F3 (OIC)

1. In Lathe machine, the gear between the driver and the follower gears in a simple train is known as a/an _________ or intermediate.

A. PinionB. HelicalC. IdlerD. Reduction

Ans. C

2. Milling consists of machining a piece of metal by bringing it into contact with a rotating _________ with many cutting edges.

A. Tool bitB. GearC. CutterD. Shaper

Ans. C

3. It is the machining of a surface by moving the object forward and backward under a stationary cutting tool.

A. Planning/Shaping B. Reaming C. MillingD. Boring

Ans. A

4. The type of reamer that can outlast high speed reamers many times in castings where sand or hard scale is encountered.

A. Graphite steelB. Carbon steelC. High speed steelD. Carbide

Ans. D

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5. When working on an engine lathe, operators sleeve must be rolled _________the elbow for safety.

A. Below B. Up toC. AboveD. At the wrist

Ans. C

6. Occasionally when drilling cast iron, it is advisable to rub a little_________ on the lands of the drill.

A. WaterB. Oil or greaseC. AcidD. Degreaser

Ans. A

7. A crack in the engine cylinder head will indicate?

A. Low lube oil temperatureB. Too high fuel pressureC. Hunting of jacket cooling pressure and abnormal rise in

temperature D. Decrease in fuel injection pressure

Ans. C

8. What is the effect if moisture that will enter a typical refrigeration system.

A. Will cause sweating and frost in the evaporator coilB. Will freeze in the expansion valve C. Oil in the condenserD. Will be remove by the strainer

Ans. B

9. If fuel is only burned from the starboard tanks the ship will_____________.

A. Go down by the headB. List to portC. Trim by the sternD. List to starboard

Ans. B

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10. In a desk type centrifugal purifier the contaminated oil enter to bowl.

A. At the top through the regulating tube B. At the button through the oil inletC. Through the neck of the diskD. Through the funnel body

Ans. A

11. The most crucial time for any bearing in regard to lubrication.

A. After proper oil viscosity is reachedB. During startingC. During low loadsD. After cleaning filter

Ans. B

12. More modern lathes are provided with_____________ for feeds and thread leads.

A. Quick change gearB. Reduction gearsC. Cutting toolD. Pulley

Ans. A

13. is prohibited Allowed to carry product oil but from carrying oil.

A. Product carrierB. Bulk carrierC. Automobile carrierD. Crude tanker

Ans. A

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14. What serves to relieve the strains set up by forging and to give the steel an even close grain or texture?

A. TemperingB. HardeningC. AnnealingD. Hammering

Ans. A

15. The welded joint between two plates in the same stroke of hull plating is called.

A. MapB. ScarfC. BracketD. Butt

Ans. D

16. Instrument used to measure diameters.

A. ViscosimeterB. Thread gageC. TachometerD. Caliper

Ans. D17. Could determine leak in refrigeration system.

A. Halide torchB. WaterC. TorchD. Candle

Ans. A

18. Most synchronous motors are similar in construction to:

A. AlternatorB. Emergency unitC. DynamoD. Feeders

Ans. A

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19. The main features of different pumps of which they are working under non-cavitating condition is:

A. Output is identically proportionalB. They are not self primingC. It will develop a discharge pressure equal to the resistance to be

overcome in respectively of speedD. Output is increased at increased pressure

Ans. C

20. Which of the following should be done so that fuel oil viscosity at the atomizer can be reduced?

A. Increase the FO heater steam supply B. Used lighter kind of FOC. Increase deliver pressure of FOD. Increase FO specific gravity

Ans. A

21. The lube oil plate of shell and lube type heat exchanger are usually of:

A. Copper nickel tubeB. Naval brassC. Aluminum brassD. Aluminum bronze

Ans. B

22. The pump deal with large volumes liquid while running in maintaining discharge pressure:

A. Rotary vain pumpB. AxialC. Screw displacement pumpD. Close loop system

Ans. B

23. The reverse current relay prevent DC generator motorized by:

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A. Automatically speeding up the prime maneuverB. Automatically directingC. Tripping circuit breakerD. Tripping circuit breaker

Ans. D

24. Boiler tube can result from:

A. Mechanical stressB. OverheatingC. CorrosionD. Leakage

Ans. C

25. Which of the following is the primary operational difference between a huddling chamber safety valve and a nozzle reaction safety valve?

A. Adjustment of lifting pressureB. Valve relieving capacitiesC. Principle in accomplishing blow downD. Initial valve opening cause by steam pressure

Ans. D

26. As soon as a diesel engine starts; what operating condition should be checked first

A. Air box pressureB. Raw water pressureC. Lube oil pressureD. Exhaust temperature

Ans. C

27. On law temperature condition on air stared the engine turn over too slow and fails to start the probably cause:

A. High oil viscosityB. Faulty air starting v/v

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C. Low oil temperatureD. Low oil viscosity

Ans. A

28. In an air conditioning room if the people complained of being too cool the problem might be:

A. Relative humidity to highB. Air velocity is too lowC. Heater failure to cut out at proper temperatureD. Relative humidity too low

Ans. D

29. Ship found discharge water containing more than ____ of oil can be heavily fined.

A. 62.0 mg/liter B. 100.0 mg/literC. 58.0 mg/literD. 86.0 mg/liter

Ans. B

30. Ejector is simple reliable inexpensive effective and ________.

A. InexpensiveB. Utilized high grade of metalC. Maintenance freeD. Heavy

Ans. C

31. The minimum internal diameter of main bilge piping permitted on a vessel over 150 gross tons is:

A. 4 cmB. 6.5 cmC. 9 cmD. 12 cm

Ans. B

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32. R – 718 is known as:

A. AmmoniaB. Carbon dioxideC. Water D. dichlorodifluoromethane

Ans. C33. When there is constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion

valve indicates:

A. Lack of refrigerantB. Prop refrigerant controlC. A faulty refrigerant control valveD. Liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator

Ans. A

34. On low temperature condition on air started diesel engine turn over too and fails to start the probable cause is:

A. High on viscosityB. Faulty air starting valveC. Low oil temperatureD. None of the above

Ans. D

35. According to the text D/E piston are connected to the crankshaft by:

A. Connecting rodB. Push rodC. Piston guideD. Piston pin

Ans. A

36. As soon as diesel engine starts what opening condition should be checked first?

A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressureC. Raw water pressure

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D. Exhaust temperature

Ans. B

37. What is the possible cause of a marine diesel engine having a poor combustion?

A. Very high compression pressureB. Exhaust pressure lowC. Low intake air temperatureD. High scavenge pressure

Ans. C

38. What is the use of a re-circulating line in the potable hot water system?

A. Maintain desired water temperature to systemB. For constant speed of pumpsC. For return overflowD. Maintain flow rate

Ans. A

39. What is provided for use on bilge systems evaporator and gas fusing system on tankers?

A. Velocity pumpB. EjectorsC. Convergent nozzleD. Divergent nozzle

Ans. B

40. Which should be check before starting a diesel engine?

A. Crankcase oil levelB. Oil filterC. Gas temperatureD. Oil filter

Ans. A

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41. Cleaning of the Lathe machine should be done when the machine is _________________.

