MOCK TEST IBPS PO MAINS Time Allowed: 120 Minutes … · | | | Page 1 MOCK TEST IBPS PO MAINS...

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MOCK TEST IBPS PO MAINS

Time Allowed: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE

1. This booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following 5 parts: Part - (I): REASONING APTITUDE (50 Question) Part – (II): QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 Question) Part – (III): ENGLISH LANGUAGE (40 Question) Part – (IV): COMPUTER (20 Question) Part – (V): GENERAL AWARENESS (40 Question) 2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. Before you start to answer the question you must check up this booklet and ensure that it contains

all the pages and see that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any defect in this booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.

4. The paper carries negative marking. 0.25 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. 5. You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the

details of Name, Roll number, Test Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant question number by HB pencil or Black/ blue ball pen only.

7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely /different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.

8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.

9. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be deemed fit.

10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.

11. Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.

12. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

IBPS PO Mains 1

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REASONING APTITUDE Directions (1-7): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: Eight persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S from two families are taking breakfast around a round table. Three members are from one family and five belong to other family. Four of them are male members. P, a male member is sitting second to right of R, a female member. In all cases N has same position with respect to O, who is second to left of M, a female member. O is wife of S and is sitting adjacent to her husband. Q is sister of S and is not sitting exactly between R and P. M is immediate left of R. S is sitting immediate right of L. 1. Which of the given statement is wrong?

(1) Q is immediate right of O (2) P is immediate left of L (3) M is sitting between Q and R (4) N is second to left of S (5) R is second to right of Q

2. Who is second to the left of L? (1) M (2) R (3) N (4) O (5) Q

3. How many persons are sitting between L and M when we count anticlockwise? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) None (5) Cannot be determined

4. How many members are there in S’s family? (1) 2 (3) 3 (3) 5 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions (5-7): One out of five groups does not match on the basis of sitting arrangement. Find that group- 5. (1) QOM (2) NRP (3) PNL

(4) SLO (5) None of these 6. (1) PS (2) LO (3) SQ

(4) OM (5) PR 7. (1) R (2) M (3) O

(4) Q (5) L Directions (8 – 12): In these questions symbols @, $, #, &, % are used with different meanings as follows. M @ N means M is neither smaller than nor equal to N M # N means M is neither greater than nor equal to N M $ N means M is neither greater nor smaller than N M % N means M is not greater than N M & N means M is not smaller than N In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is /are definitely true. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II is true 8. Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C # D

Conclusions: I. A#D II. B@D 9. Statements: P&Q, Q%R, R$S

Conclusions: I. Q $ S II. P#S 10. Statements: P&Q, Q@R, R%S

Conclusions: I. Q%S II. P%S 11. Statements: A@B, B#C, C%D

Conclusions: I. B#D II. D@A 12. Statements: A@B, B%C, C@D

Conclusions: I. D$B II. B@D Directions (13-17): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: Eight persons P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are playing a game of musical chairs. The chairs placed around a circular table face away from the table. Each person knows a different language —Oriya, Telugu, Kannada, Punjabi, Bengali, Bhojpuri, Hindi and Malyalam — but not necessarily in the same order. When all of them are sitting in the chairs during the game, the following conditions were fulfilled. R is a Hindi speaker and sits third to the left of T. The Bhojpuri and the Punjabi speaker are

immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the Punjabi nor the Bhojpuri speaker is an immediate neighbour of either T or R.

The Telugu and the Malyalam speaker are immediate neighbours of each other.

Neither T nor S speaks English. The one who speaks Punjabi sits to the left of Q,

who speaks Kannada. P speaks Telugu and is not an immediate neighbour

of the Hindi speaker. Only U sits between the Punjabi and the Oriya

speaker. V sits third to the left of the person who speaks

Malyalam. 13. Which of the following pairs represents

theimmediate neighbours of the Oriya speaker? 1) Punjabi and Bengali 2) Malyalam and Punjabi 3) Telugu and Bengali 4) Kannada and Bhojpuri 5) None of these

14. Who among the following speaks Malyalam? 1)V 2) W 3) U 4)T 5) None of these

15. How many persons sit between the Hindi speaker and S when counted in clockwise direction from the Hindi speaker? 1)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four






16. T speaks which of the following languages? 1)Bhojpuri 2)Bengali 3) Punjabi 4) Oriya 5) None of these

17. Who among the following sits exactly between Q and W? 1) Telugu speaker 2) Bhojpuri speaker 3) Punjabi speaker 4) Oriya speaker 5) Hindi speaker

Directions (18-22):Study the following information and answer the given questions. In a certain code language: ‘driving is not easy’ is written as ‘joro ho go’, ‘rough and tough driving’ is written as ‘no sajo da’, ‘looks easy but dangerous’ is written as ‘airo to po’, and ‘is rough tough dangerous driving’ is written as ‘ho jo no ai da’ 18. What is the code for ‘easy’ in the given code

language? 1)go 2) no 3) sa 4)ro 5) da

19. What is the code for ‘tough’ in the given code language? 1) no 2) da 3) sa 4) Either sa or da 5) Either no or da

20. What may be the possible code for ‘rough but nice’? 1)po bi no 2) no poai 3) no to po 4) no to ai 5)tajo bi

21. What may be the possible code for ‘easy and solved’ inthe given code language? 1) sa go ro 2) saro cu 3) no rosa 4) curo go 5) saro to

22. What is the code for ‘dangerous’ in the given code language? 1) no 2) sa 3) to 4) ai 5) ho

Directions (Q. 23-27): In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) if only conclusion l follows. 2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) if both conclusions I and II follow. (23-24) Statements: All Power are Muscles.

No Tower is a Root. Some muscles are Root.

23. Conclusions: I. All root being power is a possibility. II. Some powers are muscles.

24. Conclusions: I. No muscles is a Tower.

II. Some Tower are muscles. For (25-26)

Statements: No sweet is a drink. Some liquids are solids. All drinks are liquids.

