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MOCK TEST PRE AIIMS RISHIKESH

( PART-01)

1) A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment, and confusion is known as?

a) Alzheimer disease b) Cerebral palsy c) Tourette syndrome d) Myasthenia gravis 2) This sign/reflex used to diagnose meningitis : a) Hormans b) Brudzinski c) Anterior drawer d) Drawer 3) Demyelination is defined as ?

a) Loss of an axon in a neuron b) Loss of dendrites in a neuron

c) Loss of protective sheath surrounding neurons d) Loss of the connective tissue between neurons

4) Serotonin and dopamine are?a) Neurotransmitters b) Components of CSF

c) Only found in patients with neurological disorders d) Components of the myelin sheath

5) A sulcus is also known as a?a) Cortex b) Fissure c) Lobe d) Medulla

6) The cauda equine is located?a) At the beginning of the spinal cord above the atlas b) In the cerebellum

c) Between vertebrae d) At the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra

7) Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing and other vital functions?a) Brainstem b) Gray matter c) Occipital lobe d) White matter

8) A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a (an) ?a) Glial cell b) Epithelial cell c) Neuron d) Proton

9) The term convulsion means a (an)?a) Injury resulting from a blow b) Tremor c) Violent involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations d) Involuntary and quick repetitious spasms of a muscle

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Instructions:-

Read all Questions carefully. All Questions carry equal marks. There will be negative Marking according to Rule.

GOLDEN CHANCE TO BECOME A GOVT. NURSE.. TEST ID : SN 01/16/18 [A]

Time :-3:00 Hours Total Question:- 200 Total Marks :- 200


10) Which of the following procedures is used to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid?a) Myelography b) Cerebral angioplasty c) Lumbar puncture d) MRA

11) Which of the following is transcribed correctly?a) The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG,

and CSS analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.b) The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG,

and CSF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.c) The patient presents with a history of progressive light hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG,

and CSF analysis were all normal. MRH will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.d) The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG,

and ESF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow. 12) The term medulloblastoma refers to a (an)?

a) Soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum b) Star – shaped tumor c) Tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord d) Tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere

13) A chronic disease characterized by a loss of the myelin sheath, causing paresthesias, muscle weakness, and unsteady gait is called ?

a) Multiple sclerosis b) Cerebral palsy c) Huntington chorea d) Narcolepsy14) A type of brain surgery that uses a system of three – dimensional coordinates to locate the operative site is

called ?a) Densitometric b) Microsurgery c) Sterotactic d) Laparoscopic

15) The combining for radicul/o refers to a ?a) Nerve cell b) Membrane c) Nerve root d) Sheath

16) The term anencephalus means a (an) ?a) Congenital absence of the brain and cranial space b) Lack of memory c) Loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact d) Loss of sensation

17) Diminished sensitivity to stimulation is called?a) Hypesthesia b) Anesthesia c) Bradykinesia d) Hyperesthesia

18) The term encephalocele refers to a (an) ?a) Rapidly growing malignant tumor b) Congenital hernia in which meninges protrude throughan opening in the skull or spinal column c) Abnormal smallness of the head d) Protrusion of the brain through any opening in the skull

19) The fluid – filled cavities in the brain containing CSF are called?a) Plexuses b) Sulci c) Synapses d) Ventricles

20) Ovarian harmone relaxine harmone kha se create hota hain.........a) Fish b) LH c) Carpus leuteum d) Carpus albicanse

21) Hysterectomy me kitna blood loss hota haien.......?a)1000 ml b) 2000 ml c) 1500 ml d) 500 ml

22) Contra indication of mgso4......?



a) Hypertension b) Protein uria c) Patellar reflex d) Polyuria 23) Normally testes desend into the scortum......?

a) 20 week b) 30 week c) 36 week to 40 week d) 32 week 24) The average length of the umbilical cord in human is?

a) 35 cm b) 55 cm c) 65 cm d) 45 cm25) Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of gestation?

a) 50 – 60 b) 40 – 50 c) 60 – 70 d) 30 – 40 26) In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last.....?

a) 20 seconds b) 30 seconds c) 60 seconds d) 120 seconds27) The first use of convulsive therapy for the treatment of a disorder in modern times is attributed to

a) Ladislaus von Meduna b) A. E. Bennett c) Egas Moniz d) Kurt Schneider 28) The first therapeutic use of electrically induced seizures in the treatment of mental disorders is related to a) Harold Sackeim b) Luigi Bini and Ugo Cerletti c) D. Goldman d) G. Holmberg and S. Thesieff 29) The sequence of administration of medications in anesthesia for ECT is :

a) Atropine thiopentone / methohexitol succinylcholine b) Succinylcholine atropine thiopentone / methohexitol c) Atracurium succinylcholine atropine d) Atropine succinylecholine thiopentone / methohexitol

