Module 8 Bookletfawfwafa

Chapter 1: ANS:

Physiology of ANS:

1. Nervous system is divided functionally into

a. Somatic and central b. Somatic and peripheral c. Somatic and Autonomic d. Peripheral and Autonomic

2. Choose one odd out word :

a. Brain stem b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Spinal cord

3. No of segments of spinal cord :

a. 31 b. 32 c. 33 d. 34

4. Which parts of spinal cord has

most number of segments : a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumber d. Sacral e. Coccygeal

5. No. of spinal nerves arising from each segment of spinal cord :

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

6. All of the following is controlled

by autonomic nervous system : a. Heart b. Viscera c. Moving hands d. Glands

7. Unit of function is :

a. Reflex action b. Neuron c. All of the above d. Non of the above

True and false Questions:

8. Ganglia aren't surrounded by any capsule

9. Autonomic ganglia are arised from cranial and spinal origin

10. Cranio spinal ganglia are larger than Autonomic ganglia

11. Ganglion cells of Craniospinal ganglia are

a. Unipolar b. Pseudounipolar c. Dipolar

d. Multipolar

12. Septa in the craniospinal ganglia are ____ to the capsule

a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. Scattered d. Non of the above

13. Nerve fibres in Craniospinal

ganglia are : a. Unipolar b. Myelinated c. Non myelinated d. Dipolar

14. Shape of autonomic ganglia :

a. Oval b. Spherical c. Rounded d. Polyhedral

15. All of the following are present in the cranio spinal ganglia except

a. Synapse b. Nerve fibers c. Ganglion cells d. Capsule

16. All of the following are present in

the autonomic ganglia except : a. Synapse b. Nerve fibers c. Ganglion cells

d. Thick Capsule surrounding it all

17. Pons Varolli is a part of : a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Brain stem d. Non of the above

18. Which of them has motor function

?? a. Autonomic ganglia b. Craniospinal ganglia

19. Where does synapse lie?

a. Bet ganglion and postganglionic fibres

b. Bet preganglionic fibres and ganglion

c. Bet ganglion cells d. In craniospinal ganglia

20. Craniospinal ganglia exists in :

a. All cranial nerves b. Spinal nerves as dorsal ganglia c. Spinal nerves as ventral ganglia d. All of the above

21. Stimulus is any ___ change in the

environment a. Internal b. External c. All of the above

d. Non of the above

22. What happens after stretching of the urinary bladder ?

a. Contraction of bladder and Relaxation of sphincter

b. Contraction of bladder and sphincter

c. Relaxation of bladder and contraction of sphincter

d. Relaxation of both

23. All of the following are acting by autonomic reflex except :

a. Viscera b. Skeletal muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Gland

24. 1st component of reflex arc is

a. Effector b. Efferent c. Afferenet d. Receptor

25. All of the following are effector

except : a. Gland b. Skeletal Muscle c. Skin d. Smooth muscle

26. Center of somatic reflex is :

a. Anterior horn cell b. Lateral horn cell c. Medial horn cell d. Posterior horn cell

27. Receptor of autonomic reflex is a. Skin b. Viscus of organ c. All of the above d. None of the above

28. Efferent in somatic arc is __

neuron a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

29. All of the following are effector in

autonomic except: a. Gland b. Plain muscles c. Skeletal muscles d. Cradiac muscle

30. Synapse between axon and cell

body is : a. Axodendretic synapse b. Axosomatic synapse c. Axo-axonic synapse d. Dendrodendretic synapse

True or False

31. Inhibitory synapse is one in which neurotransmitter hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane

32. Electrical synapse is most common 33. Chemical synapse is specialized in

movement of ion from one cell to another

34. Presynaptic membrane is electron lucent

35. Synaptic cleft is about 20 mm 36. Postsynaptic membrane lies on

target neuron

37. Ion responsible for mediating function of chemical synapse

a. Calcium b. Phosphorous c. Potassium d. Sodium

38. Sympathetic Nervous system

originate from : a. Ventral root of Thoracic spinal

segments b. Ventral root of lower lumber

segments of spinal cord c. Dorsal root of thoracic spinal

segments d. Dorsal root of upper lumber

spinal segments

39. Order of spinal sacral segments from which parasympathetic nerves originate:

a. 1st b. 3rd c. 5th d. None of the above

40. In sympathetic nervous system , preganglionic cells rely on ganglia near to

a. Brain b. Spinal cord c. Effector d. Receptor

41. Site of rely of parasympathetic

nerve fibres is : a. Lateral ganglion b. Collateral ganglion c. Terminal ganglion d. All of the above

42. All of the following may be site of

rely for sympathetic preganglionic fibre except :

a. Lateral ganglion b. Collateral ganglion c. Terminal ganglion d. Non of the above

43. Which of them in which

presynaptic nerves synapse with more postsynaptic nerves

a. Sympathetic b. Parasympathetic

True or false: 44. Autonomic ganglia are site of rely

of preganglionic nerves coming from PNS

45. Preganglionic fibres rely once though it can pass through much ganglia

46. Sympathetic nervous system originates from brain and sacral segments of the spinal cord

47. Lateral sympathetic chain lie between sympathetic chain and organ

48. Ganglions are aggregation of nerve cell bodies outside CNS

49. Parasympathetic nerves originate from 1st sacral spinal segment

50. Parasympathetic and sympathetic are considered as somatic nervous system

51. Parasympathetic nervous system forms craniosacral outflow

52. Craniospinal ganglia are sites of rely of autonomic nerves

53. Increasing power of lens is the function of…….

a. 3th cranial nerve b. 7th cranial nerve c. 9th cranial nerve

d. 10th cranial nerve

54. All the following are functions of the facial nerve except:

a. Secretory and vasodilator to the lacrimal glands to cause shedding of tears.

b. Secretory and vasodilator to the blood vessel of the nasopharyngeal glands and soft palate.

c. Secretory and vasodilator to the sublingual and submaxillary salivary glands to give copious watery saliva rich in electrolytes.

d. Vasodilatation of the blood vessels in the anterior 1/3 of the tongue

55. The postganglionic fibres of 9th cranial nerve supply the parotid gland and posterior 2/3 of the tongue

a. True b. False

56. The preganglionic neurons of the

vagus nerve originate in the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus in the medulla oblongata.

a. True b. False

57. The postganglionic fibres of the

vagus nerve innervate all of the following except:

a. Heart b. Lungs c. Liver

d. Bladder

58. All of the following are functions of the vagus supplying the heart except

a. Inhibition of all properties of the heart

b. Reduction of the 02 consumption of the cardiac muscle.

c. Vasodilatation of coronary vessels

d. Inhibition of conductivity

59. Bronchoconstriction is one of the effects of the vagud nerve on the lungs

a. True b. False

60. The vagus nerve provides motor

supply to all of the following except:

a. Smooth muscles of stomach b. Smooth muscles of small

intestine c. the sphincters d. proximal half of large intestine

smooth muscles

61. Proximal half of the colon supplied by ……. While the distal half supplied by ………….

a. Vagus , sacral autonomic b. Sacral autonomic , vagus c. Facial , vagus d. Vagus , facial

62. Sacral autonomic nerves provide motor supply to all of the following except

a. wall of the distal half of the colon b. wall of the rectum c. the internal anal sphincter

63. the wall of urinary bladder

………… is called nervous erigens.

a. Facial nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Sacral autonomic nerve d. Glossopharygeal

64. Adrenergic autonomic fibers

secrete ……… at their terminations

a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. Both of them d. None of them

65. Adrenergic fibers include all the

synapses of all autonomic ganglia a. True b. False

66. Cholinergic fibers supply

preganglionic fibres supplying the adrenal medulla.

a. True b. False

67. Preganglionic nerve endings that innervate sweat glands and blood vessels in the skeletal muscles are cholinergic fibers a. True b. False

68. Nicotinic receptors are found in

all of the following sites except: a. The synapses between the pre-

and postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

b. In the membranes of skeletal muscle fibres at the neuromuscular junction.

c. Supra-renal medulla. d. Sweat glands and blood vessels

of skeletal muscle innervated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons of the sympathetic system.

69. All of the following are nicotine-like action of acetylcholine except: a. Stimulation of the autonomic

ganglia. b. stimulation of all

postganglionic parasympathetic endings

c. Secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline at adrenal medulla.

d. Contraction of skeletal muscles due to stimulation at the motor end plates.

70. Acetylcholine is synthesized by …………. and hydrolysed into choline and acelic acid by…………

a. Choline acetyl transferase , cholinesterase

b. Cholinesterase , choline acetyl transferase

71. Pseudocholinesterase destroys acetylcholine in the cholinergic nerve terminals

a. True b. False

72. The transmitters in sympathetic

nervous system are catecholamines, chiefly norepinephrine and epinephrine

a. True b. False

73. The starting substance for

noradrenaline synthesis is………. a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Tyrosine d. Lysine

74. Adrenaline is synthesized by

methylation of noradrenaline in the adrenal cortex

a. True b. False

75. All of the following are true

concerning the fate of adrenaline except:

a. Diffusion away from the nerve endings into the surroundings body fluids and thence into the blood.

b. Reuptake into the adrenergic nerve endings themselves by an passive transport process.

c. Oxidation by monoamine oxidase enzyme

d. Methylation by catechol-O-methyl tarnsferase

76. Alpha adrenergic receptors responding to noradrenaline and adrenaline, but they have higher affinity for adrenaline

a. True b. False

77. Beta 1 receptors are present in the

smooth muscle of: bronchioles, gastrointestinal tract, urinary bladder while Beta2 receptors they are present chiefly in the heart

a. True b. False

78. Adrenaline has a greater effect on

cardiac stimulation than noradrenaline.

a. True b. False

79. Adrenaline causes only weak

constriction of the blood vessels, in comparison with the much stronger constriction caused by noradrenaline.

a. True b. False

80. Noradrenaline has to a great extent more metabolic effect than adrenaline.

a. True b. False

81. Adrenaline has more inhibitory

effects on the smooth muscles of the bronchioles and intestinal wall. So it is more useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma.

a. True b. False

82. The autonomic nervous system is

activated mainly by centres located in ………..

a. the spinal cord b. brain stem c. Hypothalamus d. All of the above

83. Spinal cord controls all of the

following except ……. a. Micturition b. Defection c. Arterial blood pressure

regulation d. Relaxation of the urinary

sphincter

84. Brain stem controls all of the following except………..

a. arterial blood pressure b. heart rate

c. glandular secretion in the gastrointestinal tract

d. none of the above

85. Medulla oblongata contains centers of …………

a. centres for swallowing, coughing and vomiting

b. medullary centres for the autonomic reflex control of heart circulation

c. centre of gastrointestinal peristalsis

d. all of the above

86. The pons contains centres for pupillary reflexes and accommodation for near vision.

a. True b. False

87. Stimulation of the posterior

hypothalamic nuclei result in parasympathetic effects while stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic nuclei result in sympathetic effects

a. True b. False

88. All of the following are

sympathetic effects resulting from stimulation of posterior hypothalamus except:

a. dilatation of pupils and palpebral fissure

b. increasing heart rate

c. increasing motility of gastrointestinal tract

d. vasoconstriction and increased arterial blood pressure

89. The limbic system plus the hypothalamus are concerned with emotions whether their genesis or their expression (mental and physical)

a. True b. False

90. All of the following are severe

induced autonomic diseases except……..

a. peptic ulcer b. constipation or diarrhea c. heart palpitation d. Hypotension.

91. What is number of courses that

preganglionic nerve has on entering the ganglionic chain :

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

92. Coleic ganglia is considered :

a. Lateral ganglia b. Collateral ganglia c. Terminal ganglia d. Non of the above

93. Which of the following has its sympathetic supply directly from splanchinic nerve ?

a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Renal Medulla d. Renal cortex

94. What is sympathetic action on eye

pupil ? a. Dilatation b. Constriction c. Expansion d. Conraction

95. What is sympathetic action on

palepebral fissure ? a. Narrowing b. Widening c. Retraction d. Protraction

True and False

96. Sympathetic nerves cause strong vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels

97. Sympathetic nerves cause vasodilatation of vessels of salivary gland

98. Parasympathetic nerves causes erection of the fair follicle

99. Adrenal medulla is directly supplied by preganglionic nerve fibres

100. Sympathetic nerves causes secretions in lacrimal glands

101. Increasing heart rate and vasoconstriction of coronaries are one of the functions of the sympathetic NS

102. Bronchodilatation intense vasoconstriction of the pulmonary blood vessels are mediated by sympathetic NS

103. Innervation of the adrenal medulla is preganglionic.


functions of sympathetic supply to the abdominal viscera except: a. increasing the blood glucose

level by conversion of liver glycogen into blood glucose

b. Retention of bile. c. Vasodilatation of the blood

vessels of the viscera d. secretion of adrenaline and

noradrenaline in the blood

105. all of the following are functions of sympathetic fibres to the pelvis except:

a. retention of faeces and urine b. Vasoconstrictor to the blood

vessels of pelvic viscera c. Motor to the smooth muscle

of male sex organs d. Inhibitory to the smooth

muscle of the proximal half of the colon

106. All of the following are effects of sympathetic fibers to the limbs, thoracic and abdominal parities except: a. Increase of muscle

glycogenolysis b. Vasoconstrictor to cutaneous

blood vessels c. Vasoconstriction to the blood

vessels of the skeletal muscles d. Secretory to the sweat glands

107. Orbelli Phenomenon is ……..

a. Better contraction, and early fatigue of skeletal muscles

b. delayed fatigue and early recovery of skeletal muscles after fatigue

c. Better contraction and delayed fatigue of the skeletal muscles

d. delayed fatigue and delayed recovery of skeletal muscles after fatigue

e. b and c

108. Orbelli Phenomenon occurs

due to: a. Activation of phosphorylase

enzyme needed for glycogen breakdown and release of energy in muscles.

b. Increase sensitivity of motor end-plate to acetylcholine.

c. Increase oxygen consumption and increased heat production.

d. Improvement of blood supply to the muscles by vasodilatation

e. All of the above

109. The sympathetic discharge is increased in fasting animals and decreased when fasted animals are reefed a. True b. False

True and false Qs concerning the role of sympathetic nervous system in emergencies:

110. Acceleration of the heart beat, decreases the force of myocardial contraction and raised blood pressure

111. Increasing glycogenolysis in the liver and elevation of blood glucose and free fatty acid level

112. Bronchoconstriction of bronchioles

113. Increased strength of muscle contraction and early onset of fatigue

114. Increased mental activity and increased sweat secretion

115. When a small child's finger was stimulated or burned by a candle flame , he withdrew his hand so fast and began to cry, which of the following of event likely to be true :

a. Spinal cord is responsible for the all response of the child

b. Spinal cord and Brain mediated this response

c. Medulla oblongata took part in this response

d. This reflex action is considered to be autonomic reflex

116. Micturition has occurred to a

young child , which of the following centers is likely to have mediated this action :

a. Brain b. Anterior horn cell of the spinal

cord c. Lateral horn cell of the spinal

cord d. None of the above

117. Sympathetic nerves whose

pregangilionic fibers originate from all thoracic segments of the spinal cord mediate all of the following except :

a. Inhibition to the smooth muscles on wall of gall bladder

b. Stimulation of adrenal medulla c. Dilatation of eye pupil d. Inhibition to smooth muscle of

the wall of urinary bladder

118. Regarding what happens in the body during fasting state , Which of the following is True and False ?

a. When fasting occurs , at first blood pressure decrease , then gradually it becomes stable at normal range

b. Decrease in level of fatty acids in blood

c. Stimulation of glycogenesis in liver

d. Stimulation of hypothalamus

119. A worker is holding a large load in the factory , which of the following can be observed in this worker :

a. Red face b. Dry skin without sweat c. Eye ball protruded d. None of the above

120. If injury occurred to the

autonomic nerve originated from the sacral segment , which of the following is likely to occur :

a. Paralysis of wall of gall bladder b. Paralysis in the wall of the

stomach c. Difficulty in the fecal discharge d. Contraction of external urinary

sphincter

121. When you are having your lunch , all of the following can occur except :

a. Fast rate of heart beats b. Liability to urinate c. Accommodation of near vision d. HCL secretion in stomach

122. A young child trying to joke

with a friend , he tries to frighten him , to his surprise ,, his friend has died of fear , which of the following is the main cause of death :

a. Rupture of the respiratory pathway due to strong dilatation

b. Respiratory failure due to collapse of bronchi

c. Drop in blood pressure d. Obstruction in GIT

123. In case of sleeping which of

the following is most true : a. High level of glucose in the blood b. Contraction of eye pupil and

decrease power of lens c. Fatty acids synthesis increases d. Nor adrenaline level increases

124. Miosis is likely observed in : a. Angry man b. Man returned from a tiring

travel c. Student having exam

d. Hard worker

125. Chemical transmitter mediating transmission on external sphincter muscle of the urinary bladder :

a. Acetylcholine b. Nor adrenaline c. Adrenaline d. Muscarine

126. Which of the following

substances can contribute to the stimulation of sweat gland ?

a. Nicotine b. Adrenaline c. Nor adrenaline d. Muscarine


different between Nor adrenaline and acetylcholine :

a. Synthesis steps b. Site of initiation of synthesis c. Target d. Receptors

128. Prolongation of the erection of

the hair is due to alteration and defect in :

a. Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors b. Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors c. Beta 1 adrenergic receptors

d. Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

129. In the excitation of the heart ,adrenaline is the more effective excitant than Nor adrenaline due to :

a. Greater ability of adrenaline to excite Beta 1 receptors

b. Lesser ability of Nor adrenaline to excite Beta 2 receptors

c. Greater ability of adrenaline to excite Alpha 1 receptors

d. Lesser metabolic effects of Adrenaline

130. Any destruction in the medulla

oblongata causes death mainly due to:

a. Its ability to control GI peristalsis b. Its effect on respiration c. Its effect on regulation of the

heart beat d. Both (a) and (b)

131. Main centre of the nervous

system controlling sympathetic and parasympathetic tones is :

a. Cerebral cortex indirectly b. Hypothalamus c. Mid brain d. Cerebral cortex directly

132. Peptic ulcer is originated by higher centers in nervous system due to :

a. Rise in Sympathetic tones b. Rise in Parasympathetic tones c. Abnormality in medulla

oblongata d. Defect in Limbic system

133. Most common site for

enzymatic breaking of Catcholamines is :

a. Kidney b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach

134. Concerning hypothalamus put

true or false : a. Anterior part is stimulated

during stress b. Posterior part causes

hypertension c. Anterior part causes erection of

the hair d. It is considered the main vital

center

Answers: 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. F 9. F 10. T 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. T 32. F 33. F 34. F 35. F 36. T

37. A 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. A 44. F 45. T 46. F 47. F 48. T 49. F 50. F 51. T 52. F 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. A

73. C 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. D 83. C 84. D 85. D 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. A 90. D 91. C 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. F 97. F 98. F 99. T 100. F 101. F 102. F 103. T 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. E 108. E 109. B 110. F

111. T 112. F 113. F 114. T 115. B 116. C 117. D 118. a. T b. F c. F d. T

119. C 120. C 121. A 122. A 123. C 124. B 125. A 126. D 127. B 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. A 132. B 133. B 134. a. F b. T c. T d. F

Pharmacology of ANS :

1. The mechanism of transduction in nicotinic receptors is:- a. G – protein coupled b. Inhibition of cAMP c. Na+ influx d. K+ influx

2. M3 receptors found in:-

a. exocrine glands b. smooth muscle c. vascular endothelium d. all of the above

3. All of the following are direct M – stimulant except :- a. carbachol b. bethanecol c. pilocarpine d. neostigmine

4. The irreversible anticholinesterase is : a. organophosphorus b. physostigmine c. neostigmine substitutes d. neostigmine

5. The effect of acetylcholine on the

eye : a. myosis b. ciliary muscle contraction c. stimulation of dilator pupillae

muscle d. a and b

6. Atropine is :- a. muscarinic receptor blocker b. nicotinic receptor blocker c. reversible anticholinesterase


7. Hydrolysis of acetylcholine in the plasma is carried by :- a. true cholinesterase b. pseudocholinesterase c. atropine d. MAO

8. Carbachol is used for the

treatment of :- a. postoperative retention of

urine b. paralytic ileus c. glaucoma d. peptic ulcer

9. All of the following are contraindications to choline esters except :- a. hyperthyroidism b. coronary insufficiency c. bronchial asthma d. pregnancy

10. Pilocarpine is used systemically

for :- a. atropine overdose b. glucoma c. myasthenia gravis d. Alzheimer

11. the drug used for treating

Alzheimer is : -

a. neostigmine b. carbachol c. physostigmine d. edrophonium

12. all of the following is true about

neostigmine except : - a. used in diagnosis of

myasthenia gravis b. antidote to curare c. used in glaucoma d. paralytic ileus

13. The drug used in treatment of

chronic myasthenia gravis is :- a. neostigmine b. physiostigmine c. atropine d. pyridostigmine

14. all of the following used in the

treatment of irreversible anticholenesterases poisoning except a. atropine b. neostigmine c. oximes d. anticonvulsant

15. Atropine is absorbed from all sites

of administration. a. True b. False

16. Atropine blocks the muscarinic

receptors by competing with a. Muscarin

b. Nicotine c. Acetylcholine d. Scopolamine

17. I.V. injection of atropine at first

produces a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Both of them d. Non of the above

18. Because most vascular beds lack

parasympathetic innervation. atropine has no action on a. Blood vessels b. Blood pressure c. Both of them d. Non of the above

19. ......... doses of atropine in children

produce cutaneous vasodilatation and flushing of the blush area a. Therapeutic b. Toxic c. Small d. Non of the above

20. Atropine cause .......... of gastric

secretion a. Increasing b. Decreasing c. No effect d. Non of the above

21. Atropine has an effect on urinary bladder as it cause a. Relax wall of bladder b. Contraction of sphincter c. Both of them d. Relax of sphincter

22. Atropine cause reduction of

salivary, lachrymal, gastric, bronchial and sweat secretion. a. True b. False

23. paralysis of the constrictor

pupillae muscle is one of the effects of atropine on the eye and it is called a. miosis b. passive mydriasis c. active mydriasis d. all of the above

24. cycloplegia is Paralysis of the

............ leading to loss of accommodation to near objects. a. ciliary muscle b. constrictor pupillae muscle c. both of them d. non of the above

25. The duration of action of atropine

following its local application to the eye is a. 7-11 days b. 6-10 days

c. 7-10 days d. 8-10 days

26. Local application of atropine in

the eye, or its systemic administration produces: a. Loss of the light reflex. b. Inhibition of lachrymation. c. Cycloplegia d. All of the above

27. When atropine is given

systemically, it takes a. Few seconds b. Few minutes c. Few hours d. Few days

28. An atropine injection is given half

an hour before general anaesthesia in order to: a. Decrease salivary and

bronchial secretions b. Protect against the inhibitory

effect of morphine c. Protect the heart from

excessive vagal tone d. All of the above

29. All of the following are from side

effects of atropine except a. Dryness of mouth, blurred

vision and tachycardia. b. Depression of CNS. c. Acute glaucoma

d. elevation of body temperature in children

30. we shouldn't use atropine in all

these condition except a. Fever b. Cardiac patients. c. Thyrotoxicosis d. Antispasmodic

31. All of These compounds have the

advantage of shorter duration of action than atropine except a. Cyclopentolate b. Tropicamide c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine

32. Hyoscine is preferred to atropine

in preanaesthetic medication a. True b. False

33. ........... is used for For peptic ulcer

(anti-secretory) and colics (antispasmodic). a. Cyclopentolate b. Tropicamide c. Oxyphenonium d. Buscopan

34. ............. Doesn.t affect the eye and

its accommodation, therefore, may be used in glaucoma. a. Oxyphenonium

b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine

35. .............. has no antisecretory

action(not for peptic ulcer). a. Hyoscine butyl bromide b. Pirenzepine c. Oxyphenonium d. Cyclopentolate

36. ................ cross to CNS with less

peripheral side effects a. Eucatropine b. Benztropine c. Oxyphenonium d. Cyclopentolate

37. ............. used to relax bladder and

increase its capacity in cases of urinary incontinence. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine

38. Unlike atropine, ........ doesn.t

increase viscosity of bronchial secretion. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Ipratropium

39. Pirenzepine doesn't not slow gastric emptying so doesn' t prolong exposure of ulcer bed to acid a. True b. False

40. ......... is a very short acting

competitive ganglion blocker and is a histamine liberator. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Trimetaphan d. Eucatropine

41. Trimetaphan is administered by

I.V. drip infusion of ...... solution a. 1:100 b. 1:1000 c. 1:10000 d. Non of the above

42. Inhaled ipratropium has a

selective bronchodilator action. a. True b. False

43. The vasodilator effect of

trimetaphan is mostly due to: a. ganglionic blocking effect. b. A histamine releaser. c. A direct vasodilator effect. d. All of the above

44. Trimetaphan main use is to produce controlled hypertension in anaesthesia during plastic and neurosurgery a. True b. False

45. All of the following are effects of

histamine release except: a. Bronchospasm b. Hypertension c. Excessive bronchial and gastric

secretion. d. None of the above

46. All of the following give

synergistic effect with competitive blockers except:

a. Aminoglycosides

b. Chlorpromazine c. Neostigmine d. quinidine

47. ……….. agument paralysis

a. inhalational anaesthetics b. quinidine c. Chlorpromazine d. All of the above

48. An overdose of curare produces:

a. Failure of respiration due to paralysis of respiratory muscles.

b. Hypotension. c. Histamine release leading to

bronchospasm …..

d. All of the above

49. Precautions should be considered in treatment of curare alkaloids toxicity with antidotes include:

a. atropine must be given few minutes before neostigmine

b. avoid overdosage of neostigmine

c. both of them d. none of them

50. all of the following are true about

gallamine except:

a. It has about 1/5 the activity of d-tubocurarine as a neuromuscular blocker.

b. It has a longer duration of action

c. It has a much weaker ganglionic blocking activity.

d. It has a much weaker histamine releasing action.