25. Conclusions: I. All drinks are solids. II. Some liquids are definitely not sweets.

26. Conclusions: I. All sweets being liquids is a possibility. II. All liquids being sweets is a possibility.

27. Statement: Some copy are pen. Some pen are not pencil. All marker are copy.

Conclusions : I. Some copy are not pencil. II. All marker are pen. Direction (28-29): In each question below is given a statement followed by two or three assumptions numbered I ,II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

28. Statement: Unable to manage with the present salary, Arun has decided to join another company. Assumptions: I. The new company has better work environment. II. The present company offers moderate pay packets. III. The new company offers higher salary to all its employees. 1. None is implicit 2. Only II is implicit 3. All are implicit 4. Only II and III are implicit 5. None of these

29. Statement: The two countries have signed a fragile pact, but the vital sovereignty issue remains unresolved. Assumptions: I. The two countries cannot have permanent peace pact. II. The two countries may become hostile again after a short spell of time. 1. Only assumption I is implicit 2. Only assumption II is implicit 3. Either I or II is implicit 4. Neither I nor II is implicit 5. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (30): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which is/are 'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your






answer from the alternatives given below each question. 30. Statement:

Should the income generated out of agricultural activities be taxed? Arguments: I. No. Farmers are otherwise suffering from natural calamities and low yield coupled with low procurement price and their income should not be taxed. II. Yes. Majority of the population is dependent on agriculture and hence their income should be taxed to augment the resources. III. Yes. Many big farmers earn much more than the majority of the service earners and they should be taxed to remove the disparity. 1. Only I is strong 2. Only I and II are strong 3. Only II and III are strong 4. All are strong 5. None of these

Direction (31): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 31. Statement:

A's advice to B - "Go to Jammu via Amritsar - the shortest route". Assumptions: B wishes to go to Jammu. A gives advice to everybody. 1. Only assumption I is implicit 2. Only assumption II is implicit 3. Either I or II is implicit 4. Neither I nor II is implicit 5. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (32): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer (1) If only I follows (2) If only II follows (3) If either I or II follows (4) If neither I nor II follows (5) If both I and II follow. 32. Statement:

There has been large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating panic among the internet users. Courses of Action:

I. The government machinery should make an all-out effort to nab those who are responsible and put them behind bars. II. The internet users should be advised to stay away from using internet till the culprits are caught.

Directions (33-37):Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: new 11 bold 22 carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38 Step I: 11 22 new bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38 Step II: it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses 38 Step III. 29 32 it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 45 houses 38 Step IV. bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred 45 houses 38 Step V: 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred houses Step VI: houses hundred 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed above find the appropriate step for the given input. Input:ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates 10 33. Which of the following represents the position of

‘ice' in Step VI? 1) Third from the left 2) Fifth from the right 3) Sixth from the right 4) Fourth from the left 5) None of these

34. Which step will be the last but one? 1) IX 2) VI 3)V 4) VII 5) None of these

35. Which word/number would be at the 5th position from the right in Step V? 1) ice 2) qualify 3)10 4)12 5) money

36. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement? 1) VI 2) VII 3)VIII 4)X 5) IX

37. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between '21' and '12' in Step VII? 1) Eight 2) Five 3) Three 4) Six 5) None of these

Directions (38-40): 38. Govt. of India is providing a unique identity card to

every citizen. Some important information like his blood group, permanent address, bank account number and mobile/telephone number is mentioned on this card to identify that person for






security purpose or in case some serious accident takes place. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above information? 1) In a country like India, which is one of the most populated countries in the world, it is not possible to provide every citizen a unique identification card. 2) None is supposed to forget his phone number under any circumstances. 3) Blood cannot be transfused until its group is mentioned on the card. 4) The police need this information (on the card), especially when the accident is fatal. 5) None of these

39. The government is soon going to introduce a bill in the parliament to allow global retail chains to set up shops in India. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.) 1) Such directions can also be issued without informing the parliament. 2) This move would benefit the country. So the bill must be passed after a discussion in the parliament. 3) Foreign biggies would turf out small retailers. 4) Majority ofthe members in the parliament would never support this bill because it will hurt the poor and its time of arrival is not right. 5) None of these

40. A recent review reported that India's fashion industry has been affected severely due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international market. Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement? 1) India's fashion industry had been growing till last year. 2) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market. 3) The share of the international market is negligible for the fashion goods manufactured in India. 4) Govt has helped India's fashion industry to grow in the past. 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 41-42): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Though Punjab cultivates only 16 lakh tones of rice of premium quality, with rice becoming the second largest food to be consumed in the world after wheat, the government has been trying to export it through sea route which is cheaper. (A) Punjab exports good-quality wheat too. (B) There is no problem in exporting rice through other routes.

(C) Punjab cultivates a large number of medium -or-below- medium quality of rice. (D) Quality rice is preferred for export. 41. Which of the given statements A, B, C and D is

definitely false? 1) Only (B) 2) Only (C) 3) Only (A) 4) Only (B) and (C) 5) None of these

42. Which of the following statements A, B, C and D is definitely true? 1) Only (B) 2) Only (C) 3) Only (D) 4) Both (B) and (D) 5) None of these

Directions (43-47): Study the following information to answer the given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing north. Each one of them lives on a different floor in the same building which is numbered from one to seven. B sits fourth to the left of the person living on the 6thfloor. Either B or the person living on the6thfloor sits at the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits betweenB and G. G lives on the 3rdfloor.The person living on 1stfloor sits third to right of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only one person lives between E and the person who lives on the 2ndfloor. A and C are immediate neighbours of each other. A does not live on the 6thfloor. One who lives on5thfloor sits third to right of the one who lives on the 7thfloor. 43. Who amongst the following lives on the 4thfloor?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F

44. On which of the following floors does E live? (1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 5th (4) 6th (5) 7th

45. On which of the following floors does F live? (1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 4th (5) 5th

46. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement? (1)The one who lives on the 5th floor is an immediate neighbour of D (2) F lives on the 1st floor (3)E sits second to the left of the person who lives on 2ndfloor (4)C and F are immediate neighbours of each other (5) The one who lives on the4th floor sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

47. If all the persons are made to live in alphabetical order from the bottom-(i. e. A lives on the 1st floor. B lives on the 2nd floor and finally G lives on the 7th floor) who would still live on the same floor as the original arrangement? (1) C (2) F (3) G (4) E (5) D