30) As per the current evidence, which statement is NOT correct?a) Bilateral ECT is superior in efficacy to unilateral ECT. b) Unilateral ECT is more likely to cause cognitive deficits.c) Brief – pulse ECT delivery is associated with decreased cognitive deficits.d) Unilateral ECT is administered to the non – dominant hemisphere

31) Find the value of X and Y :- 8X- 9Y=6XY, 10 X+ 6 Y= 19 XYa) X=3/4, Y=4/3 b) X=4/3, Y=3/4 c) X=3/2, Y=2/3 d) X=2/3 , Y=3/2

32) A shopkeeper cheats to the extent of 10 % while buying and 15 % while selling by using, false weight his to total gain is:

a) 28 % b) 30 % c) 32 % d)26.50 %33) A man is 30 times older than his son. 18 years later he will be only thrice as old as his son. What is man`s

present age is? a) 38 years b) 40 years c) 33 years d) 45 years

34) A is salary is 25 % that of b and 40 % that of C`s. what present of C`s salary is B`s salary?a) 62.50 % b) 160% c) 120% d) 125.50 %

35) In a examination 65 % students were passed. If 630 students were failed, then the total student of class?a) 1800 b) 2100 c) 1400 d) 800

36) A person invests Rs 1000/- at an annual rate of interest of 13 % compound annually. What is the amount he will gets after 4 years?

a) 1699.3 b) 1630.4 c) 1348.2 d) 1877.2 37) Find the average of first 30 multiple of 8 ?

a) 126 b) 124 c) 128 d) 132 38) If a can do a work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days, then in how many days can they

complete the work working together?a) 15 days b) 7/50 days c) 6 days d) 23 days



39) If a/6 = b/8 then a : b : c is?a) 4 : 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 : 2 c) 3 : 6 : 4 d) 3 : 4 : 6

40) 12+ 3 ×2 =a) 18 b) 44 c) 12 d) 20

( PART-02)

41) Which of the following drugs is associated with lower seizure thresholds when administering ECT? a) Lithium b) Anticonvulsants c) Benzodiazepines d) Barbiturates

42) What is the minimum seizure duration required for effectiveness of ECT?a) 1 to 3 seconds b) 5 to 10 seconds c) 30 to 90 seconds d) 180 to 200 seconds

43) What is the best accepted placement of electrodes in unilateral ECT?a) Bifrontotemporal b) Paritotemporal c) Occipital d) D’Elia position

44) What is considered as the gold standard for confirmation of seizure in ECT?a) Cuff method b) Electroencephalography (EEG) c) Electromyogram (EMG) d) Galvanic Skin Response 45) What is the average mortality rate with ECT ( modified) ?

a) 3 – 4 per 100,000 b) 10 – 25 per 100,000 c) 10 – 20 per 10,000 d) 50 – 60 per 1000,0046) Factors predisposing to postictal state include, all EXCEPT :

a) Sine wave ECT b) High – dose ECT c) Existing CNS disease d) A younger age group47) Which is the best unit for quantification of ECT stimuli?

a) Millicoulombs (mC) b) Joules c) Watts d) Volt 48) Which of the following is NOT a recommended preparation for ECT procedure?

a) Informed consent in writingb) Pre-ECT investigationsc) Morning bath, cleaning the oil from the head, overnight fastd) Administration of an anticonvulsant 30 minutes before ECT

49) The most common indication of ECT is:a) Schizophrenia b) Generalized Anxiety Disorder c) Manic episodes d) Major depression

50) rTMS is found to have antidepressant properties when applied to

a) Temporal–parietal regions of the cortex b) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC)c) Occipital cortex d) Parieto-occipital cortex

51) If LFFQ is coded as KEEP, how will you code TLJQa) SKIP b) RABBIT c) SLEEP d) WORK

52) Choose the missing term? A, C, F, H, ? , M

a) A b) D c) C d) K53) Choose the missing term?

AZ, BY , CX, ?a) ZD b) DW c) HG d) KU

54) A boy walks 20 m towards South, then he turning to his right he walks 10 m. Now which direction is he facing?

a) West b) East c) North d) South 55) Find the missing number:- 5,6,7,…, 9, 10

a) 6 b) 8 c) 7 d) 556) Cat is to mouse as cow is to?

a) Book b) River c) Sky d) Grass 57) Find out odd one out ?

a) Lunch b)Dinner c) Photo d) Breakfast



58) If 10 August 2001 on Tuesday then 15 September 2002 which day of the week?a) Thursday b) Wednesday c) Saturday d) Sunday

59) How many degree angle when the Time is 4:45 AM?a) 127.5 b) 137. 5 c) 140 d) 160

60) In the following which year we can use the calendar of 2007?a) 2014 b) 2010 c) 2012 d) 2018

