MOCK TEST EE-E

MOCK TEST 1/16

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EE : ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Duration : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet unlit you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the in-struments printed on the ORS carefully. If you find the Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with the Booklet Code on the ORS, exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.

3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination center and put your signature at the specified location.

4. This Question Booklet contain 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

5. There are a total of 65 Question carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only on correct answer. Question must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than on answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

7. Question Q. 1 Q. 25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q. 26 - Q. 55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks question include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer of the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattemped, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

8. Question Q. 56 - Q. 65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Question Q. 56 - Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q. 61 -Q. 65 carry 2 marks each.

9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions /1 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, /2 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work.

12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a

blank ink ball point pen.

Names

Registration Number EE

For Answer Key and Full Solution mail to [email protected].

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Q. 1- Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The median of 0, 2, 2, -3, 5, -1, 5, 5, -3, 6, 6, 5, 6 is(A) 0 (B) 1.5−

(C) 2 (D) 3.5

Q.2 If 2v xy= , then the analytic function ( )f z u iv= + is (A) z c2 + (B) z c2 +−

(C) z c3 + (D) z c3 +−

Q.3 e

dx1x −# is equal to

(A) ( 1)log ex − (B) (1 )log ex−

(C) ( 1)log e x −− (D) (1 )log e x− −

Q.4 If Rolle’s theorem holds for ( ) 6 5f x x x kx3 2= − + + on [1,3] with 2c3

1= + , then value of k is(A) 3− (B) 3

(C) 7 (D) 11

Q.5 Consider the feedback system shown below

For this system root locus is

Q.6 The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is ( )G s ( )s

K s34

2

2

=+−

. For the system to be stable the range of K is

(A 1K > − (B) K 43<

(C) 1 K 43< <− (D) marginal stable

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Q.7 In the signal flow graph shown below the transfer function is

(A) 3.75 (B) 3−

(C) 3 (D) 3.75−

Q.8 Consider the given circuit and waveform for the input voltage. The diode in circuit has cutin voltage 0V =γ .

The waveform of output voltage vo is

Q.9 If (211) (152)x 8= , then the value of base x is(A) 6 (B) 5

(C) 7 (D) 9

Q.10 In the following circuit, Initially flip flop is cleared. If input clock frequency is fi , then frequency at output will be

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(A) 2fi (B) /f 2

(C) 4fi (D) will be same as input

Q.11 The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by(A) a parabola (B) a straight line

(C) an exponentially decaying function (D) a rectangular hyperbola

Q.12 A single-phase half controlled converter shown in the figure feeding power to highly inductive load. The converter is operating at a firing angle of 60c.

If the firing pulses are suddenly removed, the steady state voltage ( )V0 waveform of the converter will become

Q.13 Wagner Earth devices in AC bridge circuits are used for(A) Shielding all the bridge elements from external magnetic field

(B) Eliminating the effect of stray capacitance

(C) Minimizing the effect of inter-component capacitance

(D) Eliminating all the node to earth capacitances

Q.14 A single-phase full bridge voltage source inverter feeds a purely inductive load as shown in figure, where T1, T2, T3, T4 are power transistors and D1, D2, D3, D4 are

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feedback diodes. The inverter is operated in square-wave mode with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the average load current is zero, what is the time duration of conduction of each feedback diode in a cycle?

(A) 5 msec (B) 10 msec

(C) 20 msec (D) 2.5 msec

Q.15 A Lissajou pattern observed on an oscilloscope is stationary and has 5 horizontal tangencies and 2 vertical tangencies. If the frequency of horizontal input is 1,000 Hz, then frequency of vertical input is(A) 2500 Hz (B) 500 Hz

(C) 400 Hz (D) 2000 Hz

Q.16 The errors introduced by an instrument fall in which category ?(A) Systematic errors (B) Random errors

(C) Gross errors (D) Environmental errors

Q.17 A simple equivalent circuit of the 2 terminal network shown in figure is

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Q.18 In the following RC circuit the value of (0) 10 VvC = , then the value of ( )v tC is