Directions (48-50): Study the following information to answer the given Questions. In a six-letter English word (which may or may not be meaningful) there are three letters between L and E. R






is placed on the immediate right of E, which is on the immediate right of V.A is between B and L and L, is at the right end of the row. All the above letters are six alphabets of the names of the persons and all are looking towards south. 48. Which of the following is correct with respect to the

above information? 1) B is between A and R. 2) E is between R and V. 3) R is between B and E. 4) All the above

5) None of these 49. If all the persons are looking towards north then the

first letter of all the names will be in the order 1) REBVAL 2) VERLAB 3) VERBAL 4) VARBEL 5) None of these

50. What is the positions of A with respect to V? 1) 4th to the right 2) 3rd to the left 3) Immediate right 4) 2nd to the left

5) None of these MATHS

Directions (51–55): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Number Of Males and Females Staying In Various Societies

Societies Males Females A 250 350 B 400 150 C 300 275 D 280 300 E 180 250 F 325 300 Percentage of Children ( Males and Females In

the Societies) Societies Children Male

Children Female Children

A 25% 40% 60% B 40% 75% 25% C 16% 25% 75% D 25% 80% 20% E 40% 50% 50% F 24% 46% 54%

51. What is the respective ratio of the number of adult females to the total number of female children staying in all the societies together? (a) 243 : 82 (b) 112 : 71 (c) 82 : 243 (d) 71 : 112 (e) None of these

52. What is the total number of female children staying in all the societies together? (a) 314 (b) 433 (c) 410 (d) 343 (e) None of these

53. What is the respective ratio of the total number of adult males in societies A and B together to the total number of adult males in societies E and F together? (a) 75 : 79 (b) 14 : 17 (c) 79 : 75 (d) 17 : 14 (e) None of these

54. What is the total number of members staying in all the societies together? (a) 3520 (b) 3360 (c) 4100 (d) 3000 (e) None of these

55. What is the difference between the number of male children t in society B and number of male children in society F? (a) 84 (b) 14 (c) 96

(d) 26 (e) None of these Directions (56-62) Study the graph carefully to answer the following questions.

56. Scheme M offers simple interest at a certain rate of

internet (per cent per annum). If the difference between the interest earned by Gautam and Rudra from scheme M after 4 yr in Rs. 4435.20. What is the rate of interest (per cent per annum)? (a) 17.5 (b) 18 (c) 16.5 (d) 20 (e) 15

57. What is the respective ratio between total amount invested by Gautam in schemes O and Q together and total amount invested by Rudra in the same scheme together? (a) 31: 44 (b) 31 : 42 (c) 27 : 44 (d) 35 : 48 (e) 29 : 38

58. If scheme P offers compound interest (compounded half yearly) at 16% per annum, then what would be sum of interest earned by Gautam and Rudra from scheme P after 1yr?






(a) Rs. 10244 (b) Rs. 10464 (c) Rs. 9872 (d) Rs. 9984 (e) Rs. 9442

59. If scheme O offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 12% per annum, then what is the difference between interest earned by Gautam and Rudra from scheme O after 2 yr? (a) Rs.1628.16 (b) Rs. 1584.38 (c) Rs. 1672.74 (d) Rs. 1536.58 (e) Rs. 1722.96

60. What is the average amount invested by Gautam in schemes M, N, O, P and Q together? (a)Rs. 29248 (b) Rs. 30562 (c) Rs. 31126 (d) Rs. 29688 (e) Rs. 28848

61. Rudra invested in scheme R for 4 yr. If scheme R offers simple interest at 7% per annum for the first two years and then compound interest at 10% per annum (compound annually) for the 3rd and 4th year, then what will be the interest earned by Rudra after 4 yr? (a) Rs.13548 (b) Rs. 12096 (c) Rs. 12242 (d) Rs. 12364 (e) Rs. 11886

62. Amount invested by Gautam in scheme S is equal to the amount invested by him in scheme N. The rate of interest per annum of schemes S and Nare same. The only difference is scheme S offers compound interest (compounded annually), whereas the scheme N offers simple interest. If the difference between the interest earned by Gautam from both the schemes after 2 yr is Rs. 349.92, then what is the rate of interest? (a) 9% (b) 5% (c) 13% (d) 11% (e) 7%

Direction (63-67) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Percentage of population interested in different sports (cricket, football, badminton, tennis, volleyball and hockey) in pie chart and percentage of females interested in these sports in Bar chart.

63. What is the ratio of the number of people interested

in tennis and hockey together to that interested in cricket and volleyball together? (a) 23 : 32 (b) 34 : 43 (c) 101 : 130 (d) 11 : 32 (e) None of these

64. For which of the sports, the percentage of population interested with respect to that of females interested is minimum? (a) Volleyball (b) Badminton (c) Tennis (d) Football (e) None of these

65. What is the difference between the number of females interested in badminton and that in volleyball? (a) 1.5 lakh (b) 2.2 lakh (c) 1.8 lakh (d) 1.9 lakh (e) none of these

66. For which of the sports, the number of males interested is less than that of females interested? (a) Tennis, Volleyball (b) Volleyball, Badminton (c) Badminton, Tennis, Hockey (d) Badminton, Tennis, Volleyball (e) None of the above

67. What is the ratio of the number of males interested in badminton and football together to that of females interested in hockey and tennis together? (a) 124 : 117 (b) 128 : 119 (c) 19 : 17 (d) 23 : 19 (e) None of these

Direction (68-72) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. An institute having 450 employees has sent all its employees for training in one or more areas out of HRM, computer skills and financial skills. The employees are classified into two categories — officers and clerks, who are in the ratio of 4:5. 10% of the officers take training only in computer skills, 16% of the clerks take training only in HRM, which is equal to the number of officers taking training only in financial skills and is equal to the 40% of the number of officers taking training only in HRM and financial skills both.