A. RunningB. IdleC. On slow runningD. On low gear

Ans. B

42. The Shaper’s cutting tool has a ______________ motion with the work usually held in a vise:

A. ForwardB. ReciprocatingC. VerticalD. Circular Ans. B

43. Two stroke D.E pistons are connected to the crank shaft by_______.

A. Connecting rodB. Crank pinC. Push rodD. Piston guide

Ans. A

44. When the engine is running what part in a large slow speed engine is under tension?

A. Bed plateB. Tie rodC. ColumnD. Rod

Ans. B

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45. What possible cause of an air-started engine turns too slow and fails to start on cold weather?

A. Low compressionB. Faulty valveC. Low temperatureD. High lube oil viscosity

Ans. D

46. What is the purpose of thrust bearing?

A. To control axial movement of the crankshaftB. Absorb vibrationC. Transmit engine thrustD. Prevent propeller thrust

Ans. A

47. What measures the degree of hardness of a substance?

A. Brinell scaleB. Simpson scaleC. Plimsell scaleD. Bernoulli’s scale

Ans. A

48. Leaky valves in main air compressor may cause _________.

A. No air filterB. High discharge pressureC. Compressor running fastD. Too much suction pressure

Ans. D49. What is the main purpose why check valve is located between

economizer and steam drum?

A. Pressurize water flowB. Prevent back pressureC. Prevent steam and water drum losses should an economizer

casualty occurD. Positive feed water flow

Ans. D

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50. What provides the force required to vary the pitch of the blades?

A. HydraulicB. MechanicalC. PneumaticD. Electrical

Ans. A

51. What is the part found between engines and pinion?

A. Flexible couplingB. Duplex couplingC. Main couplingD. Auxiliary coupling

Ans. A

52. Capability of safety valve must be _______.

A. Closing quicklyB. Remaining open until pressure dropC. Opening graduallyD. Remain open

Ans. B

53. Freon 12 tends to short cycle when at ____.

A. Light loadsB. Normal conditionC. StartingD. Heavy loads

Ans. A

54. What cause a safety valve to “pops up” continuously even manually operating it close?

A. Clogged lineB. Damaged seatC. Dirty seat

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D. Poor adjustment

Ans. B

55. What causes excessive scale in an evaporating plant?

A. Low boiling temperatureB. Poor distillateC. Low vacuumD. Low pressure

Ans. A

56. What should be done for sudden loss of oil in crankcase of reefer system?

A. Inspect oil separatorB. Renew oilC. Adjust thermo-expansion valveD. Check for leak

Ans. C

57. Next to the lathe, it is perhaps the most adaptable and interesting machine in the shop.

A. PlanerB. DrillC. WeldingD. Milling

Ans. D

58. What causes a pump fails to deliver liquid?

A. Air in suction lineB. RPM too highC. Faulty relief valveD. Damaged impeller

Ans. A

59. As per regulation, what is the minimum I.D of main bilge pump for 150 GRT?

A. 14 cmB. 90 cmC. 6.5 cmD. 7.0 cm

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Ans. C60. What causes lube oil pump unable to build pressure?

A. Suction valve closedB. By pass valve closedC. Discharge valve openD. Suction valve high

Ans. A

61. Where will the sludge in a boiler accumulate?

A. FloorB. ScreenC. GeneratingD. Down comer

Ans. A

62. When a reefer is having high condensing pressure you should _______.

A. Purge air from condenserB. Check leaky valvesC. Decrease cooling waterD. Check thermo bulb

Ans. A

63. One special feature of ejectors is?

A. Maintenance freeB. High grade metalC. Heavy weightD. Light weight

Ans. A

64. What sewage treatment using bacteria acceptable for discharge in water?

A. Bio-sewage plantB. External flushingC. Heavy weightD. Treatment tank

Ans. A

65. Maceration refers to be sewage treatment for _________.

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A. Chemical treatment B. Decomposing waste C. Chemical plantD. Breaking up of solid matter

Ans. D

66. Speed of turbo charges depends on _____.

A. Engine loadB. Engine speedC. Gas temperatureD. Cylinder

Ans. A

67. What may cause a leaky oil seal in a turbo charge?

A. Low scavenge temperatureB. Blow byC. Over speedingD. Insufficient air-fuel ration

Ans. C

68. The effect of defective injector nozzle in D.E. is:

A. Poor combustionB. High exhaust temperatureC. Smoky exhaustD. Late injection

Ans. C

69. What regulates the flow of refrigerant:

A. Expansion valveB. CompressorC. EvaporatorD. Condenser

Ans. A

70. What causes cylinder liner to crack?

A. Operating at low speedB. Worn piston tingsC. Poor lubricationD. Restricted cooling water passage

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Ans. D

71. In a machine shop, it consists of laying out, assembling, and the final fitting of parts.

A. Bench workB. Bench markC. Deck workD. Job order

Ans. A

72. What is the requirement for potable and non-potable water system?

A. Never be connected by any meansB. Temporarily be connected with a removal spoolC. Connected if they are used only for wash waterD. Permanently connected through a double stop valve

Ans. A

73. What would happen if at low pressure a nozzle reaction safety valve will lift?

A. Insufficient spring compressionB. Adjustment too highC. Scale on seatD. Broken valve seat

Ans. A

74. What is the variation from zero loads to full load of D.E?

A. SynchronizationB. Speed droopC. Speed rateD. Speed lag

Ans. B

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75. What is used particularly in reference to movement of an air in the cylinder and combustion chamber?

A. SilencerB. TurbochargingC. ScavengingD. Generator

Ans. B

76. What important property of oil affects engine performance?

A. Specific gravityB. Flash pointC. Pour pointD. Viscosity

Ans. D

77. What is the purpose of the pneumatic pressure tank in a sanitary system?

A. Provide higher-pressureB. Reduce pressure fluctuationC. Increase water flowD. Prevent losing suction

Ans. A

78. These are three distinct stages in fire fighting?

A. Alarm control and detectionB. Control detection and alarmC. Detection alarm and controlD. Alarm detection and control

Ans. C79. This a device which uses a mercury manometer in conjunction with a

hemispherical belt and piping to measure tank level;

A. Height glassB. Float operatedC. Pneumatic gaugeD. Gauge glass

Ans. C

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80. What engine part included in the classification of running gears?