51. Which of the following has the longer duration of action:

a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. TUBOCURANINE

52. Which of the following is

metabolized by the liver: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM

c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM

53. Which drug of these is the most

potent: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM

54. Which of the following has no

histamine releasing action: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM

55. ............. a hormone secreted from

adrenal medulla that releases substrates for metabolism, and in emergencies promotes blood flow to skeletal muscles. a. Noradrenaline b. Adrenaline c. Dopamine d. Non of the above

56. The main functions of ............. are

maintenance of normal sympathetic tone & adjustment of circulatory dynamics. a. Noradrenaline b. Adrenaline c. Dopamine d. non of the above

57. When we use an intermediate dose of dopamine as a drug it will activate a. Alpha . receptors b. Beta . receptors c. D1 receptors d. D2 receptors

58. Adrenergic innervated organs and

tissues tend to have only one subtype of adrenergic receptors a. True b. False

59. Stimulation of............ by

catecholamines activates phospholipase C a. Alpha 1. receptors b. Beta1 . receptors c. Alpha 2 receptors d. Beta 2 receptors

60. Increasing of cytoplasmic calcium

may be due to release of ............ after stimulation of alpha 1 receptor a. Diacylglycerol b. inositol triphosphate c. adrenalin d. noradrenalin

61. stimulation of ............ causes

feedback inhibition of the ongoing release of noradrenaline from the stimulated adrenergic neuron. a. Alpha 1. receptors

b. Beta1 . receptors c. Alpha 2 receptors d. Beta 2 receptors

62. All the subtypes of alpha-

adrenoceptors act by stimulation of adenylate cyclase. a. True b. False

63. ........ is a Presynaptic adrenergic

receptor that inhibits release of Noradrenaline from the nerve terminals a. Alpha 1 b. Alpha 2 c. Beta 1 d. Beta 2

64. Modulation of neurotransmission

in central & sympathetic nervous system is the action of ....... receptor a. Beta 1 b. Beta 2 c. D1 d. D2

65. Beta 2 receptor stimulate

micturition a. True b. False

66. Using large dose of dopamine as a

drug activate ............ receptors a. Alpha b. Beta

c. D1 d. D2

67. Beta 2 receptor increase glucose

level in the blood a. True b. False

68. All of the following are from the

direct acting SYMPATHOMIMETICS except a. Noradrenaline b. Isoprenaline c. Amphetamine d. Phenylephrine

69. .............. increase the concentration

of catcholamines in the synapses.to inhibt the reuptake of noradrenalin into the nerve ending a. Cocaine b. Isoprenaline c. Amphetamine d. Phenylephrine

70. All of the following are dual

SYMPATHOMIMETICS except a. Dopamine b. Pseudoepherine c. Ephedrine d. Amphetamine

71. According to ............ we can

classify SYMPATHOMIMETICS into selective and nonselective

a. Mode of action b. Chemical structure c. Spectrum d. Non of the above

72. Catecholamines are compounds

that contain a catechol nucleus and may be natural as a. Adrenaline b. Noradrenaline c. Dopamine d. All of the above

73. When endogenous catecholamines

given parenterally, they enter the CNS in significant amounts. a. True b. False

74. ............... is a synthetic

catecholamine, is similar to endogenous transmitters but not readily taken up into nerve endings. a. Noradrenaline b. Dopamine c. Isoprenaline d. Adrenaline

75. Non-catecholamines do not resist

MAO and COMT enzymes and so they are active orally a. True b. False

76. Inactivation of adrenaline and noradrenaline occurs by a. Neuronal Uptake b. Extraneuronal uptake c. Enzyme Destruction d. All of the following

77. The normal level of VMP in urine

is ........ mg /24 hours urine a. 2.5 . 5 b. 2 - 6.5 c. 3.5 . 6 d. 5.5 . 6

78. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of

adrenal medulla secreting noradrenaline and adrenaline. a. True b. False

79. Both enzymes (MAO &COMT) are

present in all of the following except a. Liver b. Kidney c. Spleen d. Intestinal mucosa

80. Oral administration of adrenaline

is effective a. True b. False

81. We can use adrenaline by all

routes of administration a. True

b. False

82. Adrenaline acting on beta 1-adrenoceptors exerts positive a. chronotropic effect b. inotropic effect c. dromotropic effect d. all of the above

83. Adrenaline causes elevation of

............blood pressure due to increased cardiac output a. Systolic b. Diastolic c. Both of them d. Non of the above

84. When we use higher dose of

adrenalinet4 it will .......... diastolic blood pressure a. Increase b. Decrease c. Have no effect d. Non of the above

85. Adrenaline always used during

delivery to cause contraction of the uterus a. True b. False

86. Adrenaline can be used for

treatment of glaucoma a. True b. False

87. Adrenaline increases blood glucose level by all of the following except a. Inhibition of insulin secretion b. decreasing release of glucagon c. Increase in hepatic

glycogenolysis d. transient increase in blood K+

followed by a prolonged fall

88. adrenaline delays fatigability by increasing blood flow. a. True b. False

89. Adrenaline is the physiological

antagonist of histamine. a. True b. False

90. Adrenaline is not given with local

anesthetics subcutaneously because it increases bleeding from the site of operation. a. True b. False

91. Adrenaline is given in cases of

cardiac arrest a. True b. False

92. ........ is a prodrug that is

hydrolyzed to adrenaline, are used topically in treatment of open-angle glaucoma.

a. Beta 2-agonists b. Ephidrin c. Dipivefrin d. All of the above

93. All of the following are adverse

effects of adrenaline except a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Anxiety and restlessness. c. Hypotension d. Headache, weakness and

tremors.

94. Extravasation of parenterally administered adrenaline causes severe vasoconstriction , resulting in a. tissue necrosis b. gangrene c. both of them d. non of the above

95. noradrenaline cause increase of

........... blood pressure a. systolic b. diastolic c. both of them d. non of the above

96. Noradrenaline has limited

therapeutic value, it can use for a. acute hypotensive b. septic shock c. both of them d. non of the above

97. using ...... infusion rates of dopamine, it dilates renal and mesenteric blood vessels a. low b. moderate c. high d. all of the above

98. At moderate infusion rates of

dopamine , it stimulates ....... receptors a. Alpha 1 b. Beta 1 c. Alpha 2 d. Beta 2

99. Dopamine drug is less liable to

cause tachycardia and arrhythmia than other catecholamines. a. True b. False

100. Dopamine is used in treatment

of all of the following except a. Acute heart failure. b. open-angle glaucoma. c. Hypovolaemic shock d. septic shock.

101. Dopamine .......... cardiac output

and renal blood flow a. Increase b. Decrease c. Has no effect d. Non of the above

102. The moderate infusion rates of dopamine (5-10 micrograms/kg/minute ) is called a. Renal dose b. Cardiac dose c. vasopressor dose d. all of the above

103. vasopressor dose of dopamine

cause a. vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction c. both of them d. non of the above

104. dopamine is preferred to take

orally because it highly absorbed a. true b. false

105. Isoprenaline stimulates beta

receptors by : a. Acting directly on them b. Increasing release of

noradrenaline c. Inhibiting reuptake of

noradrenaline by nerve endings

d. All of the above e. B & C

106. The duration of action of

isoprenaline is longer than

adrenaline and noradrenaline because : a. It cannot be given orally b. It’s not reuptaken by nerve

endings c. It’s stable and not metabolized d. It stimulates releasing of

noradrenaline

107. Isoprenaline is a synthetic catecholamine which can be given orally or parentrally : a. True b. False

108. All of the following can be one

of the pharmacological actions of isoprenaline EXCEPT : a. Tachycardia b. Increase in the force of heart

contraction c. Mydriasis d. Bronchodilatation

109. All of the following are correct

about Dobutamine EXCEPT : a. It’s a synthetic catecholamine b. It acts on dopamine receptors c. It stimulates mainly beta 1

receptors d. it acts directly on adrenergic

receptors

110. The major advantage of Dobutamine over than other sympathomimetics is that : a. It increases the cardiac output

and stroke volume b. It has a little effect on the heart

rate c. It doesn’t significatly elevate

myocardium oxygen demands d. All of the above

111. Dobutamine is given by :

a. Intravenous infusion b. Intravenous injection c. Oral adminstration d. Sublingual administration

112. Although Phenylephrine is an

alfa 1 selective agonist , it has no direct stimulant effect on the heart because : a. Phenylephrine directly causes

vasodilatation which indirectly produce reflex bradycardia

b. Phenylephrine directly causes vasodilatation which indirectly produce reflex tachycardia

c. Phenylephrine directly causes vasoconstriction which indirectly produce reflex tachycardia

d. Phenylephrine directly causes vasoconstriction which

indirectly produce reflex bradycardia

113. Unlike directly acting catcholamines Phenylephrine : a. Can be given orally b. Has prologed duration of

action c. Can cause mydriasis without

cycloplegia d. All of the above e. A & B

114. All of the following can be one

of the therapeutic uses of Phenylephrine EXCEPT : a. As a topical ocular preparation

because it doesn’t cause cycloplegia

b. As nasal decongestant in allergic and viral rhinitis

c. Hypotention caused by spinal anaesthesia

d. As a mydriatic for fundus examination

115. Clonidine and alfa-methylnoradrenaline decrease blood pressure by : a. inhibition of noradrenaline

release b. Bradycardia

c. Inhibiton of central sympathatic outflow

d. Non of the above e. A & C

116. in order to reduce the IOP in

chronic open-angle glaucoma we use : a. Brimonidine b. Clonidine c. Phenylephrine d. Apraclonidine e. A & D


Sympathomimetics which are used as nasal decomgestants EXCEPT : a. Phenylephrine b. Brimonidine c. Ephedrine d. Pseudoephedrine

118. Sympathomimetics are used as

nasal decomgestants because they : a. Produce vasoconstriction of

mucosal BVs b. Reduces oedema of the nasal

mucosa c. Improve ventilation and nasal

stuffuness d. Cause relief of allergic rhinitis,

sinusitis and common cold

e. All of the above

119. Rebound congestion is an adverse effect of Sympathomimetics are used as nasal decomgestants caused by : a. Secondery vasodilatation b. Subsequent temporary

increase in nasal congestion c. Atrophy of the cilia of the

nasal mucosa d. A & B e. A & C

120. All of the following are adverse

effects of Sympathomimetics are used as nasal decomgestants EXCEPT : a. Stinging , burning and drying

of the nostrils b. Vasoconstriction of mucosal

blood vessels c. Atrophy of the cilia of the

nasal mucosa d. Restlessness and anxiety

121. Unlike non-selective beta

adregenic agonists beta 2 selective adrenergic agonists can be used in the Treatment of bronchial asthma because : a. They don’t stimulate the heart b. They cause bronchodilatation

c. They decrease the brochial secretions

d. All of the above

122. All of the following are true about Salbutamol EXCEPT : a. It Has a little effect on the

heart b. Its effect lasts about 4 hours c. It’s stable and not metbolized d. It cannot be given orally

123. Salmetrol and Formoterol are :

a. Long –acting beta2 agonists b. Can be given by inhalation c. Used for the relief of acute

asthma attack d. All of the following e. A & B

124. Salbutamol and Terbutaline are the same in all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Duration of action b. Way of adminstration c. Selectivty to beta2 adreginc

receptors d. Theraputic uses

125. All beta 2 selective adrenergic agonists are given

orally , parentrally or by inhalation :

a. True b. False

126. Ritodrine and Terbutaline have a common theraputic use which is :

a. Postponing premature labour b. Treatment of bronchial asthma c. Treatment of obstructive lung

diseases d. B & C

127. Serious hyperkalaemia may result from beta2 agonist therapy :

a. True b. False

128. All of the following are adverse effects of beta2 agonists EXCEPT :

a. Skeletal muscle tremor ( particularly in hands )

b. Bradycardia and palpitation c. Headache and nervousness d. Peripheral vasodilatation

129. Sympathomimetics actions of Amphetamine on alfa and beta receptors are caused by :

a. Direct stimulation b. Increasing release of

noradrenaline

c. Inhibiting reuptake of noradrenaline by nerve endings


130. Tachyphylaxis is common with amphetamine due to noradrenaline depletion :

a. True b. False

131. Amphetamine produces weight loss by :

a. Depressant action on appetite b. Increasing energy expenditure c. Decreasing absorbtion of food d. A & B e. A & C

132. Amphetamine is used for sympathomimetic and CNS effects :

a. True b. False

133. Amphetamine can be used for treatment of :

a. Nacrolepsy b. Attention deficit syndrome c. Depression d. All of the above e. A & B

134. All of the following are side effects of Amphetamine EXCEPT :

a. Insomania, anxiety, restless and hyperactive reflexes

b. Tolerance and addiction c. Weight loss d. Hypertention, palpitation and

anginal pain e. Cardiac arrhythmia

135. Sympathomimetics actions of Cocaine on alfa and beta receptors are caused by :

a. Direct stimulation b. Increasing release of

noradrenaline c. Inhibiting reuptake of

noradrenaline at both peripheral and central neurons


136. Amphetamine and Cocaine are similar in all of the following except :

a. They have the same indirect Sympathomimetic mechanism of action

b. They cause vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation

c. They can lead to addiction

d. They cause hypertention

137. Amphetamine and Ephedrine share the following adverse effects Except :

a. Tachyphylaxis b. Insomnia c. Cardiac stimulation d. Anxiety e. Urine retention in old patients

with enlarged prostate

138. Mechanism of action of Ephedrine is :

a. Direct stimulation of alfa and beta receptors

b. Increasing release of noradrenaline

c. Inhibiting reuptake of noradrenaline by nerve endings

d. A & B

139. Ephedrine has a good oral absorption and it enters the CNS :

a. True b. False

140. Ephedrine and Pseudoephedrine are used for :

a. Symptomatic relief of nasal congestions

b. Prevention or reversing hypotention accompany with spinal anesthesia

c. Control of urinary incontinence

d. All of the above

141. Pseudoephedrine is similar to Ephedrine but :

a. With Less pressor and CNS action

b. It cannot be given orally c. It causes urine retention d. Non of the above

142. alpha (d) methyl dopa is a: a. sympatholytic drug. b. adrenolytic drug. c. sympatomimetic drug. d. none of the above.

143. the most potent ergot al kaloids in B-receptor bloking is:

a. ergotamine. b. ergometrine. c. dihydro ergotoxine. d. methyl ergometrine.

144. ergotamine is used in: a. hypertension. b. acute attack of migraine. c. alzheimers.

d. pvd.

145. methyl ergometrine is used in: a. post partum haemorrhage. b. hypertension. c. induction of labour. d. a and c.

146. All of the following are uses of bromocriptine except:

a. parkinsonism. b. acromegaly. c. hypertension. d. hyper prolactinaemia.

147. the mechanism of action of ergotamine on alpha receptors is:

a. antagonism. b. partial agonism. c. competitive inhibition. d. none of the above.

148. the ergot alkaloid used in cerebral ischaemia is:

a. dihydro ergotoxine. b. ergotamine. c. methyl ergometrine. d. all of the above

149. selective alfa 1- blocker include: a. prazosion. b. labetalol. c. alpha methyl dopa. d. ergotamine.

150. the therap eutic uses of selective alfa 1-blockers include:

a. hypertension. b. benign prostatic hyperplasia. c. peptic ulcer. d. a and b.

151. the adverse effects of selective alfa 1 blockers don't include:

a. syncope. b. failure of ejaculation. c. hypertension. d. salt and water retention.

152. the antihypertensive drug chosen in pregnancy is:

a. dihydroergotoxine. b. alpha methyl l dopa. c. drazosin. d. terazosin.

153. …………….. has a cardio selective property:

a. atenolol. b. propanolol. c. pinodolol. d. all of the above.

154. all of the following is true about ISA except:

a. help in preventing heart failure.

b. caused by pindolol. c. Inclued exert signs of

sympathetic stimulation. d. it is a beta antagonist action.

155. the antiarrhymic activity of some beta blocker is due to:

a. ISA

b. membrane stabilizing activity

c. central depressant effect d. high lipid solubility

156. ……………… blocks both beta & alpha receptor:

a. prapanolol b. atenolol c. acebutalol d. carvedilol

157. all of the following is a lipophilc b-blocker except:

a. atenolol b. pindolol c. carvedilol d. labetalol

158. all of the following is true about propranolol except:

a. it has a membrane stabilizing action

b. it has a positive chronotropic effect

c. it can cross BBB

159. the mechanisms involved in lowering the B.P with the use of propranolol include:

a. lowering the cardiac output b. reduce rennin and

aldosterone c. reducing sympathetic

outflow d. all of the above

160. the metabolic effect of propranolol includes:

a. increased glucagon secretion b. hyperglycemia c. hypoglycemia d. anaemia

161. the therapeutic uses of propranolol include:

a. effort induced angina b. hypertension c. cardiac arrhythmia d. all of the above

162. The bradycharida caused by beta blockers is treated by:

a. digitalis b. atropine c. pindolol d. insulin

163. An important side effect of beta 2 blockade is:

a. heart failure b. depression c. symptomless hypoglycemic

coma d. hypotension

164. The beta blocker used in treatment of chronic glaucoma is:

a. pendolol b. nadolol c. atenolol d. timolol

165. which of the following drugs has local anaesthetic action:

a. atenolol and acebutalol b. atenolol and metoprolol c. acebutalol and metoprolol d. none of the above

True or false

166. propranolol cause bronchodilation 167. quinidine like actions appears only in high doses of propranolol 168. heart block is a contraindication in beta blockers treatment 169. all beta blockers possess membrane stabilizing activity

Answers: 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. A

33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. D 65. B 66. A

67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. B 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B 91. A 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B

101. A 102. B 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. C 109. B 110. D 111. A 112. D 113. D 114. A 115. E 116. E 117. B 118. E 119. D 120. B 121. D 122. D 123. E 124. D 125. B 126. A 127. B 128. B 129. B 130. A 131. D 132. B 133. E 134. C

135. C 136. A 137. E 138. D 139. A 140. D 141. A 142. A 143. C 144. B 145. D 146. C 147. B 148. A 149. A 150. D 151. C 152. B 153. A 154. D 155. B 156. D 157. A 158. B 159. D 160. C 161. D 162. B 163. C 164. D 165. C 166. F 167. T 168. T

169. F

Chapter 2 : CNS Physiology of CNS:

1. Ability of the CNS to recognize the

type of the change it received is : a. Integrative function b. Sensory function c. Motor function d. All of the above

2. Inner most layer of the meningies is : a. Dura Mater b. Pia Mater c. Arachnoid space d. Subarachnoid space

3. CSF exists in which of the

following : a. Pia mater b. Dura matar c. Arachnoid layer d. Subarachnoid space

4. Which of the following contains venous sinuses to drain CSF : a. Pia mater b. Dura matar c. Arachnoid d. All of the above

5. The most important vital centre is :

a. Medulla oblongata b. Mid brain c. Spinal cord d. Pons

6. Which of the following does Pons

have sensory and motor nerves to : a. Mouth b. Neck c. Throat d. Face

7. All of the following cranial nerves

emerge from the hind brain except :

a. III b. V c. VI d. VII

8. All of the following are parts of the

forebrain except : a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Thalamus

9. Grey matter is formed of :

a. Myelin sheath b. Nerve cell bodies c. Nerve fibres d. Dendrites

10. Which of the following part of skin isn’t innervated by spinal nerves ?

a. Hand b. Foot c. Face d. Abdomen

11. Deramatome is supplied by :

a. Ventral root of spinal cord b. Dorsal root of the spinal cord

12. Blood brain barrier :

a. Controls rate by which substance passes from EC fluid

b. Controls kind of substances passing from EC fluid

c. All of the above d. None of the above

True or false:

13. Blood brain barrier isn’t permeable to O2

14. Efferent nerve is considered the sensory nerve

15. Diencephalon includes pituitary glands

16. Ridges in the surface of cerebral cortex is called sulci

17. No of peduncles connected between each of cerebellar hemisphere and brain stem parts is 2

18. 12th Cranial nerve merges from medulla oblongata

19. Spinal cord passes through foramina transversorium of vertebrae

20. There are 12 cranial nerves

21. The energy of the change in external or internal environment of the body is converted to nerve impulse by

a. Detectors b. Transducers c. Both of them d. Non of the above

22. Proprioceptors respond to

mechanical stimuli and located in a. Muscle b. Tendon c. Joint d. All of the above

23. In the aortic and carotid sinus

there are mechanoreceptors called a. Stretch receptors b. Proprioceptors c. Baroreceptors d. All of the above


mechanoreceptors except a. Touch b. Stretch receptors c. Taste receptors

d. Baroreceptors

25. Stretch receptors are located in the alveoli of the lung and .... a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Both of them d. Aorta

26. The thermoreceptors that

stimulated by thermal form of energy include warmth receptors only a. True b. False

27. All of the following are chemical

receptors except a. Taste receptors b. Pressure receptors c. Olfactory receptors d. Glucoreceptors

28. ............ stimulated by any form of

energy potent enough to cause tissue damage a. Proprioceptors b. Barorecptors c. Stretch receptors d. Nociceptors

29. Electromagnetic receptors include

: a. Rods in retina b. Cons in retina c. Both of them

d. Irris

30. The sensation perceived as a result of stimulation of a receptor is called a. Adequate stimulus b. Modality of sensation c. Action potential d. Non of the above

31. The method of stimulation affect

on the type of sensation a. True b. False

32. ............ is the ability of the receptor

to respond to stimuli a. Action potential b. Adequate stimulus c. Excitabilty d. All of the above

33. The potential that result from

opening of Na + channels in the receptor membrane is called a. receptor potential b. Generator potential c. Graded potential d. All of the above

34. An increase in the amplitude of

the receptor potential produced by …….. stimulus intensity a. Decreased b. Increased

c. No effect

35. The receptor potential has the following properties except a. Local b. Propagated c. No refractory period d. No block by anaesthetics

36. In adaptation all the following are

true except a. Increase number of nerve

impulses b. Constant maintaned stimulus c. decline in the amplitude of the

receptor potential d. decrease number of nerve

impulses

37. All of the following are rapidly adapting receptors except a. Touch b. Baroreceptors c. Olfactory d. Non of the above

38. Coding of sensory information is

the ability of the brain to discriminate the ........ of different stimuli a. Modality b. Locality c. Intesity d. All of the above

39. The modality discrimination depends on a. Adequate stimulus b. Area of brain activated c. Both of them d. Non of the above

40. .............. discrimination Depends on

the fact that each receptor has a specific pathway to the sensory cortex where different parts of the body are represented a. Modality b. Locality c. Intesity d. Non of the above

41. Discrimination of intensity also

depends on a. Frequency of discharge of

action potentials b. number of receptors

stimulated c. both of them d. non of the above

42. when you can determine your

position , it is a a. Conscious proprioceptive

sensations b. Unconscious proprioceptive

sensations c. Tactile sensations d. Non of the above

43. All of the following are from Unconscious proprioceptive sensations except a. Movement of joints b. Muscle length c. Muscle tension d. Non of the above

44. Crude touch is a touch sensation

that is sharply localized and needs a relatively strong stimulus to be elicited a. True b. False

45. ............ is the ability to localize a

touched cutaneous spot while the eyes are closed a. Tactile discrimination b. Tactile localization c. Stereognosis d. Pressure sense

46. In Stereognosis. All of the

following are true except a. Recognize an object by touch b. Eyes are opened c. Recognize an object by size d. Recognize an object by weight

47. ……… Results from rapidly

repetitive sensory signals from tactile receptors a. Pressure sense b. Itch and tickle sensations c. Vibration sense

d. All of the above

48. gracile and cuneate tracts Transmits the following sensations except a. Vibration sense b. Conscious proprioceptive

sensations c. Fine touch d. Pressure sense

49. In Patients with lesions in the

dorsal column pathway all of the following are true except a. Loss of proproceptive

sensations b. Cannot identify objects by

hands when eyes are closed c. Identify their position when

eyes are opened d. Knowing if their joints is in

flexion or extension

50. Ventral spinothalamic tract Transmits the following sensations except a. Vibration sense b. Crude touch c. Pressure sense d. Itch and tickle