Total Population = 48 lakh






6% of the total employees take training in all of which two-third are officers. 10% of the total employees take training only in HRM and computer skills, which is five times the number of clerks taking training only in computer skills and financial skills. 10% of clerks take training only in HRM and computer skills. The number of officers taking training only in HRM is 25% of the number of clerks taking training only in HRM. 20% of the total number of employees take training only in computer skills. Number of clerks taking training in HRM and financial skills both is 20% of the total number of clerks. 68. Total how many officers take training in HRM?

(a) 110 (b) 128 (c) 118 (d) 98 (e) None of these

69. Total how many clerks take training in computer skills but not in HRM? (a) 113 (b) 104 (c) 88 (d) 79 (e) None of these

70. Total how many employees take training in financial skills but not in HRM? (a) 106 (b) 135 (c) 127 (d) 134 (e) None of these

71. Total how many clerks take training in financial skills? (a) 115 (b) 106 (c) 47 (d) 97 (e) None of these

72. What per cent of the total number of officers take training in computer skills but not in financial skills? (a) 25% (b) 40% (c) 20% (d) 15% (e) None of these

73. Mithilesh makes 750 articles at a cost of 60 paise per article. He fixes the selling price such that if only 600 articles are sold, he would have made a profit of 40% on the outlay. However, 120 articles got spoilt of 40% on the outlay. However, 120 articles got spoilt and he was able to sell 630 articles at this price. Find his actual profit percent as the percentage of total outlay assuming that the unsold articles are useless. (a) 42% (b) 53% (c) 47% (d) 46% (e) None of these

74. A tradesman fixed his selling price of goods at 30 % above the cost price. He sells half the stock at this price, one-quarter of his stock at a discount of 15% on the original selling price and rest at a discount 30% on the original selling price. Find the gain percent altogether. (a) 14.875% (b) 15.375 % (c) 15.575% (d) 16.375% (e) 16.5%

75. A dishonest dealer marks up the price of his goods by 20% and gives a discount of 10% to the customer. Besides, he also cheats both his supplier and his buyer by 100 grams while buying or selling I kilogram. Find the percentage profit earned by the shopkeeper

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 32% (d) 27.5% (e) None of these

76. My brother is 3 years elder to me. My father was 28 years of age when my sister was born while my mother was 26 years of age when I was born. If my sister was 4 years of age when my brother was born, then what was the age my father when my brother was born? (a) 35 years, 33 years (b) 35 years, 29 years (c) 32 years, 23 years (d) 32 years, 29 years (e) None of these

77. There are two kinds of alloys of tin and copper. The first alloy contains tin and copper such that 93.33% of it is tin. In the second alloy there is 86.66% tin. What weight of the first alloy should be mixed with some weight of the second alloy so as to make a 50 kg mass containing 90% of tin? (a) 15 kg (b) 30 kg (c) 20 kg (d) 25 kg (e) 45 kg

78. A bag contains a total of 105 coins of Rs. 1,50 p and 25 p denominations. Find the total number of coins of Re 1 if there are a total of 50.5 rupees in the bag and it is known that the number of 25 paise coins are 133.33% more than the number of 1 rupee coins. (a) 56 (b) 25 (c) 24 (d) 42 (e) None of these

79. The J&K express from Delhi to Srinagar was delayed by snowfall for 16 minutes and made up for the delay on a section of 80 km travelling with a speed 10 km per hour higher than its normal speed. Find the original speed of the J&K express (according to the schedule) (a) 60 km/h (b) 66.66 km/h (c) 50 km/h (d) 40 km/h (e) None of these

80. Amartya Sen had to cover a distance of 60 km. However, he started 6 minutes later than his scheduled time and raced at a speed 1 km/h higher than his originally planned speed and reached the finish at the time he would reach it if he began to race strictly at the appointed time and raced with the assumed speed. Find the speed at which he travelled during the journey described. (a) 25 km/h (b) 15 km/h (c) 10 km/h (d) 6 km/h (e) 24 km/h

81. The cost of packaging of the mangoes is 40% the cost of fresh mangoes themselves. The cost of mangoes increased by 30% but the cost of packaging decreased by 50%, then the percentage change of the cost of packed mangoes, if the cost of packed mangoes is equal to the sum of the cost of fresh mangoes and cost of packaging : (a) 14.17% (b) 7.14% (c) 8.87% (d) 6.66% (e) None of these

82. An alloy contains zinc, copper and tin in the ratio 2:3:1 and another contains copper, tin and lead in the ratio 5:4:3. If equal weights of both alloys are






melted together to form a third alloy, then the weight of lead per kg in new alloy will be: (a) 1/2 kg (b) 1/8 kg (c) 3/14 kg (d) 7/9 kg (e) None of these

83. A part of Rs. 38,800 is lent out at 6% per six months. The rest of the amount is lent out at 5% per annum after one year. The ratio of interest after 3 years from the time when first amount was lent out is 5 : 4. Find the second part that was lent out at 5%. (a) Rs. 26,600 (b) Rs. 28,800 (c) Rs. 27,500 (d) Rs. 28,000 (e) None of these

84. The RBI lends a certain amount to the SBI on simple interest for two years at 20%. The SBI given this entire amount to Bharti Telecom on compound interest for two years at the same rate annually. Find the percentage earning of the SBI at the end of two years on the entire amount. (a) 4% (b) 3(1/7)% (c) 3(2/7)% (d) 3(6/7)% (e) Cannot be determined

85. In the adjacent circular figure, find the area of the shaded region. (Use = 22/7)

(a) 15.28 cm2 (b) 61.14 cm2 (c) 30.57 cm2 (d) 40.76 cm2 (e) None of these

86. If ABC is a quarter circle and a circle is inscribed in it and if AB = 1 cm, find radius of smaller circle.

(a) √ (b) √ +1)/2 (c) √ 1/2

(d) 1 2√ (e) None of these 87. In a hotel where rooms are numbered from 101 to

130, each room gives an earning of Rs. 3000 for the first fifteen days of a month and for the latter half, Rs. 2000 per room. Find the average earning per room per day over the month. (Assume 30 day month)

(a) 2250 (b) 2500 (c) 2750 (d) 2466.66 (e) 2483.33

88. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white marbles. Three marbles are drawn at random. What is the probability that all they are not of the same colour? a) 3/44 b) 3/55 c) 52/55 d) 41/44 e) None of these

89. What is the probability of getting a sum of 12 when rolling 3 dice simultaneously? a) 10/216 b) 12/216 c) 21/216 d) 23/216 e) 25/216

90. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is not a face card? a) 1/13 b) 3/13 c) ¼ d) 9/52 e) None of these

Directions (91 - 95): Two equations (I) and (II) are given in each question. On the basis of these equations you have to decide the relation between x and y and give answer. (1) if x > y (2) if x < y (3) if x y (4) if x y (5) if x = y, or no relation can be established between x and y.