A. A – frameB. PistonC. Bed – plateD. Cylinder liner

Ans. B

81. In starting up the lube oil cooler, what is the first thing to do?

A. Open the cooling water pump dischargeB. Never close the gravity tank dischargeC. Start the lube- oil pumpD. Personally start the cooling water pump

Ans. A

82. The joining of two pieces of copper tubing of the same diameter by expanding or stretching the end of one piece of fit over the other so the joint may be soldered or base is called:

A. SwagingB. Vis – breakingC. ExpandingD. Trimming

Ans. A

83. Cylinder lubricating has the primary function of forming a film between liner and rings and to:

A. Have increase thermal expansion in liner and ringsB. Increase friction between liner and ringsC. Reduce friction between liner and ringsD. Totally add more pressure in the liner

Ans. C

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84. To sure that the maintenance work is done properly and according to the schedule for each engine for each month of the current year, the operator should have a:

A. Watch clearance as indicated by engine buildersB. Schedule of engine equipment inspectionC. Log operating dataD. Maintenance log sheet

Ans. D

85. In a direct connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine would be fitted with a:

A. Isochronous hunting governorB. Rotating governor discC. Variable speed governorD. Constant frequency governor

Ans. C

86. Pipes installed in salt water supply lines to plumbing fixtures and plumbing drains also for bilge lines:

A. Copper pipeB. Lead pipeC. Brass pipeD. Aluminum pipe

Ans. A

87. The instrument used to determine the velocity of the lubricating oil:

A. Gage pressureB. Flow meterC. Say bolt viscosimeterD. Hydrometer

Ans. C

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88. A total measurement using zero pressure as datum:

A. Absolute pressure B. Barometric pressureC. Gauge pressureD. Vacuum pressure

Ans. A

89. When building up speed a turbine start to vibrate, what would you do?

A. Immediately stop engineB. Built up high speedC. Slow down immediatelyD. Immediately transfer at stop speed

Ans. C

90. Present cooling of injectors that is more widely used is by:

A. BlowerB. Air coolingC. Fuel itselfD. Lubricant

Ans. C

91. In any modern system equipped with a variable pitch screw, the blades are driven by:

A. Running in oilB. Oil pressureC. Air pressureD. Butter with system

Ans. B

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92. If fires go out in the boiler what is the first thing to do?

A. Call the engineer on watchB. Resign all the bridgeC. The chief engineerD. Secure the feed pump

Ans. A

93. What percentage of oil travels with the refrigerant?

A. 25%B. 10%C. 11%D. 33%

Ans. B

94. This value not only a stop valve but also serves as check to prevent flow reversal in the event of unbalanced pressure:

A. Wedge nozzle valveB. Non return valveC. High pressure glove valveD. Check operated valve

Ans. B

95. The most important single piece of equipment in any steam power plant is?

A. OperatorsB. PumpsC. BoilersD. Machine

Ans. C

96. A wheel located aft in the steering engine room and is normally disconnected and if will be used in the vent the telemotor become disable:

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A. Magic-steering wheelB. Strick wheelC. Trick – steering wheelD. Zenith steering wheel

Ans. C

97. Any water present in the refrigerant side of a Freon refrigerating system causes a/an:

A. Cold sweating on trapB. Clogged scale trapC. Frozen expansion valveD. Clogged oil trap

Ans. C

98. A space between a moving and a stationary part:

A. SpaceB. ThrustC. ClearanceD. Retrieve

Ans. C

99. The rate of at which a system will absorbed heat from refrigerated space or substance is known as:

A. Coefficient of performanceB. Total heatC. Refrigerating capacityD. Displacement volume

Ans. C

100. The throttle valve jam or stick open should be closed by:

A. Gear teethB. Stop valveC. Valve unitD. Gear valve

Ans. B

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101. Used to designate the combination of all parts which control the admission of the air charge and discharge of exhaust gases in four stroke engines.

A. Valve gearB. Valve unionC. Valve timingD. Timing valves

Ans. C

102. When reciprocating pumps run by steam the power end is called:

A. Steam endB. Liquid steamC. Steam baseD. Liquid rectifier

Ans. A

103. The sedimentation tank receives the fuel from the storage tanks where after settling:

A. Daily purging is effectuatedB. Monthly purging is necessaryC. Gas purging is necessaryD. Hourly purging is effectuated

Ans. A

104. Of the following safety information’s which can be found in the fire control plans posted:

A. Bridge stationB. Hall stationC. Location of fire doorsD. Escape tunnel

Ans. C

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105. Is an eccentric projection on a revolving disc used for the opening and closing of a valve through various intermediate parts:

A. PistonB. CamC. NozzleD. Oppressor

Ans. B

106. The temperature at which the oil vapor above oil will flash when a small flame is applied:

A. Flash pointB. Quick pointC. Set pointD. Reaction point

Ans. A

107. An axial flow pump uses a:

A. Piston B. Screw propellerC. Oscillating vaneD. Volute

Ans. B

108. The oil system fails while underway, what is the first thing to do?

A. Re-start the stand by lube-oil pumpB. Secure the boilerC. Open the outlet value on the gravity tankD. Tap the main engine

Ans. A

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109. You are testing leaks in a newly repaired refrigeration circuit. Which substance should not be used to develop pressure in the circuits?

A. OxygenB. BrineC. Carbon dioxideD. Aluminum gel

Ans. A

110. The term used when a number of individually small holes are bored within the thickness of a part so that water can be passes closed to the heated surface.

A. Bore coolingB. Reduce effectC. Saturated coolingD. Thermal cooling

Ans. A

111. In avoiding excessive pressure during bunkering, you should:

A. Reduce the loading rate when topping offB. Close main talk filling valves C. Top of all tanks at the same timeD. Close non-return valve

Ans. A

112. It is essential to smooth operation?

A. AlignmentB. Under stressC. VibrationD. Torsion

Ans. A

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113. What oil is passed by the relief valve and is turned to the oil fan?

A. Mineral oilB. Natural oilC. Surplus oilD. Linseed oil

Ans. C

114. What refrigerated that will operate on lowest pressure and therefore required the lowest compressor power consumption.

A. BrineB. Careen 707C. FreonD. A – 1309

Ans. C

115. This is a type if electrical thermometer which uses resistance change to measure temperature:

A. ThermocouplesB. Watt meterC. Optical pyrometerD. Piezo – electric pyrometer

Ans. A

116. This is an inert vapor, non-poisonous, odorless and has no corrosive action of the metals:

A. Carbon naphthaB. Carbon dioxideC. Carbon peroxideD. Carbon monoxide

Ans. B

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117. Immediately after any diesel engine is started the engineer should check the ______.

A. Crankcase pressureB. Lube oil pressureC. Saltwater pressureD. Exhaust temperature

Ans. B

118. What is the main reason why heavy fuel oil must be pre-heated prior to use in a low speed engine?

A. Decreased moisture contentB. Increase cetane numberC. Decrease viscosityD. Increase ignition quality

Ans. C

119. The cubic inch displacement of an engine or cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the _________.

A. Length of the crankshaftB. Volume of the clearance spaceC. Weight of the pistonD. Length of the stroke

Ans. D 120. One disadvantage of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine is

________.

A. More power stroke per revolutionB. The use of scavenge airC. More complicated value gearD. Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder

Ans. D 121. A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is _______.

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A. Opening the exhaust portsB. Closing the fuel portsC. Farthest from the cylinder headD. Nearest to the cylinder head

Ans. D

122. Improper (poor) combustion in a diesel engine could be cause by__________.

A. High compression pressureB. Low intake air temperatureC. Low exhaust pressureD. High scavenge air pressure

Ans. B

123. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed propulsion diesel engines is admitted to each cylinder during:

A. Power strokeB. Compression stroke C. Low load operation onlyD. Periods of standby

Ans. B

124. Loop, uniflow and return flow are terms uses to describe various types of:

A. Control air circuitsB. Super changingC. Turbo changingD. Scavenging

Ans. D

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125. Normally the greatest cavitations erosion on the waterside of wet cylinder liners is ______.

A. Throughput the lower one-half of the linerB. Throughout the upper one-half of the linerC. At DC opposite the thrust side of the linerD. Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner

Ans. D

126. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an ______.

A. Worn cylinder linerB. Faulty cylinder relief valueC. Excessive lube oil pressureD. Excessive scavenge air pressure

Ans. A

127. What instrument is used to take crankshaft web deflection readings?

A. A feelerB. An outside micrometerC. A strain gaugeD. A gauge block

Ans. C

128. In a diesel engine, blow by __________.

A. Increase exhaust back pressureB. Causes excessive crankcase pressure C. Can only be detected by a compression checkD. Decreases fuel consumption

Ans. B129. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates ________.

A. Worn connecting rod bearingsB. Worn engine cylinder linersC. High cylinder firing pressureD. Stuck spring loaded manhole covers

Ans. B

130. Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine because the ________ there.

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A. Side thrust is greatestB. Skirt makes greatest contactC. Highest pressures are exertedD. Acceleration rate is greatest

Ans. C

131. In what portion of two cycle opposed piston diesel engine cylinder does maximum wear occur?

A. Upper endB. Lower endC. MiddleD. Thrust side

Ans. C

132. A properly honed cylinder liner in an diesel engine will __________.

A. Prevent piston ring wearB. Shorten the ring break-in periodC. Prevent cylinder liner glazingD. Appear slick and glazed

Ans. B

133. Which of the following will have the direct impact on the rate of wear in cylinder liner _________?

A. Amount of scavenge air to the cylinder B. Quality of fuel injectedC. Viscosity of the lube oilD. Compression ratio of the piston

Ans. B

134. At what condition could cause cylinder relief valves on a large diesel engine to lift?

A. Plugged injection nozzlesB. Excessive fuel injectionC. Very late injection timing

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D. Incorrect crankshaft clearance

Ans. B

135. If the relief valve or a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be _______.

A. Liquid in the cylinder B. Low compression in the cylinderC. High exhaust temperatureD. Poor fuel penetration

Ans. A

136. When compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the _______.

A. Cylinder exhaust ports B. Injection lineC. Cylinder indicator cockD. Banjo oiler line

Ans. C

137. What is called the lower section of a piston?

A. LandB. SkirtC. CrownD. Plate

Ans. B

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138. The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, this done to _________.

A. Facilitate the installation of a piston ringsB. Allow for the expansion of the piston during operationC. Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamberD. Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder lines

Ans. B

139. Turbulence in the compressed air charge increases ___________.

A. Ignition lagsB. Piston side thrustC. The efficiency of the engineD. Compression pressure

Ans. C

140. In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason the piston skirt is knurled to _______.

A. Improved skirt lubricationB. Allow for expansionC. Transmit forces evenlyD. Improve the piston seal

Ans. A

141. What would cause a diesel engine to use too much lube oil?

A. Dirty lube oil filterB. Too much piston ring wearC. High lube oil viscosityD. Low lube oil temperature

Ans. B

142. Black areas on the sealing surface of piston rings indicates _______.

A. Lube oil pumpingB. Rotating rings

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C. Gas pressure behind the ringD. Hot gas escaping

Ans. D

143. Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause

________.

A. Excessive lube oil consumptionB. Lower than normal lube oil temperatureC. Higher than normal exhaust back pressureD. Excessive crankshaft end play

Ans. A

144. A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal _______.

A. Firing pressureB. Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinderC. Cooling water temperatureD. Compression pressure

Ans. B

145. The easiest way to locate defective exhaust valve in a propulsion diesel engine is by:

A. Taking compression readingsB. Inspecting the valves visuallyC. Exhaust pyrometer readingsD. Listening to the engine

Ans. C

146. Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will result in the exhaust valve opening

A. Later and closing earlierB. Later and closing laterC. Earlier and closing earlierD. Earlier and closing later

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Ans. A

147. In a diesel engine, the time period between full injection and ignition is usually defined as:

A. Injection duration B. Ignition timingC. Pre combustion lagD. Ignition delay

Ans. D

148. The low-pressure steam drain system drains to the _______.

A. Deacrating feed water heaterB. Contaminated drain inspection tankC. Atmospheric drain tankD. Main condenser hot well

Ans. C

149. Testing the viscosity of engine lube oil where result may indicate _______.

A. Fuel oil dilutionB. Oxidation of the lube oilC. (Both a and b) oxidation and dilutionD. Salinity and hardness

Ans. C

150. A metal scribe should only be used to

A. Remove packingB. Mark the metalC. Punch gaskets holesD. Clean file teeth

Ans. B 151. What is the tool used to removed a ball bearing from the shaft of a

motor?

A. Sluggish wrench

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B. Gear pullerC. Drift pinD. Came along

Ans. B

152. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the

A. Set B. RakeC. PitchD. Thread gauge

Ans. C

153. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drills _________.

A. LengthB. DiameterC. Clearance angleD. Web thickness

Ans. B

154. Which materials can be drilled at the highest speed?

A. AluminumB. Medium cost ironC. CopperD. High carbon steel

Ans. A

155. When checking Zinc plates in the condenser cooler, you should ______.

A. Replace the plates if 50% deterioratedB. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosionC. Renew the platesD. File the plates to change the negative value

Ans. A

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156. What is that device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed space?

A. Flame relief valueB. Flame/spark arresterC. Flame stopperD. Safety valve

Ans. B

157. Which of the listed decreases the total dissolve solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?

A. Frequent compoundingB. Chemical cleaningC. Bottom blowingD. Hydrazine treatment of condensate

Ans. C

158. At normal operating conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an R-12 refrigeration system as a ________.

A. LiquidB. Super heated vaporC. Dry saturated gasD. Wet saturated gas

Ans. B

159. What harmful effect can result if a diesel engine is operated at very high loads for lone period of time?

A. Increase carbon build up B. Increase fuel consumptionC. Burning of intake bulbD. Excessive firing pressure

Ans. A

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160. What kind of lube oil on reciprocating pump rods?

A. Oil mixed with keroseneB. Graphite and oilC. Used engine oilD. Cold grease

Ans. B

161. The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by ________.

A. PressureB. VolumeC. WeightD. Temperature

Ans. C 162. A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard/air

conditioning system is ________.

A. Methyl chlorideB. WaterC. Carbon dioxideD. Trichloro ethylene

Ans. B

163. Which is a secondary refrigerant?

A. Methyl alcoholB. BrineC. Carbon dioxideD. Cuprous chloride Ans. B

164. Refrigerant enters the condenser as an

A. High pressure liquid B. Low pressure vaporC. High pressure vaporD. Low pressure liquid

Ans. C

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165. When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it next goes to the ________.

A. Evaporator coilsB. Liquid strainer C. CompressorD. Condenser

Ans. B

166. What will cause an automatically controlled R – 12 compressors to start?

A. Closing of the solenoid valveB. Closing of the expansion valveC. Increasing suction pressureD. Decreasing suction pressure

Ans. C

167. The low-pressure side of a refrigeration system is from the ________.

A. Expansion valve to the compressorB. Receiver to the expansion coilC. Expansion valve to the evaporatorD. Condenser to the expansion valve

Ans. A168. In refrigeration plant purpose of the receiver is to ________.

A. Cool the refrigerant gasB. Superheat the refrigerant liquidC. Store the refrigerantD. Condense the refrigerant

Ans. C

169. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _______.

A. FlowB. TemperatureC. SuperheatD. Pressure

Ans. C

170. In refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the:

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A. CondenserB. DehydratorC. Liquid strainerD. Hygrometer

Ans. B

171. When air is at its dew point it is at its ______ humidity.

A. Lowest absoluteB. Lowest relativeC. Highest absoluteD. Highest relative

Ans. D 172. In an air-conditioning system, moisture system moisture is

removed from the air by _____.

A. FiltersB. SeparatorC. Ducted trapsD. Dehumidifiers

Ans. D

173. Compressor crankcase sweating is an indicator of ________.

A. Insufficient lube oilB. Excessive lube oilC. Liquid refrigerant in the compressorD. An overworked compressor

Ans. C

174. Efficient combustion in a boiler is indicated by a ________ haze.

A. WhiteB. BrownC. YellowD. Black

Ans. B

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175. Pulsating fires in a boiler furnace can be caused by ________.

A. Low fuel temperatureB. Too much airC. Low fuel pressureD. Too little air

Ans. D

176. Oil or scale in boiler tubes will cause ________.

A. Those tubes to overheatB. Decreased boiler steam pressureC. Increased boiler steam pressureD. An explosion in the boiler

Ans. A

177. The fusible plugs used in the fire-tube auxiliary boilers are installed in the _____.

A. FurnaceB. End bellC. Stay tubeD. Crown sheet

Ans. D

178. The air cock on a boiler allows the _______.

A. Waterside to be purged of airB. Boiler casing to be purged of airC. Super heater to be completely ventedD. Economize to be vented

Ans. A179. The bottom blow valve on a water tube boiler is usually attached

to the ______.

A. Steam and water drumB. Boiler mud drumC. Extend down comersD. Floor tubes

Ans. B

180. Sodium phosphate in boiler water can be measured by a/an _______ lost.

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A. AlkalinityB. PhosphateC. ChlorinityD. Calcium hardness

Ans. B

181. Phenolphthalein in indicator is used to test boiler water for _______.

A. Dissolved oxygenB. AlkalinityC. Chloride contentD. Hardness

Ans. B

182. A sulfide test is conducted on boiler water to check for _______.

A. NitratesB. SulfatesC. PhosphatesD. Excess oxygen scavenging agents

Ans. D

183. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by ______.

A. DistillateB. Sea waterC. BrineD. Air

Ans. B

184. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a:

A. Center drillB. Finish drillC. BroachD. Reamer

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Ans. D

185. The drill size is marked on the _________.

A. PointB. ShankC. MarginD. Flute

Ans. B

186. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe _______.

A. CutterB. Stock and dieC. TapD. Chaser

Ans. B

187. To ensure the stock is running in a lathe you should use a ______.

A. Center gageB. Gage blockC. Dial indicatorD. Micrometer

Ans. C

188. The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the ________.

A. Flexible bladeB. All-hard bladeC. All soft bladeD. Hollow care blade

Ans. B

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189. A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be used to cut _____.

A. Angle icon and heavy pipeB. Cost iron and soft steelC. Thin tubing or sheet metalD. Drill rod and tool sheets

Ans. B

190. File lengths are determined by the ______.

A. Over all length of the fileB. Distance between the face and the edge of the fileC. Distance between the point and the heel of the fileD. Length of the tong only

Ans. C

191. Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges?

A. MileB. PillarC. Half roundD. Knife

Ans. B

192. It is the name given to decrease in boiler metal thickness in which this decrease appears as small holes eaten in the metal.

A. FoamingB. PittingC. PrimingD. Grooving

Ans. B

193. Fusible plugs are installed in fire tube boilers to:

A. Provide a means of draining the boiler B. Cool the crown sheet at high firing rates

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C. Warn the engineer of low water levelD. Open the burner’s electrical firing circuits

Ans. C

194. If a tube failure results from low water level and you cannot maintain water in sight in the gauge glass, you should ____________.

A. Immediately secure the force draft fansB. Blow down the gauge glass to verify a low water conditionC. Immediately secure the fuel oil supply to the burnersD. Increase the feed pump speed to maximum

Ans. C

195. Gasket leakage around boiler hand holes may be caused by____________.

A. Pitted seating surfacesB. Improper positioning of the gasketC. Loose boltsD. All of these

Ans. B

196. When a vessel is dry docked for inspection, which of the following valves are required to be opened during this period?

A. High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks B. Bottom blow skin valves to the main auxiliary boilers C. Ballast pump manifold valves D. Pooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers

Ans. B

197. A broken intake valve on an operating air compressor is indicated by ____________.

A. Air blowing out through the inlet air filter B. Excessive temperature in the after coolerC. Excessive compression in the cylinderD. Short cycling valve of the compressor

Ans. A

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198. A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two-stage, high pressure air compressor can cause excessively high____________.

A. Pressure in the after coolerB. Second-stage discharge pressureC. First-stage discharge pressure D. Compressor discharge temperature

Ans. C

199. The rate of expansion of heated fuel varies with the specific ____________.

A. Volume B. ViscosityC. ConductivityD. Gravity

Ans. D

200. The process of minimizing the friction and wear between moving metal parts by the formation of a film of oil between them is called ______.

A. LubricationB. AtomizationC. InjectionD. Force feed

Ans. A

201. A grease lubricating ball or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease____________.

A. Has a low grease penetration numberB. Fills 10% of all avoid space within the bearing C. Is heated prior to packing the bearing D. Is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil

Ans. A

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202. Engines which run with petrol (or paraffin) as the fuel are sometimes called as___________.

a. Gasoline enginesb. Internal combustion engine c. Light oil enginesd. Petrol engines

Ans. C

203. How is tubing measured and sized?

A. Cross-sectional area B. Outside diameter C. Normal wall thicknessD. Inside diameter

Ans. B

204. A tail stock ‘dead center’ has been given that name because it ____________.

A. Must be removed by clamping in the chuck B. Does not revolve C. Is dead centered on the tail stock spindle D. Fits into the dead center of the work piece

Ans. B205. A dirty intercooler on the ship’s service air compressor will result

in____________.

A. Decreased compression ratioB. Water in the lubricating oil C. Higher than normal power consumptionD. Unloaded malfunction

Ans. C

206. When steel is tempered it becomes ________?

A. Softer B. Less brittle C. More brittleD. Harder

Ans. B

207. Which of the following may be determined by conducting a simple spot test of engine lube oil?

46

A. Approximately degree of contaminationB. Approximately lube oil viscosity C. Percent of fuel dilution of lube oilD. NB number

Ans. A

208. A mechanical property of material which enables it to be drawn easily into wire form like elongation and contraction from tensile test is called____________.

A. Plasticity B. MalleabilityC. ElasticityD. Ductility

Ans. D

209. Cutting tools used in planer work are the same as those used in______________.

A. Circular sawB. GrinderC. ShaperD. Lathe

Ans. C

210. A machine tool which uses an abrasive wheel as a cutting tool to obtain a very high degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on a metal part.

A. MillingB. GrindingC. ShaperD. Lathe

Ans. B

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211. If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe machine and see blue chips coming of the workpiece, you should _________.

a. Decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the toolb. Reduce the cutting tool height above the centerc. Reduce the tool feed or the depth of cutd. Decrease the cross compound speed

Ans. C

212. One method of accurately checking the alignment of lathe centers is by moving the dial indicator securely mounted on compound rest between the two positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on the tailstock end of the testbar shows a higher (plus) reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock end, you should move the tailstock ___________.

a. Away from you to correct alignmentb. Toward you to correct alignmentc. Closer to the headstock to reduce offsetd. Away from the headstock to decrease misalignment

Ans. A

213. Workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If a test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

a. Away from you to correct alignmentb. Toward you to correct alignmentc. Closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offsetd. Away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

Ans. A

214. If you are machining a work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first _________.

48

A. Lubricate the centerB. Stop the latheC. Change the cutting bitD. Run the lathe at a slower speed

Ans. B

215. When a stock is turned in a lathe, the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to ________.

A. The depth of cutB. One half the depth of cutC. Twice the depth of cutD. Twice the rate of feed

Ans. C

216. Which of the statement best described the term “depth of cut” in lathe work?

a. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work

b. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece

c. The distance the workpiece circumference past the cutting tool point in 1 minute

d. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute

Ans. B

217. The dead center of the work can properly be used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.

a. Counter boredb. Taperedc. Center drilledd. Convexed

Ans. C

218. Which lathe operation is best done with the carriage locked in position?

a. Facing work held in chuckb. Turning work held between centersc. Threading internal threadsd. Boring an angled hole

Ans. A

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219. When drilling a hole in the piece of work being chucked, you should mount the chuck drill in the _________.

a. Compound restb. Cross feedc. Tailstockd. Headstock

Ans. C

220. The maximum size of fillet weld can be used at _________.

a. 2 mmb. 3 mmc. 0.5 mmd. 10 mm

Ans. A

221. An example of active flux is _________.

a. Potassium oxideb. Sodium peroxidec. Zinc chlorided. Calcium nitride

Ans. C

222. A process whereby two metals is to be heated to produce a joint which is strong or stronger than the parent metal is called __________.

a. Making bondingb. Arc weldingc. C. Solderingd. Gas welding

Ans. B

223. The heat of brazing melts the borax to form a protective _________.

50

a. Dye penetrantb. Slagc. Coatd. Base

Ans. B

224. The weld used to join shell plates in flush construction is known as ________ welds.

a. Filletb. Buttc. Continuousd. Seam

Ans. B

225. The first metal used in steel ship construction is _________.

a. Brassb. Wrought ironc. Pig irond. Cast iron

Ans. B

226. The maximum stress at which the material can support without failure is known as ______ strength.

a. Ultimateb. Ductilec. Breakingd. Compressive

Ans. A

227. A kind of packing used in steam joints is _________.

a. Asbestosb. Copper gasketc. Elastic packingd. Diathermal packing

Ans. A

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228. The capability of a material to be able to absorb large quantity of energy before fracture is called __________.

a. Toughnessb. Ductilityc. Elasticityd. Free stress

Ans. A

229. Which material is excellent for use as seals and diaphragm for water lubricated bearings?

a. Rubberb. Titanium alloyc. Silicond. Uranium

Ans. A

230. The proportionality of stress and strain under certain condition is called _________.

a. Hooke’s lawb. Luminous intensityc. Newton’s lawd. Mutual inductance

Ans. A

231. The casing of lead-acid battery is made of __________.

52

a. Hard rubberb. Hard asbestosc. Soft copperd. Soft bismuth

Ans. A

232. A strong plastic which is machinable for use in fabrication of gears, bushing, washers, spacers, etc. is __________.

a. Teflonb. Nylonc. Polymerd. Silicon

Ans. A

233. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and _________.

a. Cooling slowly in airb. Dousing in oilc. Dousing in cold waterd. Dousing in hot water

Ans. A

234. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by cold ________.

a. Headingb. Rollingc. Swaggingd. Turning

Ans. A

235. Silver solder is an alloy of silver and _________.

a. Tin or leadb. Brass mixed bronzec. Copper and zincd. Bronze or tin

Ans. A

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236. The product of mechanical efficiency and the compression efficiency is known as _______ efficiency.

a. Pascal’sb. Overallc. Mechanical-electricald. Compression-mechanical

Ans. D

237. The process of mixing oil and water is called ___________.

a. Contaminationb. Filtrationc. Emulsificationd. Vaporization

Ans. C

238. All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot be converted into mechanical work is a demonstration of ___________.

a. The 2nd law of thermodynamicsb. The 3rd law of thermodynamicsc. Superheated steamd. Newton’s 3rd law of motion

Ans. A

239. The form of energy associated with the random motion of large numbers of molecule is known as _________.

a. Heatb. Workc. Young’s modulus of elasticityd. X-ray

Ans. A

54

240. A metal used in piping on board ships that is more durable than copper pipes and is also used in cooling water installations, sanitary installations, oil coolers, and heat exchangers, heat coils etc. is called ___________.

a. Aluminum brass (Yorcalbro)b. White meal (Babbitt Metal)c. Cuniferd. Bronze

Ans. A

241. How is annealing process carried out?

a. By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and then allowing it to cool as slowly as possible

b. By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating it again as slowly as possible

c. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling

d. By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally allowing it cool as slowly as possible

Ans. A

242. How is hardening process carried out?

55

a. By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and finally allowing it to cool in still air

b. By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing it to cool inside the furnace

c. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling

d. By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally it to cool as slowly as possible

Ans. C

243. Why do we apply tempering process on metals?

a. To increase the hardness and lessen the ductility of the material

b. To soften the material for easy pressing or bending purposesc. To remove some of the hardness, making the steel less brittle

and more toughd. To produce a hard strong steel with a refined grain structure

Ans. C

244. What is meant by the term “pig iron”?

a. The basic material used in the manufacture of various steel and iron

b. Sand channel into which molten metals flowc. The molten iron collected in the hearth of the furnaced. A crude, high-carbon iron produced by reduction of iron ore in

a blast furnace

Ans. D

245. Which statement is true regarding the purpose/use of the alloying element chromium?

56

a. Used in removing the possibility of embrittlement in steelb. It does not greatly reduce ductility until 8% chromium is

reachedc. It is extensively used in heat exchangers, usually of the plate

type varietyd. Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves resistance to

corrosion and erosion

Ans. D

246. Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials?

a. For maintenance purposesb. To test the mechanical properties of the materialsc. So that the life span of the material will be knownd. To determine their suitability for use in engineering

Ans. D

247. Which is not true about non-destructive testing?

a. Special test pieces are used which are damaged during the process

b. These tests are carried out on components, not test piecesc. These tests give no indication of mechanical propertiesd. They are used to detect flaws or imperfections during

manufacture or those that develop during service

Ans. A

248. A method of detecting surface defects (e.g. cracks) by the use of microscope or hand lens is called _________.

a. Radiographyb. Visual examination or inspectionc. Oil and whitewashd. Magnetic crack detection

Ans. B

249. What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a filler material in polymers?

a. For reducing electrical conductivityb. To improve corrosion resistancec. For strengthd. To improve heat resistance

Ans. C

57

250. Rubbers are used ________.

a. For choking engines, winches, pumps, etc.b. As a framework to give strength, produce insertion jointings

and also used in packingc. As seals in place of bronze wear rings in sea water pumpsd. For fresh and salt water pipe joints, water lubricated bearings

and is used for bucket rings in feed pumps

Ans. D

251. What are the factors/material properties to consider in the use of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)?

a. Resistant to corrosion and a good electrical conductorb. Unaffected by steam, petrol, paraffin, fuel oils and lubricantsc. Unaffected by waters and oilsd. Resistant to water and chemicals, and is a good electrical

insulator

Ans. D

252. What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ships?

a. It is used in place of rubber, can be used for anti-vibration mountings, jointings, etc.

b. It is used as thermal insulationc. It is used for pipes and fittings, electrical conduits, for cable

and wire insulation, etc.d. It is used for water lubricated bearings, gland rings, jointing

tape, etc.

Ans. A253. How is “electric arc” produced in electric arc welding process?

a. By closing the circuit thereby allowing the continued flow of electricity

b. By touching the electrode and then withdrawing itc. By lowering the voltage and increasing the electric currentd. By passing an electric current between two electrodes

separated by a small gap

Ans. D

254. Which statement is NOT true about brazing process?

58

a. Brazing process is used to join similar or dissimilar metalsb. Brazing filler metals are lead & tin or aluminum & zinc alloysc. Brazing filler metals are alloys of copper, nickel, silver and

aluminumd. Brazing uses a flux to dissolved or remove oxides

Ans. B

255. What is the appropriate action for the plate edge of a metal that has acquired local hardness due to rapid cooling after the gas cutting operation?

a. Plate edges should be machined or grindedb. Plate edges should be heat treated by means of the torchc. Plate edges should be treated (plated) with chromiumd. Plate edges should be soaked in a hot water

Ans. A

256. The change in length of an object in some direction, not necessarily the same that is produced by an externally applied load is called __________.

a. Tensionb. Contractionc. Straind. Stress

Ans. C

257. When a material on one side pushes on the material on the other side of the surface with a force parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be a __________.

a. Shearing stressb. Compacting stressc. Tensile stressd. Resisting stress

Ans. A

59

258. How is the “vertical position welding” carried out?

a. By positioning the weld with the axis perpendicular to the ground

b. By placing the weld with the axis parallel to the groundc. By starting to weld only the lower portion of the joint going upd. By welding on the upper side of the joint with the face of the

weld parallel to the ground

Ans. A

259. The composition of hazardous fumes will depend on the following EXCEPT the ____________.

a. Filler material b. Method of weldingc. Weld slagd. Base material

Ans. C

260. Melting, cutting or welding of lead can cause “lead poisoning” because lead fumes _________.

a. Enter the blood stream if inhaledb. Enter and irritates the skin when exposed for a period of time c. Enter the lungs and clog the air sacd. In large concentration can cause asphyxiation

Ans. A

261. How can we prevent incomplete fusion in a weld?

a. By pre – heating the workpiece before the start of weldb. By careful pre – weld cleaning, correct current and good

welding techniquec. By not allowing the slag to get in front of the molten metald. By using the correct variations weave weld pattern

Ans. B

262. How are gas pressures regulated in the cylinder tanks of gas welding and cutting operations?

60

a. By attaching a safety device and other accessories necessary for the required operation

b. By attaching regulators to the cylinder top valves and then setting it to the recommended working pressure

c. By “cracking” the top valve of the gas cylinder tank and then adjusting it to a required operating pressure

d. By directly connecting the welding hoses on the outlet and letting the torch valve regulate and control the gas pressure

Ans. B

263. When cutting a piece of material, the size of the cutting tip will depend on the ________.

a. Center orifice of the nozzleb. Thickness of the material to be cutc. Position of the pre – heat orificesd. Type of metals to be cut

Ans. B

264. You were about to start oxy – acetylene gas cutting operation to create a slot and holes in the middle portion of a metal plate. What is the correct and proper approach when conducting the piercing operation at the start of a cut?

I. Direct then preheat flame against the starting point slightly above the surface plate until the portion is red to white hot.

II. Press the preheat lever immediately at the very start of the cutting operation directly at the top of the plate.

III. Lift the nozzle slightly above the preheat position, press down the cutting lever and then bring down the torch tip slightly above the plate to start the cut.

IV. Move the torch tip immediately in contact with the metal plate to the direction of travel and guide the torch steadily along the line.

61

a. I onlyb. Both I and IIIc. Both II and IVd. II, III and IV

Ans. B

265. When starting the bevel cut, the torch tip should be _________.

a. Exactly in vertical position b. Horizontal positionc. Perpendicular to the metal surfaced. Inclined to a desired/required

Ans. D

266. The following statements holds true for tempering process EXCEPT ______.

a. It is carried out after hardening process is done on the materialb. The cooling process for tempering can be done in several

ways.c. After heating, the process of tempering can be applied

immediately to the material.d. The main purpose of tempering is to lessen the hardness and

brittleness of the material

Ans. C

267. The science of measurement is called ________.

a. Numerologyb. Meteorologyc. Mensurationd. Metrology

Ans. D

62

268. Which statement is true about crankshaft deflection gage?

a. It is the simplest and the most accurate method of checking alignments

b. It used for measuring linear dimensions, thickness or diameter

c. A tool for measuring angles formed by lines on the planed. An instrument for measuring narrow slots, small gaps and

clearances

Ans. D

269. What is the main difference between British standard threads and the Metric standards threads for a variety of sizes?

a. The British standard threads uses 55º thread angle while Metric standards uses 60° thread angle.

b. The British standard threads have the lower depth of thread as compared with Metric Standards thread.

c. The British standard threads has a flat root while the Metric standards has a rounded root.

d. The British standard threads have rounded crest while the metric standard threads have flat crest.

Ans. A

270. What is the principle involved in bonding materials using adhesives?

a. The sealing and bonding of two or more materials temporarily either metallic or nonmetallic by capillary means

b. The joining or establishing permanent bond on similar or dissimilar materials by the application of pressure

c. The fastening together of two or more solids with or without the application of heat

d. The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike materials by resins and their chemical combinations

Ans. D

271. What will happen to an elastic material if loaded above a point known as the elastic limit?

63

a. The material will return to its original dimensions when the load is removed.

b. The material will not return to its original dimensions and will be permanently deformed when the load is removed

c. The material will sustain then load conditions without failure.d. The material will break easily when given a sudden blow.

Ans. B

272. The main difference between ferrous metals from nonferrous metals is ________.

a. Its substantial amount of alloying elementsb. The amount of carbon contentc. The presence of other impuritiesd. Its substantial amount of iron

Ans. D

273. What is your observation and conclusion regarding the effect of carbon content w hen comparing the tensile strength, ductility, and hardness low-, medium-,and high - carbon steel?

a. As the carbon content increases, the hardness, tensile strength and ductility also increases.

b. As the carbon content increases, the hardness also increases but the tensile strength and ductility decreases.

c. As the carbon content increases, the tensile strength, hardness and ductility decreases.

d. As the carbon content increases, the hardness and tensile strength also increases but ductility decreases.

Ans. D

274. What is the main purpose of Alloy?

a. To change the grain structure of the materialb. To create a new chemical elementc. To enhance the mechanical property of the materiald. To eliminate carbon content

Ans. C

275. Which is true about the uses of gray cast iron?

64

a. It is used for axle and differential housing and gears.b. Suitable material for cylinder heads, and break and clutch

applications in motor vehicles.c. It is wanted for such product as rail wheels, rolls for crushing

grains and jaw crusher plates.d. Used for pipe fitting, frame sockets, and steering – column

housing.

Ans. A

276. The main purpose of a grinding machine is for ___________.

a. Cutting small amount of material to bring the work to a very fine and accurate finish

b. Removing very large amount of material to bring the work to near finish

c. Removing large amount of material to bring the work to close finish

d. Removing small amount of material to bring the work to a smooth finish

Ans. A

277. Why it is important to obtain accuracy when measuring materials/workpieces?

a. To obtain closeness of agreement among repeated measurement of same characteristics by same characteristics by same method under same condition

b. To get the permissible deviation from a basic dimensionc. To bring about the best possible feature outcome for a

particular material or workpieced. To meet and comply with the standard requirements/s needed

for the job Ans. D

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278. When applying linear measurement (e.g. to determine length, width, height, depth, etc.), it is usually made ________.

a. Indirectly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece

b. Directly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece

c. Using measuring tools with contact points only on the material/workpiece

d. Using measuring tools with contact surfaces only on the material/workpiece

Ans. B

279. Which statement is true when obtaining correct measurement using a steel tape rule?

a. Start the measuring tool setting from one end to any point of the steel rule to obtain correct measurement reading

b. Use the hook and extend the tape in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece

c. Place the steel tape rule in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece

d. Start the tool setting from the 1 in. line (10mm.line for metric) or other major graduations, rather from one end of the rule

Ans. B

280. Which statement is true when using outside caliper on a round stock to get the correct measurement?

a. Slightly drag the caliper leg points against the outside diameter (so it lightly touches the center line) of the stock

b. Clamp the caliper leg points very tightly against the outside diameter of the stock

c. Move the caliper leg points in and out the hole gentlyd. Adjust the caliper leg points loosely against the outside

diameter of the stock.

Ans. A

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281. Which does the term “marking out” refer to?

a. Locating lines, circles, arcs, points of drilling holesb. Measuring different lines on the workpiece/sc. Scratching of lines on the surface of a workpieced. Indenting of lines on the workpiece

Ans. C

282. “Laying out” means ________.

a. Measuring lines, circles, arcs, points for drilling holes and making cuts on workpiece/s

b. Locating and scribing points for machining and forming operations

c. Removing or chipping off some portions in a workpieced. Transferring drawing dimensions to the workpiece

Ans. A

283. Which statement best describes the purpose of a scriber?

a. A sharp piercing tool for drawing wide lines on any workpiece/sb. Any writing implement for making lines on a workpiecec. Any sharp pointed object that can mark out lines on a metal

workpieced. A sharp pointed tool used to make clean narrow lines on a

metal workpieces

Ans. D

284. You were tasked to mark out circles and arcs on a metal workpiece. