhaled sions on what he needs to do. poisons rapidly. 276. (d) alcohol withdrawal. 258. (a) remove the victim to fresh air. 277. (d) deep, comatose sleep

35


278. (a) a very dangerous hallucin- 297. (d) do not help the victim admin- ogen, and extremely unpre- ister his medication until a dictable. physician has seen him. 279. (c) valium 298. (d) shortness of breath. 280. (b) narcotic 299. (d) sit victim upright with legs 281. (c) are destroyed by heat. dangling over the side. 282. (a) the First Aider should 300. (b) heart attack and heart disease immediately pack wounds 301. (c) congestive heart failure from marine organisms in ice. 302. (d) angina pectoris is temporary pain that can be brought on by283. (c) black-and-blue skin tissue, emotional stress. accompanied by considerable pain and swelling. 303. (a) painful, labored breathing. 304. (d) showing calmness and 284. (c) a chewing motion. reassurance. 285. (b) application of a constricting band only. 305. (d) the victim uses accessory muscles of respiration. 286. (d) apply a constricting band above the sting. 306. (a) slow heart rate. 307. (b) enhancing oxygenation. 287. (d) remove the stinger by 308. (d) all of these answers. gently scraping it with 309. (d) in twelve to forty- your fingernail or the eight hours. edge of a knife. 310. (d) assist the victim in tak- 288. (a) vigorously scrub the area. ing some type of sugar. 289. (d) series of small, shallow 311. (d) put instant glucose between puncture wounds. the victim's cheek and gums. 290. (d) inside right arm from 312. (c) rapid, deep breathing and elbow to wrist. frequent sighing in both 291. (c) decreased pulse rate. diabetic coma and insulin 292. (a) atherosclerosis shock. 293. (b) may happen within a week 313. (c) permits sugar to pass from of a heart attack due to the blood into the body cells. the heart's inability to pump blood effectively. 314. (a) determine the most comfortable position for themselves. 294. (d) is pain in the heart caused by insufficient oxygen. 315. (d) a catatonic phase 295. (d) angina pectoris 316. (b) move objects away from the 296. (d) congestive heart failure victim which may harm him.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------TOTALS = 316

36

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