61) The most persistent adverse effect of ECT is

a) Retrograde amnesia b) Fractures c) Seizures d) Hypertension62) Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?

a) Aldosterone d) Cortisol c) Adrenaline d) Both adrostenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone

63) Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the developmentOf:

a) Toxic goitre b) Cretinism c) Simple goitre d) Thyrotoxicosis 64) Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of

a)Tetany b) Gout c) Anaemia d) Angina pectoris 65) Which one of the following pair of organs includes only the endocrine glands?

a) Thymus and testes b) Adrenal and ovary c) Pancreas and parathyroid d) Adrenal and parathyroid

66) The contraction of gall bladder is due to a) Gastrin b) Secretin c) Cholecystokinin d) Enterogastrone 67) Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone a) Gastrin b) Enterogastrone c) Cholecystokinin d) Pancreozymin

68) The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of a) Thyroxine b) Calcitonin c) Parathormone d) Both calcitonin and parathormone

69) A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterized byi) a low metabolic rate ii) increase in body and iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is a) Cretinism b) Myxodema c) Simple goitre d) Hypothyroidism

70) Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and HormoneSour function a) Vassopressin Posterior pituitaryIncreases loss of water through urineb) NorepinephrineAdrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness.c) Prolactin Posterior pituitaryRegulates growth of mammary glands and milk

Formation infemales.71) Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

a) Glucagon - beta cells (source) b) Insulin –diabetes mellitus (disease) c) Somatostatin –delta cells (source) d) Corpus luteum –relaxin (secretion) 72) Back bone of public health nursing is

a) Environmental sanitation b) Health as c) Home visiting d) Planning and evaluation

73) Radiation sickness is otherwise known asa) Radiation poisoning b) Leukemia c) Acute radiation syndrome d) Shortening of life

74) hich day is observed as World Population Day? a) June 11 b) July 11 c) April 11 d) May 11

75) If the first stage of labour is prolonged IV glucose is given to prevent a) Foetal distress b) Hemorrhage c) Maternal distress d) 1 and 3

76) Which client is at risk for opportunistic diseases such as pneumocystis pneumonia?a) The client with cancer who is being treated with chemotherapyb) The client with Type I diabetesc) The client with thyroid diseased) The client with Addison’s disease

77) The mosquito which transmits yellow fever is a) Mansonoides b) Anopheles mosquitoes c ) Culex d) Aedes aegypti



78) A patient has a diagnosis of psoriasis. Her nurses’aide should:a)Avoid contact with the highly contagious lesions.b)Wear gloves for patient care.c)Treat her the same as any other patient with a non-infectious disease.d)Wear a mask when entering the room.

79) Milk is a good source of all vitamins except a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D 80) The generally accepted term of community health nurse is

a) Sector nurse b) Care giver of the communityc) Private health nurse d)Pubcheae

(PART- 03)

81) Which Indian University has discovered a pigment in wild edible mushroom that may help fight against cancer?a) Goa University b) IISC Bangalore c) IIT Roorkee d) University of

Calcutta82) Which union ministry has launched technology challenge to eliminate human entry into

septic tanks?a) Ministry of Urban Development b) Ministry of Drinking Water and

Sanitation

c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs d) Ministry of Rural Development

83) The India-Korea Technology Exchange Centre has been established in which city?a) New Delhi b) Chennai c) Pune d) Shimla

84) Who has become the 2nd Indian mountaineer to climb Mt Ojos del Salado, the highest volcano in the world?a) Malavath Purna b) Premlata Agarwal c) Satyarup Siddhanta d) Love Raj

Singh Dharmshaktu85) The Rajasthan government has signed a MoU with which techonological giant to provide

free digital training to students?a) Facebook b) Microsoft c) Infosys d) Wipro

86) For the first time, which Indian Naval Aircraft has been deployed for Rim of Pacific Multinational Naval exercise (RIMPAC-18)?a) Poseidon Eight India (P 8I) b) Poseidon Nine India (P 9I)

c) Poseidon Seven India (P 7I) d) Poseidon Six India (P 6I)

87) The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) has adopted which resolution to protect children in armed conflict?a) Resolution 2657 b) Resolution 2537 c) Resolution 2347 d)

Resolution 242788) Which state government has launched the ‘Anna Canteens’ across the state that will offer

subsidised food for the poor?a) Karnataka b) Odisha c) Andhra Pradesh d) Kerala

89) Which state government will launch ‘One farmer one transformer’ scheme to curb electricity losses?a) Punjab b) Maharashtra c) Rajasthan

d) Goa90) India’s first private sector unit for manufacturing Unmanned Air Vehicles (UAV) and Light

Bullet Proof Vehicles (LBPV) will be set up in which city?



a) Patna b) Kota c) Indore d) Guwahati

91) Which of the below given words spelt correctly?a) Faxsimile b) Fachsimile c) Facsimile d)