51. Mechanoreceptive sensations are

transmitted by the following pathways except: a. Dorsal column lemniscal

pathway

b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract

52. All of the following sensations are

transmitted by dorsal column lemniscal pathway except:

a. Stereognosis b. Vibration sensation c. Joint movements and position d. Pressure sensation


concerning the dorsal column lemniscal pathway except:

a. 1st order neuron pass to the dorsal white column of the spinal cord

b. Fibers from the upper part of the body ascend in the medial part of the dorsal white column forming the fasiculus gracilis

c. Medial lemnicsus terminate in the thalamus

d. 3rd order neuron terminate in the sensory cortex

54. Astereognosis results from lesion

in the ………. a. Dorsal column lemniscal

pathway b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract

d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract

55. Crude touch is transmitted by ………..

a. Dorsal column lemniscal pathway

b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract

56. Proprioceptive sensations are

transmitted by a. Dorsal column lemniscal

pathway b. Ventral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract d. a and c

57. the 1st order neuron in the

spinocerebellar pathway are thick myelinated A delta fibers which relay in the clark’s column at the base of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

a. true b. false

58. 2nd order neurons of the dorsal

spinocerebellar tract ascend in the anterolateral white column of the spinal cord reaching the medulla

a. True

b. False

59. All of the following terminate in the sensory cortex except:

a. Dorsal column lemniscal pathway

b. Ventral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract d. Lateral spinothalamic tract

60. 2nd order neurons of the ventral

spinocerebellar tract pass through the superior peduncle to reach the vermis while those of the dorsal tract pass through the inferior peduncle

a. True b. False

61. All of the following have receptors

to stimulate the deep pain except a. Muscles b. Tendons c. Joints d. Skin

62. Ischemia of the muscle is

produced in the deep pain due to : a. Prolonged muscle contraction b. Prolonged vasoconstriction of

blood vessels c. Sympathetic effects d. Hypertension

63. Which type of the following fibers

transmit deep pain? a. Non myelinated A fibers b. Myelinated B fibres c. Non Myelinated C fibers d. Myelinated C fibers

64. All of the following participates in

the muscle ischaemic pain except : a. Arterial occlusion b. Maintained muscle relaxation c. Increase in Lewis P factor d. Trauma of the deep structures

65. All of the following have fast rate

of transmission of the pain except a. Parietal layer of pericardium b. Parietal layer of pleura c. Brain d. Parietal layer of peritoneum

66. All of the following are properties

of the visceral pain except a. Dull aching b. Radiates to the other structures c. Sharp d. Poorly localized

67. One of the following its afferent is

vagus nerve: a. Colon b. Urinary bladder

c. Rectum d. Trachea

68. All of the following are properties

of the referred pain except : a. Can be felt in diseased viscus

only b. Felt away from its original site c. Referred to somatic structure

with the same origin as viscus d. Felt in the dermatomes

69.The cerebral cortex contains ............. neurons

a. 100 milion b. 100 bilion c. 100 thousands d. Non of the above

70.The cerebral cortex is composed of ....... hemispheres

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

71.The surface of each hemispheres is formed of elevations called gyri

a. True b. False

72. Each hemisphere in cerebral cortex contains........... Lobes

a. 2 b. 4

c. 6 d. 8

73. The somatosensory cortical areas are located in the ....... lope a. Frontal b. Temporal c. Parietal d. Occipital

74. Somatic sensory area I occupies the brodman’s areas

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,5 c. 1,3,5 d. 5,7

75. In somatic sensory area I all of the following are true except

a. The foot & leg are represented medially

b. The lips & fingers occupy smaller areas than the trunk

c. This area show modality separation of different sensation

d. It receives sensations from the opposite side of the body

76. somatic sensory area I act as a centre for the perception of the following sensations except

a. stereognosis b. vibration sense c. discrimination of weights d. pain

77. The representation of the different parts of the body in the somatosensory area II is much more sharp than in somatosensory area I

a. true b. false

78. somatosensory area II receive ......... fibres from the spinothalamic than the dorsal column pathway

a. more b. less c. long d. short

79. the patient with damage in brodman’s areas 5 , 7 can recognize objects by touch

a. true b. false

80. Area of flare that surrounds an inflammed or injured skin area is the site of occurring

a. primary hyperalgesia b. secondary hyperalgesia c. analgesia d. hypoalgesia

81. Releasing of ....... from the injured skin area to neighbouring healthy skin cause primary hyperalgesia except

a. serotonin b. histamine c. proteolytic enzymes d. kinins

82. The mechanism of primary hyperalgesia depends on

a. vasodilatation b. lowering the threshold of pain

receptors c. both of them d. non of the above

83. All of the following reduce pain except

a. rubbing b. electrical stimulation of certain

areas of the brain c. the absence of receptors for

opiates in the brain d. acupuncture

84. The neurotransmitter act on postsynaptic neuron to modify its activity either exciting or inhibiting according to the nature of the postsynaptic receptors.

a. True b. False

85. The threshold for the postsynaptic neuron excitation is about

a. -59 mv b. -70 mv c. -50 mv

86. gamma aminobutyric acid is :

a. an excitatory neurotransmitter b. an inhibitory neurotransmitter c. inhibits the release of the

excitatory transmitter from the excitatory presynaptic fiber.

d. Both a and c e. Both b and c

87. Binding of the excitatory transmitter to postsynaptic receptors increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to a. Na only b. K only c. K and CL d. all ions

88. All of the following are correct about The EPSP except: a. propagating b. lasts for about 15

milliseconds. c. A single EPSP is not enough to

increase the neuronal potential to threshold value instead it must add up to trigger an action potential.

89. Which of the following is incorrect about Electrical events in inhibitory synapses:

a. increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to K+ / Cl

b. increases the degree of intracellular negativity

c. leading to a state of hyperdepolarisation

90. stimulation of several presynaptic fibers on the postsynaptic neuron at the sametime to raise the postsynaptic membrane potential to the threshold level is called:

a. Temporal summation b. Spatial summation


properties serves in cessation of an epileptic fit:

a. Synaptic delay b. Synaptic fatigue c. Post-tetanic facilitation d. Summation


properties serves in the recall of information after a short time of its reading:

a. Synaptic delay b. Synaptic fatigue c. Post-tetanic facilitation

d. Summation 93. coma in uraemic patients is

mainly due to : a. acidosis that has inhibitory

effect on synaptic transmission

b. alkalosis that has inhibitory effect on synaptic transmission

c. acidosis that has excitatory effect on synaptic transmission

d. acidosis that has excitatory effect on synaptic transmission

94. if the cerebral circulation is temporarily interrupted for 3-6 seconds that may lead to

a. death b. loss of consciousness c. epilepsy

95. caffeine enhance synaptic

transmission by (choose the best answer):

a. increasing the discharge of neurotransmitters

b. decreasing fatiguability of the nerve

c. decreasing the threshold for excitation of neurons

d. accumulation of ions in the synaptic cleft

True or false:

96. Nuclear chains have sensory innervations by primary and secondary fibers while the nuclear bags are innervated by primary fibers only

97. Motor fibers innervate the central receptor areas of intrafusal fibers while the sensory fibers innervate the peripheral contractile parts of the intrafusal fibers

98. Nuclear bags are supplied by static gamma efferents while the nuclear chains are supplied by dynamic gamma efferents

99. Gamma motor neurons are the centers of stretch reflex

100. The dynamic response of the primary sensory endings informs the CNS about the rate of muscle stretch while the static response of the secondary sensory endings informs the CNS about the amount of stretch

101. All of the followings concerning the nuclear bags are true except:

a. Are innervated by primary sensory fibers

b. Are innervated by dynamic gamma fibers

c. Their stretch gives information about the amout of stretch

d. They are rapidly adapting receptors

102. ………… increase gamma fibers discharge : a. Anxiety b. Painful cutaneous stimulation c. Hooking of fingers together d. All of the above


concerning the stretch reflex except: a. Its total time is short b. There is no irradiation or

fatigue c. There is after discharge due to

the presence of the interneurons

d. There is reciprocal innervations

104. All of the following are antigravity muscles except: a. Flexors of the upper limb b. Extensors of the lower limb c. Extensors of the back

d. Flexors of the neck

105. The muscle tone increases in cold weathers while it decreases in hot weather a. True b. False

106. All of the following is true

concerning the muscle tone except: a. The receptor is rapidly

adapting b. The afferent fibers are

secondary while the motor fibers are alpha motor fibers

c. The effectors are extrafusal fibers

d. It’s responsible for maintaining the erect posture against gravity

107. All of the following is true concerning the tendon jerk except: a. The receptor is rapidly

adapting b. The afferent fibers are

primary while the motor fibers are alpha motor fibers

c. The effectors are intrafusal fibers

d. It’s responsible for diagnosing neurological disorders

108. All of the following is true concerning clast knife spasticity except: a. It’s upper motor neuron

lesion b. It’s example of hypertonia c. There is exaggerated tendon

jerks d. There is no tendon jerks


inhibitory centers of stretch reflex except: a. Paleocerebellum b. Inhibitory reticular formation

center c. Basal ganglia d. Primary motor area of the

cortex

110. All of the following is true concerning the inverse stretch reflex except: a. It’s relaxation of the over

stretched muscle b. It occurs by stimulation of the

inhibitory interneurons which stimulate the antagonistic muscle

c. Stimulated muscle spindles cause stimulation of the antagonistic muscle via inhibition of the alpha motor neuron supplying the over stretched muscle

d. It’s a protective reflex protecting the muscle from tearing as a result of over stretch

111. Clonus occurs as a result of stretch reflex-inverse stretch reflex sequence resulting in alternating mucles contractions and relaxations a. True b. False

112. the primary motor area is found in:

a. frontal lope b. parietal lope c. temporal lope d. occipital lope

113. all of the following are parts of

the temporal lope except: a. auditory centre b. auditory association area c. hippocamus d. brocas area

114. the area occupying the precentral gyrus in the frontal lope is:

a. premotor area b. primary motor area c. supplementary motor area d. suppresor area

115. all of the following are

bilateraly represented in the brain except:

a. upper part of the face b. lower part of the face c. abdominal wall muscles d. respiratory muscle

116. the cells presented in the

primary motor area are: a. betz cells b. martinotti cells c. horizontal cell of cajal d. none of the above

117. the area responsible for

initiating delicate voluntery movements is;

a. supplementary area b. supressor area c. primary motor area d. premotor area

118. area 4 and 6 share the

function of: a. initiation of delicate

movements b. facilitation of spinal reflexes c. inhibition of spinal reflex d. initiation of gross movements

119. the following areas sharing in

planning of voluntery movements except:

a. premotor area b. primary motor area c. supplementry motor area d. prefrontal association area

120. area 6 inhibits all of the

following except: a. gross movements b. spinal reflexes c. muscle tone d. grasp reflex


conjugate eye movements is: a. brocas area b. head rotation area c. frontal eye field d. exners area

122. motor apraxia is a lesion of:

a. brocas area b. head rotation area c. frontal eye field d. area of hand skills

123. brocas area is essential for:

a. walking b. speech c. involuntery movements d. muscle tone

124. the area lying between area 4

and 6 is: a. supplementary motor area

b. prefrontal association area c. suppressor area d. none of the above

125. all of the following are

function of the prefrontal association area except;

a. provide the ability to concentrate

b. plays arole in immediate memory

c. control behaviour d. initiate fine movements


elaboration of thoughts is: a. primary motor area b. broadmanns areas 9:14 c. premotor area d. suppresor area

127. the most excitable area of the

following is: a. primary motor area b. premotor area c. suppresor area d. supplementary motor area

TRUE OR FALSE

128. the premotor area gives origin to pyramidal tracts.

129. motor area 4 is responsible for delicate voluntery movements.

130. motor apraxia is a lesion of brocas area.

131. motor area 6 is responsible for facilitation of spinal reflexes.

132. All of the following are considered direct tracts except :

a. Corticospinal tract b. Corticobulber tract c. Corticonuclear tract d. Rubrospinal tract

133. Most of the corticospinal tracts

are : a. Anterior b. Lateral c. Ipsilateral d. Medial

134. All of the following have

bilateral parts in the motor center except :

a. Upper face b. Intercostal muscles c. Abdominal wall d. Back muscles


supplied by the corticobulber tract :

a. Head b. Hand c. Foot d. Abdomen

136. The corticonuclear tract arises

from the motor centre : a. 4

b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

137. All of the following tracts pass

to the basal ganglia except : a. Rubrospinal tract b. Corticospinal tract c. Olivospinal tract d. Tectospinal tract

138. Indirect pathway most of it is :

a. Crossed b. Uncrossed c. Excitatory d. Long

139. All of the following occupy the

pyramid in medulla oblongata except :

a. Corticospinal tract b. Tectospinal tract c. Corticonuclear tract d. Corticobulbar tract

140. Where does the rubrospinal

tract join the corticospinal ? a. Lateral column b. Medial colum c. Dorsal horn d. Ventral horn

141. Which of the following is concerned with audiospinal reflexes ?

a. Medial tectospinal b. Lateral tectospinal c. Rubrospinal tract d. Lateral reticulospinal tract


considered to be short tracts except :

a. Olivospinal tract b. Tectospinal tract c. Rubrospinal tract d. Reticulospinal tract

143. All of the following facilitates

the muscle tone except: a. Lateral reticulospinal tract b. Medial reticulospinal tract c. Olivospinal tract d. Vestibulospinal tract

True and false :

144. Most of pyramidal tracts are crossed

145. Most of extra pyramidal are inhibitory

146. Pyramidal tracts are earlier in life

147. Cortical control of pyramidal is wider

148. Pyramidal occupy olive of spinal cord

149. Extrapyramidal fibres decaussate at the lower border of the medulla oblongata

150. Pyramidal are most important in the equilibrium

151. Extrapyramidal are concerned with body posture

152. All of the following are causes of lower motor neuron lesion except : a. Anterior horn cell b. Somatic nerve c. Cranial nerve nuclei d. Motor cortex

153. One of the following is correct

about LMNL : a. Accompanied by widespread

paralysis b. Due to lesion in motor cortex c. Deep spinal reflex is lost d. No muscle wasting

154. Positive Babiniski test includes

: a. Planter flexion of the toes b. Dorsiflexion of all toes c. Fanning of 4 smaller toes only d. None of the above

155. Hypertonia occurs due to the : a. Sparing for inhibitory

descending tracts b. Loss of the crossing inhibitory

tracts c. Intact inhibitory tracts d. Lesion in uncrossed excitatory

tract

156. Injury in cranial nerve nuclei causes : a. LMNL b. UMNL c. Both d. None

True or false about UMNL :

157. Localized paralysis 158. Lesion in higher centres 159. Atonia 160. Normal Deep reflex 161. Positive Babriniski

162. The striatum is …………. a. Caudate and globus pallidus b. Caudate and putamen c. Globus pallidus and putamen

163. The receiving center of the basal

ganglia is ………… a. Caudate and putamen. b. Globus pallidus c. Globus pallidus and putamen

164. The discharge center of the

basal ganglia is …………. a. Caudate and putamen b. Globus pallidus and putamen c. Globus pallidus

165. Strioto-pallidal projection

utilizes ……….. as a neurotransmitter

a. GABA b. ACL c. Dopamine d. Glutamate

166. Nigro-striatal projection utilizes

……….. as a neurotransmitter a. GABA b. ACL c. Dopamine d. Glutamate

167. Globus pallidus may project to

all except ……….. a. Thalamus b. Subthalamus c. Brain stem d. Striatum

168. The direct circuit is ……… and

its importance is …………

a. Excitatory, prevent the unwanted involuntary movement.

b. Inhibitory, facilitate the target movement

c. Excitatory, facilitate the target movement

d. Inhibitory, prevent the unwanted involuntary movement

169. Glutamate is released from

…………. a. Cortex b. Striatum c. Globus pallidus d. Thalamus

170. The hyperkinetic features of

Parkinsonism are all except ……..

a. Brady kinesia and akinesia b. Tremors c. Rigidity

171. We can use dopamine is

treatment of Parkinsonism a. True b. False

172. Sensation can be consciously

perceived by the cerebellum a. true b. false

173. The part of the cerebellum concerned mainly with equilibrium is:

a. archicerebellum b. paleocerebellum c. Neocerebellum

174. Output from the

cerebrocerebellum passes a. through the fastigial nucleus

then to the brain stem b. To the dentate nucleus and

then to the ventrolateral nucleus of the thalamus

c. to emboliform and globose, then to the brainstem.

175. the limbs & head are

represented in the vermis of the spinocerebellum

a. True b. False

176. To stop the movement precisely

at the intended point by subconscious signals is called …...and it's achieved by ……

a. Servocomparator function… spinocerebellum

b. Damping of movement… spinocerebellum

c. Damping of movement… cerebrocerebellum

d. Servocomparator function… cerebrocerebellum

177. Which of the following centers

is responsible for the coordination of movement during writing ? a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum c. Spinocerebellum

178. The following center is

important for preventing the decomposition of the movement : a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum c. Spinocerebellum

179. The cerebrocellebellum has a

leading role in all the following actions except: a. Timing of movements b. coordinates the automatic

associated subconscious movements

c. Planning of movements d. Prediction of movements

180. The flocculonodular lobe is

considered as: a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum

c. Spinocerebellum

181. The following tracts are involved in the process of maintaining the equilibrium through the vestibulocerebellum except : a. reticulospinal b. vestibulospinal c. tectospinal

182. The output of the cerebellum is

generally excitatory to muscle tone a. True b. False


statements is incorrect about The vermis syndrome: a. the flocculo-nodular lobe is

affected b. Symptoms are often absent

when the child is lying down c. There is nystagmus d. There is hypotonia e. There is raised intracranial

pressure

184. The perilymph is present within the membranous labyrinth while the endolymph is present

between it and the bony labyrinth

a. True b. False

185. The macula of ……. is

concerned with equilibrium a. Utricle b. Saccule

186. The macula of ……… is

concerned with vertical linear acceleration while the macula of ……. is concerned with horizontal linear acceleration a. Utricle / Saccule b. Saccule / Utricle


stimulants to the SCC except: a. Caloric stimulation b. Rotation c. Faradic stimulation d. Vestibular neuritis

188. SCCs are active at …………..

a. The beginning of rotation b. The end of rotation c. Both of them d. None of the above

True or false:

189. Sudden forward horizontal movement results in displacement of the otoconia forwards stretching all the hair cells of the macula

190. Stereocilium is located at one side of the hair cell

191. In case of horizontal SCC displacement of the cupula towards the utricle the crista becomes stimulated

192. The kinocilium of the superior SCC lies towards the utricle

193. In the start of rotation from right to left the endolymph moves in the same direction but after 30 sec. in starts to move in the opposite direction

194. When the individual starts to rotate in horizontal plane from left to right , the endolymph moves in the same direction a. True b. False

195. SCC are active only at the

beginning and ending of rotation or if rate or direction of rotation is changed

a. True b. False

196. All of the following are from the autonomic changes that result from stimulation of SCC except

a. Nausea b. Vomiting c. Bradycardia d. Hypertension

197. In stimulation of SCC , muscle

tone changes help to a. Support the posture during

rotation b. Guard against falling down

towards the activated side c. Cause motion sickness d. Both a & b

198. Stimulation of reticular

formation in the brain stem can cause bradycardia

a. True b. False

199. ........... is the sensation of rotation

in the absence of actual rotation a. Autonomic changes b. Muscle tone changes c. Vertigo d. All of the above

200. All of the following can cause

vertigo except a. Motion sickness b. Chronic alcoholism c. Errors of refraction

d. Beginning of rotation

201. .............is repetitive rhythmic movement of the eye observed at the start of rotation

a. Vertigo b. Rotatory nystagmus c. Post rotatory nystagmus d. All of the above

202. .............is repetitive rhythmic

movement of the eye observed at the end of period of rotation

a. Vertigo b. Rotatory nystagmus c. Post rotatory nystagmus d. All of the above

203. Angular acceleration is one of

the pathological causes of nystagmus

a. True b. False

204. All of the following are from the

pathologic causes of nystagmus except

a. Cerebellar diseases b. Inner ear disorders c. Optokinetic nystagmus d. Defective vision

205. In slow component of

nystagmus both eyes move toward the same direction of rotation

a. True b. False

206. Rapid component of nystagmus

is controlled by brainstem circuits

a. True b. False

207. When you look from a window

of a rapidly moving car ,it considers as

a. Physiological nystagmus b. Pathological nystagmus c. Optokinetic nystagmus d. Both a & c

208. Slow component of nystagmus

occurs when the vestibular nucleus discharges in secondary direction

a. True b. False

209. Output from other thalamic

nuclei passes to be regulated before reaching the cortex. a. The medial group of nuclei b. The reticular nuclei c. The intralaminar nuclei

210. All of the following statements

are correctly describing the intralaminar nuclei except

a. scattered along the internal medullary lamina,

b. They are connected with the reticular activating system.

c. It receives fibers carrying slow pain and thermal sensation

d. Site of relay of the neospinocerebellar tract

e. It is one of the Nonspecific thalamic-nuclei

211. Both the anterior and medial groups of thalamic nuclei receive impulses from the hypothalamus and have a role in controlling emotions

a. True b. False

Notice the following picture and answer the questions:

212. Which of the pointed nuclei is the Main thalamic motor nucleus a. 1 b. 2

c. 3

213. lateral part of the structure 3 recieves :

a. medial leminiscus b. trigeminal leminiscus c. input from the basal ganglia

214. all of the following statements

about the medial geniculate body are true except:

a. projects auditory impulses to the temporal lobe

b. connected to inferior colliculus c. one of the Posterior group of

thalamic nuclei d. connected to superior

colliculus

215. The structure A is related to the integration of somatic, visual and auditory information.

a. True b. False

216. Which of the following isn't one

of the functions of the thalamus a. It is a relay center in circuits of

the basal ganglia. b. It is a relay center for visual

and auditory pathways

c. It is a relay center for epicritic sensations from the opposite side of the body to the cortex

d. It is a primitive center for protopathic sensations from the same side of the body

217. The most affected part in the thalamic syndrome is:

a. medial division of the posteroventral nucleus

b. lateral division of the posteroventral nucleus

c. lateral ventral thalamic nuclei d. anterior-nuclei

218. what's meant by the thalamic

hyperpathia: a. the pain felt is following the all

or nothing relationship b. the pain felt is poorly localized c. the pain felt is Having a high

threshold

219. patient suffering from thalamic syndrome may have sensory and motor ataxia

a. true b. false

220. patient suffering from

thrombosis of the artery supplying the right thalamus

cann't identify a pen in his …hand with closed eyes

a. right b. left


functions of the anterior hypothalamus except:

a. Regulation of body temperature

b. Water balance c. Controlling of sleeping d. Wakefulness

222. Destruction of the 2

ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus leads to:

a. Hypothalamic obesity b. Hyperphagia c. Sham rage reaction d. all of the above

223. Endocrine functions are

controlled by……………..nuclei of hypothalamus:

a. Anterior group b. Posterior group c. Medial group d. Lateral group

224. Bilateral amagdaloid lesion leads

to: a. Placidity

b. Sham rage reaction c. Aphagia d. None of the above

225. Stimulation of ventromedial

nuclei of hypothalamus leads to: a. Aphagia b. Anorexia c. Placidity d. Both A and c

226. Placidity can be produced by:

a. Stimulation of ventromedial nuclei

b. Bilateral lesion of amygdaloid c. Removal of neocortex d. Both a & b

227. Central thermo receptors

present in: a. Supraoptic nucleus b. Preoptic nucleus c. Suprachiasmic nucleus d. None of the above

228. Feeding center presents in:

a. Anterior nuclei b. Posterior nuclei c. Medial nuclei d. Lateral nuclei

229. Thirst center presents in:

a. Preoptic nucleus

b. Supraoptic nucleus c. suprachiasmic nucleus d. None of the above

230. Thirst centre is stimulated by:

a. Increased blood volume b. Decreased osmolarity c. Decreased blood volume d. None of the above

231. Cells of supraoptic nucleus are

sensitive to: a. Temperature b. Blood volume c. Osmolairty d. B & c

232. Sleep is mediated by:

a. Cholinergic neurons b. GABA releasing inhibitory

neurons c. Histaminergic neurons d. None of the above

233. Arousal is produced by:

a. Inhibition of reticular formation

b. Stimulation of anterior hypothalamus

c. Stimulation of posterior hypothalamus

d. None of the above

234. …… center is present in ventromedial nucleus:

a. Thirst center b. Feeding center c. Satiety center d. None of the above

235. Stimulation of anterior

hypothalamus leads to: a. Sleeping b. Sedation c. Arousal d. None of the above

236. Anorexia results from:

a. Stimulation of feeding center b. Destruction of satiety center c. Stimulation if satiety center d. Destruction of feeding center

237. Aphagia results from

a. Stimulation of feeding center b. Destruction of satiety center c. Stimulation of satiety center d. Destruction of feeding center

238. Destruction of satiety center

leads to: a. Hyperphagia b. Aphagia c. Anorexia d. None of the above

239. mamillothalamic tract connects: a. lateral nuclei of the thalamus and

mamillary bodies b. anterior nuclei of the thalamus

and mamillary bodies c. lateral nuclei of the

hypothalamus and mamillary bodies

d. anterior nuclei of the hypothalamus and mamillary bodies

240. which of the following is the correct sequence of the papez circuit

a. Hippocampus >> Cingulate gyrus >>Anterior thalamus >> Mamillary bodies

b. Anterior thalamus >>Mamillary bodies >> Hippocampus>>Cingulate gyrus

c. Hippocampus >> Anterior thalamus >> Mamillary bodies >>Cingulate gyrus

d. Hippocampus >>Mamillary bodies >>Anterior thalamus >>Cingulate gyrus

241. the fornix connects: a. The hippocampus to the

mamillary bodies b. Hippocampus to the Anterior

thalamus c. Mamillary bodies to the Cingulate

gyrus

242. Its lesions cause moderate hyperphagia with indisciminate ingestion of all kinds of food

a. hippocampus b. Cingulate gyrus c. mamillary bodies d. amygdale

243. a structure is concerned with the

formation and storage of memories associated with fear and love

a. hippocampus b. Cingulate gyrus c. mamillary bodies d. amygdaloid nucleus

244. The limbic system and the

hypothalamus can play a role in regulating our autonomic functions

a. true b. false

245. the following are functions of the

limbic system except a. Motivation b. Olfaction c. relay center for visual and

auditory pathways d. Regulation of autonomic

functions 246. All the following are true

regarding to the alpha waves recorded by the EEG except:

a. are most marked in the parieto-occipital lobe

b. Are recorded in an awake active person

c. Occurring at frequency of 8-13/sec

d. They are with amplitude of about 50 μV

247. The following waves are markedly seen in patients with brain diseases:

a. theta waves b. Beta waves c. Delta waves d. a & c e. b & c


statements is true regarding to the Beta waves?

a. are seen in the parietal region b. Are recorded in an awake

person regardless the mental activity.

c. They have amplitude lower than 50 mV

d. They are not recorded during sleep

e. None of the above

249. Which of the following statements is false about the Theta waves?

a. They have frequency less than that of Alpha waves

b. Physiologically, the occur in children

c. Pathologically, they are seen in many brain disorders

d. They are seen during stage I of slow wave sleep


250. Regarding to the Delta waves, which of the following statements is false?

a. they have the lowest frequency of EEG waves

b. They are recorded only in stage III of slow wave sleep

c. Normally, they occur in infancy

d. They are the waves of very deep sleep


251. Slow wave sleep is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a. Drop in the blood pressure b. Decrease in the BMR c. Sympathetic tone on the blood

vessels is lowered

d. This is the stage of no dreams e. None of the above

252. Regarding to the NREM sleep, all

of the following are false EXEPT: a. It occurs at the beginning of

the sleep. b. the passage from wakefulness

to it is characterized by an increase in frequencies and voltage activities

c. It is of duration less than REM sleep

d. a &b e. None of the above

253. REM sleep is characterized by: a. Atonia b. Variable heart rate c. Active dreaming d. a & b e. None of the above


statements about REM sleep is false:

a. It shows activity similar to the waking state.

b. Apnea may occurs in this stage due to reduction in the homeostatic mechanism

c. The Beta waves are mainly recorded in this stage & other slow waves are also recorded.

d. Known as paradoxical sleep and occurs in episodes of 5-30min


255. Each of the following produce sleep EXCEPT:

a. Adenosine b. GABA c. Serotonin antagonists d. None of the above

Put (True) or (False) in front of the following statements (from 11-15): 256. Stage II of the NREM sleep is

characterized by sleep spindles superimposed on Beta waves.