91. I. x = √

II. 2y2 - 9y - 56 = 0 92. I. 5x2 + 3x - 14 = 0 II. 2y2 - 9y + 10 = 0 93. I. 8x2 + 31x + 21 = 0 II. 5y2 + 11y - 36 = 0

94. I. 3x - y = 12 II. y = √ 95. I. 15x2 + 68x + 77 = 0 II. 3y2 + 29y + 68 = 0 Directions (96-100): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 96. 4 3 4.5 8.5 20 53 162.5

(1) 3 (2) 4.5 (3) 8.5 (4) 20 (5) 53

97. 12000 2395 472 89.8 12.96 -2.408 -5.4816 (1) -5.4816 (2) 472 (3) 12.96 (4) - 2.408 (5) 2395

98. 1 8 28 99 412 2075 12460 (1) 28 (2) 99 (3) 412 (4) 2075 5) 12460

99. 144 215 540 1890 8505 46777.5 304053.75 (1) 215 (2) 540 (3) 1890 (4) 8505 (5) 46777.5

100. 2222 1879 1663 1538 1474 1447 1440 (1) 1879 (2) 1538 (3) 1474 (4) 1447 (5) 1440

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (101-110): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A recent report in Newsweek says that in American colleges students of Asian origin outperform not only the minority groups students but the majority whites as well. Many of these students must be of Indian origin, and their achievement is something we can be proud of.






It is unlikely that these talented youngsters will come back to India, and that is the familiar brain drain problem. However, recent statements by the nation’s policy makers indicate that the perception of this issue is changing. “Brain bank’ and not “brain drain” is the more appropriate idea, they suggest, since the expertise of Indians abroad is only deposited in other places and not lost.

This may be so, but this brain bank, like most of other banks, is one that primarily serves customers in the neighbor-hood. The skills of the Asian now excelling in America’s colleges will mainly help the USA. No matter how significant, what non-resident Indians do for India and what their counterparts do for other Asian lands in only a by-product.

But it is also necessary to ask, or be reminded, why Indians study more fruitfully when abroad. The Asians whose accomplishments Newsweek records would have probably had a very different fate if they had studied in India. In America they found elbow room, books and facilities not available and not likely to be available here. The need to prove themselves in their new country and the competition of an international standard they faced there must have cured mental and physical laziness. But other things helping them in America can be obtained here if we achieve a change in social attitudes, especially towards youth.

We need to learn to value individuals and their unique qualities more than conformity and respectability. We need to learn the language of encouragement to add to our skill in flattery. We might also learn to be less liberal with blame and less tight-fisted with appreciation, especially to those showing signs of independence. 101. What is unique about the Asian students as

compared to other groups of students in American colleges? 1) Asian students are of more mixing nature than other groups of students. 2) Asian students are the most successful academically. 3) Asian students get much attention in American colleges than any other group of students. 4) Asian students get easy availability of work in America than any other group of students. 5) None of these

102. What do you understand by the idea of ‘brain bank’? 1) the restoration of manpower 2) the number of manpower 3) wastage of our manpower 4) Indians gathering experience abroad 5) None of these

103. What is the basic difference between ‘brain bank’ and ‘brain drain’? 1) Whereas ‘brain drain’ means losing our talent, ‘brain bank’ means depositing our talent.

2) Whereas ‘brain drain’ means serving other countries, ‘brain bank’ means serving our own country. 3) Whereas ‘brain drain’ means getting no return for one’s work, ‘brain bank’ means becoming successful in life. 4) ‘brain drain’ is a national issue whereas ‘brain bank’ is a global concept. 5) None of these

104. In general, the Indian students studying in America. 1) can solve the brain drain problem because of recent changes in policy. 2) have a reputation for being excellent in all fields. 3) will not return to pursue their careers in India. 4) are behind the concept of brain bank. 5) are behind the concept of brain drain.

105. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? 1) America is facing the brain problem. 2) ‘Brain bank’ is a term which has been talked about by American policy-makers. 3) Asian students cannot compete with the majority whites in American colleges. 4) The students of Asian origin in America include a fair number from India. 5) None of these

106. Which of the following is false in the context of the passage? 1) Asian students in America will be beneficial for that country. 2) Asian students are arrogant in their behavior and find hard to study abroad. 3) Indians do not study as fruitfully at home as they do abroad. 4) Indian policy-makers have talked about the concept of ‘brain bank’. 5) None of these

107. What makes Indian students excel in the area of education abroad as compared to that in their motherland? 1) the job opportunities abroad 2) the education-related facilities and proper environment 3) their promise to the family members 4) the cost incurred on getting their education abroad 5) None of these

108. The author feels that some of the conditions other than the level of facilities that make abroad attractive 1) are available in India but young people do not appreciate them. 2) can never be found here because we believe in western brand of education. 3) can also give respectability to our traditions and customs.






4) can be created if our attitudes and values change. 5) can be shared or borrowed from America.