Factsimile 92) Complete the idioms : My mother said “ Speak of the ………as she saw him walking down

the stairs” a) Man b) Woman c) Devil c) God

93) Identify the given sentence Oh my God that isstunning !a) Imperative b) Exclamatory c) Declarative d)

Interrogative 94) Complete the idioms: His name rings a …………… but I am unable to remember him

a) Bell b) Toll c) Cymbal d) Chime

95) She usually ……….the baby down for sleep at this time.a) Lies b) Lied c) Lay d)

Lays 96) What is synonym of: Curious

a) Unconcerned b) Inquisitive c) Disinterested d) Ordinary

97) Find the odd word out: and , or , but, ina) And b) Or c) But d) In

98) I ………………..an IPod last month. a) Have bought b) Buy c) Bought d) Am

buying 99) We want to the ……………… to see how coins are made.

a) Mint b) Winery c) Tannery d) Arsenal 100) What is the Antonym of: Sluggish

a) Lethargic b) Heavy c) Stagnant d) Alert

101) A definite diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis can be ensured witha) Sputum macroscopy b) Chest x – ray c) CT scan of thorax d) Sputum AFB culture

102) Elimination diet refers to diet fora) Allergic conditions b) Diarrohea c) Obesity d) Coeliac diseases

103) FSSAI stands fora) Food safety and security Authority of India b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of Indiac) Food standards and Security Authority of India d) Food Safety and Standards Agency of India

104) Schick test can be done in case ofa) German measles b) Diphtheria c) Measles d) Meningitis

105) The site for commonest limb amputation isa) Above elbow b) Below elbow c) Below knee d) Above knee

106) The raise in pasteurization temperature was done for the complete destruction ofa) Coxiellaburnetli b) E. Coli c) FMD virus d) Salmonella

107) World Health Organization came into function ona) 12th April, 1948 b) 2nd March, 1956 c) 24th April, 1954 d) 7th April, 1948

108) Mallet Finger isa) Flexed MP Joint b) Flexed PIP Joint c) Flexed DIP Joint d) Extended MP Joint



109) Pavlik Harness is indicated ina) Wrist drop b) Foot dropc) Anterior dislocation of shoulder d) congenital dislocation of hip

110) Paratyphoid fever is caused bya) S. Enterilidis b) S. Choleraesuis c) S. Delby d) S. Typhi

111) A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and threadypulses, hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should suspect:

a) Renal failure b) Sepsis c) Pneumonia d) Dehydration112) To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should

a) Uses a small suction cup placed on the lensesb) Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the corneac) Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adhenes to the lensesd) Tenses the lateral can thus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient

113) A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post – operative period, the nurse shoulda) Monitor the patient’s vital signs and log roll him to prone positionb) Monitor the patient’s vital signs and encourage him to ambulatec) Monitor the patient’s vital signs and anscultate his bowel soundsd) Monitor the patient’s vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet

114) A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his as :a) Generalized burning sensation b) Intermittent colicky painc) Gnawing sensation relieved by food d) Colicky pain intensified by food

115) Cellulitis on the on the floor of mouth is known as….?a) Stomatitis b) Glositis c) Angina pectoris d) Angina Ludoviel

116) Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be :

a) Intermittent elaudication b) Pitting edema of the areac) Severe pain when raising the legs d) Localized warmth and tenderness of the site

117) MAO inhibitors produce mood elevation because theya) Block synthesis of dopamine b) Increase synthesis of serotoninc) Decreases breakdown of serotonin d) None of the above

118) Which of the following neurotransmitter is known to be associated with sleep, mood and appetite ?a) Acetylcholine b) Dopamine c) Serotonin d) GABA

119) Birth weight of a child triples bya) One and a half years b) Six months c) One year d) Two years

120) After a thoracentesis, observe the client fora) Periods of confusion b) Expectoration of bloodc) Increased breath sounds d) Decreased respiratory rate

(PART-04)

121) Compression – Ventilation ratio during CPR on an adult victim isa) 5 : 1 b) 15 : 2 c) 30 : 1 d) 30 : 2

122) Which sensation does not reach the thalamic nuclei before it is relayed to cerebral cortex?a) Vision b) Taste c) Hearing d) Smell

123) Increasing end tidal carbon dioxide concentration seen in capnography during anaesthesia can be due to excepta) Hypoventilation b) Exhausted sodalime c) Pulmonary embolism d) Hyper pyrexia



124) Largest gland in the bodya) Thyroid b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Parotid gland

125) The drug used to reduce fevera) Antipyretic b) Antispasmodic c) Analgesic d) Antiplatelet

126) Assessment of gestational age at birth is done usinga) New Ballard score b) APGAR c) Bhakoo score d) Downe score