257. NREM sleep is characterized by marked decrease in muscle tone.

258. REM sleep is known as paradoxical sleep and shows only Beta waves.

259. The sleep cycle consists of one episode of REM and 4 episodes of NREM.

260. During REM sleep, the slow waves are inhibited by cholinergic neurons in the brainstem.

Answers: 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. F 14. F 15. F 16. F 17. F 18. T 19. F 20. F 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. B

32. C 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. A 63. C 64. B

65. C 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. A 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. A 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. C 90. B 91. B 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. C 96. T 97. F

98. F 99. F 100. T 101. C 102. D 103. C 104. D 105. T 106. A 107. C 108. D 109. D 110. C 111. A 112. A 113. D 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. A 121. C 122. D 123. B 124. C 125. D 126. B 127. A 128. F 129. T 130. F

131. F 132. D 133. B 134. D 135. A 136. C 137. B 138. B 139. B 140. A 141. A 142. D 143. A 144. T 145. T 146. F 147. F 148. F 149. F 150. F 151. T 152. D 153. C 154. D 155. B 156. A 157. F 158. T 159. F 160. F 161. T 162. B 163. A

164. C 165. A 166. C 167. D 168. C 169. A 170. A 171. B 172. B 173. A 174. B 175. B 176. B 177. C 178. B 179. B 180. A 181. C 182. A 183. D 184. B 185. B 186. B 187. C 188. C 189. F 190. F 191. T 192. F 193. F 194. B 195. A 196. D

197. D 198. A 199. C 200. D 201. B 202. C 203. B 204. C 205. B 206. A 207. D 208. B 209. B 210. D 211. A 212. B 213. A 214. D 215. A 216. D 217. B 218. A 219. A 220. B 221. D 222. D 223. A 224. A 225. D 226. D 227. B 228. D 229. B

230. C 231. D 232. B 233. C 234. C 235. A 236. D 237. C 238. A 239. B 240. D 241. A 242. D 243. D 244. A 245. C 246. B 247. C 248. C 249. E 250. B 251. D 252. A 253. D 254. C 255. D 256. F 257. F 258. T 259. F 260. T

Anatomy of the CNS: I. Anatomy of head and neck:

1. From the attachment of falx cerebri all except ……… a. crista galli. b. Upper surface of tentorium

cerebelli. c. to the lips of the sagittal sulcus

on the inner aspect of skull cap.

d. Upper border of petrous temporal bone

2. Venous sinuses found in falx

cerebri all except ……… a. Superior sagittal sinus b. Inferior sagittal sinus c. Superior petrosal sinus d. Straight sinus

3. The attached margin of Tentorium

cerebelli is attached to all except ………. a. crista galli. b. posterior clinoid process c. upper border of petrous

temporal bone d. the margin of the groove for

transverse sinus. 4. Venous sinuses related to

tentorium are all except ……… a. Straight b. superior sagittal

c. Superior petrosal sinus in the attached margin.

d. Transverse sinus in the attached margin.

5. from the single sinuses found in

the cranial cavity are all except …… a. Superior sagittal. b. Inferior sagittal. c. Straight sinus. d. Cavernous

6. from the paired sinuses are all

except ……… a. Superior petrosal. b. Inferior petrosal. c. Occipital d. Transverse sinus.

7. It begins at the apex of falx cerebri

above the crista galli and ends a little to the right of the internal occipital protuberance by turning to the right side and becoming the right transverse sinus. This is ……

a. superior sagittal b. inferior sagittal c. straight d. transverse

8. Uniting with the great cerebral

vein to form the straight sinus this is ….


9. It is situated at the line of junction

of the falx cerebri with the tentorium cerebelli this is ……….


10. at the roof of the cavernous sinus

there is ………. a. internal carotid artery b. Body of sphenoid c. Pituitary gland d. temporal lobe of the brain

11. nerves found at the lateral wall of

the cavernous sinus are all except …….. a. a.Oculomotor (III) b. trochlear (IV c. abducent (VI) d. d.Maxillary (V2)

12. The dense connective tissue layer

of the scalp is called:- a. Peripheral layer. b. Fatty layer c. Vascular layer d. Central layer

13. The third layer of the scalp is the aponeurosis of:-

a. buccinator muscle b. occipitofrontalis muscle c. masseter muscle d. none of the above

14. blue eye is caused by bleeding in:- a. aponeurosis of occipitofrontalis

muscle b. periosteum c. dense C.T d. loose connective tissue

15. which of the following is a branch

from the internal carotid artery:- a. supra orpital artery b. superficial temporal artery c. posterior auricular artery d. occipital artery

16. the area of the scalp in front of the

auricle is supplied by all of the folowing except:-

a. supra orpital artery b. supra trochlear artery c. occipital artery d. superficial temporal artery

17. the motor nerve to the

preauricular part of the scalp is:- a. posterior auricular nerve b. temporal branch of fascial nerve c. trigimenal nerve d. maxillary nerve

18. the occipitofrontalis muscle is supplied by:

a. temporal branch of fascial nerve b. posterior auricular branch of

fasial nerve c. occipital nerve

d. A and B

19. all of the following are sensory supply to the preauricular area of the scalp except:-

a. auriclo temporal nerve b. zygomatico temporal nerve c. great auricular nerve d. supra orbital nerve

20. all of the following are branches from cervical spinal nerves except:-

a. supra orbital nerve b. lesser occipital nerve c. great auricular nerve d. none of the above

21. occipitofrontalis muscle:- a. has frontal and occipital bellies b. supplied by branches of fascial

nerve c. move the scalp forward and

backward d. all of the above

22. the occipital vein ends in:- a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein c. suboccipital venous plexus d. subclavian vein

23. superficial temporal vein unites with the maxillary vein forming:-

a. external juglar vein

b. internal juglar vein c. anterior fascial vein d. posterior fascial vein

24. the only tributary of the subclavian vein is:-

a. external nasal vein b. external juglar vein c. occipital vein d. common fascial vein

25. lymphatic drainage of preauricular part of the scalp:-

a. parotid L.N b. mastoid L.N c. occipital L.N d. submental L.N

26. the orbicularis oculi muscle is formed of :-

a. orbital part b. palpebral part c. lacrimal part d. all of the above

27. which of the following musles is pierced by:-

a. buccinator muscle b. orbicularis oris muscle c. frontalis muscle d. mentalis muscle

28. the middle fibers of the buccinator muscle is inserted into:-

a. upper lip b. lower lip c. a and b d. none of the above

29. the motor supply of the face is carried by:

a. trigeminal lerve b. facial nerve c. vagus nerve d. maxillary nerve

30. all of the following are branches

of the facial nerve except:- a. temporal nerve b. mandibular nerve c. buccal nerve d. maxillary nerve

31. the platysma muscle is supplied by

which branch of the facial nerve:- a. cervical branch b. buccal branch c. temporal branch d. zygomatic branch

32. all the face is is sensory supplied

by the trigeminal nerve except:- a. the upper lip b. the lower lip c. the area over the angle of the

mandible d. the mental area

33. the maxillary nerve gives the

following branch except:- a. zygomaticotemporal

b. zygomatico facial c. infraorbital d. external nasal

34. the upper eyelid is supplied by the following nerves except:-

a. supratrochlear nerve b. supra orbital nerve c. palpebral branch of lacrimal

nerve d. palpebral branch of infra orbital

nerve

35. the buccal nerve is abranch from:-

a. opthalmic nerve b. mandibular nerve c. maxillary nerve d. facial nerve

36. all of the following are branches

of the facial artery except:- a. superior labial b. inferior labial c. angular d. mental

37. the transverse facial artery is

abranch from:- a. facial artery b. occipital artery c. superficial temporal artery d. internal carotid artery

38. the common facial vein ends in

a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein

c. subclavian vein d. maxillary vein

39. the lymph drainage of the medial part of the face is into

a. submental L.N b. submandibular L.N c. parotid L.N d. mastoid L.N

40. the side of the neck is divided into

anterior and posterior triangles by:-

a. platysma muscle b. sternomastiod muscle c. trapezius muscle d. levator scabulae

41. the posterior border of the

posterior triangle is: a. sternomastoid muscle b. scalenius muscle c. trapezius muscle d. clavicle

42. the following muscle is a part of

the roof of posterior triangle muscle:-

a. platysma muscle b. omohyoid muscle c. splenius capitus muscle d. trapezius muscle

43. the following muscles form the

floor of the posterior triangle except:-

a. semispinalis capitis

b. splenius capitus c. levator scabulae d. omohyoid muscle

44. all of the following pierce the

investing layer of the deep fascia except:-

a. external juglar vein b. L.V c. internal juglar vein d. supraclavicular nerve

45. the posterior triangle contain the

following nerves except:- a. spinal part of accessory nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. roots and trunks of brachial

plexus d. cutaneous branches of cervical

plexus

46. all of the following are cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus except:-

a. great occipital nerve b. great auricular nerve c. lesser occipital d. transverse cervical

47. the nerve running paralel to rhe

sternomastoid muscle is:- a. great auricular nerve b. supra cavicular nerve c. transverse cervical nerve d. lesser occipital nerve

48. the supra scapular artery is a

branch from:-

a. common carotid artery b. facial artery c. subclavian artery d. transverse cervical artery

49. the supra scapular vein end in:- a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein c. subclavian vein d. none of the above

50. All of the following are the

boundries of anterior triangle of the neck except :

a. Mid line of the neck b. Inferior border of the maxilla c. Inferior border of the mandible d. Anterior border of the

steromastoid

51. A structure is found in both digastric and submental triangle :

a. Omohyoid muscle b. Hypoglossus c. Sternihyoid muscle d. Mylohyoid muscle

52. Superior bellies of omohyoid

muscle is a common boundry of : a. Digastric and submental triangle b. Digastric and muscular triangle c. Muscular triangle and carotid

triangle

d. Carotid triangle and digastrics triangle

53. All of the following are contents of

carotid triangle except : a. External carotid artery b. Carotid sheath c. Superficial cervical lymph nodes d. Sympathetic trunk

54. Ansa cervicalis supply all the

following except : a. Sternohyoid muscle b. Sternothyroid muscle c. Thyrohyoid muscle d. Infrahyoid muscle

55. A salivary gland can be seen in

which of the following : a. Digastric triangle b. Submental triangle c. Carotid triangle d. Muscular triangle

56. All of the following are found in

pairs except : a. Submental triangle b. Diagastric triangle c. Carotid triangle d. Muscular triangle

57. All of the following muscles are

attached to hyoid bone except :

a. Sternomastoid muscle b. Anterior bellies of Digastric

muscles c. Superior bellies of omohyoid

muscles d. Posterior bellies of Digastric

muscles

58. The base of the submental triangle is :

a. Thyroid cartilage b. Maxilla c. Hyoid bone d. Mandible

59. All of the following can be

considered a part of the neck triangles except :

a. Scalenus medias b. Scalenus anterior c. Splenius capitis d. Semispinalis capitis

60. All of the following are boundaries

of the carotid triangle except: a. anterior border of sternomastoi b. anterior belly of digastric muscle c. superior belly of omohyoid d. posterior belly of digastric muscle

61. sympathetic trunk is one of the

carotid triangle contents: a. true

b. false

62. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies all the following muscles except:

a. sternohyoid b. sternothyroid c. thyrohyoid d. superior belly of omohyoid

63. The inferior root of ansa cervicalis

nerve arises from: a. c1 b. c5 c. c3 d. c2 &c3

64. Nerve to thyrohyoid arise from : a. c2 b. c1 c. c3 d. none of the above

65. Hypoglossus and thyrohyoid form

the floor of muscular triangle: a. true b. false

66. Inferior belly of omohyoid is one

of carotid triangle boundaries: a. true b. false

67. The floor of carotid triangle is

formed by: a. hypoglossus b. thyrohyoid

c. middle and inferior constrictors of the pharynx

d. all of the above

68. Vagus nerve is one of the carotid sheath contents:

a. true b. false

69. All of the following are contents of

the carotid sheath except: a. common carotid artery b. vagus nerve c. internal jugular vein d. external carotid artery

70. superior belly of omohyoid is one

of the muscular triangle boundaries:

a. true b. false

71. sternohyoid is one of the muscles

forming the deep layer of infrahyoid muscles :

a. true b. false

72. Ninth cranial nerve is : a. glossopharyngeal b. vagus c. accessory d. none of the above

73. All of the following are branches

of the vagus nerve except: a. meningeal

b. auricular to the skin of the external auditory meatus

c. pharyngeal d. tympanic branch forming lesser

superficial petrosal nerve

74. Descends in the neck within the carotid sheath :

a. glossopharyngeal nerve b. vagus c. accessory d. all of the above

75. The cervical part of accessory

nerve arises from medulla oblongata:

a. true b. false

76. Hypoglossal nerve is a pure motor

nerve: a. true b. False

77. The terminal destination of the

lymph drainage in the face and neck is the junction between subclavian vein and ……

a. Internal jugular vien b. External jugular vein c. Anterior facial vein d. Retromandibular vein

78. The jugular trunk in the right side

drains into : a. Internal jugular vien

b. Right lymphatic duct c. Thoracic duct d. Subclavian vein

79. Which of the following ducts is

related to the brachial plexus : a. Tubal tonsil b. Upper deep cervical lymph node c. Lower deep cervical lymph nodes d. Lingual tonsil

80. Which of the following is one of

the tributaries of the jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes :

a. Back of the tongue b. Tonsils c. Lower part of the pharynx d. Upper part of the pharynx

True and false :

81. Jugulo digastrics lymph nodes lie behind the internal jugular vein

82. Jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes lie behind the intermediate tendon of omohyiod

83. Thyroid gland drains directly to the jugular trunk

84. Adenoid is one of the transverse superficial lymph nodes

85. Deep cervical lymph nodes lie superficial to sternomastoid muscle

86. Upper deep cervical lymph nodes can extend beyond the sternomastoid muscle

87. Posterior region of the scalp is drained to :

a. Occipital lymph node b. Postauricular lymph node c. Parotid lymph node d. Submadibular lymph node

88. Mastoid nodes receives afferent

from all of the following except : a. Floor of the meatus b. Auricle c. Angle of jaw skin d. Upper part of parotid region

89. Parotid lymph nodes efferent is :

a. Sub mandibular lymph node b. Sub mental lymph nodes c. Jugulo digastrics node d. Jugulo omohyoid node

90. All of the following drains to the

submandibular node except : a. Parotid nodes b. Submental nodes c. Postauricular nodes d. Upper part of the anterior

triangle of the neck

True and false :

91. Nasopharynx can drain directly to the deep lymph nodes

92. Atlanto occipital joint drains to the paratracheal lymph nodes

93. Cervical part of the trachea is drained to the paratracheal lymph nodes

94. Postauricular lymph nodes lie deep to the mastoid

95. Submental lymph nodes are contents of the submental triangle of the neck

96. Lateral column of the superficial lymph nodes lies on internal jugular vien

97. All of the following drain to the submandibular nodes except :

a. Anterior part of nasal cavityw b. Tip of the tongue c. Centre of the tongue d. Vessels of the gum

98. Above the vocal cord in the larynx

drains to : a. Upper deep cervical lymph

nodes b. Lower deep cervical lymph

nodes c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Submental lymph nodes

99. All of the following can drain to the upper deep cervical lymph node except :

a. Occipital lymph nodes b. Floor of the mouth c. Parotid of the mouth d. Mastoid lymph nodes


considered transverse lymph nodes except :

a. Lower deep lymph nodes b. Lingual tonsils c. Occipital nodes d. Periauricular lymph nodes

101. Middle ear drains to :

a. Mastoid lymph nodes b. Periauricular lymph nodes c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Sbmental lymph nodes

102. Platysma Muscle is supplied by

: a. Temporal branch of facial nerve b. Zygomatic branch of the facial

nerve c. Mandibular branch of the facial

nerve d. Cervical branch of the facial

nerve

103. Great auricular nerve is a branch from :

a. Facial nerve b. Cervical plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Accessory nerve

104. The foramena through which

cavernous sinuses can be connected to the anterior facial vein :

a. Foramen Lacerum b. Foramen Ovale c. Foramen rotundum d. Both a and b e. Both b and c f. All of the above

105. All of the following can end to

the confluence of sinuses except : a. Superior sagittal sinuses b. Inferior sagittal sinuses c. Straight sinuses d. None of the above

106. Which of the following is the

most superficial muscle : a. Semi spinalis capitis b. Splenius capitis c. Scalenus medias d. Levator Scapulae

107. Which of the following lymph nodes is the site of drainage of the scalp and lies in the posterior triangle of the neck?

a. Mastoid lymph node b. Occipital lymph node c. Supraclavicular lymph node d. Parotid lymph node

108. The site of meeting between

free and attached margin of the tentorium cerebelli :

a. All petrous part of temporal bone

b. Petrous apex c. Petrous base d. Anterior clinoid process


muscles insert on the skin of eye borrows

a. Palpepral part of Orbicularis oculi

b. Frontalis c. Orbital part of Orbicularis oculi d. Lacrimal part of Orbicularis

oculi e. Both a and b f. Both b and c g. Both a , c and d h. All of the above

110. Which of the following sinuses has meningeal branches?

a. Occipital sinuses b. Transverse sinuses c. Sigmoid sinuses d. Cvernous sinuses

111. The medial branch of the

external carotid artery is : a. Superior thyroid artery b. Ascending pharyngeal artery c. Facial artery d. Lingual artery

112. Which of the following nerves

has a secremotor branch to the patotid salivary gland :

a. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve

113. Which of the following gives

motor supply to the laryngeal mucosa above vocal cords?

a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Pharyngeal branch of the vagus

nerve c. External laryngeal nerve d. Internal laryngeal nerve

114. The type of Zygapo physeal

joint is :

a. Plane synovial joint b. Fibro cartilage c. Pivot joint d. Ellipsoid joint


vertebrae is more related to the vertebral artery ?

a. Atlas b. Axis c. 3rd cervical vertebrae d. 7th cervical vertebrae

116. Whaldyer's ring is considered :

a. Deep vertical lymph nodes b. Deep transverse lymph nodes c. Superficial transverse lymph

nodes d. Superficial vertical lymph

nodes

117. All of the following ligaments are related to the odntoid bone in axis except:

a. Apical ligament b. Alar ligament c. Cruciform ligament d. Ligamentum nuchae

118. One of the following lies in the

pathway of the drainage of the lower part of parotid region :

a. Occipital lymph nodes

b. Upper deep lymph nodes c. Parotid lymph nodes d. Sub mandibular group of

lymph nodes

119. One of the following drain to the submandibular lymph node :

a. Sides of the tongue b. Centre of the tongue c. Lateral sides of the tongue d. Soft palate

120. Which of the following arches

have branches through the accessory nerve : a. 3rd b. 4th c. 6th d. All of the above

Answers:

1. D

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. D

6. C

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. C

13. B

14. D

15. A

16. C

17. B

18. D

19. C

20. A

21. D

22. C

23. D

24. B

25. A

26. D

27. A

28. C

29. B

30. D

31. A

32. C

33. D

34. D

35. D

36. D

37. C

38. A

39. A

40. B

41. C

42. A

43. D

44. C

45. B

46. A

47. D

48. C

49. B

50. B

51. D

52. C

53. C

54. C

55. A

56. A

57. A

58. C

59. B

60. B

61. A

62. C

63. D

64. B

65. B

66. B

67. D

68. A

69. D

70. A

71. B

72. A

73. D

74. B

75. B

76. A

77. A

78. B

79. C

80. C

81. F

82. F

83. F

84. F

85. F

86. T

87. A

88. D

89. A

90. C

91. T

92. F

93. T

94. F

95. T

96. F

97. C

98. A

99. A

100. A

101. B

102. D

103. B

104. D

105. B

106. A

107. B

108. B

109. F

110. A

111. B

112. A

113. A

114. A

115. A

116. B

117. D

118. B

119. A

120. D

II. Neuroanatomy:

1. The length of the spinal cord is about : a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm d. 45 cm

2. The cervical enlargement

corresponds to : a. Lumber plexus b. Brachial plexus c. Sacral plexus d. Cervical plexus

3. The period in which the spinal

cord occupy all the vertebral canal is : a. 1st month b. 1st two months c. 1st three months d. 1st four months

4. Meningies surrounding the spinal

cord end at the level of : a. S1 b. S2 c. S3 d. S4

5. Posteromediate septum is present in all spinal cord in all of these regions except :

a. All thoracic vertebrae b. All cervical vertebrae c. All lumber vertebrae d. All sacral vertebrae

6. All of the following can be found

clearly in the gray matter except : a. Blood capillaries b. Neuroglia c. Myelinated nerve fibres d. Nerve soma

7. Median group in anterior grey

matter is present in all of the following except a. T1 b. T2 c. L5 d. L4

8. Lumberosacral nucleus in central

group is present in : a. C1 b. C2 c. S1 d. C7

9. Spinal Accessory nerve nuclei are

present in which position: a. Medial

b. Lateral c. Central d. Posterior

10. Lateral group of anterior gray

matter can't be found in : a. Thoracic b. Lumber c. Cervical d. Sacral

11. Dorsal funicular group is absent

from all of the following xcept : a. Cervical vertebrae b. Thoracic vertebrae c. Lumbar vertebrae d. None of the above

12. One of the following can be found

in the C8 vertebrae spinal cord : a. Ventromedial group b. Dorsomedial group c. Both of the above d. Central group

13. T1 has all of the following except :

a. Visceral gray b. Medial group c. Lateral group d. Nucleus dorsalis

14. Interomediolateral is concerened

with

a. Craniosacral outflow b. Thoracolumber flow c. Thoracosacral flow d. Lumbrosecral flow