Directions (109): Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 109. EXPERTISE

1) basics 2) demand 3) technique 4) specialty 5) skill

Directions (110): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. 110. ACCOMPLISHMENTS

1) soothing 2) laurels 3) laziness 4) failures 5) negativity

Directions (111-120): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Close and confidential relations between Russia and India are based on the proximity of their fundamental national interests and rest upon the centuries-old history of peaceful and mutually beneficial contacts between the two nations. The strength of these bonds has been tested many times in critical situations. Time and again, in moments of crisis, both New Delhi and Moscow have turned to each other. India has been and remains, without any reservations, Russia’s closest and most reliable friend and partner. Of principal importance is the national consensus existing in the two countries regarding the necessity for developing further cooperation between both bilaterally and in the international arena. The intensity of political dialogue has been on a steady rise, embracing ever new challenges and issues emerging in the context of a rapidly-changing situation in the world. It is based on the convergence of views with regard to major problems of the present days. Summit-level talks between president VV Putin and prime minister AB Vajpayee and meeting of the ministers of foreign affairs, including their interaction at the UN, have become an annual feature. Trilateral interaction among Russia, India and China is gaining momentum and acquiring substance, Deliberations on a number of joint working groups set up by the foreign ministries are yielding noticeable results. The first rounds of the working group on global challenges and the working groups on international terrorism in Sep-Oct 2003 brought the two countries together as de facto allies, once again providing the effectiveness and regional security. Russia has supported the advancement of the process of normalization between India and Pakistan. Vajpayee’s 12 steps to peace initiative addressed to the leadership of Pakistan has received our full support. It provides a realistic and durable basis for the resumption of dialogue and settlement of all

outstanding problems between these two South Asian countries on the basis of the 1972 Shimla Accord and 1998 Lahore Declaration. No doubt, to make it possible, favourable conditions should be created. First of all, the acts of trans-border terrorism along the Line of Control in Jammu and Kashmir must be stopped. New Delhi’s views on the situation in Afghanistan and Iraq are consonant with the assessments of our diplomacy. Together we are doing our best to restore peaceful life there. We are consistently upholding the centrality of the coordinating role of the United Nations, and the necessity of concerted actions of the entire comity of nations when such crises with international ramifications take place. We have been successful jointly in mapping the means and avenues of expanding the scope of trade and economic cooperation. Highly productive deliberations have been held on the Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation. Experts are actively working out a mechanism for investing the rupee assets available to Russia as a result of the repayment of India’s debt into promising projects in both countries. The prospects of cooperation in this sphere give rise to optimism. Military and technical cooperation, being a significant and inalienable segment of the special nature of the bilateral relationship, is doing splendidly. A number of major deals in the pipeline are now being finalised. When signed, they will make a considerable contribution to strengthening India’s defence capability and security while promoting peace and stability in the region. Among the top priorities on the Russian-Indian agenda are also our traditionally warm people-to-people contacts and cooperation in the field of culture. An example of this is the successful functioning of the Russian-Indian International Roerich Memorial Trust in Naggar in Kullu Valley, Himachal Pradesh. Every year the Roerich Museum and Art Gallery there are visited by over 100,000 tourists from around the country and abroad. It is symbolic that as the prime minister visits Moscow, an exhibition on Russian culture is on in all major Indian metros, drawing large audiences. This colorful gala marks the renaissance of active cultural cooperation between the two countries and highlights the special spiritual affection the Russians and Indians have for each other. For many centuries, this magic bridge of culture, stretching over the Palmaris and the Himalayas, has spanned our nations, and together with our Indian friends we keep walking along it towards the future horizons of our strategic partnership. 111. Which of the following is a unique feature of Indo-

Russian relationship? 1) It is based on mutual cooperation and sharing of knowledge in key areas. 2) It has stood firm even in trying times.






3) It is the oldest relation between any who countries in the world. 4) This relationship has been envied by many countries. 5) None of these

112. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? 1) There is much closeness in the primary national interests of India and Russia. 2) Russia has offered to mediate in solving the Indo-Pak problem. 3) India’s views on the situation in Afghanistan and Iraq is different from that of Russia. 4) Russia wants Pakistan to accept India’s conditions for normalization of relations at any cost. 5) None of these

113. What has maintained the Indo-Russian relations even amidst rough weathers? 1) their sense of respect for each other 2) their age-old experience in tackling the odds 3) the powerful international image of both the countries 4) the attitude of both the countries to help each other at difficult times 5) None of these

114. Majority of the India and Russian populations want both the countries jointly 1) to emerge a superpower on the global scene. 2) to extend their area of cooperation. 3) to counter any superpower on the international front. 4) to address their concerns on the international and national front as well. 5) to operate against any terrorist activities within their regions.

115. Which of the following is false in the context of the passage? 1) The interaction between the leaders of India and Russia has increased in recent years. 2) Russia supports the solving of Indo-Pak dispute in view of the 1972 Shimla accord and 1998 Lahore Declaration. 3) Favourable conditions should be built if Indo-Pak dispute is to be settled. 4) Afghanistan and Iraq crises are not without international consequences. 5) None of these

Directions (116-118): Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 116. PROXIMITY

1) closeness 2) unity 3) awareness 4) unanimity 5) depth

117. CONVERGENCE 1) weight 2) similarity 3) acceptance 4) exchange 5) reflection

118. RAMIFICATIONS 1) norms 2) scale 3) significance 4) consequences 5) carnage

Directions (119-120): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. 119. CONSONANT

1) hostile 2) aloof 3) inconsistent 4) deprived 5) criticising

120. INALIENABLE 1) unfamiliar 2) unconditional 3) prime 4) secondary 5) trivial

Directions: (121-125): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 121. Now, the educational courses in many institutions

are sold and even ________ for _______ prices. 1) auctioned, fabulous 2) glamourised, soaring 3) bought, competitive 4) advertised, cover 5) demanded, handy

122. Limited _______ of resources and their limited potential is everybody’s ________. 1) assess, responsibility 2) reach, game 3) availability, concern 4) area, knowledge 5) scope, story

123. The right to livelihood is an _________ facet of the right to life, _________ as a fundamental right under the Constitution. 1) important, enjoying 2) integral, guaranteed 3) utmost, covered 4) ideal, procured 5) essential, denied

124. For a large majority of poor people, labour power is the only productive _________ they _________ for securing a living. 1) energy, gain 2) field, deliver 3) assignment, carry 4) asset, possess 5) area, work

125. The committee’s _________ is to create a space for democratic _________ of conflicts. 1) efforts, solution 2) tasks, finding 3) finding, settlement 4) concern, adherence 5) endeavour, resolution

Directions (126-130): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) If the balance is insufficient to cover the debit, the difference becomes payable immediately or else a service fee is levied. (B) Debit cards are the same as credit cards. (C) Quite obviously, a debit card may not be the appropriate card for those who would like to have a credit.