127) Which is the preferred Glucocorticoid used in the treatment of raised intracranial tension ?a) Hydrocortisone b) Dexamethasone c) Prednisolone d) Triameinolone

128) Electra complex isa) A male child’s unconscious desire to posses mother by eliminating fatherb) A female child’s unconscious desire to possess mother by eliminating fatherc) A female child’s unconscious desire to possess father by eliminating motherd) A male child’s unconscious desire to possess father by eliminating mother

129) Which among the following is a live attenuated vaccine ?a) BCG vaccine b) Cholera vaccine c) Diphtheria vaccine d) Tetanus vaccine

130) Prolonged use of vaso constrictor nasal drops result ina) Vasomotor rhinitis b) Allergic rhinitis c) Rhinitis sicca d) Rhinitis medicamentosa

131) In disinfection of well, the dosage of bleaching powder isa) 1 gm/1000 litre b) 1.5 gm/1000 litre c) 205 gm/1000 litre d) 5 gm/1000 litre

132) A 25 old male patient presented in the casualty with history of trauma and bleeding from the nose. On examination he has Le Fort – 11 fracture. What is the first line management ?

a) Oxygen b) Reduction of fracture c) Blood transfusion d) Airway maintenance133) The reference value for a glucose challenge test

a) 130 – 140 mg/dl b) 110 – 120 mg/dl c) 150 – 160 mg/dl d) 170 – 180 mg/dl134) The lack of oxygen in the tissues in known as

a) Anoxaemia b) Anoxia c) Dyspnoca d) Asphyxia135) Which of the following antibiotics can be prescribed safety to an asthmatic on theophylline ?

a) Ciprofloxacin b) Erythromycin c) Levofloxacin d) Clarithromycin136) Infancy is a period from

a) 0 – 1 year b) 1 – 3 years c) 3 – 6 years d) 6 – 12 years137) Which is the most important local factor responsible for wound healing ?

a) Tissue oxygenation b) Absence of foreign bodyc) Absence of infection d) Absence of tension in wound

138) A patient is admitted for evaluation of aggressive behavior and diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. A key part of the care of such a client is :

a) Setting realistic limits b) Encouraging the client to express remorse for behaviorc) Minimizing interactions with other clientsd) Encouraging the client to act out feelings of rage

139) A patient is admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. The patient’s medication history includes vitamin – D supplements and calcium. What type of stroke is this patient at MOST risk for ?

a) Ischemic thrombosis b) Ischemic embolism c) Hemorrhagic d) Ischemic stenosis140) Which patient below is at most risk for a hemorrhagic stroke ?

a) A 65 year old male patient with carotid stenosis.b) A 89 year old female with atherosclerosis.c) A 88 year old male with uncontrolled hypertension and a history of brain aneyrysm repair 2 years ago.d) A 55 year old female with atrial flutter

141) You’re educating a patient about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Select all the options that are incorrect



about this condition :a) TIAs are caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain.b) TIAs produce signs and symptoms that can last for several weeks to monthsc) A TIAs is a warning sign that an impending stroke may occurd) TIAs don’t require medical treatment

142) A patient who suffered a stroke one month ago is experiencing hearing problems along with issues learning and showing emotion. On the MRI what lobe in the brain do you expect to be affected ?

a) Frontal lobe b) Occipital lobe c) Parietal lobe d) Temporal143) A patient’s MRI imaging shows damage to the cerebellum a week after the patient suffered a stroke.

What assessment findings would correlate with this MRI finding ?a) Vision problems b) Balance impairmentc) Language difficulty d) Impaired short – term memory

144) A patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms of stroke. The patient reports loss of vision. What area of the brain do you suspect is affected based on this finding ?

a) Brain stem b) Hippocampus c) Parictal lobe d) Occipital lobe145) You’re patient who had a stroke has issues with understanding speech. What type of aphasia is

this patient experiencing and what area of the brain is affected ?a) Expressive ; Wernicke’s area b) Receptive, Broca’s areac) Expressive ; hippocampus d) Receptive ; Wernicke’s area

146) You’re patient has expressive aphasia. Select all the ways to effectively communicate with this patient?a) Fill in the words for the patient they can’t say. b) Don’t repeat questions.c) Ask questions that require a simple response. d) Use a communication board.

147) While conversing with a patient who had a stroke six months ago, you note their speech is hard to understand and slurred. This is known as:

a) Dysarthria b) Apraxia c) Alexia d) Dysphagia148) You’re reading the physician’s history and physical assessment report. You note the physician wrote

that the patient has apraxia. What assessment finding in your morning assessment correlates with this condition?a) The patient is unable to read.b) The patient has limited vision in half of the visual field.c) The patient is unable to wink or move his arm to scratch his skin.d) The patient doesn’t recognize a pencil or television.