15. Anterior spinal artery arises from

a. Basilar artery b. Subclavian artery c. Vertebral arteries d. Aorta

16. Which of the following where

longitudinal branches of posterior spinal aretery branches : a. Ventral root b. Dorsal root c. Gray matter d. White matter

17. Radicularis magna supply origin

of a. Cervical plexus b. Pharyngeal plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Lumber plexus

18. Anterior spinal vein passes

through : a. Anteromedian sulcus b. Posteromedian septum c. Ventral root d. Dorsal root

19. Internal venous plexus lies inside : a. Dura mattar b. Extra dural space c. Periosteum d. Tubular sheath

20. Lumber cistern is found in :

a. Subarachnoid space b. Pia matar c. Dura matar d. Arachnoid matar

21. Linea splinders lies in :

a. Dorsal root b. Ventral root c. Anteromedian sulcus d. Posteromedial septum

22. Last process of ligamneta

denticulata is attached to a. L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4

23. Posteromedian sulcus in the

medulla oblongata continues as : a. Intermediate sulcus b. Anteriomedian fissure c. Posteromedian septum d. Dorsal root

24. Which of the following form the pyramid ? a. Corticospinal nuclei b. Inferior olivary nuclei c. Corticospinal fibres d. Cuneate nuclei

25. All of the following pass through

the posterolateral sulcus except : a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Vagus nerve d. Cranial accessory nerve

26. The groove found in the pontine

transwerse fibres is for a. Basilar artery b. Basal vein c. Vertebral artery d. Superior cerebellar artery

27. Which of the following nerves exit

through the junction between pons and pyramid :

a. Trigeminal nerve b. Abducent nerve c. Facial nerve d. Vestibualr nerve

28. Cereberal penduncle is formed of

all except : a. Crus cerebri b. Substantia nigra

c. Tegmentum d. Tectum

29. Colliculi are separated by :

a. Cruiciform sulcus b. Posteromediaum sulcus c. Anetromedian sulcus d. Intermediate sulcus

30. Corpora quadrigemina is :

a. Cruiciform sulcus b. Colliculi c. Frenulum velli d. Brachium

31. Superior coliculi is associated with

: a. Inferior brachium b. Lateral geniculate c. Frenulum villum d. Medial geniculate

32. All of the following enters in the

dorsal surface of the pons except : a. Lateral vestibular nucleus b. Medial vestibular nucleus c. Facial nerve d. Abducent nerve

True and False

33. Trigeminal nerve has large medial sensory root

34. Basal vein crosses the cerebral peduncle

35. Substania nigra is a layer of white matter

36. Hypoglossal trigone is the most lateral part of inferior floor of the 4th ventricle

37. Groove between pyramid and olive is called is posterolateral sulcus

38. The roof of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is : a. Anterior part of body of corpus

callosum b. Genu of corpus callosum c. Head of caudate Nucleus d. Rostrum

39. The medial wall of the body of

lateral ventricle posteriorly is : a. Septum Pellucidum b. Head of caudate nucleus c. Fornix d. Tapetum

40. Floor of the posterior horn of the

lateral ventricle is formed by : a. Forceps b. Calcarivis c. Tapetum d. Rostrum

41. Which of the following lies in both floor and lateral wall of the anterior horn of lateral ventricle: a. Tail of cauduate nucleus b. Rosterum c. Septum pellucidum d. Head of cauduate nucleus

42. Which of the following is most

medial in the floor of body of lateral ventricle: a. Striathalamic vein b. Stria terminalis c. Body of fornix d. Chroid plexus

43. Which part of the caudate nucleus

can be found in the inferior horn of Lateral ventricle: a. Body b. Head c. Tail d. All of the above

44. Amygloid nucleus lies in the roof

of : a. Anterior horn of lateral

ventricle b. Body of lateral ventricle c. Inferior horn of lateral

ventricle d. Posterior horn of lateral

ventricle

45. Which of the following is the cavity of Diencephalon ? a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle c. 4th ventricle d. All of the above

46. All of the following are situated in

the anterior wall of the third ventricle except : a. Anterior commisure b. Anterior column of the fornix c. Lamina terminalis d. Habenular commisure

47. Lateral ventricle is connected to

the 3rd ventricle by a. Interventricular foramen of

Monoro b. Aqueduct of sylvius c. Optic recess d. Pineal recess

48. The upper lateral wall of the 4th

ventricle is formed of : a. Superior cerebellar peduncle b. Inferior cerebellar peduncle c. Cuneate d. Gracile

49. The cerebellum occupy the middle

part of the roof of: a. 3rd ventricle

b. 4th ventricle c. Body of lateral ventricle d. All of the above

50. All of the following can contribute

to the increase in CSF pressure except : a. Straining b. Cough c. Relaxation of the internal

jugular vein d. None of the above

51. Caudate nucleus formed of:

a. Head , body , lateral wall , medial wall

b. Head, lateral wall , medial wall , tail

c. Head , body, tail


52. The head of Caudate nucleus is related to:

a. Floor & lateral wall of anterior horn of lateral ventricle

b. Floor of central part of lateral ventricle

c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral ventricle

d. Lentiform nucleus

53. The body of Caudate nucleus is related to:

a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior horn of lateral ventricle




54. The tail of Caudate nucleus is related to:





55. The anteroinferior part of Caudate nucleus is related to:





56. Corpus striatum are:

a. Caudate & Claustrum

b. Caudate & Lentiform

c. Caudate & Amygdaloid

d. Caudate & corpus callosum

57. Corpus striatum is:

a. Blank

b. White

c. Striated

d. All of the above

58. The Lentiform nucleus is:

a. Biconvex lens like

b. Biconcave lens like

c. Unicovex lens like

d. Uniconcave lens like

59. The Lentiform nucleus is divided by:

a. Medial medullary lamina

b. Medial pallidal segment

c. Lateral medullary lamina

d. Lateral pallidal segment

60. The subdivision of The Lentiform nucleus are:

a. Corticomedial & Basolateral

b. Basolateral & Central

c. Internal capsule & external capsule

d. Putamen & Globus pallidas

61. The medial relation of The Lentiform nucleus:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Corona radiata

d. Anterior comissure

62. The lateral relation of The Lentiform nucleus:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Corona radiata


63. The inferior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Corona radiata


64. The anterior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Corona radiata


65. The superior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Corona radiata


66. Clastrum is located between:

a. Caudate & Lentiform

b. Lentiform & amygdaloidal

c. Lentiform & insula


67. Clastrum is separated from Lentiform by:

a. Internal capsule

b. External capsule

c. Cerebral cortex

d. Internal pallidal segment

68. Amygdaloid is located:

a. Above tip of inferior horn of lateral ventricle

b. Below tip of inferior horn of lateral ventricle

c. Above tip of anterior horn of lateral ventricle

d. Below tip of anterior horn of lateral ventricle

69. Corticomedial group of Amygdaloid is connected with:

a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem

b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem

c. Olfactory structures

d. All of the above

e. Both A & B

70. Central group of Amygdaloid is connected with:

a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem

b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem

c. Olfactory structures

d. All of the above

e. Both A & B 71. One of the following lies in the

anterior limb of the internal capsule :

a. Anterior thalamic radiation b. Posterior thalamic

radiation c. Superior thalamic

radiation d. Inferior thalamic radiation

72. Where can occipitopontine fibres be found : a. Anterior limb of internal

capsule b. Genu of the internal capsule c. Thalamolentiform part of

posterior limb d. Retrolentiform part of

posterior limb of internal capsule

73. How internal capsule is related to

the lentiform nucleus ? a. Medially b. Superiorly c. Laterally d. Inferioirly

74. Blood supply of the genu is :

a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Posterior cerebral artery c. Internal carotid artery d. None of the above

75. All of the following receive two

arterial blood supplies except : a. Anterimedial part of the

anterior limb of internal capsule

b. Genu of the internal capsule c. Thalamolentifrom part of

posterior limb

d. Retro lentiform part of posterior limb


concerned with connection between two different sides in the cortex : a. Commissural fibres b. Association fibres c. Projection fibres d. All of the above

77. Long association fibres lying in the

medial surface is : a. Uncinate fibres b. Cingulum c. Superior longitudinal

fasciculus d. Fronto occipital fasciculus

78. The lateral boundary of corona

radiata is : a. Uncinate fibres b. Cingulum c. Fronto occipital fasiculus d. Superior Longitudinal

fasiculus

79. The long association fibre connecting between occipital lobe and temporal lobe is : a. Superior longitudinal

fasiculus

b. Inferior longitudinal fasiculus c. Fronto occipital fasiculus d. Cingulum

80. Which of the following are

associated with orbital surface of the frontal lobe? a. Cingulum b. Rostrum of corporus callosum c. Both d. Non of the above

81. Forceps minor radiates from :

a. Rostrum b. Genu c. Body d. Splenium

82. Splenium of the copus callosum

radiate fibres related to : a. Posterior horn of lateral

ventricle b. Anterior horn of lateral

ventricle c. 3rd ventricle d. 4th ventricle

83. Which of the following is most

superior ? a. Cerebral aqueduct b. Posterior commissure c. Habenular commissure d. None of the above

84. All of the following are connected by the anterior commissure except : a. Olfactory bulb b. Amygdaloid body c. Posterior perforated body d. Pyriform body

85. special visceral efferent fibers

secremotor supply to: a. muscles of somites b. muscles of branchial arches c. smooth muscles d. exocrine glands

86. taste and olfaction sensation is

carries by: a. G.V.E b. G.V.A c. S.V.A d. S.S.A

87. the following nuclei are presented

in the midbrain except: a. oculomotor nucleus b. edinger westphal nucleus c. trochlear nucleus d. facial nucleus

88. nucleus ambiguous is found in:

a. medulla oblongata b. midbrain c. pons d. spinal cord

89. the lateral rectus muscle of the eye is supplied from: a. oculomotor nucleus b. abducent nucleus c. trochlear nucleus d. hypoglossal nucleus

90. the trochlear nucleus supplies:

a. lateral rectus muscle b. superipr oblique muscle c. palatoglossus muscle d. none of the above

91. the motor nucleus of trigeminal

nerve supplies all of the following except: a. anterior belly of digastrics b. mylohyoid c. stylohyoid d. tensor tympani

92. nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to

the following nerve: a. accessory nerve b. facial nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. hypoglossal nerve

93. the only muscle derived from the

third branchial arch is: a. tensor palate b. mylohyoid c. platysma d. stylopharyngreus

94. the facial nucleus supplies the

following muscles except: a. muscles of the face

b. occipitofrontalis muscle c. stylopharyngeal muscle d. stylohyoid

95. the fibers forming the cranial

outflow of the parathympathatic nervous system: a. G.S.E b. S.V.E c. G.V.E d. G.V.A

96. the parathympathatic part of the

occulomotor nerve is: a. superior salivary nucleus b. inferior salivary nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. edinger westiphal nucleus

97. inferior salivary nucleus gives

preganglionic fibers to: a. lacrimal glands b. parotid gland c. submandibular gland d. buccal gland

98. the following nucleus gives rise to

general visceral efferent fibers: a. edinger westphal nucleus b. superior salivary nucleus c. inferior salivary nucleus d. all of the above

99. which of the following nuclei

receive visceral afferent fibers: a. solitary nucleus b. olivary nucleus c. hypoglossal nucleus


100. solitary nucleus receive general sensory fibers running in: a. vagus nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. both a and b

101. sensation from the respiratory

tract, abdominal viscera and GIT are received by: a. facial nucleus b. superior salivary nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. trochlear nucleus

102. taste sensation is carried by the

following except: a. facial nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. vagus nerve d. trigeminal nerve

103. cardiorespiratory nucleus

mediates reflex control of: a. cardiovascular system b. respiratory system c. gastrointestinal system d. all of the above

104. which of the following is not a

sensory trigeminal nucleus: a. mesencephalic nucleus b. solitary nucleus c. main sensory nucleus d. none of tne above

105. the nucleus responsible for receiving pain and temperature from the head is: a. spinal nucleus of trigeminal b. main sensory nucleus c. superior salivary nucleus d. mesencephalic nucleus

106. S.S.A include the following

except: a. vestibular nucleus b. cochlear nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. all of the above

107. the cerebellum is the posterior part of the midbrain a. True b. False

108. The cerebellum lies in the

………. Cranial fossa a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Inferior d. Superior

109. The pons and medulla are

separated from the cerebellum anteriorly by the a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle c. Fourth ventricle d. All of the above

110. ……….. covers superiorly the cerebellum and separates it from cerebrum a. Falx cerebelli b. Falx cerebri c. Tentorium cerebelli d. None of the above

111. …………. Is the most anterior

part of the superior vermis a. Nodule b. Uvula c. Pyramid d. Lingula

112. The inferior medullary velum

forms the bed of ………. In cerebellum a. Tube vermis b. Vermis c. Cerebellar tonsil d. Medullary vella

113. superior medullary vella is a

thin sheet of white matter forming the tonsillar bed a. True b. False

114. the cerebellum shows a wide U

shape anterior notch that lodges the falx cerebelli a. True b. False

115. …………. Separates the anterior lope from the posterior lobe of cerebellum a. Fissure prima b. Horizontal fissure c. Postpyramidal fissure d. Retrotonsillar fissure

116. …………. Is the fissure that

separates the nodule from the uvula in the cerebellum a. Fissure prima b. Horizontal fissure c. Posterolateral fissure d. Retrotonsillar fissure

117. all of the following are found

in inferior surface of cerebellum except a. Fissura secunda b. V- shaped fissure c. Retrotosillar d. Posterolateral fissures

118. The components of the

diencephalon are all except : a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. stria habenularis

119. The lateral boundary of the

thalamus is the: a. the posterior limb of the

internal capsule b. the cavity of the third ventricle c. the lentiform nucleus

120. The superior relations to the

thalamus are a. the body of lateral ventricle b. the thalamostriate vein c. the choroid plexus d. all of the above

121. The inferior relations are

including all of the following except

a. tegmentum of the midbrain b. the hypothalamus c. fornix

122. The superior white matter of

the thalamus is called : a. external medullary lamina b. stratum zonale c. internal medullary lamina

123. The lateral part of the thalamus lying lateral to the internal medullary stria is subdivided into a. dorsolateral part b. ventromedial c. both

124. The function of the thalamus is

integration of the information from the a. cerebellum b. basal ganglia c. reticular formation of the

brain stem d. all of the above

125. The anterior thalamic

radiation connects the anterior and medial nuclei with the a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe

126. The superior thalamic

radiation connects the lateral and the ventral nuclei with the a. temporal lobe b. the parietal lobe c. pre and post central gyri

127. The blood supply of the

thalamus is the a. posterior cerebral artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. basilar artery d. a and c

128. Epithalamus consists of all of

the following except : a. pineal body b. habenular nuclei c. habenular commissure d. the choroid plexus

129. The medial geniculate body is

a relay nucleus in the a. pathway of hearing b. pathway of vision c. pathway of smelling

130. The metathalamus consists of the a. medial geniculate body b. lateral geniculate body c. both

Answers:

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. B

32. B 33. T 34. T 35. F 36. F 37. F 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. D 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C

65. C 66. C 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. E 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. A 83. C 84. C 85. B 86. C 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. B 91. C 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. C 96. D 97. B

98. D 99. A 100. D 101. C 102. D 103. D 104. B 105. A 106. C 107. B 108. B 109. C 110. C 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. B 115. A 116. C 117. B 118. C 119. A 120. D 121. C 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. A 126. C 127. D 128. D 129. A 130. C

Pharmacology of the CNS: 1. Analgesics are :

a. Drugs that relieve pain due to multiple causes

b. Drugs that relieve pain due to a single cause

c. Classified into opioid and non-opioid analgesics

d. Can produce addiction e. A & C

2. All opium alkaloids can be used

clinically : a. True b. False

3. All of the following are opioid

receptors on which opium alkaloids act EXCEPT : a. Mu receptors b. Kappa receptors c. Alpha receptors d. Sigma receptors e. Delta receptors

4. Morphine can be absorbed by all

of the following methods of administration except : a. Oral administration b. Topical adminstration c. Intramusclar injection d. Inhalation e. Subcutanous injection

5. It’s not necessary to perform gastric lavage in case of Morphine poisoning due to parentral over dose : a. True b. False

6. All of the following centers are

depressed by Morphine EXCEPT : a. Cortical pain center b. Respiratory center c. Cough center d. Vasomotor center e. Occulomotor center

7. Morphine analgesic effect is done

through : a. Decrease in the threshold of

pain perception in the sensory areas

b. Alteration in the response to pain

c. Reducing the pains effect on the behavior

d. A& B e. B & C

8. Large doses of Morphine can lead

to vasodilatation due to : a. Release of histamine b. Inhibition of vasomotor center c. Respiratory depression which

increases the level of CO2 d. All of the above e. A & B

9. Morphine reduces the rate and depth of respiration by : a. Depression of respiration b. Reduction of the senstivity of

the respiratory center to CO2 c. Bronchoconstriction d. All of the above e. A & B

10. An old male patient came to the

hospital with cancer of bronchial tree suffering from severe cough , the doctor took the patient’s history and figured out that he has a prostatic hypertrophy, which of the following drugs should be given to the patient : a. Morphine b. Methadone c. Codeine d. Meperidine

11. Which of these drugs is contra-

indicated to the previous case: a. Morphine b. Methadone c. Codeine d. Merperidine

12. The reason why the doctor didn't

give it to the patient: a. It has a side effect of urine

retention more than the prescribed drug

b. It’s not preferable to patient with the bronchial tree cancer

due to its respiratory depression

c. It’s not preferable to patient with the bronchial tree cancer due to its histamine release and bronchoconstriction

d. All of the above 13. Morphine indirectly stimulates the

Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) and cause severe mydriasis : a. True b. False

14. The indirect stimulation of the

Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) by Morphine is produced by : a. Cortical inhibitory effect on

the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )

b. Stimulation of Cortical inhibitory effect on the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )

c. Inhibition of Cortical inhibitory effect on the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )

d. All of the above 15. One the morphine’s side effects is

constipation which is produced by all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Decrease in the peristaltic activity and increase in segmetation movement

b. Increase in the tone of intestinal smooth muscles

c. Spasm of biliary passages d. Spasm of sphincters e. Decrease in the perception of

defecation reflex 16. All of the following are caused by

Morphine as a result of histamine release EXCEPT : a. Urine retention b. Sweating and itching c. Vasodilatation d. Bronchoconstriction e. Hypotention

17. Urine retention is a side effect of

Morphine due to : a. Spasm of the urinary bladder

sphincter b. Stimulation of the micturation

reflex c. Decrease in urine formation

due to central release of anti-diuretic hormone

d. All of the above e. A & C

18. Tolarence to Morphine is not

developed to : a. Respiratory depression b. Constipition c. Miosis d. B & C

e. A & C 19. Which of the following conditions

Morphine should be given with atropine : a. Renal colic b. Biliary colic c. Coronary thromposis d. A & C e. A & B

20. Morphine can be used in all of the

following conditions EXCEPT : a. Certain cases of severe

diarrhea b. Acute left ventricular failure c. Pre-anaethetic medication d. Relieving of severe pain in

acute abdomen 21. All of the following can be Minor

side effects of Morphine EXCEPT : a. Nausea, vomiting and

constipation b. Hypotention c. Urine retention d. Addiction e. Increased intracranial tention

22. Morphine is contra-indicated in

case of head injuries due to : a. Increase levels of CO2 b. Respiratory depression c. Cerebral vasodilatation d. Increase in the CSF pressure e. All of the above

23. The cause of withdrawal syptoms

following sudden stoppage of morphine addiction is : a. Endogenous opioid is deficient b. Opioid receptors becomes free

of endogenous and exogenous opioids

c. Opioid receptors are saturated by exogenous opioids

d. A & C e. A & B

24. Morphine like compounds in the

brain are called enkephalids and in pituitary gland are called amdrophins : a. True b. False

25. Methadone is used in the in the

treatment of Morphine addiction because : a. It has minor side effects b. It’s also an addicting drug c. Its withdrawal symptoms are

less than those of morphine d. A & B e. B & C

26. Meperidine is characterized by

papaverine-like action because : a. It has a parasympatholytic

effect b. It has an analgesic effect

c. It has a smooth muscle relaxant effect

d. None of the above 27. Morphine and Meperdine are

similar in : a. Causing Severe Miosis effect b. Causing Cough center

depression c. Causing Respiratory

depression d. Analgesic effect e. Causing Histamine release

28. Meperidine is used in obstetrics to

relive labour pain instead of Morphine because : a. Morphine can cross blood-

placental barrier while Meperidine can't

b. Morphine causes respiratory depression in newly born infant while Meperidine doesn’t

c. Both of them cross blood-placental barrier but Meperidine doesn’t cause respiratory depression unlike Morphine

d. A & B 29. All of the following are true about

Naloxone EXCEPT : a. It’s a competitve narcotic

antagonist at all opioid receptors

b. It has a rapid onset (1-5 minutes)

c. It has a short duration of action

d. It can be given orally or by IM or subcutanous injection

30. The difference between

Naltrexone and Naloxone is that : a. Naltrexone has a longer

duration of action than Naloxone

b. Naltrexone can be given orally while Naloxone can't

c. Naltrexone has more rapid onset than Naloxone

d. A & B e. A & C

31. Therapeutic uses of Opioid

antagonists are : a. Treatment of acute morphine

poisoning b. Treatment of morphine

addiction c. Diagnosis of morphine

addiction d. All of the above e. A & C

32. Mixed agonist-antagonist opioid

analgesics are : a. Drugs that acts on only one

opioid receptors b. Drugs that stimulate one

receptor but block another

c. Pentazocine is an example of these drugs

d. All of the above e. A & C

33. All of the following are true about

Pentazocine EXCEPT : a. It’s an agonist on kappa

receptors b. It’s a weak antagonist at Mu

receptors c. It’s an effective analgesic by

itself d. It behaves as an antagonist

when given in combination with Naloxone

34. NSAIDs are a group of drugs that share in common the capacity to induce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above

35. Any drug has analgesic antipyretic

effect classified as NSAIDs a. True b. False

36. NSAIDs that inhibit cyclo –

oxgenase enzyme centrally produce ....... a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect

d. Both a , b

37. NSAIDs that produce the anti – inflammatory effect inhibit cyclo – oxgenase enzyme ..... a. Centrally b. Periphery c. Both of them d. Non of the above

38. Non selective COX inhibitors

associated with gastrointestinal tract upset and renal impairment on long term use a. True b. False

39. salicylates act on ......... level to

produce their analgesic action a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Subcortical d. All of the above

40. Raising of the threshold to painful

stimuli relayed from the thalamus to the sensory cortex is the way by which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. Both a , b

41. During fever .there is release of ....

a. PGE1

b. PGE2 c. IL-1 d. All of the above

42. Salicylates lower the elevated body

temperature to normal by a. Inhibiting prostaglandins

centrally b. Inhibiting prostaglandins

periphery c. Inhibiting IL-1 synthesis d. Both a ,c

43. All of the following are the

mechanism that salicylates use to loss heat by acting on heat regulating center except a. Vasoconstriction of cutaneous

blood vessels b. Increasing sweating c. Encouraging evaporation d. VD of cutaneous blood vessels

44. Decreasing of prostaglandins and

inhibition of chemotaxis is the mechanism by which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above

45. NSAIDs gastritis is always due to

direct irritation of gastric mucosa by the released salicyclic acid a. True

b. False 46. ........is/ are produced due to

prolonged use of salicylates except a. Gasric ulceration b. Peptic bleeding c. Both of them d. Non of the above

47. In gout patient , salicylates are

used in ........ doses a. Small b. Large c. Less than 5 g /day d. All of the above

48. In the effect of salicylates on the

blood .all of the following are true except a. Inhibition of COX platelet b. Reduce production of TXA2 c. Increase sedimentation rate d. Prolongation of bleeding time

49. Salicylates is used in all the

following cases except a. Common cold b. Coronary thrombosis c. Cardiac complication of acute

rheumatic fever d. Toothache

50. Repeated administration of large

doses of salicylates as in rheumatic fever result in

a. Visual disturbances b. Ringing in the ear c. Confusion d. All of the above

51. Aspirin allergy may be manifested

in the form of urticaria only a. True b. False

52. Salicyltes is the best choice for

treating chicken pox in children a. True b. False

53. .......... is preferred in treatment of

influenza in children a. Morphine b. Aspirin c. Paracetamol d. All of the above

54. Paracetamol shouldn’t use in

pregnancy a. True b. False

55. Therapeutic doses of paracetamol

may lead to acute hepatic necrosis a. True b. False

56. Cardiac depression and serious arrhythmia is one of the side effects of a. isoflurane b. sevoflurane c. halothane

57. Malignant hyperthermia is a

genetic disease at which the patient have taken a. succinylcholine b. halothane c. both

58. at which it is treated by

a. dantrolene b. propofol

59. Cause of the vomiting is the

stimulation of the a. CTZ b. CIC

60. Relaxation of the skeletal muscles

as a side effect of the inhalational anesthesia is enhancing the effect of the a. neuromuscular blockers b. sympthatomimetics c. sympthatolitics

61. Mechanism of action of all local

anesthetics is by a. binding to the Na+ channel

from outside b. binding to the Na+ channel

from inside

62. Lipid solubility enhances the a. onset b. duration of action c. intensity of the local anesthesia

63. As the amount of the unionized

fragment increases the duration of onset a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant

64. The onset of action is faster by

a. increasing b. decreasing the gap between

the PKa and the PH of the tissue

65. we ought not to use a sympthatomimetic with a local anethetics because of the resulting a. vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction

66. which may cause local ischemia in

the a. digits b. abdomen

67. We use cocaine topically in

a. otolaryngeal b. nasopharyngeal use to reduce

the mucosal bleeding

68. One of the systemic side effects of the local anesthetics is the a. convulsions

b. arrhythmia c. allergy produced by the

lignocaine 69. The metabolism of the esters is

through the a. liver b. pseudo cholinesterase

70. The half life time of the amides is

a. longer b. shorter than that of esters

71. The metabolism of the procaine

leads to the formation of the a. benzoic acid b. para amino benzoic acid

72. Allergy is more common in the

a. esters b. amides

Answers:

1. E 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. E 7. E 8. E 9. E 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. E 18. D 19. E 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. E 24. B 25. E 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. E 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. B

36. D 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. D 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. B 56. C 57. C 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. A

Histology of the CNS:

1. When a synapse is formed between an axon and a dendritic spine then it is called:

a. Axodendritic b. Axosomatic c. Dendrodendritic d. Axo-axonic

2. synapses are which are commonly found in the nervous system are

a. Axodendritic and axosomatic b. Axoaxonic and dendrodendritic c. Axodendritic and

dendrodendritic d. Axosomatic and axoaxonic

3. Which of the following is incorrect about electrical synapses:

a. It is a gap junction b. providing for cells electrical

coupling c. Transmission of impulse is

Direct and unidirectional d. Less commonly present in the

nervous system than chemical synapses

4. an electron dense membrane of the target neuron at the site of synapse.

a. Synaptic cleft b. Postsynaptic membrane

c. Presynaptic membrane

5. During anaesthesia in order to avoid paralysis caused by injecting substances in the spinal cord doctors prefer to inject the patient with the anaesthetic substance in

a. Below L2 b. In thoracic region c. Bet C4 & C5

6. The no. of cervical segments of

the spinal cord is: a. 5 b. 7 c. 6 d. 8

7. What is the structure that is

almost absent in the Gray Matter a. nerve cells b. myelinated nerve fibers c. neuroglia d. capillary bed

8. all of the following is corrct concerning the anterior horn except:

a. broad in the cervical and lumbosacral segments

b. contains large multipolar motor neurons

c. called the motor nuclei d. axons of these cells form the

sensory fibers emerging in the dorsal root of spinal nerves

9. the following nuclei are only present in the cervical and lumbar enlargements.

a. antero-medial b. postero-medial c. antero-lateral d. postero-lateral

10. which of the following

statements is incorrectly describing substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi

a. Represented in all segments of the spinal cord.

b. One of the anterior horn cells c. Impulses from it are carried by

the lateral spinothalamic tracts.

d. Important cell station for impulses of pain and temperature

11. Which of the following nuclei gives rise to the ventral spinothalamic tracts?

a. The substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi,

b. The nucleus proprius c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke

12. Which of the following nuclei is

absent in L5? a. The substantia gelatinosa of

Rolandi, b. The nucleus proprius c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke


are correct about the lateral horn of the spinal cord except:

a. Present in all thoracic segments

b. The cells are small multipolar neurons

c. belonging to the somatic nervous system

14. They are formed of small nerve cells with short axons that ascend and descend for few segments on the same side.:

a. nucleus proprius b. sympathetic nuclei c. commissural neurons d. intersegmental neurons

15. all of the followings statements are correctly describing coma tracts except:

a. present in the dorsal white column of the cervical segments.

b. It lies between the gracile and cuneate tracts.

c. It carries proprioceptive fibers to the anterior horn cells

d. It control the function Of the lower part of the body through the actions of the reflex arcs.

16. One of the similarities between The Septomarginal tract and The Comma-Shaped tract is

a. Site in the spinal cord b. Function c. Side of the body it controls

17. Gracile & Cuneate tracts carry

impulses of : a. proprioceptive sensations b. crude touch c. pain & temperature d. simple touch

18. One of the Tracts carrying pain

impulses, which will not reach the cerebral cortex but end in the

subconscious level of the cerebellum or midbrain:

a. Gracile & Cuneate b. Spino-tectal tract c. Ventral spino-thalamic d. ventral spino-cerebellar

19. the Olivospinal tract is absent in

all the following segments except:

a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level c. Lumbar level d. Sacral level

20. The lateral horn cell is found in :

a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level c. Lumbar level d. All of the above

21. The only tract that is absent in

the cervical segments of the spinal cord is:

a. Septomarginal b. Olivospinal c. Cuneate d. Lateral tecto-spinal

22. The central canal of the spinal

cord is posteriorly situated at : a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level

c. Lumbar level

d. Sacral level

23. The deep grooves that can be seen in cerebrum are called:

a. Sulci b. Gyri

24. The two cerebral hemispheres

are connected together by thick band of grey matter called corpus callosum.

a. True b. False


are correctly describing the pyramidal cells except:

a. The apex is directed to the cortical surface. a thick branching dendrite arises from the base of the cell and passes into the underlying white matter.

b. Small cells are usually superficial

c. they are well developed in motor centers

26. Which of the following is in incorrect about Betz cells

a. It's The largest cells of the cortex

b. It's One of the huge upper motor neurons

c. It's of stellate type d. It's found in the motor cortex

27. The stellate cells transmit motor

and sensory impulses from and to the cerebrum

a. True b. False

28. The following are examples of

stellate cells except: a. Horizontal cells of Cajal b. Fusiform cells c. Cells of Martinotti d. Astrocytes

29. the molecular layer is formed

mainly of : a. small stellate cells b. neuroglia c. Axons and Dendrites d. small horizontal neurons

30. the inner granular layer is

formed mainly of : a. small stellate nerve cell bodies b. neuroglia c. Axons and Dendrites d. small horizontal neurons

31. The large pyramidal cells with their long dendrites running towards the molecular layer are mainly found in :

a. Molecular layer b. The outer pyramidal cell layer c. The pleomorphic layer d. The inner pyramidal cell layer


are right about Martinotti cells except:

a. They are present in the The pleomorphic layer

b. They are small and unipolar c. Their axons proceed towards

the surface giving collaterals on their way.

33. The area called the striate area as it appears striated by the naked eye:

a. The motor area b. The sensory area c. The visual area d. The olfactory area


about the medulla oblongata are correct except:

a. It is continuous above with the pons

b. It is connected with the cerebellum by means of the inferior cerebellar peduncles.

c. In the closed medulla, there are motor decussation of the cortico-spinal tracts in the upper level

35. Which of the following is incorrect about the trigeminal (5th) cranial nerve nucleus

a. homologous to substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi

b. carry pain and temperature from the face

c. starts to appear at the level of closed Medulla at the level of Sensory Decussation

36. ventral cortico-spinal tract is uncrossed fibers that descend on the same side as direct pyramidal tract

a. true

b. false

37. All the descending extra pyramidal tracts are present in the Closed Medulla at the level of Motor Decussation except:

a. sulcomarginal tract b. septomarginal tract

c. rubrospinal tract 38. The crossed internal arcuate

fibers ascend on the opposite side of the brain stem and continue as the Medial Lemniscus.

a. True b. False

39. Cranial nerve nuclei of the

hypoglossal and of the vagus appear in the gray matter around the central canal at the level of open medulla.

a. True b. False

40. ..act as relay station for the

proprioceptive pathway coming from the spinal cord to the cerebellum

a. Cuneate nuclei b. Medial Lemniscus. c. lateral cuneate nuclei d. arcuate nuclei


properties of blood brain barrier except :

a. Endothelium with occluding junction

b. Neuroglia can be found c. Gap junction can be observed

d. Protect the brain from foreign particles

42. All of the following can be found or related to the arachnoid except :

a. CSF b. Dense fibrous connective

tissue c. Delicate tissue trabaculae d. Thin epithelial tissue

43. One of the following can be

found in the granular layer of cerebellum :

a. Axon of Purkinjie cells b. Purkinjie cell bodies c. Granule cell bodies d. Dendrites of Pukinjie cells

44. Neuroglia is found in one of the

following layers : a. Molecular cell layer b. Granular cell layer c. Purkinjie cell layer d. All of the above

45. All of the following synapse with

the dendrites of the Purkinje cells except :

a. Mossy fibres b. Granular cells axon c. Climbing fibres d. Neurons of molecular layer

46. The most medial cerebellar nucleus is :

a. Nucleus Dentate b. Nucleus Fastigii c. Nucleus emboli d. Nucleus Globosus

47. All of the following can be seen

in a section of the mid brain except :

a. 4th ventricle b. Cerebral aqueduct c. Tectum d. Cerebral peduncle

48. Middle longitudinal bundle can

be found in all of the following except :

a. Closed medulla b. Open medulla c. Tectum of mid brain d. Pons

49. The main function of inferior

colliculus is : a. Hearing in relation to

movement b. Vision reflex c. Gag reflex d. Stretch reflex

50. Which of the following nerve nuclei appears in upper mid brain :

a. 3rd cranial nerve b. 4th cranial nerve c. 6th cranial nerve d. 7th cranial nerve

Answers:

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A

31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. A

Chapter 3: Special senses:

Anatomy of special senses: 1. All of the following are related

to the roof of the orbit except : a. Trochlea b. Optic nerve c. Infra orbital vessels d. Lacrimal gland

2. All of the following forms the

medial wall of the orbit except : a. Lacrimal bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Body of sphenoid d. Greater wing of sphenoid

3. Which of the following bones

forms a part of two boundries of the orbit : a. Zygoma b. Maxilla c. Lacrimal bone d. Ethmoid

4. Most lateral structure passing

inside the superior orbital fissure : a. Lacrimal nerve

b. Frontal nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Abducent nerve

5. All of the following openings

are found in the lateral wall of the orbit except: a. Superior orbital fissure b. Ethmoid fissure c. Zygomatotemporal canal d. Zygomatofacial canal

6. All of the following can be

found in the orbit except : a. Vessels b. Muscles c. Nerves d. Lymph nodes


intrinsic muscles in the eye ball except : a. Sphincter papillae b. Dilator papillae c. Lateral rectus d. Ciliary body

8. One of the following has

different nerve supply from the others : a. Superior rectus b. Lateral rectus c. Medial rectus

d. Inferior rectus

9. If both superior and inferior rectus contract together : a. No motion occurs b. Deviation to lateral side c. Deviation to medial side d. Protrusion of eye ball

10. Optic nerve is the cranial

nerve number : a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

11. Optic nerve is connected to the

other side by : a. Optic chiasma b. Anterior perforating

process c. Mamillary body d. Optic tract

12. Zygomatic nerve is a branch of

: a. Ophthalamic nerve b. Maxillary nerve c. Mandibular nerve d. None of the above

13. Supratrochlear nerve is a

branch from :

a. Optic nerve b. Frontal nerve c. Lacrimal nerve d. Nasociliary nerve

14. Length of optic nerve is :

a. 1 cm b. 2 cm c. 3 cm d. 4 cm

15. Terminal branch of the

ophthalamic artery is a. Dorsal nasal b. Superotrochlear c. Both d. None

16. The sinus to which orbit is

drained to is : a. Cavernous sinuses b. Superior sagittal sinuses c. Inferior sagittal sinuses d. Transverse sinuses

17. The check ligaments extends

from : a. Bulbar fascia b. Optical periosteum c. Optical septum d. Suspensory ligament

18. The smallest and most important branch of ophthalamic artery is : a. Lacrimal artery b. Central artery of retina c. Palpebral artery d. Meningeal branch

19. Lateral palpebral artery is

branched from : a. Ophthalamic artery b. Lacrimal artery c. Central artery of the retina d. Dorsal nasal artery

20. Apex of the orbit is directed :

a. Posteriorly b. Anteriorly c. Laterally d. Medially

21. The nerve supplies the skin of the

auricle near the external acoustic meatus

a. A branch of vagus b. Hypoglossal nerve c. Vestibulocochlear nerve d. Glossopharyngeal-nerve

22. In the bony part ( lateral 1/3) of

The external acoustic meatus There is a constriction called isthmus

a. True b. False

23. The subcutaneous tissues of the

cartilaginous part of The external acoustic meatus are rich in seruminous glands which secrete serumin

a. True b. False


statements about the tympanic membrane is incorrect?

a. When examined by autoscope or direct light the anteroinferior part of the membrane appears bright

b. Its Middle is containing chorda tympani nerve

c. Its inner layer is Formed of fibrous tissue

d. The outer surface of its inner layer is innervated by branch of-vagus-nerve

25. All of the following about the relations of the middle ear are correct except:

a. The Medial wall is related to the facial canal

b. The anterior wall is related to aditus to mastoid antrum

c. The Floor is related to the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

d. The mastoid wall is Related to facial canal

26. A branch of the vagus nerve

supplies: a. the skin of the auricle near the

external acoustic meatus. b. the outer surface of the

tympanic membrane c. the inner surface of the

tympanic membrane d. the middle ear e. a and b f. and c g. all of the above 27. hyperacusis can occur In cases of

facial paralysis due to paralysis of the tensor tympani muscle

a. true b. false


statements about the membranous labyrinth is incorrect :

a. It is in the form of membranous sac inside the bony labyrinth

b. Outside the sac lies the perilymph between the sac and the bony labyrinth

c. It is composed of: Utricle, Saccule , semi circular duct and tympanic membrane

d. Formed of a sac is filled with a viscous fluid with low Na content

Answers:

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. E 27. B 28. C

Histology of special senses:

1. All of the following are contents of the orbit except: a. Eye ball b. Lacrimal glands c. Orbital lymph nodes d. Conjunctiva

2. All of the following are parts of the

uvea except: a. Choroid b. Ciliary body c. Cornea d. Iris

3. The cornea contains:

a. Blood vessels b. Lymphatics c. Nerve endings d. Muscles


concerning the corneal epithelium except: a. The basal cell layer shows

microvilli embedded into the percorneal tear film

b. It contains plenty of free nerve endings

c. Sensitive to pain and touch

d. The basal cell layer responsible for the epithelial regeneration

5. ……………. Protects the cornea from trauma or bacterial invasion a. Bowman’s membrane b. Descemet’s membrane


concerning the substantia propria except: a. It’s the thickest layer of the

cornea b. It contains 60 regular

lamellae of parallel collagen bundles that cross parallel to each other

c. Characterized by the presence of the butterfly cells

d. The fibers and the cells are embedded into the corneal proteoglycans

7. All of the following are factors

contributing into the corneal transparency except: a. The absences of blood vessels b. The equal spacing between el

collagen bundles c. The collagen bundles are

oriented at right angles to each other


8. All of the following changes occurs at the limbus except: a. The corneal epithelium

becomes continuous with the bulbar conjunctiva

b. The regular lamellae of collagen fibers of the cornea merge with the irregular collagen bundles of the sclera

c. The bowman’s membrane is replaced by subconjunctival connective tissue

d. The descemt’s membrane and corneal endothelium become continuous with the discontinuous layer of fibroblasts and melanocytes of the sclera

9. ………….. pierces the sclera :

a. Optic nerve fibers b. Ciliary nerves and vessels c. Central artery of the retina d. All of the above

10. All of the following are related to

the sclera except: a. Conjunctiva b. Choroid c. Ciliary vessels

d. Venae verticosae

11. ……………. Is responsible for nutrition and blood supply of the retina

a. Ciliary body b. Aqueous humor c. Choroid d. Vitreous body


concerning the ciliary body except:

a. It’s present at the limbus b. The apex of the triangle is

continuous anteriorly with the choroid

c. The base faces the anterior chamber

d. The outer surface faces the sclera

13. The ciliary epithelium is arranged into 2 layers outer non-pigmented layer and inner pigmented one

a. True b. False

14. All of the following is true

concerning the ciliary muscles except: a. Arranged into 3 groups

meridional, circular and radial

b. Responsible for accommodation for near vision

c. Receive parasympathetic supply from the occulomotor nerve

d. Attached to the lens via the zonules

15. The anterior chamber lies between the lens and the iris while the posterior chamber lies between the iris and the cornea a. True b. False

16. ………… are arranged in circules

concentric to the pupil a. Dilator pupillae muscles b. Constrictor pupillae muscles

17. …………….. forms the capsule of

the lens a. Basement membrane material b. Reticular fibers c. Collagen fibers d. a and b e. a and c

18. The retina extends from …………

posteriorly to …………….. anteriorly a. optic disk, orra serrata

b. orra serrata, optic disk

19. the temporal and nasal branches of the superior division of the central artery of the retina anatomize with those of the inferior division to supply the different parts of the retina a. true b. false

20. The circulus arteriosus major and

minor supply ………….. a. choroid b. ciliary body c. sclera d. iris

21. Which of the following statements isn't correct about the outer portion of the retina: a. Formed of pigmented

epithelium b. it is photosensitive c. it is firmly attached to the

choriocapillary layer of the choroid.

22. All of the following statements about the fovea centralis are correct except a. shallow depression b. located 2.5 mm lateral to the

optic disc

c. It is the area of greatest visual acuity.

d. called also optic papilla

23. tight junctions in the Retinal Pigmented epithelial cells are present between: a. numerous invaginations of the

cell base and basal lamina b. The adjacent cell membranes

of cells c. The cell apex and the rods and

cones

24. the blood retinal barrier is formed from tight junctions between adjacent cells of Retinal Pigmented epithelial cells with the tight junctions between endothelial cells of retinal blood vessels

a. true b. false

25. the layer of the retina that has a

role in Participation in restoration of photosensitivity to visual pigments is

a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner plexiform layer c. The outer plexiform layer d. The outer limiting membrane

26. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Rod cells present in the retina a. mediate night vision b. contains rhodopsin c. extremely sensitive to light d. doesn't have outer fibers

27. It contains the synapses between the synaptic processes of rod and cone cells and the dendrites of the bipolar cells and horizontal cells. a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner plexiform layer c. The outer plexiform layer d. The outer limiting membrane

28. cell bodies with the nuclei of the bipolar cells are present in

a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner nuclear layer c. The outer nuclear layer d. The outer limiting membrane

29. Cells that extend from the outer to the inner limiting membranes. It has supportive, protective and nutritive functions.

a. Horizontal cells b. Muller cells c. Amacrine cells

30. few large cells with vesicular nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm and The retinal blood capillaries are present between them

a. Ganglion nerve cells. b. Horizontal cells c. Supporting cells d. Amacrine cells

31. myelin of the optic nerve fiber is formed by

a. melanocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. muller cells d. Schwann cells.

32. Conjunctiva is made up of

a. non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

b. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

c. simple columnar epithelium d. simple cuboidal epithelium

33. Conjunctiva helps in defending the eye against infection.

a. True b. False

34. Levator palpebrae superioris muscle is supplied by

a. Occulomotor nerve b. Optic nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Abduscent nerve

35. Muller muscle is inserted in the superior border of the tarsal plate and is supplied by parasympathetic nerves a. True b. False

36. The following are modified

sebaceous glands except: a. Meibomian glands b. Zeis gland c. Glands of Moll

37. Between the vestibular scala and the middle scala is:

a. Reissner's membrane. b. The basilar membrane. c. The stria vascularis. d. The spiral ganglion.

38. Between the middle scala and the tympanic scala is:

a. Reissner's membrane b. The basilar membrane c. The stria vascularis. d. The spiral ganglion.

39. The stria vascularis is found in:

a. The middle scala. b. The vestibular scala. c. The tympanic scala. d. The modiolus..

40. The ogan of Corti is found in:

a. The middle scala. b. The vestibular scala. c. The tympanic scala. d. The modiolus.

Answers:

1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B

32. A 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. A

Physiology of special senses:

1. Bouncing of light rays of a surface: a. refraction b. reflection c. absorption d. none of the above

2. The transfer of L ight energy to a

particle or surface: a. refraction b. absorption c. reflection d. none of the above

3. When light passes from one

transparent medium to another ,its speed is constant:

a. true b. false

4. The greater the incident angle and

the greater the difference in refractive indices ,the lesser is the bending or refraction

a. true b. false

5. A line passing through the centers

of curvature of the lens : a. principale focus b. principale focal distance c. principale axis d. none of the above

6. The distance between the lens and the principale focus is :

a. principale focal distance b. principale axis c. principale focus d. none of the above

7. The rays from an object less than 6

meters are parallel: a. true b. false

8. The refractive power of a lens is

measured in : a. m b. mm c. nm d. diopters

9. The refractive media of the eye is

formed of : a. cornea b. lens c. aqueous and vitreous humor d. all of the above

10. The refractive index of cornea is : a. 1.38 b. 1.4 c. 1.33 d. 1.36

11. The refractive power of cornea is

…….diopters: a. 20 b. 40 c. 30 d. none of the above

12. The refractive index of lens is …. a. 1.36

b. 1.38 c. 1.4 d. 1.33

13. The refractive power of lens is ……..diopters:

a. 20 b. 40 c. 30 d. none of the above

14. The total refractive power of the

human eye during accommodation is 60 diopters:

a. true b. false

15. Cornea and lens are the chief

refractive media of the eye : a. true b. false

16. The most important part of the

refractive power of the eye is : a. lens b. cornea c. aqueous humor d. all of the above

17. The refractive index of the cornea is slightly different from that of the air:

a. true b. false

18. Protection is the main importance

of corneal reflex: a. true

b. false

19. The center of corneal reflex is located in :

a. midbrain b. pons c. medulla oblongata d. none of the above

20. The effector of the corneal reflex is

: a. orbicularis oculi b. medial rectus c. ciliary d. all of the above

21. The aqueous humor controls the

intraocular volume and pressure: a. true b. false

22. The lens is vascular transparent

biconvex structure : a. a.true b. b.false

23. Clear gelatinous material filling

the space between the posterior surface of the lens and the retina :

a. vitreous humor b. aqueous humor c. all of the above d. none of the above

24. Blurred vision is the stimulus for accommodation reflex:

a. true b. false

25. The recession of the near vision with age is called:

a. myopia b. hyperopia c. presbypia d. none of the above

26. All of the following events occur during darkness except:

a. cGMP binds to cation channels in the outer segments of photoreceptors

b. photoreceptors are depolarized c. there is continuous glutamate

release by photoreceptors at their synapses with the bipolar cells. .

d. channels in rod's outer segment close.

e. Cation influx in the outer segment now decreases, while Na+ ions continue to be pumped out from the inner segment

f. Ca+2 ions are removed by the Na+-Ca2+ exchange carrier.

27. The output neuron of the retina a. The photoreceptors b. bipolar cells c. The ganglion cells d. A and b

e. All of the above

28. At maximal light intensity the membrane potential can reach - 70 mV. this inhibits the release of neurotransmitter glutamate Thus in bipolar cells can fire an action potential

a. True b. False


about the retinal adaptation are correct except:

a. It depends on the concentration of the photosensitive chemicals in the rods and cones

b. Light adaptation can occur more rapid than dark adaptation

c. The sensitivity of the retina In darkess is lower than its sensitivity in light

d. Light adaptation is due to the break down of the photosensitive chemicals in the rods and cones

30. All of the following occurs during dark adaptation except:

a. Visual acuity is small

b. all the retinal and opsins in rods and cones are converted into light sensitive pigments

c. Increase in retinal sensitivity to light

d. the retinal is converted into vitamin A

31. which of the following statements is correctly describing nyctalopia

a. optic nerve function is seriously hampered

b. the most common cause of night blindness is prolonged vitamin A deficiency

c. the rods and cons cann't perform their normal functions

d. occurs due to abnormal gene on the X-chromosome

32. Exposure to light activates phosphodiestrase enzyme PDE that breaks cGMP into 5' GMP

a. True b. False

33. Dark adaptation occurs four

times as rapidly in rods as in cons

a. True b. False

34. The scala vestibuli and the media are separated from each other by the

a. Reissner's membrane b. basilar membrane c. tympanic membrane d. tectorial membrane

35. The endolymph: a. formed by stria vascularis b. present in scalae vestibule and

tympani c. electronegative compared to

perilymph d. similar in composition to the

extracellular fluid

36. The primary auditory cortex: a. is called broca's area b. receives information from both

cochlea c. show no regional localization of

the cochlea d. can appreciate significance of

the spoken words e. present in the parietal lobe in

the floor of the central sulcus

37. About the intensity of sound all of the following is true except:

a. measured in decibels b. determined by amplitude of

sound waves c. perceived as loudness of sound

d. not affected by the frequency of sound waves

38. The basilar membrane of the cochlea

a. cover oval and round windows b. separates scalae vestibule and

tympani c. vibrates in pattern determined

by the form of travelling waves in the cochlear perilymph

39. Auditory discrimination of a certain sound pich depends upon:

a. part of the basilar membrane maximally displaced by the sound wave

b. frequency of sound waves c. difference in the middle ear

amplification of sounds of different piches

d. a and b but not c e. a,b and c

40. Attenuation reflex caused by loud voice leads to:

a. contraction of both stapedius and tensor tympani muscles

b. relaxation of the above 2 muscles

c. contraction of stapedius and relaxation of tympani

d. contraction of tympani and relaxation of stapedius

e. none of the above

41. The length of the fibers of the The basilar membrane decrease progressively from the base towards the apex of the cochlea

a. True b. False

42. The rods of corti support: a. The reticular lamina b. Tectorial membrane c. Basilar membrane

43. Helicotrema is an opening that connects:

a. scalae vestibule and tympani b. scalae vestibule and media c. scalae media and tympani

44. When the basilar membrane moves up, the reticular lamina moves up and in away from the modiolus

a. True b. False

45. Depolarization of the hair cells depends mainly on:

a. Outflux of Cl b. Influx of Na c. Influx of K d. Outflux of K

46. (Choose the incorrect answer) Sound localization In the horizontal plane :

a. Doesn't Require bilateral hearing

b. It is a function of the superior olivary nucleus and the primary auditory cortex

c. Detect the difference in the intensity of sound between the two ears.

d. detect the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into opposite ear through the presence of time lag neurons

47. It is a center for (audiospinal reflexes).

a. Auditory cortex b. Inferior colliculus c. Superior olivary nucleus d. Cochlea

48. Unilateral lesion of the primary auditory cortex

a. gives total deafness b. unilateral deafness on the

ipsilateral side c. does not lead to deafness in

either ear d. The person cannot interpret the

meaning of the sound.

49. The tonotopic organization present in the organ of Corti is preserved within the cochlear nuclei, the inferior colliculus and the primary auditory area

a. True b. False

50. Most of the information leaving the cochlea to the auditory pathway comes from

a. the inner hair cells b. the outer hair cells c. both of the hair cells are equally

discharging

51. olfactory sensory receptors located in:

a. in a ganglion

b. in olfactory mucosa

c. in taste mucous membrane

52. surface area covered by the yellowish pigmented olfactory mucous membrane in microsomatic animals:

a. large area

b. 10 squares cm

c. 5 squares cm


53. surface area covered by the yellowish pigmented olfactory mucous membrane in macrosomatic animals:

a. large area

b. 10 squares cm

c. 5 squares cm


54. pigmented olfactory mucous membrane contain:

a. supporting cells

b. progenitor cells

c. both A & B


55. between supporting & progenitor cells of pigmented olfactory mucous membrane:

a. 10-20 thousands receptors

b. 10-20 millions receptors

c. 10-20 hundreds receptors

d. 10-20 receptors

56. The dendrites of neurons of olfactory receptors:

a. Thick & long

b. Thick & short

c. Thin & long

d. Thin & short

57. Cilia of olfactory receptors:

a. Myelinated with 0.1µm in diameter

b. Myelinated with 2µm in diameter

c. Unmyelinated with 0.1µm in diameter

d. Un myelinated with 2 µm in diameter

58. Olfactory membrane covered by mucous membrane secreted by:

a. Schwann cells

b. Olfactory cells

c. Nasal membrane

d. Bowman's glands

59. Olfactory cells can't regenerate:

a. True

b. False

60. Olfactory cells stimulated by:

a. Odorant molecules

b. Taste molecules

c. None of the above

61. Receptor-odorant complex stimulate:

a. adenylate cyclase

b. Odorant molecule

c. G-protein ( Golf )

d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels

62. adenylate cyclase cause:

a. adenylate cyclase

b. formation cAMP

c. G-protein ( Golf )

d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels

63. spasticity of olfactory epithelium controlled by:

a. genetically

b. by drugs

c. by conditions

d. all of the above

64. the main structure responsible for discriminate odors:

a. olfactory mucosa

b. olfactory genes

c. olfactory glomeruli

d. all of the above

65. Olfactory signals become topographically organized within:

a. olfactory glomeruli

b. olfactory mucosa

c. both A & B

d. olfactory bulb

66. adaptation of olfactory system:

a. rapid and at CNS level

b. rapid and at receptor level

c. slow and at CNS level

d. both A & B

67. the constitutions of chemical sense:

a. Olfaction

b. Gustation

c. Both A & B


68. the common character of smell & taste:

a. provide information regarding the external environment

b. replaced with a half-time of a few weeks

c. specialized sensory receptors are stimulated by chemical molecules

d. all of the above

69. sweet taste caused by:

a. ionized salts

b. acids

c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids

d. foods containing glutamate

e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols

70. sweet taste caused by:

a. ionized salts

b. acids




71. Sour taste caused by:

a. ionized salts

b. acids




72. Bitter taste caused by:

a. ionized salts

b. acids




73. Umami taste caused by:

a. ionized salts

b. acids




74. receptors of taste sensation located in:

a. taste buds

b. olfactory epithelium

c. skin

d. all of the above

75. taste buds located in:

a. papillae

b. palate, pharynx

c. epiglottis

d. All of the above

76. Damage to the nerves innervating the taste buds cause:

a. Total ageusia b. Partial ageusia c. Both A & B d. None of the above

77. innervation of taste buds on anterior 2/3 of tongue:

a. facial nerve (CN VII) b. glossopharyngeal nerve

( CN IX ) c. Vagus nerve (CN X).

78. the innervation of taste buds on posterior 1/3 of tongue:

a. facial nerve (CN VII)

b. glossopharyngeal nerve ( CN IX )

c. Vagus nerve (CN X)

79. the innervation of taste buds on epiglottis

a. facial nerve (CN VII)

b. glossopharyngeal nerve ( CN IX )

c. Vagus nerve (CN X)

Answers: 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. E 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D

31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. A

51. B

52. C

53. A

54. C

55. B

56. B

57. C

58. D

59. B

60. A

61. C

62. B

63. A

64. C

65. D

66. D

67. C

68. D

69. E

70. A

71. B

72. C

73. D

74. A

75. D

76. C

77. A

78. B

79. C

Chapter 4:

Pharmacology bank Qs ;)

1. ANS: 1. Drugs activating this receptor are

used in treating asthma: a. beta1 adrenergic b. muscarinic cholinergic c. beta2 adrenergic d. nicotinic cholinergic

2. Epinephrine effects on the heart

a. increased rate b. decreased contractility c. coronary vasodilation d. A & C

3. Receptor activation mainly

responsible for positive inotropism:

a. alpha1 b. beta1 c. dopamine D1 d. muscarinic cholinergic

4. Epinephrine effects on

respiration: a. stimulation b. Inhibition

5. Activates alpha receptors

a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. phenylephrine (Neo-

Synephrine)

d. terbutaline (Brethine)

6. Nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor a. methoxamine (Vasoxyl) b. cocaine c. reserpine d. timolol (Blocadren)

7. Alpha adrenoceptor COVALENT

blocker: a. propranolol (Inderal) b. phenoxybenzamine

(Dibenzyline) c. phentolamine (Regitine) d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)

8. Orthostatic (postural)

hypotension a. beta receptor activation b. alpha receptor activation c. alpha receptor blocker d. dopamine receptor blockade

9. Norepinephrine pressor response

blocked by: a. mecamylamine (Inversine) b. prazosin (Minipress) c. atropine d. propranolol (Inderal)

10. Positive chronotropic effects of

epinephrine: a. increased SA nodal potassium

current b. beta1 receptor activation c. mediated by G protein d. B & C

11. Pressor effects of epinephrine are blocked by this drug ("epinephrine reversal")

a. propranolol (Inderal) b. phentolamine (Regitine) c. phenylephrine (Neo-

Synephrine) d. metoprolol (Lopressor)

12. Decreases blood pressure

a. propranolol (Inderal) b. mecamylamine (Inversine) c. phentolamine (Regitine) d. all of the above

13. Centrally-acting antihypertensive

drug a. nitroprusside sodium

(Nipride) b. clonidine (Catapres) c. methoxamine (Vasoxyl) d. captopril (Capoten)

14. Therapeutic use of esmolol

(Brevibloc): a. bronchial asthma b. renal vasodilator c. antihypertensive d. antiarrhythmic drug e. positive inotrope in CHF

15. The magnitude of the

cardiovascular response to norepinephrine is increased by cocaine because:

a. cocaine inhibits norepinephrine reuptake

b. cocaine increases conversion of norepinephrine to phenylephrine

c. cocaine decreases cholinergic receptor number

d. cocaine decreases N.E. metabolism by MAO

e. cocaine increases N.E. receptor number

16. Immediate biosynthetic precursor of epinephrine:

a. L-DOPA b. doapmine c. norepinephrine d. metaraminol e. Isoproterenol

17. Epinephrine:

a. limited effect on alpha receptors

b. increases heart rate, contributing to increase blood pressure

c. epinephrine often reduces peripheral vascular resistance, especially at high concentration

d. epinephrine tends to exhibit negative inotropic effects

e. all of the above

18. Vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine:

a. alpha-1 adrenergic receptor-mediated affecting precapillary resistance vessels of the skin, kidney, and mucosa

b. veins c. both d. Neither

19. A decrease in diastolic pressures

associated with epinephrine administration would most likely occur in which dosage?

a. relatively high doses b. relatively low doses

20. Most probable BP effect of

epinephrine, if epinephrine is administered after an alpha-receptor antagonist:

a. previous administration of the alpha-receptor antagonist will not influence the blood-pressure response to epinephrine

b. increased blood-pressure response to epinephrine

c. decreased blood-pressure response to epinephrine

21. Prominent cardiac beta-adrenergic receptor type:

a. beta-1 b. beta-2 c. beta-3

22. Cardiac effects associated with

epinephrine: a. positive chronotropic b. positive inotropic c. increased cardiac output d. increased oxygen

consumption

e. all of the above

23. Significant respiratory tract effects of epinephrine:

a. beta-2 receptor mediated bronchoconstriction

b. alpha-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

c. beta-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

d. beta-2 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

24. Examples of epinephrine metabolic effects

a. insulin secretion reduced by beta2 adrenergic receptor activation

b. glucagon secretion: diminished by beta adrenergic receptor activation

c. free fatty acids: increased d. minimal calorigenic effect e. glycolysis inhibition

25. Toxicities/adverse reactions

associated with sympathomimetics

a. angina b. hypertension; cerebral

hemorrhage c. cardiac arrhythmias d. anxiety reactions e. all the above

26. Drugs antagonize epinephrine

pressor effects: a. phentolamine (Regitine)

b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. dopamine (Intropin) d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) e. Atropine

27. Epinephrine effects on AV nodall

conduction: a. increased conduction velocity b. decreased conduction velocity c. promotes AV block

28. Ventricular effects associated

with epinephrine administration: a. increased automaticity b. increased ectopic pacemaker

activity c. increased conduction

philosophy d. increased contractility e. all the above

29. Primary neurotransmitter

released by postganglionic neurons of the autonomic sympathetic system:

a. epinephrine b. dopamine c. dobutamine d. norepinephrine e. Phenylephrine

30. Decreased heart rate following

norepinephrine infusion is most likely due to:

a. direct norepinephrine activation of muscarinic receptors at the SA node

b. heart rate cannot decrease following norepinephrine infusion because norepinephrine activates beta-1 adrenergic receptors

c. activation of the baroreceptor system causing a reflex-mediated decrease in heart rate

d. peripheral vasodilation e. none of the above

31. Vascular effects of

norepinephrine (Levophed): a. significantly decreases

glomerularl filtration rates b. effective in treating variant

(Prinzmetal's) angina c. norepinephrine pressor

effects blocked by prazosin (Minipress)

d. increased blood flow to liver, kidney, and skeletal muscle

32. Immediate synthetic precursor of norepinephrine:

a. Epinephrine b. tyrosine c. tyrosine hydroxylase d. dopamine e. Dopa

33. CNS neurotransmitter associated

with the basal ganglia and motor control:

a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. both

d. Neither

34. Low doses, this precursor of norepinephrine causes renovascular dilation:

a. epinephrine b. dopa c. dopamine (Intropin) d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) e. nitroprusside sodium

(Nipride)

35. Pharmacological action(s) of dopamine (Intropin):

a. positive inotropism b. promotes myocardial

norepinephrine release c. increases glomerular

filtration rates (low-dose) d. vasoconstriction by alpha-1

receptor activation (high-dose) e. all the above

36. Significant therapeutic use for

dopamine: a. management of sleep cycles b. treatment of Raynaud's

phenomenon c. treatment of

cardiogenic/hypovolemic shock

d. management of tachyarrhythmias

37. Cardiovascular characteristics of patients who might benefit from IV dopamine (Intropin) administration:

a. low systemic blood pressure b. decreased atrial filling

pressures c. high urinary output

38. Simultaneous increases in

myocardial contractility, glomerular filtration rate, sodium excretion, urine output, and renal blood flow are associated most likely with:

a. epinephrine b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. phenylephrine (Neo-

Synephrine) d. dopamine (Intropin) e. norepinephrine (Levophed)

39. Properties of dobutamine

(Dobutrex): a. positive inotropic agent;

causes significant increase in heart rate

b. promotes catecholamine release

c. mainly acts through dopamine receptors

d. positive inotropic effect is mediated through beta-adrenergic receptor activation

e. appropriate for long-term management of myocardial pump-failure following surgery

40. Examples of beta-2 selective adrenergic agonists

a. metaproterenol (Alupent)

b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil) d. A & B e. A, B & C

41. Clinical use(s) of alpha-1-

receptor agonists: a. management hypotensive

states b. termination of paroxysmal

atrial tachycardia c. nasal decongestant d. A & B e. A,B & C

42. Primary use for alpha-2-selective

adrenergic agonists: a. to manage hypotensive states b. to increase myocardial

contractility c. to reduce blood pressure d. A & B e. A,B & C

43. Major mechanism of

antihypertensive effects associated with alpha-2-selective adrenergic agonists:

a. competitive inhibition of vascular alpha receptors

b. reduced sympathetic outflow

44. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:

a. hypovolemic shock caused by dehydration or blood loss

b. cardiogenic shock (pump failure)

c. cardiac output obstruction d. loss of peripheral vascular

tone e. all of the above

45. Most likely to reduce myocardial

performance in a damaged heart by increasing afterload:

a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. phenylephrine (Neo-

Synephrine) c. low-dose dopamine

(Intropin) d. low-dose epinephrine

46. Receptor system most likely

responsible for improved myocardial contractility when dopamine is administered at low concentrations:

a. muscarinic cholinergic receptors

b. alpha adrenergic receptors c. beta adrenergic receptors d. dopamine receptors (D1) e. leukotriene receptors

47. Clinical applications of beta-

adrenergic antagonists: a. management of coronary

vascular disease b. treatment of arrhythmias c. treatment of hypertension d. all the above

48. A non-selective beta-adrenergic

receptor blocker: a. metoprolol (Lopressor)

b. atenolol (Tenormin) c. timolol (Blocadren) d. esmolol (Brevibloc)

49. Beta-adrenergic receptor

blockers: effects on the heart -- a. increase heart rate b. increased AV nodal refractory

period c. increased contractility d. increased myocardial oxygen

demand e. increased phase 4

depolarization

50. Most likely to cause dangerous bronchiolar constriction in asthmatic patients or patients with COPD a. metoprolol (Lopressor) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. esmolol (Brevibloc) d. atenolol (Tenormin)

51. Very potent beta adrenergic

receptor agonists with minimal effects on alpha adrenergic receptors:

a. propranolol (Inderal) propranolol (Inderal)

b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. epinephrine d. yohimbine (Yocon) e. phentolamine (Regitine)

52. Beta-2 selective agonist--

typically administered by aerosol for asthma management:

a. epinephrine b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. cromolyn sodium (Intal) d. beclomethasone (Banceril) e. albuterol

(Ventolin,Proventil)

53. Used to suppress premature labor:

a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. losartin (Cozaar) c. ritodrine (Yutopar) d. phenylephrine (Neo-

Synephrine) e. clonidine (Catapres)

54. Produces epinephrine reversal, converting a pressor response to a deep pressor response:

a. losartin (Cozaar) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. metoprolol (Lopressor) d. phentolamine (Regitine) e. clonidine (Catapres)

55. Choose the incorrect statement concerning metabolic effects of sympathomimetic agents

a. Activation of beta receptors in fat cells increase lipolysis.

b. Alpha -- 2 adrenergic receptors inhibit lipolysis

c. Hepatic catecholamine effects our mediated mainly by beta adrenergic receptor activation

d. At high concentrations, catecholamines may induce a metabolic acidosis

e. Sympathomimetic drugs increase extracellular potassium

56. Correct receptor type: tissues -- actions

a. alpha 1: heart: positive inotropic

b. alpha 1: pupillary dilator muscle: miosis (pupillary contraction)

c. alpha 2:cholinergic nerve terminals: facilitate transmitter release

d. beta 1: heart: decrease forests of contraction

e. beta 2:human liver: inhibits glycogenolysis

57. Correct receptor type: tissues: actions

a. alpha 1:most innervated vascular smooth muscle: contraction

b. alpha 2:platelets: aggregation

c. beta 2:uterine smooth muscle: smooth muscle relaxation

d. A & C e. A, B & C

58. Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:

a. Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals

b. Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites

c. Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

d. All of the above

59. Characteristics of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is synthesized into the adrenal medulla

b. It is synthesized into the nerve ending

c. It is transported in the blood to target tissues

d. It directly interacts with and activates adrenoreceptors

60. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?

a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Ephedrine d. Methoxamine

61. Indirect action includes all of the

following properties EXCEPT: a. Displacement of stored

catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve ending

b. Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released

c. Interaction with adrenoreceptors

d. Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neurons

62. Catecholamine includes following EXCEPT:

a. Ephedrine b. Epinephrine c. Isoprenaline d. Norepinephrine

63. Epinephrine decreases

intracellular camp levels by acting on:

a. α1 receptor b. α2 receptor c. beta1 receptor d. beta2 receptor


statements is not correct? a. ALFA receptors increase arterial

resistence, whereas beta2 receptor promote smooth muscle relaxation

b. The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly alfa receptors

c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate depending on whether alfa or beta2 receptors are activated

d. Skeletal muscle vessels have predominantly alfa receptors and constrict in the presence of epinephrine and

Norepinephrine

65. Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by: a. Alfa1 receptor b. Alfa2 receptor c. Beta1 receptor d. Beta2 receptor

66. Which of the following effects is

related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation? a. Bronchodilation b. Vasodilatation c. Tachycardia d. Bradycardia

67. Distribution of alfa

adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues except those of: a. Heart b. Blood vessels c. Prostate d. Pupillary dilator muscle

68. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is

contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT: a. Bronchial muscles b. Heart c. Pupillary dilator muscle d. Fat cells

69. In which of the following tissues

both alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect?

a. Blood vessels b. Intestine c. Uterus d. Bronchial muscles

70. The effects of sympathomimetics

on blood pressure are associated with their effects on:

a. The heart b. The peripheral resistance c. The venous return d. All of the above

71. A relatively pure alfa agonist

causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Increase peripheral arterial resistance

b. Increase venous return c. Has no effect on blood vessels d. Reflex bradycardia

72. A nonselective beta receptor

agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Increase cardiac output b. Increase peripheral arterial

resistance c. Decrease peripheral arterial

resistance d. Decrease the mean pressure

73. Which of the following statement

is not correct? a. Αlfa agonists cause miosis b. Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis c. Beta antagonists decrease the

production of aqueous humor

d. Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye

74. A bronchial smooth muscle contains: a. Αlfa1 receptor b. Αlfa2 receptor c. c) Beta 1 receptor d. Beta 2 receptor

75. All of the following agents are

beta receptor agonists EXCEPT: a. Epinephrine b. Isoproterenol c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine

76. Αlfa-receptor stimulation

includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Relaxation of gastrointestinal

smooth muscle b. Contraction of bladder base,

uterus and prostate c. Stimulation of insulin

secretion d. Stimulation of platelet

aggregation

77. Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Increase in contractility b. Bronchodilation c. Tachycardia d. Increase in conduction

velocity in the

atrioventricular node

78. Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Stimulation of renin

secretion b. Fall of potassium

concentration in plasma c. Relaxation of bladder, uterus d. Tachycardia

79. Hyperglycemia induced by

epinephrine is due to: a. Gluconeogenesis (beta2) b. Inhibition of insulin

secretion (alfa) c. Stimulation of glycogenolysis

(beta2) d. All of the above

80. Which of the following effects is

associated with beta3-receptor stimulation? a. Lipolysis b. Decrease in platelet

aggregation c. Bronchodilation d. Tachycardia


statements is not correct? a. Epinephrine acts on both

alfa- and beta-receptors b. Norepinephrine has a

predominantly beta action c. Methoxamine has a

predominantly alfa action

d. Isoprenaline has a predominantly beta action

82. Indicate the drug, which is a direct-acting both alfa- and beta-receptor agonist:

a. Norepinephrine b. Methoxamine c. Isoproterenol d. Ephedrine

83. Which of the following agents is

an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist? a. Methoxamine b. Albuterol c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine

84. Indicate the direct-acting

sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist: a. Isoproterenol b. Ephedrine c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine

85. Which of the following agents is

a nonselective beta receptor agonist? a. Norepinephrine b. Terbutaline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine

86. Indicate the beta1-selective

agonist:

a. Isoproterenol b. Dobutamine c. Metaproterenol d. Epinephrine


sympathomimetics is a beta2-selective agonist?

a. Terbutaline b. Xylometazoline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine

88. Indicate the indirect-acting

sympathomimetic agent: a. Epinephrine b. Phenylephrine c. Ephedrine d. Isoproterenol

89. Epinephrine produces all of the

following effects EXCEPT: a. Positive inotropic and

chronotropic actions on the heart (beta1 receptor)

b. Increase peripheral resistance (alfa receptor)

c. Predominance of alfa effects at low concentration

d. Skeletal muscle blood vessel dilatation (beta2 receptor)

90. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Decrease in oxygen

consumption b. Bronchodilation c. Hyperglycemia

d. Mydriasis

91. Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the following disorders EXCEPT: a. Bronchospasm b. Anaphylactic shock c. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Open-angle glaucoma

92. Compared with epinephrine,

norepinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Similar effects on beta1

receptors in the heart and similar potency at an alfa receptor

b. Decrease the mean pressure below normal before returning to the control value

c. Significant tissue necrosis if injected subcutaneously

d. Increase both diastolic and systolic blood pressure

93. Norepinephrine produces: a. Vasoconstriction b. Vasodilatation c. Bronchodilation d. Decresed potassium

concentration in the plasma

94. Which of the following direct-acting drugs is a relatively pure alfa agonist, an effective mydriatic and decongestant and can be used to raise blood pressure?

a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Phenylephrine d. Ephedrine

95. 044. Isoproterenol is:

a. Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist

b. beta1-selective agonist c. beta2-selective agonist d. Nonselective beta

receptor agonist

96. 045. Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Increase in cardiac output

b. Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure

c. Bronchoconstriction d. Tachycardia

97. 046. Characteristics of

dobutamine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is a relatively beta1-selective synthetic catecholamine

b. It is used to treat bronchospasm

c. It increases atrioventricular conduction

d. It causes minimal changes in heart rate and systolic pressure

98. 047. Characteristics of salmeterol include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is a potent selective beta2 agonist

b. It causes uterine relaxation

c. It stimulates heart rate, contractility and cardiac output

d. It is used in the therapy of asthma

99. 048. Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It acts primarily through the release of stored cathecholamines

b. It is a mild CNS stimulant

c. It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration

d. It decreases arterial pressure

100. 049. Ephedrine causes: a. Miosis b. Bronchodilation c. Hypotension d. Bradycardia

101. 050. Compared with

epinephrine, ephedrine produces all of the following features EXCEPT:

a. It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic

b. It has oral activity c. It is resistant to MAO

and has much longer duration of action

d. Its effects are similar, but it is less potent

102. 051. Which of the following sympathomimetics is preferable for the treatment of chronic orthostatic hypotension?

a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Ephedrine d. Salmeterol

103. 052. Indicate the

sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency:

a. Xylometazoline b. Ephedrine c. Terbutaline d. Phenylephrine

104. 053. Which of the following

sympathomimetics is preferable for the emergency therapy of cardiogenic shock?

a. Epinephrine b. Dobutamine c. Isoproterenol d. Methoxamine


sympathomimetic agent, which is combined with a local anesthetic

to prolong the duration of infiltration nerve block:

a. Epinephrine b. Xylometazoline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine


sympathomimetics is related to short-acting topical decongestant agents?

a. Xylometazoline b. Terbutaline c. Phenylephrine d. Norepinephrine


sympathomimetic, which may be useful in the emergency management of cardiac arrest:

a. Methoxamine b. Phenylephrine c. Epinephrine d. Xylometazoline


sympathomimetics is used in the therapy of bronchial asthma?

a. Formoterol b. Norepinephrine c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine

109. 060. Indicate the agent of

choice in the emergency therapy of anaphylactic shock:

a. Methoxamine b. Terbutaline

c. Norepinephrine d. Epinephrine


sympathomimetics is an effective mydriatic?

a. Salmeterol b. Phenylephrine c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine

111. 062. The adverse effects of

sympathomimetics include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Drug-induced parkinsonism

b. Cerebral hemorrhage or pulmonary edema

c. Myocardial infarction d. Ventricular arrhythmias

112. Sympathetic Nervous System

a. Ganglionic neurotransmitter: acetylcholine

b. generalized response upon sympathetic activation

c. thoraco-lumbar origin for preganglionic cell bodies

d. A, B and C

113. Choline ester most susceptible to hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase:

a. carbachol b. acetylcholine c. methacholine (Provocholine) d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)

114. Resistant to hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase

a. carbachol (carbamylcholine) b. methacholine (Provocholine) c. both d. neither

115. Highest nicotinic receptor

activity among choline esters: a. acetylcholine b. atropine c. methacholine (Provocholine) d. carbachol

116. Associated with

parasympathetic activation (direct effects):

a. increase heart rate b. decreased GI motility c. decrease cardiac contractility d. urinary retention

117. Miosis produced by

a. pilocarpine (Pilocar) b. atropine c. both d. neither

118. Antimuscarinic drug with

highest CNS activity a. atropine b. scopolamine c. homatropine d. muscarine

119. Muscarinic agent: enhances

transmission through the A-V node:

a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. atropine c. propranolol (Inderal) d. methacholine (Provocholine)

120. Least likely to be used as a

mydriatic because of long-duration of action:

a. homatropine (Isopto Homatropine)

b. atropine c. cyclopentolate (Cyclogyl) d. benztropine (Cogentin)

121. Clinically-used to treat sinus

bradycardia secondary to acute myocardial infarction:

a. homatropine (Isopto Homatropine)

b. atropine c. benztropine (Cogentin) d. tropicamide (Mydriacyl)

122. Location(s) of cholinergic

synaptic sites: a. neuromuscular junction b. autonomic effector sites

innervated by post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers

c. some CNS synapses d. A & C

123. Localization of muscarinic

cholinergic receptors: a. postganglionic

parasympathetic effector sites b. autonomic ganglia cells c. adrenal medulla

d. A & C e. A, B & C

124. Cholinergic receptor type

primarily localized at skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions:

a. muscarinic b. nicotinic

125. Highly sensitive to the action

of acetylcholinesterase: a. carbachol b. bethanechol (Urecholine) c. acetylcholine d. A & C e. A,B, & C

126. Muscarinic receptor subtype

primarily associated with the heart:

a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 d. M4

127. Effective antagonist at

neuromuscular junction receptors;

a. atropine b. tubocurarine

128. Cardiac muscarinic Type M2-

receptor mediated action(s): a. increased phase 4

depolarization rate b. increased AV nodal conduction

velocity

c. Decreased atrial and ventricular contractility

d. all the above

129. Ligand-gated ion channels: a. nicotinic b. muscarinic c. both d. neither

130. Tends to cause fast responses:

a. nicotinic b. muscarinic

131. Agonist effects blocked by

tubocurarine: a. muscarinic receptors b. nicotinic receptors

132. Indirect-acting

cholinomimetic: a. atropine b. edrophonium (Tensilon) c. carbachol d. acetylcholine e. ephedrine

133. More lipophilic:

a. neostigmine (Prostigmin) b. most organophosphate

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

134. Consequences of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor application to the conjunctiva

a. relaxation of the pupillary sphincter muscle

b. relaxation of the ciliary muscle

c. both d. neither

135. Which type of glaucoma

response to anticholinesterase treatment?

a. primary b. secondary c. congenital

136. Probable cause of myasthenia

gravis: a. excessive synthesis of

cholinergic receptors b. inadequate synthesis of

acetylcholine c. failure of acetylcholine

reuptake system d. binding of anti--muscarinic

receptor antibodies to the muscarinic cholinergic receptor

e. binding of anti-nicotinic receptor antibodies to the nicotinic cholinergic receptor

137. Preferred anticholinergic drug when sedation is the principal objective, preoperatively:

a. atropine b. glycopyrrolate (Robinul) c. scopolamine

138. Anticholinergic drug most

likely to be used clinically to promote bronchodilation:

a. IV atropine b. aerosolized atropine

c. aerosolized ipratropium bromide (ipratropium (Atrovent))

d. scopolamine e. all of the above

139. Mydriasis without loss of

accommodation a. parasympatholytic b. sympathomimetic

140. Management of severe

bradycardia and A-V block associated with acute myocardial infarction:

a. atropine b. neostigmine (Prostigmin)

141. Acetylcholine is not a specific

neurotransmitter at: a. a) Sympathetic ganglia b. b) Sympathetic postganglionic

nerve endings c. c) Parasympathetic ganglia d. d) Parasympathetic

postganglionic nerve endings

142. Muscarinic receptors are located in:

a. a) Autonomic ganglia b. b) Skeletal muscle

neuromuscular junctions c. c) Autonomic effector cells d. d) Sensory carotid sinus

baroreceptor zone

143. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

a. a) Heart b. b) Glands c. c) Smooth muscle d. d) Endothelium


cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

a. a) Lobeline b. b) Pilocarpine c. c) Nicotine d. d) Bethanechol

145. Indicate a cholinomimetic

agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

a. a) Edrophonium b. b) Physostigmine c. c) Carbachol d. d) Isoflurophate

146. Characteristics of carbachol

include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. a) It decreases intraocular pressure

b. b) It causes mydriasis c. c) It exerts both nicotinic and

muscarinic effects d. d) It is resistant to

acethylcholiesterase

147. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

a. a) It is very toxic b. b) The doses required are very

high

c. c) It is very rapidly hydrolyzed d. d) It is very costly

148. Parasympathomimetic drugs

cause: a. a) Bronchodilation b. b) Mydriasis c. c) Bradycardia d. d) Constipation

149. Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

a. a) Bethanechol b. b) Carbachol c. c) Acetylcholine d. d) None of the above

150. Which of the following direct-

acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action?

a) Acetylcholine b) Methacholine c) Carbachol d) Bethanechol

151. Bethanechol has all of the

following properties EXCEPT: a) It is extremely resistant to

hydrolysis b) Purely muscarinic in its action c) It is used for abdominal urinary

bladder distention d) It exerts both nicotinic and

muscarinic effects

152. A M-cholinimimetic agent is: a) Carbachol b) Pilocarpine

c) Acetylcholine d) Bethanechol

153. Characteristics of pilocarpine

include all of the following EXCEPT: a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid b) It causes miosis and a

decrease in intraocular pressure

c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut

d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma

154. Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-acting?

a) Lobeline b) Edrophonium c) Pilocarpine d) Carbachol

155. The mechanism of action of

indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:

a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors

b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine

c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase

d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites

156. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:

a) Isoflurophate b) Carbochol c) Physostigmine d) Parathion


cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?

a) Physostigmine b) Edrophonium c) Neostigmine d) Isoflurophate

158. Indicate cholinesterase

activator: a) Pralidoxime b) Edrophonium c) Pilocarpine d) Isoflurophate

159. Isofluorophate increases all of

the following effects except: a) Lacrimation b) Bronchodilation c) Muscle twitching d) Salivation

160. Indicate a cholinesterase

inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:

a) Edrophonium b) Carbochol c) Neostigmine d) Lobeline

161. Сholinesterase inhibitors do not produce:

a) Bradycardia, no change or modest fall in blood pressure

b) Increased strength of muscle contraction, especially in muscles weakened by myasthenia gravis

c) Miosis and reduction of intraocular pressure

d) Dramatic hypertension and tachycardia

162. Which of the following cholinomimetics is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma?

a) Pilocarpine b) Lobeline c) Acethylcholine d) Neostigmine


cholinomimetics is most widely used for paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder?

a) Lobeline b) Neostigmine c) Pilocarpine d) Echothiophate

164. Chronic long-term therapy of

myasthenia is usually accomplished with:

a) Edrophonium b) Neostigmine c) Echothiophate d) Carbachol

165. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxants?

a) Echothiophate b) Physostigmine c) Edrophonium d) Pilocarpine

166. Indicate the reversible

cholinesterase inhibitor, which penetrates the blood-brain barrier:

a) Physostigmine b) Edrophonium c) Neostigmine d) Piridostigmine

167. Which of the following cholinomimetics is used in the treatment of atropine intoxication?

a) Neostigmine b) Carbochol c) Physostigmine d) Lobeline

168. The symptoms of excessive

stimulation of muscarinic receptors include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Abdominal cramps, diarrhea b) Increased salivation, excessive

bronchial secretion c) Miosis, bradycardia d) Weakness of all skeletal

muscles

169. The excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine and choline esters is blocked competitively by:

a) Edrophonium b) Atropine c) Pralidoxime d) Echothiophate

170. The toxic effects of a large dose

of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Hypotension and bradycardia b) Convulsions, coma and respiratory

arrest c) Skeletal muscle depolarization

blockade and respiratory paralysis d) Hypertension and cardiac

arrhythmias

171. The dominant initial sights of acute cholinesterase inhibitors intoxication include all of the following except:

a) Salivation, sweating b) Mydriasis c) Bronchial constriction d) Vomiting and diarrhea

172. Which of those drugs used for

acute toxic effects of organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitors?

a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine c) Pralidoxime d) Edrophonium

173. The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

1. Ganglion-blockers 2. Atropine-similar drugs 3. Neuromuscular junction blockers 4. Both a and c

174. M3 receptor subtype is located:

1. In the myocardium 2. In sympathetic postganglionic

neurons 3. On effector cell membranes of

glandular and smooth muscle cells 4. On the motor end plates

175. Which of the following drugs

is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

a) Atropine b) Benztropine c) Hexamethonium d) Succinylcholine

176. Indicate a muscarinic

receptor-blocking drug: a) Scopolamine b) Pipecuronium c) Trimethaphan d) Pilocarpine

177. Which of the following agents

is a ganglion-blocking drug? a) Homatropine b) Hexamethonium c) Rapacuronium d) Edrophonium

178. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

a) Vencuronium b) Scopolamine c) Succinylcholine d) Hexamethonium

179. Which of the following drugs

is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

a) Pancuronium b) Succinylcholine c) Hexamethonium d) Scopolamine

180. Indicate the drug, which is

rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic agents?

a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Homatropine d) Ipratropium

181. The effect of the drug on

parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

a) Eye b) Heart c) Smooth muscle organs d) Glands

182. The mechanism of atropine action is:

a) Competitive ganglion blockade b) Competitive muscarinic

blockade c) Competitive neuromuscular

blockade d) Noncompetitive

neuromuscular blockade

183. The tissues most sensitive to atropine are:

1. The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands

2. The gastric parietal cells 3. Smooth muscle and autonomic

effectors 4. The heart

184. Atropine is highly selective

for: a) M1 receptor subtype b) M2 receptor subtype c) M3 receptor subtype d) All of the above


antimuscarinic drugs is often effective in preventing or reversing vestibular disturbances, especially motion sickness?

a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Scopolamine d) Homatropine

186. Atropine causes: a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular

pressure and cyclospasm b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular

pressure and cycloplegia c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular

pressure and cycloplegia d) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular

pressure and cyclospasm

187. Patients complain of dry or “sandy” eyes when receiving large doses of:

a) Atropine b) Hexamethonium c) Pilocarpine d) Carbachol

188. All of the following parts of the

heart are very sensitive to muscarinic receptor blockade except:

a) Atria b) Sinoatrial node c) Atrioventricular node d) Ventricle

189. Atropine causes: a) Bradycardia, hypotension and

bronchoconstriction b) Tachycardia, little effect on blood

pressure and bronchodilation c) Decrease in contractile strength,

conduction velocity through the AV node

d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation

190. Atropine is frequently used prior to administration of inhalant anesthetics to reduce:

a) Muscle tone b) Secretions c) Nausea and vomiting d) All of the above

191. Atropine is now rarely used

for the treatment of peptic ulcer because of: a) Slow gastric empting and

prolongation of the exposure of the ulcer bed to acid

b) Low efficiency and necessity of large doses

c) Adverse effects d) All of the above


antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker?

a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Pirenzepine d) Homatropine

193. Atropine causes:

a) Spasmolitic activity b) Intestinal hypermotility c) Stimulation of contraction in

the gut d) Stimulation of secretory

activity

194. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of uterine spasms?

a) Carbachol b) Vecuronium c) Atropine d) Edrophonium

195. Atropine may cause a rise in

body temperature (atropine fever):

a) In adults b) In pregnant women c) In infants and children d) All of the above

196. The pharmacologic actions of

scopolamine most closely resemble those of:

a) Hexamethonium b) Atropine c) Succinylcholine d) Pilocarpine

197. Compared with atropine,

scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a) More marked central effect b) Less potent in decreasing

bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion

c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia

d) Lower effects on the heart, bronchial muscle and intestines

198. Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic:

a) Pilocarpine b) Neostigmine c) Homatropine d) Ipratropium


is used as an inhalation drug in asthma?

a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Lobeline d) Homatropine


is most effective in regenerating cholinesterase associated with skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions?

a) Suscinilcholine b) Pralidoxime c) Pirenzepine d) Propiverine

201. Indicate an antimuscarinic

drug, which is effective in the treatment of mushroom poising:

a) Pralidoxime b) Pilocarpine c) Homatropine d) Atropine

202. Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of the following disorders EXCEPT:

a) Motion sickness b) Glaucoma c) Hyperhidrosis d) Asthma

203. The atropine poisoning

includes all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot

and flushed skin c) Agitation and delirium d) Bradicardia, orthostatic

hypotension

204. The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with:

a) Neostigmine b) Hexametonium c) Homatropine d) Acetylcholine

205. Contraindications to the use of

antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following except: a) Glaucoma b) Myasthenia c) Bronchial asthma d) Paralytic ileus and atony of

the urinary bladder

206. Hexamethonium blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at: a) Muscarinic receptor site b) Neuromuscular junction c) Autonomic ganglia d) Axonal transmission


is a short-acting ganglion blocker?

a) Homatropine b) Trimethaphane c) Hexamethonium d) Pancuronium

208. Ganglion blocking drugs are

used for the following emergencies EXCEPT: a) Hypertensive crises b) Controlled hypotension c) Cardiovascular collapse d) Pulmonary edema

209. Agents that produce

neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting: a) Interaction of acetylcholine

with cholinergic receptors b) Release of acetylcholine from

prejunctional membrane c) Packaging of acetylcholine

into synaptic vesicles d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into

the nerve ending

210. Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at several sites, including all of the following EXCEPT: a) Nicotinic acethylcholine

receptors b) Muscarinic acethylcholine

receptors c) The motor end plate d) Contractile apparatus

211. Nondepolarisation

neuromuscular blocking agents: a) Block acetylcholine reuptake b) Prevent access of the

transmitter to its receptor and depolarization

c) Block transmission by an excess of a depolarizing agonist

d) All of the above

212. Which of the following drugs has “double-acetylcholine” structure?

a) Rocuronium b) Carbachol c) Atracurium d) Succylcholine

213. Indicate the long-acting

neuromuscular blocking agent: a) Rapacuronium b) Mivacurium c) Tubocurarine d) Rocuronium

214. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle relaxant?

a) Vecuronium b) Tubocurarine c) Pancuronium d) Rapacuronium

215. Which competitive

neuromuscular blocking agent could be used in patients with renal failure?

a) Atracurium b) Succinylcholine c) Pipecuronium d) Doxacurium

216. Which depolarizing agent has

the extremely brief duration of action?

a) Mivacurium b) Rapacuronium c) Rocuronium d) Succinylcholine

217. Depolarizing agents include all

of the following properties EXCEPT:

a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor activation

b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarisation of the end plate

c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysis

d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockade

218. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle fasciculations?

a) Mivacurium b) Pancuronium c) Succinylcholine d) Tubocurarine

219. Which neuromuscular

blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of histamine?

a) Succylcholine b) Tubocurarine c) Pancuronium d) Rocuronium

220. Indicate the neuromuscular

blocker, which causes tachycardia:

a) Tubocurarine b) Atracurium c) Pancuronium d) Succinylcholine

221. Which neuromuscular

blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?

a) Tubocurarine b) Succinylcholine c) Pancuronium d) Gallamine

222. All of the following drugs increase the effects of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents EXCEPT: a) Aminoglycosides b) Antiarrhythmic drugs c) Nondepolarizing blockers d) Local anesthetics


diseases can augment the neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing muscle relaxants?

a) Myasthenia gravis b) Burns c) Asthma d) Parkinsonism

224. Indicate the agent, which

effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs:

a) Atropine b) Neostigmine c) Acetylcholine d) Pralidoxime

2. Analgesia:

1. Indicate the narcotic analgesic,

which is a natural agonist: a) Meperidine b) Fentanyl c) Morphine d) Naloxone

2. Select the narcotic analgesic, which is an antagonist or partial mu receptor agonist:

a) Fentanyl b) Pentazocine c) Codeine d) Methadone


is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

a) Meperidine b) Buprenorphine c) Naloxone d) Butorphanol

4. The principal central nervous

system effect of the opioid analgesics with affinity for a mu receptor is:

a) Analgesia b) Respiratory depression c) Euphoria d) All of the above

5. Most strong mu receptor

agonists cause: a) Hypertension b) Increasing the

pulmonary arterial pressure and myocardial work

c) Cerebral vasodilatation, causing an increase in intracranial pressure

d) All of the above

6. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:

a) Constipation b) Dilatation of the biliary duct c) Urinary retention d) Bronchiolar constriction

7. Therapeutic doses of the opioid

analgesics: a) Decrease body temperature b) Increase body temperature c) Decrease body heat loss d) Do not affect body

temperature

8. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in obstetric labor?

a) Fentanyl b) Pentazocine c) Meperidine d) Buprenorphine

9. Indicate the opioid analgesic,

which is used for relieving the acute, severe pain of renal colic:

a) Morphine b) Naloxone c) Methadone d) Meperidine

10. Which of the following opioid

analgesics is used in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema?

a) Morphine b) Codeine

c) Fentanyl d) Loperamide

11. The diagnostic triad of opioid

overdosage is: a) Mydriasis, coma and

hyperventilation b) Coma, depressed respiration

and miosis c) Mydriasis, chills and

abdominal cramps d) Miosis, tremor and vomiting

12. Which of the following opioid

agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose?

a) Pentazocine b) Methadone c) Naloxone d) Remifentanyl

13. Non-narcotic analgesics are

mainly effective against pain associated with:

a) Inflammation or tissue damage

b) Trauma c) Myocardial infarction d) Surgery

14. Non-narcotic agents cause:

a) Respiratory depression b) Antipyretic effect c) Euphoria d) Physical dependence

15. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

a) Phenylbutazone b) Ketamine c) Aspirin d) Tramadol

16. Which one of the following

non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?

a) Paracetamol b) Ketorolac c) Acetylsalicylic acid d) Ibuprofen

17. Most of non-narcotic

analgetics have: a) Anti-inflammatory

effect b) Analgesic effect c) Antipyretic effect d) All of the above

18. Indicate the non-narcotic

analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

a) Naloxone b) Paracetamol c) Metamizole d) Aspirin

19. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) It inhibits mainly peripheral COX

b) It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

c) It inhibits platelet aggregation

d) It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

20. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

b) Peptic ulcers c) Thromboembolism d) Metabolic acidosis


undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

a) Gastritis with focal erosions

b) Tolerance and physical addiction

c) Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

d) Reversible renal insufficiency

22. Characteristic findinds of salicylism include:

a) Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

b) Tinnitus and difficulty in hearing

c) Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

d) All of the above

23. Narcotic agonists: most serious adverse effect:

a) cardiac arrhythmias b) respiratory depression c) convulsions d) endogenous depression 24. Physiological effects of

morphine: a) chronic diahrrea b) mydriasis c) respiratory depression d) A & C

25. An opioid with both agonist

and antagonist properties: a) morphine b) meperidine (Demerol) c) pentazocine (Talwain) d) oxycodone (Roxicodone)

26. Descriptive of the drug that may have an agonist effect at one opioid receptor site and an antagonist effect at another opioid receptor site.

a) full agonist b) pure antagonist c) mixed agonist-antagonist d) endorphin e) Dynorphins

27. Principal alkaloid in opium

(derived from opium poppy) a) morphine b) fentanyl (Sublimaze) c) codeine d) naloxone (Narcan) e) meperidine (Demerol)

28. Opioid effect least likely to

exhibit tolerance following prolonged opioid administration:

a) analgesia b) bradycardia c) respiratory depression d) Miosis e) Euphoria

29. Opioid antagonist with

shortest duration of action: a) naloxone (Narcan) b) nalmefene (Revex) c) naltrexone (ReVia) d) all about equal duration of

action

e) these agents are not opioid antagonists

30. Contraindications/caution for opioid use:

a) patients with Addison's disease

b) patients with impaired pulmonary function

c) patients with head injury d) B & C e) A, B & C

31. Signs and symptoms of acute

opioid withdrawal (abstinence syndrome)

a) yawning b) lacrimation c) hyperventilation d) diarrhea e) all the above

32. In obstetrical

applications:opioid less likely to produce respiratory depression in the newborn

a) meperidine (Demerol) b) morphine

3. Anaesthesia:

1. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:

a. Analgesia b. Loss of consciousness,

inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes

c. Amnesia d. All of the above

2. Inhaled anesthetics and

intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties:

a. Directly activate GABAA receptors

b. Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors

c. Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission

d. Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels

3. An ideal anesthetic drug would:

a. Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure rapid recovery

b. Posses a wide margin of safety c. Be devoid of adverse effects d. All of the above

4. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?

a. Thiopental b. Desfluran c. Ketamine d. Propofol

5. Indicate the anesthetic, which

is used intravenously: a. Propofol b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide


inhalants is a gas anesthetic? a. Halothane b. Isoflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Desflurane


inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?

a. Nitrous oxide b. Desflurane c. Sevoflurane d. All of the above

8. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,

which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:

a. Isoflurane b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide

9. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an induction agent of choice in patient with airway problems?

a. Desfurane b. Nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. None of the above

10. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,

which causes the airway irritation:

a. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Desflurane


inhaled anesthetics can produce hepatic necrosis?

a. Soveflurane b. Desflurane c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide

12. Unlike inhaled anesthetics,

intravenous agents such as thiopental, etomidate, and propofol:

a. Have a faster onset and rate of recovery

b. Provide a state of conscious sedation

c. Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia

d. All of the above

13. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:

a. Fentanyl b. Thiopental c. Midazolam d. Ketamine


intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?

a. Thiopental b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Fentanyl

15. Indicate the intravenous

anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:

a. Midazolam b. Ketamine c. Fentanyl d. Thiopental

16. Ketamine anesthesia is

associated with: a. Cardiovascular stimulation b. Increased cerebral blood flow,

oxygen consumption and intracranial pressure

c. Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams following anesthesia

d. All of the above

17. Local anesthetics types: shorter duration of action

a. Ester-type agents b. Amide-type agents c. no difference in

duration of action

18. Factors influencing local anesthetic absorption and distribution:

a. presence of vasoconstrictors

b. injection site c. dosage d. A & C e. A, B & C

19. Addition to vasoconstrictors

may prolong/enhance spinal anesthesia by:

a. activating alpha2 adrenergic receptors

b. increase local neuronal local anesthetic uptake

c. both d. neither

20. Effect of clonidine (Catapres)

addition to local anesthetic solutions:

a. enhanced local anesthetic effectiveness

b. reduced local anesthetic effectiveness

c. no clonidine (Catapres) influence on local anesthetic efficacy

21. Effect of local anesthetic-mediated vasodilation on pharmacokinetic characteristics:

a. Greater vasodilation -- longer duration of action; reduced systemic absorption

b. Greater vasodilation -- increased systemic absorption; reduced duration of action

22. Pharmacokinetic characteristic of local anesthetics which favor more rapid onset of action: a. pK farther away from

physiological pH b. pK close to physiological

pH

23. Type of local anesthetic with wider distribution:

a. Amide agents b. Ester agents c. no difference

24. pKa range for most local

anesthetics a. 6.0-7.0 b. 7.0-8.0 c. 8.0-9.0 d. > 9.0

25. Local anesthetics: acid/base properties

a. Local anesthetics are weak acids

b. Local anesthetics are weak bases

c. Local anesthetics have no ionizable groups

26. Factors influencing effectiveness of epinephrine or local anesthesia:

a. choice of local anesthesia b. level of sensory blockade

required or spinal anesthesia c. both d. neither

27. Example(s) of ester-type local

anesthetics: a. procaine (Novocain) b. tetracaine (pontocaine) c. cocaine d. A & C e. A, B & C

28. Clearance: amide local

anesthetic a. rapid hydrolysis b. hepatic mediation c. significant renal excretion

29. Patient presentations which is suggestive of local anesthetic allergy:

a. rash b. urticaria c. laryngeal edema d. bronchospasm e. all the above

30. Basis/evidence for local

anesthetic allergies: a. clinical history b. intradermal testing c. both d. neither

31. Primary side effect(s) of local

anesthetics:

a. Allergic reactions b. Systemic toxicity c. both d. neither

32. Factor(s) which influence the

extent of local anesthetic systemic absorption

a. initial dose administered b. injection site vascularity c. whether or not epinephrine

was used to provide local vasoconstriction

d. properties of the drug itself e. all the above

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