(D) If the amount payable is overdue for a long period, the card may be cancelled. (E) As the transactions in the debit card are debited to the account instantaneously, they are relatively less risky to banks than credit card. (F) The only difference in this card is that the amount of dues from the cardholder for each and every transaction is debited to cash holder’s account as soon as each transaction is notified to the issuer. (G) This, has, however, an advantage in the sense that it replaces the requirement of carrying cash or cheque book, when the transactions are being carried out. 126. Which of the following would be the FIRST

sentence after rearrangement? 1) G 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A

127. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) C 3) E 4) F 5) B

128. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) G 4) E 5) C

129. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) F

130. Which of the following would be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement? 1) B 2) A 3) G 4) F 5) E

Directions (131-140): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against

each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. Yet another Children’s Day has (131) but the children of India (132) to be a neglected (133). The children of working women are (134) to the (135) of ayahs and (136) even denied mother’s milk. (137) sad is the lot of those children who (138) their time in creches. School-going boys and girls are (139) of their mother’s (140) for long hours. 131. 1) presided 2) witnessed 3) passed

4) celebrated 5) marched 132. 1) continue 2) branded 3) emerge

4) deprived 5) suppose 133. 1) children 2) teenagers 3) students

4) lot 5) volunteers 134. 1) charged 2) entrusted 3) ensured

4) adopted 5) deposited 135. 1) schools 2) mercy 3) tyranny

4) destiny 5) care 136. 1) poorly 2) fortunately

3) consequently 4) astonishingly 5) intentionally 137. 1) Same 2) Equally

3) Proportionate 4) Basically 5) Tragically 138. 1) spend 2) celebrate 3) allow

4) gather 5) sacrifice 139. 1) ignored 2) rebuked 3) scolded

4) yearning 5) deprived 140. 1) milk 2) cooperation 3) routine

4) company 5) privilege

COMPUTER

141. Special effect used to introduce slides in a presentation

are called ________.

1) Effects 2) Custom animation

3) Transition 4) Animation

5) Preset animation

142. Computers send and receive data in the form of ________

signals.

1) Analog 2) Digital

3) Modulated 4) Demodulated

5) All of these

143. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the

language ________.

1) NIH 2) URL

3) HTML 4) IRC

5) FTP

144. ________ are graphical objects used to represent

commonly used application.

1) GUI 2) Drivers

3) Windows 4) Application

5) Icons

145. Which of the following operating systems is not owned

and licensed by a company?

1) Unix 2) Linux

3) Windows 2000 4) Mac

5) Windows

146. In any window, the maximize button, the minimize button

and the close buttons appear on

1) The title bar 2) Menu bar

3) Status bar 4) Ruler bar

5) Tool bar

147. Which is the slowest internet connection service?

1) Digital Subscriber Line 2) Tl

3) Cable modem 4) Leased Line

5) Dial-up Service

148. Every component of your computer is either

1) software or CPU/RAM

2) hardware or software

3) application software or system software

4) input devices or output devices

5) None of these

149. Checking that a pin code number is valid before it is

entered into the system is an example of

1) error correction 2) backup and recovery

3) data preparation 4) data validation

5) None of these

150. A compiler translates higher-level programs into a

machine language program, which is called—

1) source code 2) object code

3) compiled code 4) beta code

5) None of these






151. A field that uniquely identifies which person, thing, or

event the record describes is a————.

1) file 2) data

3) field 4) key

5) None of these

152. The ability to find an individual item in a file

immediately—

1) sequential access 2) file allocation table

3) direct access 4) directory

5) None of these

153. Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network)

can ________.

1) run faster

2) go on line

3) share information and/or share peripheral equipment

4) E-mail

5) None of these

154. A CD-RW disk ________

1) has a faster access than an internal disk

2) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once

3) holds less data than a floppy disk

4) can be erased and rewritten

5) None of these

155. The two major categories of software include

1) operating system and utility

2) Personal productivity and system

3) system and application

4) system and utility

5) None of these

156. Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known

as

1) processors 2) domain names

3) modems 4) operating systems

5) None of these

157. Information on a computer is stored as

1) analog data 2) digital data

3) modem data 4) watts data

5) None of these

158. A program that works like a calculator for keeping track

of money and making budgets ________.

1) calculator 2) scholastic

3) keyboard 4) spreadsheet

5) None of these

159. To take information from one source and bring it to your

computer is referred to as ________.

1) upload 2) download

3) transfer 4) de-link

5) None of these

160. Each box in a spreadsheet is called a

1) cell 2) empty space

3) record 4) field

5) None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS

161. A telecom operator named Uninor is renamed as Telenor. Its new tagline is A. Ab life full paisa vasool B. Life time paisa vasool C. Ab life with paisa vasool D. None of these E. life time recharge

162. Who has been appointed as the new President of the Federation of Motor Sports Clubs of India (FMSCI)? A. Bharath Raj B. Zayn Khan C. Raj Saxena D. None of these E. Rahim Khan

163. Who has been appointed as the head of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) by the Union Women and Child Development Ministry? A. Radhika Bajaj B. Stuti Narain C. Rubi Punani D. None of these E. Rupali Narain

164. Who has been appointed as the additional secretary of NITI Aayog in September 2015? A. Alok Kumar B. Yudhvir Singh Malik C. Jitendra Kumar D. Kaushalendra Kumar E. Bibek Debroy

165. Who is going to host the 2016 World Cup and the 2019 Presidents Cup golf tournaments? A. South Africa B. Bangladesh C. Australia D. South Korea E. India

166. Who has won the women doubles in China Open

final held in Beijing? A. Casey Dellacqua and Yaroslava Shvedova B. Roberta Vinci and Simona Halep C. Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis D. Hao-Ching Chan and Yung-Jan Chan E. Sania Mirza and Leander Pace

167. According to the 3rd Quarter 2015 report of web analytics and statistics firm Stat Counter, which browser has topped in mobile browsing in India? A. Opera B. Internet Explorer C. Google Chrome D. Alibaba’s browser UC E. Mozila

168. Which Indian actor has been appointed as New Zealand tourism ambassador and has become New Zealand’s first Indian ambassador from India? A. Varun Dhawan B. Sidharth Malhotra C. Ranbir Kapoor D. Shahid Kapoor E. None of these

169. Recently, who has been appointed as the Secretary of the Department of Official Language under Home Ministry? A. Manoj Sachdeva B. Rahul Saxena C. Girish Shankar D. Viren Gaykward E. None of these

170. Who has recently resigned from the Sahitya Akademi General Council?






A. Shashi Deshpande B. Mukul Sachdeva C. Vipin Garg D. Gaurav Malik E. None of these

171. Who has been appointed as atomic Energy Secretary and Chairman of Atomic Energy? A. Krishna Banerjee B. Shekhar Basu C. VK Sinha D. Roshan Malhotra E. None of these

172. Who has been awarded with the 5th Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award? A. Anupam Kher B. Javed Akhtar C. AR Rahman D. Amitabh Bachchan E. None of these

173. Which private sector bank has started a digital nationwide campaign named “Har Zaroorat Poori Ho Chutki Mein, Bank Aapki Mutthi Mein”? A. HDFC B. ICICI C. Axis Bank D. Yes Bank E. None of these

174. Recently a group is launched by Vulnerable Nations to Foster Greater Investment in Climate Resiliency during the annual meeting of International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World Bank in Lima, Peru. How many Vulnerable Nations launched the group? A. 18 B. 20 C. 22 D. 25 E. None of these

175. Bollywood actor Akshay Kumar donated how much amount to Maharashtra government’s “Jalyukt Shivar Abhiyaan” (local water conservation scheme)? A. 25 lakh B. 30 lakh C. 50 lakh D. 60 lakh E. None of these

176. Where is the SAARC Sufi festival, a three-day carnival of Sufi dance, music and poetry was organised from 10th to 12th October, 2015? A. Noida B. Gurgaon C. Jaipur D. Varanasi E. None of these

177. When is World Mental Health Day Observed? A. October 10 B. October 13 C. November 4 D. March 2 E. None of these

178. RBI lowers repo rate by ___ basis points to 6.75 per cent a. 50 b. 20 c. 10 d. 40 E. None of these

179. In case of state-run banks, government has its stake 52% and above, but recently it has decided to bring down its stake to 49% in which of the following bank? A. IDBI B. Canara Bank C. Bank of Maharashtra D. Vijaya Bank E. None of these

180. Who has been appointed as the Flag Officer Submarines? A. Rear Admiral Ravneet Singh B. Rear Admiral S V Bokhare C. Rear Admiral Sanjay Mahindru D. Rear Admiral M S Pawar E. None of these

181. Who has been announced as the first-ever global

advocate for girls and women at the United Nations Foundation to highlight the plight of females? A. Marie Claire B. Lynda Lopez C. Priyanka Chopra D. Jennifer Lopez E. None of these

182. RBI approves ___ entities to set up Small Finance Banks a. 30 b. 40 c. 10 d. 60 E. None of these

183. _____ state tops in ease of doing business in India: World Bank Report a. Gujarat b. Uttar pradesh c. Jammu and kashmir d. Tamil Nadu E. None of these

184. Union Cabinet allows ____ per cent FDI under automatic route for white label ATMs a. 100 b. 90 c. 80 d. 70 E. None of these

185. _____ launches IndPay mobile app service a. Indian Bank b. SBI c. RBI d. PNB E. None of these

186. Reserve Bank of India granted ‘in-principle’ approval to __ applicants to start a payments bank a. 12 b. 11 c. 10 d. 9 E. None of these

187. According to the annual list of the richest Indians released by Forbes, Industrialist Mukesh Ambani has been named as India’s richest. He has been named as richest Indian for _____ year in a row. A. sixth B. ninth C. fifth D. seventh E. None of these

188. Narendra modi is the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Irelend in how many years? A. 56 years B. 65 years C. 60 years D. 62 years E. None of these

189. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on his visit to Ireland met Irish Prime Minister ____ A. Michael D. Higgins B. Clark Davinson C. Enda Kenny D. Ram Kenny E. None of these

190. ____ Bank launches ‘Smart Vault’ digital locker facility a. ICICI b. PNB c. SBI d. RBI E. None of these

191. The functions of the lead bank are performed by: a. SBI b. RBI c. Any bank d. A bank designed for this purpose E. None of these

192. Central Co-operative banks work at: a. District level b. National level c. Block level d. State level E. None of these

193. The largest public sector commercial bank of India is the ____






a. SBI b. RBI c. Bank of india d. Union bank of india E. None of these

194. PAN card issued by the income tax department cannot be used for which of the following purpose? a. Proof of identity b. Proof of a registered tax payer c. Proof of address d. Proof of date of birth E. None of these

195. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding increase in the CRR in India? a. It increases credit creation b. It reduces credit creation c. It does not affect credit d. It denoted liberal monetary policy E. None of these

196. Which among the following sectors contributes most to the saving in India? a. Banking and financial sector b. Private corporate sector c. Export sector d. Household sector E. None of these

197. Govt. recently appointed a committee under the chairmanship of which of the following on differential premium system for bank in India? a. Deepak Mohanty b. Jasbir Singh c. R Gandhi d. Parth Sarthi Som E. None of these

198. Brihadeeswarar Temple is located at which place? A. Uttar Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. Tamilnadu D. Jharkhand E. None of these

199. To bring in more flexibility for the banks in case of bad loans, the Reserve Bank of India has allowed the banks to convert the status of their “stressed” loans to a company into “standard” ones if A. if the loan amount is not paid within 1 and a half years. B. that company is actually not in a condition to provide the loan for next 3 years. C. that company is sold to a new major stakeholder D. Both A and B E. None of these

200. Which bank is launching services on October 1st, 2015 with motto “hatke bank” which will be a move of not having its own ATMs and making transactions at rivals ATMs free for customers? A. Bandhan Bank B. IDFC Bank C. IDBI Bank D. HDFC E. None of these





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