(A) e t− V (B) 5e t− V

(C) 10e t− V (D) 10 e t+ − V

Q.19 In the bridge shown below 300Z1 Ω= , (300 600)Z j2 Ω= − , (200 100)Z j3 Ω= + . The Z4 at balance is

(A) 400 300j Ω+ (B) 400 300j Ω−

(C) 100j Ω (D) 900j Ω−

Q.20 The Laplace transform of signal ( 2)u t + is

(A) s1 (B) s

1−

(C) se s2−

(D) se s2− −

Q.21 A Fourier transform pairs is as following

( ) ( ) sinx t X j 2F ω ωω= where ( )x t

,

, otherwise

t1 1

0

<= *

The Fourier transform of signal shown below is

(A) sine2

2j2

ωωω

(B) sine 2j2

ωωω−

(C) sine4 j2

2ωω ω−

(D) sine4 j2

2ωω ω

Q.22 Consider the following function for the rectangular voltage pulse shown below

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(1) ( ) ( ) ( )v t u a t u t b#= − −

(2) ( ) ( ) ( )v t u b t u t a#= − −

(3) ( ) ( ) ( )v t u t a u t b= − − −

The function that describe the pulse are(A) 1, and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3 (D) all

Q.23 A single phase transformer has 350 and 700 turns in its primary and secondary winding. The primary is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz ac supply. If the net cross-sectional area of core is 50 cm2, the maximum value of flux density in the core is(A) 51.48 T (B) 2.57 T

(C) 1.03 T (D) can not be determined

Q.24 ACSR conductor implies(A) aluminium conductor steel reinforced.

(B) all conductors surface treated and realigned.

(C) anodised core steel reinforced.

(D) none of the above.

Q.25 Which of the following is true about the sequence reactance of transformer ?(A) Negative and positive sequence reactances are equal to the leakage reactance.

(B) Negative sequence reactance is larger than the positive sequence reactance.

(C) Negative sequence reactance is smaller than the positive sequence reactance.

(D) None of above

Q. 26- Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Consider the circuit shown below :

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If the ideal source supplies 1000 W, half of which is delivered to the 100 Ω load, the value of a and b are(A) 6, 0.47 (B) 5, 0.89

(C) 0.89, 5 (D) 0.47, 6

Q.27 Consider three different signal

[ ]x n1 [ ]u n2 21n

n= − b l; E

[ ]x n2 2 [ 1] [ 1]u n u n21nn=− − − + − −

[ ]x n3 2 [ 1] [ ]u n u n21nn=− − − −

Following figure shows the three different region. Choose the correct for the ROC of signal

R1 R2 R3

(A) [ ]x n1 [ ]x n2 [ ]x n3

(B) [ ]x n2 [ ]x n3 [ ]x n1

(C) [ ]x n1 [ ]x n3 [ ]x n2

(D) [ ]x n3 [ ]x n2 [ ]x n1

Q.28 A 220 V dc shunt motor takes 5 A current on no load while running at a speed of 1000 rpm. It has an armature and a shunt field resistance of 0.3 Ω and 200 Ω respectively. Now the motor is driving a load drawing 40 A current from the supply. If the armature reaction weakens the field by 2.5% on this load, what would be speed of the motor ?Assume magnetic circuit to be unsaturated.(A) 954 rpm (B) 976 rpm

(C) 1023 rpm (D) 238.5 rpm

Q.29 An industrial system has a load of 100 kVA at 0.6 pf lagging. A synchronous motor is added to the system to improve the overall power factor. If the synchronous motor is operating at 10 kW and 0.5 pf leading, then the overall power factor of the system is(A) 0.58 (lagging) (B) 0.74 (lagging)

(C) 0.99 (leading) (D) 0.39 (leading)

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Q.30 Three single-phase transformer are connected in Y Δ− to form a 3-phase transformer bank as shown in the figure. It is used to step-down the voltage of a 3-phase, 6600 V transformer line. If the primary line current is 10 A and the turns ratio is 12, the output kVA will be

(A) 66 (B) 198

(C) 38.1 (D) 114.3

Q.31 A 120 V, 60 Hz capacitor start motor has the following impedances for the main and auxiliary windings at stand stillMain winding Zmain 4.5 3.7j Ω= +Auxiliary winding Zaux 9.5 3.5j Ω= +The value of starting capacitance that will place the main and auxiliary winding current in quadrature at starting is(A) 177 Fμ (B) 610 Fμ

(C) 15 Fμ (D) 125 Fμ

Q.32 A 50 Hz, 3-phase, 4 pole, induction motor operating at 4% slip draws 40 kW of power. The stator copped-loss and the the mechanical losses are 1. kW5 and . kW0 8 respectively. What is the efficiency of the motor ?(A) 94.25% (B) 90.4%

(C) 92.4% (D) 36.25%

Q.33 A balanced delta-load having a resistance of 15 Ω per phase is in parallel with a balanced star-load having phase impedances of j8 6 Ω+ . The combined load is supplied from a 110 V three-phase supply through three lines having impedance of

j2 5 Ω+ each.What is the value of line voltage at the combined loads ?(A) 28.13 V (B) 48.72 V

(C) 84.32 V (D) 16.24 V

Q.34 The reactance diagram of a system is shown in figure. The bus admittance matrix YBUS for the system is

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(A)

.

.

.

...

.

..

.

.

...

Y j

10 50

5 05 0

08 0

2 55 0

5 02 518 0

10 0

5 05 010 020 0

BUS =

−−

−−

R

T

SSSSSS

V

X

WWWWWW

(B)

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

Y j

0 7240 6200 6560 684

0 6200 7380 6420 660

0 6560 6420 7020 676

0 6440 6600 6760 719

BUS =

R

T

SSSSSS

V

X

WWWWWW

(C)

.

.

.

.

.

.

..

..Y j

10 50

5 05 0

08 00

5 0

5 0018 0

10 0

05 010 0

0

BUS =

−−

−

R

T

SSSSSS

V

X

WWWWWW

(D) ..

.

.

.

..

.

.

..

Y j j

100

0 50 5

02 58

0 5

0 580 180 1

0 50 50 10 5

BUS =

−−

−−

R

T

SSSSSS

V

X

WWWWWW

Q.35 In the system shown in figure, consider the grid as an infinite bus. The specifications are given as followingTransformer : 3-phase, 33/11 kV, 6 MVA, 0.01 0.08 puj+ impedanceLoad : 3-phase, 11 kV, 5,800 kVA, 0.8 lag, 0.2 puj impedanceFeeder : Impedance of 9 18j Ω+ each

What is the required MVA rating of circuit breaker on 6 MVA base ?(A) 17.75 MVA (B) 44.72 MVA

(C) 0.80 MVA (D) 33.46 MVA

Q.36 A 500 MW, 21 kV, 50 Hz, 3-phase, 2-pole synchronous generator having a rated pf = 0.9, has a moment of inertia of 27.5 103# kg-m2 .The inertia constant (H ) will be(A) 2.44 s (B) 2.71 s

(C) 4.88 s (D) 5.42 s

Q.37 The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is

( )G s ( )( )( )

( )s s s

K s1 4 1

22=+ + −

+

The range of K , that will make the system stable, is(A) 12 2K< <− (B) 33 2K< <−

(C) 2K > (D) Unstable

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Q.38 Consider the following system

a. ( )T s ( )( )s s3 6

5=+ +

b. ( )T s ( )( )

( )s s

s10 20

10 7=+ +

+

c. ( )T s s s6 44

202=

+ + d. ( )T s

ss

92

2=++

e. ( )T s ( )( )ss

105

2=++

Consider the following response1. Over damped 2. Under damped

3. Under damped 4. Critically damped

The correct match is 1 2 3 4(A) a c d e(B) b a d e(C) c a e d(D) c b e d

Q.39 A PMMC instrument has full-scale deflection current of 100 μA and a coil resistance of 1 kΩ. The value of required shunt resistance to convert the instrument into an ammeter with a full scale deflection current of 100 mA is Rsh1. The same instrument is converted into an ammeter with a full scale deflection current of 1 mA by using a

shunt resistor Rsh2 . The ratio RR

sh

sh

2

1 approximately equals to(A) 10 (B) 100

(C) 0.1 (D) 1

Q.40 A 50 Hz, bar primary CT has a secondary with 300 turns. The secondary supplies 5 A current into a burden which consists of a resistance and reactance of .1 5 Ω and .1 0 Ω respectively. The magnetizing mmf is 100 A and the iron loss is 1.2 W. The phase angle between the primary and secondary is(A) .11 7c (B) .2 34c

(C) .4 025c (D) .0 847c

Q.41 In the following circuit the 3 dB cutoff frequency is

(A) 10 kHz (B) 1.59 kHz

(C) 354 kHz (D) 689 Hz

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Q.42 Consider the common-source circuit with source bypass capacitor. The signal frequency is sufficiently large. The transistor parameters are .V 0 8TN = V, K 1n = mA/V2 and

0λ = . The voltage gain is

(A) .15 6− (B) .9 9−

(C) .6 8− (D) .3 2−

Q.43 An X Y− flip-flop whose characteristic table is given below is to be implemented using a J-K flip-flop

X Y Qn 1+

0 0 1

0 1 Qn

1 0 Qn

1 1 0

This can be done by using(A) ,J X K Y= = (B) ,J X K Y= =

(C) ,J Y K X= = (D) ,J Y K X= =

Q.44 Consider a binary weighted n -bit D/A converter shown in the following circuit of figure. What is the tolerance of resistance to limit the output error to the equivalent

of 21

! LSB ?

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(A) 2 1

1n −

(B) 21n

(C) 21n 1− (D)

2 11

n +

Q.45 Consider the following 8085 program MVI A, DATA 1 ORA A, JM DSPLY OUT PORT1 CMADSPLY : ADI 01H OUT PORT1 HLTIf DATA1 = A7H, the output at PORT1 is(A) 47H (B) 58H

(C) 00 (D) None of the above

Q.46 The system equations 6x y z+ + = , 2 3 10x y z+ + = , 2 12x y zλ+ + = is inconsistent, if λ is(A) 3 (B) 3−

(C) 0 (D) None of these

Q.47 For the differential equation x ydxdy 2= − given that

:x 0 0.2 0.4 0.6

:y 0 0.02 0.0795 0.1762

Using Milne predictor-correction method, the y at next value of x is(A) 0.2498 (B) 0.3046

(C) 0.4648 (D) 0.5114

Statement for Question 48-49 :A single phase half-bridge inverter is operated from a 24 V source and supplies power to a resistive load.

Q.48 Total harmonic distortion(THD) is(A) 48.4% (B) 19.8%

(C) 60% (D) 28%

Q.49 The harmonic factor and the distortion factor for the lowest order harmonic are respectively(A) 20%, 2.22% (B) 7.68%, 33.33%

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(C) 33.33%, 3.7% (D) 35.88%, 3.98%

Statement for Q. 50-51A power plant consisting of two generations G1 and G2 supplies a total load of 450 MW. The fuel costs of two generations G1 and G2 are C1 and C2 respectively, given as following

C1 .P P100 2 0 0051 12= + +

C2 .P P200 2 0 012 22= + +

where P1 and P2 are the generation in MW of G1 and G2 respectively.

Q.50 The economic load scheduling of the two units will be(A) 225

225

P

P

MW

MW1

2

==

(B) P

P

180

270

MW

MW1

2

==

(C) P

P

300

150

MW

MW1

2

==

(D) P

P

240

210

MW

MW1

2

==

Q.51 The incremental fuel cost of the power plant in Rs/MWh will be(A) 4.25 Rs/MWh (B) 10 Rs/MWh

(C) 5 Rs/MWh (D) 6.5 Rs/MWh

Statement for Q. 52-53 :A state flow graph is shown below

Q.52 The state and output equation for this system is

(A) xx

xx u

05

1

421

01

1

2

1

2=

−+

o

o> > > >H H H H , yxx5 4

1

2= 8 >B H

(B) xx

xx u

05

1

421

01

1

2

1

2= − − +

o

o> > > >H H H H , yxx5 4

1

2= 8 >B H

(C) xx

1

2

o

o> H xx u

05

1

421

11

1

2= − − +> > >H H H , y

xx4 5

1

2= 8 >B H

(D) xx

xx u

05

1

421

11

1

2

1

2= − − +

o

o> > > >H H H H , yxx4 5

1

2= 8 >B H

Q.53 The system is

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(A) Observable and controllable (B) Controllable only

(C) Observable only (D) None of the above

Statement for Q. 54-55:Two generators G1 and G2 are to be operated in parallel to deliver a total current of 60 A. Generator G1 has a terminal voltage of 280 V on no-load and 240 V when supplying 40 A current. Similarly the second generator has a voltage of 300 V when on no-load and 240 V when supplying 50 A of current.

Q.54 The output voltage of each generator will be(A) 240 V (B) 238.2 V

(C) 271.7 V (D) 256.4 V

Q.55 The output power PG1 and PG2 delivered by generator G1 and G2 will be(A) .6 .P P5 8 7kW, kWG G1 2= = (B) .6P P9 12kW, kWG G1 2= =

(C) 9.3P P kWG G1 2= = (D) 6 9.3P PkW, kWG G1 2= =

General Aptitude(GA)Questions

Q.56- Q 60 carry one mark each

Q.56 Which one of the following is the Antonym of the word NULLIFY ?(A) void (B) legitimize

(C) repose (D) indomitable

Q.57 Which one of the following is the synonym of the word REPEAL ?(A) sharp (B) applaud

(C) acceptance (D) abrogation

Q.58 One of the four words given in the four options does not fit the set of words. The odd word from the group, is(A) Cardigan (B) Pullover

(C) Tuxedo (D) Sweater

Q.59 A pair of CAPITALIZED words shown below has four pairs of words. The pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair, isUNITY : DIVERSITY(A) Single : Multiple (B) One : Many

(C) Homogeneous : Heterogeneous (D) Singular : Plural

Q.60 In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is left unfinished. Four different ways

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of completing the sentence are indicated. The best alternative among the four, isThe interest generated by the soccer World Cup is....................compared to the way cricket.................the nation.(A) milder, fascinates (B) lukewarm, electrifies

(C) tepid, inspires (D) unusual, grips

Q. 61-65 carry two marks each

Q.61 What is the digit in the unit’s place of 253 ?(A) 2 (B) 8

(C) 1 (D) 4

Q.62 The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest score are not considered the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, the lowest will be(A) 55 (B) 60

(C) 62 (D) cannot be determined.

Q.63 A box contains 6 red balls and 5 blue balls. Each ball is of a different size. The probability that the red ball selected is the smallest red ball, is(A) 1/18 (B) 1/3

(C) 1/6 (D) 2/3

Q.64 A piece of paper is in the shape of a right angled triangle and is cut along a line that is parallel to the hypotenuse, leaving a smaller triangle. There was %35 reduction in the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original triangle was 34 square inches before the cut, what is the area (in square inches) of the smaller triangle.(A) 16.665 (B) 16.565

(C) 15.465 (D) 14.365

Q.65 A slab of ice inches8 in length, 11 inches in breadth, and inches2 thick was melted and resolidified into the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in inches, is nearest to(A) 3 (B) 3.5

(C) 4 (D) 4.5

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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