149) You need to obtain informed consent from a patient for a procedure. The patient experienced a stroke three months ago. The patient is unable to sign the consent from because he can’t write. This is known as what ?

a) Agraphia b) Alexia c) Hemianopia d) Apraxia150) You’re assessing your patient’s pupil size and vision after a stroke. The patient says they can only see half of

the objects in the room. You document this finding as :a) Hemianopia b) Opticopsia c) Alexia d) Dysoptic

151) A patient who has hemianopia is at risk for injury. What can you educate the patient to perform regularly to prevent injury ?

a) Wearing anti – embolism stockings daily b) Consume soft foods and tuck in chin while swallowingc) Scanning the room from side to side frequently d) Muscle

152) You receive a patient who is suspected of experiencing a stroke from EMS. You conduct a stroke assessment with the NIH Stroke Scale. The patient scores a 40. According to the scale, the result is;

a) No stroke symptoms b) Severe stroke symptomsc) Mild stroke symptoms d) Moderate stroke symptoms

153) In order for tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) to be most effective in the treatment of stroke. It must be administered?



a) 6 hours after the onset of stroke symptomsb) 3 hours before the onset of stroke symptomsc) 3 hours after the onset of stroke symptomsd) 12 hours before the onset of stroke symptoms

154) Which patients are NOT a candidate for tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for the treatment of stroke?a) A patient with a CT scan that is negativeb) A patient whose blood pressure is 200/110c) A patient who is showing signs and symptoms of ischemic stroked) A patient who received Heparin 24 hours ago.

155) You’re assisting a patient who has right side hemiparesis and dysphagia with eating. It is very important to:a) Keep the head of bed less than 30.b) Check for pouching of food in the right cheek.c) Prevent aspiration by thinning the liquidsd) Have the patient extend the neck upward away from the chest while eating

156) A patient has experienced right side brain damage. Your note the patient is experiencing neglect syndrome. What nursing intervention will you include in the patient’s plan of care?

a) Remind the patient to use and touch both sides of the body daily.b) Offer the patient a soft mechanical diet with honey thick liquidsc) Ask direct questions that require one word responsesd) Offer the bedpan and bedside commode every 2 hours.

157) Which statement about how sickle cell anemia is passed to offspring is CORRECT?a) This disease is an x – linked recessive disease.b) Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal dominant diseasec) This condition is an autosomal recessive diseased) Sickle cell anemia is rarely passed to offspring and is an autosomal x – linked dominant disease.

158) Which type of hemoglobin is present in a patient who has sickle cell anemia?a) Hemoglobin AA b) Hemoglobin AS c) Hemoglobin SS d) Hemoglobin AC

159) Which type of hemoglobin is present in a patient who has sickle cell TRATT?a) Hemoglobin AA b) Hemoglobin AS c) Hemoglobin SS d) Hemoglobin AC

160) During an outpatient well visit with a patient who has sickle cell anemia, you make it PRIORITY to assess the patient’s ?

a) Hemoglobin AIC level b) Heart rate c) Reflexes d) Vaccination history

(PART-05)

161) In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by the ______ cells which are found in the gastic mucasa.

a) Visceral b) Langerhan c) Parietal d) Chief162) Select the patient below who is at MOST risk for pernicious anemia:

a) A 75 year old male who recently had surgery on the ileum.b) A 25 year old female who reports craving ice and clay.c) A 66 year old male whose peripheral blood smear showed hypochromic red blood cells.d) All the patients above are at risk for pernicious anemia.

163) Select ALL the signs and symptoms that can present in pernicious anemia:a) Erythemia b) Paresthesia of hands and feet c) Racing thoughts d) Extreme hunger

164) True or False; Intrinsic factor is a protein that plays a role in how the body absorbs Vitamin B12,a) True b) False c) possible d) Non possible



165) True or False; The ;east common type of anemia is iron – deficiency anemia.a) True b) False c) possible d) Non possible

166) You are providing diet teaching to a patient with low iron levels. Which foods would you encourage the patient to eat regularly?

a) Herbal tea, apples, and watermelon b) Sweet potatoes, artichokes, and packaged meatc) Egg yolks, beef, and legumes d) Chocolate, combread , and cabbage

167) True or False; The body uses hemoglobin to make iron.a) True b) False c) possible d) Non possible

168) True or False; Early signs and symptoms of iron – deficiency anemia are vague.a) True b) False c) possible d) Non possible

169) The _______ layer of the skin helps regulate our body temperature.a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Hypodermis d) Fascia

170) A 58 year old female patient has superficial partial – thickness burns to the anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the right arm, posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg. And back of the left le. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned ?

a) 63% b) 81% c) 72% d) 54%171) A patient has experienced full – thickness burns to the face and neck. As the nurse it is priority to;

a) Prevent hypothermia b) Assess the blood pressurec) Assess the airway d) Prevent infection

172) What are some patient priorities during the emergent phase of burn management?a) Fluid volume b) Respiratory status c) Psychosocial d) Wound closure

173) A patient has full – thickness burns on the front and back of both arm and hands. It is nursing priority to:a) Elevate and extend the extremities b) Elevate and flex the extremitiesc) Keep extremities below heart level and extendedd) Keep extremities level with the heart level and flexed

174) A patient has a question about the Rotavirus vaccine and when it is administered. As the nurse you know that ______ doses are given, and the last dose is given at ____?

a) 2 : 6 months b) 3 : 4 months c) 4 : 4 – 6 years d) 3 : 6 months175) You’re providing a free educational clinic to new moms about immunizations. You inform the attendees

that the Measles. Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given?a) at 6 and 12 months b) 12 months and 4 – 6 years c) at 4 and 6 months d) at 2 and 12 month

176) During your 12 – hour shift from 7p – 7a, what is your patient’s INTAKE and OUTPUT (see below) ?a) Intake: 2200 mL & Output: 1850 mL b) Intake: 2450 mL & Output: 2300 mLc) Intake: 1950 mL & Output: 2400 mL d) Intake: 540 mL & Output: 2450 mL

177) A newborn’s five minute APGAR score is 5. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?

a) Routine post – delivery care b) Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR scorec) Some resuseitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and reassess APGAR score. d) Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score.

178) Regarding the scenario in the question above, when would you reassess the APGAR?a) 2 minutes b) 10 minutesc) 5 minutes d) No reassessment of the APGAR score is needed.

179) A newborn’s one minute APGAR score is 8. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?

a) Routine post – delivery careb) Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score



c) Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutesd) Some resuscitation assistance such as Oxygen.

180) You are providing care to a patient with a chest tube. On assessment of the drainage system, you note continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber and oscillation. Which of the following is the CORRECT nursing intervention for this type of finding?

a) Reposition the patient because the tubing is kinkedb) Continue to monitor the drainage systemc) Increase the suction to the drainage system until the bubbling stops.d) Check the drainage system for an air leak.

181) A patient is receiving positive pressure mechanical ventilation and has a chest tube. When assessing the water seal chamber what do you expect to find?

a) The water in the chamber will increase during inspiration and decrease during expiration

b) There will be in the chamber bubbling noted in the chamber.c) The water in the chamber will decrease during inspiration and increase during

expiration.d) The water in the chamber will not move.

182) A patient is recovering from a pneumothorax and has a chest tube present. Which of the following is an appropriate finding when assessing the chest tube drainage system ?

a) Intermitted bubbling may be noted in the water seal chamber.b) 200 cc of drainage per hour is expected during recovery of a pnemnothorax.c) The chest tube is positioned at the patient`s chest level to facilitate drainage.d) All of the options are appropriate findings.

183) While helping a patient with a chest tube reposition in the bed, the chest tube becomes dislodged, what is your immediate nursing intervention?

a) Stay with the patient and monitor their vital sings while another nurse notifies the physician.

b) Place a sterile dressing over the site and tape it on three sides and notify the physician c) Attempt to re insert the tubed) Keep the site open to air and notify the physican.

184) A patient with a chest tube has no fluctuation of water in the cause of this?a) This is an expected findingb) The lung may have re-expanded or there is a kink in the system.c) The system is broken and needs to be replaced d) There is air leak in the tubing.

185) A patient is recovering from a thyroidectomy. The patient starts to complain of tingling and numbness in the face, toes and fingers. Which of the following findings below warrants attention?a) Ca+ level: 6 mg/dl b) Na+ Level: 145 mg/dl c) K+ level: 3.5 mg/dl d) Phosphate

level: 4.3 mg/dl186) Which of the following patients are Most at risk for hypoparthyroidism ?

a) A 75 years old female who is diabetic and takes Os- Cal daily b) A 59 years old male with a Mg+ level of 0.9 mg/dlc) A 85 year old female complaining of flank pain and constipationd) A 19 year old male with a Ca + Level of 8.9. mg/dl



187) A patient hospitalized with hypoparathyroidism is about to order lunch. Which food selection is best for this patient based on their dietary needs at this time?

a) Baked chicken, green beans and boiled potatoes b) Broccoli salad , cottage cheese and peaches

c) Roast beef carrots and pinto beans d) Hamburger fries and sorbet

188) A physician orders calcium gluconate IV as treatment for a patient with hypoparathyroidism . The patient`s calcium level is 5 mg/dl. Which of the following findings causes you to question this order?

a) The patient is taking Digoxinb) The patient complains of muscle cramping and numbness in the facec) The patient is taking Aluminum carbonate.d) The patient`s phosphate level is 7 mg/dL

189) A patient is recovery from a parathyroidectomy. Which of the following findings causes concern and requires nursing intervention?a) The patient is in Semi-Fowler`s position b) The patient`s calcium level is 8.9

mg/dl

c) The patient`s voice is hoarse d)The patient is drowsy but arouses to name

190) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of Diabetic ketoacidosis?a) Positive Ketones in the urine b) Oliguria c) Polydipsia d)

Abdominal pain 191) Which patient is MOST likely to develop Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

a) A 25 year old female newly diagnosed with Cushing`s Disease taking gloucoctticoids b) A 35 year old male diabetes mellius who has been unable to eat the past 2 days due to

a gastrointinalillness and has been unable to take insulinc) A 35 year old female newly diagnosed with Type-2 diabetesd) None of the options are correct.

192) Which of the following statements are Incorrect about Diabetic Ketoacidosis ?a) Extreme Hyperglyeemia that presents with blood glucose > 600 mg/dLb) Ketones are present in the urine c) Metabolic acidosis is present with kussmaul breathing d) Potassium levels should be at least 3.3 or higher during treatment of DKA with insulin

therapy.193) True or false : when priming the tubing for an Insulin infusion it is best practice to waste

50 cc to 100 cc of insulin prior to staring the infusion because insulin absorbs into the plastic lining of the tubing?

a) True b) False c) possible d) No possible 194) What type of insulin do you expect the doctor to order for treatment of DKA?

a) IV Novolog b) IV Levemir c) IV NPH d) IV Regular Insulin



195) The doctor orders 1000 mL bag of IV normal Saline to infuse at a rate of 50 mL/hr. How long will it take for the IV bag to completely infuse?a) 10 hours b) 2 hours 10 minutes c) 20 hours d) 36

hours 196) Doctor`s order says: 300 mL of normal saline to infuse over 6 hours. What is the hourly

rate?a) 90 mL/hr b) 50 mL/hr c) 100 mL/hr d) 1800

mL/hr197) Doctor`s order says: 2500 mL of D5 1/5 normal Saline to infuse over 1 day. What is the

hourly rate?a) 5000 mL/hr b) 104 mL/hr c) 140 mL/hr d) 24 mL/hr

198) Doctor`s order says: Infuse 1500 mL of lacted Ringer`s over 12 hours, Drip factor 15 gu/mLa) 31 gtt/min b) 32 gtt/min c) 100 gtt/min d) 150

gtt/min 199) Doctor`s order says: 300 mL of Ampicillin sodium 500 mg to infuse over 40 minutes.

Drip factor : 20 gtt/mLa) 20 gtt/min b) 80 gtt/min c) 100 gtt/min d) 150

gtt/min200) Doctor`s order says: Two 250 mL packed red blood Cells to infuse over 4 hours, Drip factor

15 gtt/mL?a) 31 gtt/min b) 19 gtt/min c) 30 gtt/min d)

32 gtt/min



A n s w e rS e t - A

Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans1 A 26 C 51 A 76 A 101 D 126 A 151 C 176 B2 B 27 A 52 D 77 D 102 A 127 B 152 B 177 C3 C 28 B 53 B 78 C 103 B 128 C 153 C 178 B4 A 29 A 54 A 79 B 104 B 129 A 154 C 179 A5 B 30 B 55 B 80 D 105 C 130 D 155 B 180 D6 D 31 C 56 D 81 A 106 A 131 C 156 A 181 C7 A 32 D 57 C 82 C 107 D 132 D 157 C 182 A8 C 33 B 58 C 83 A 108 C 133 A 158 C 183 B9 A 34 B 59 A 84 C 109 D 134 B 159 B 184 B10 C 35 A 60 D 85 B 110 A 135 C 160 D 185 A11 B 36 B 61 A 86 A 111 D 136 A 161 C 186 B12 D 37 B 62 C 87 D 112 B 137 A 162 A 187 B13 A 38 C 63 C 88 C 113 D 138 A 163 B 188 A14 C 39 D 64 A 89 B 114 C 139 B 164 A 189 C15 C 40 A 65 D 90 B 115 D 140 C 165 B 190 B16 B 41 A 66 C 91 C 116 D 141 B 166 C 191 B17 A 42 C 67 B 92 C 117 C 142 D 167 B 192 A18 D 43 D 68 C 93 B 118 C 143 B 168 A 193 A19 D 44 B 69 B 94 A 119 C 144 D 169 C 194 D20 C 45 A 70 B 95 D 120 B 145 D 170 A 195 C21 C 46 D 71 A 96 B 121 D 146 C 171 C 196 B22 C 47 A 72 C 97 D 122 D 147 A 172 B 197 B23 C 48 D 73 D 98 C 123 C 148 C 173 A 198 A24 B 49 D 74 B 99 A 124 B 149 A 174 D 199 D25 C 50 B 75 C 100 D 125 A 150 A 175 D 200 A


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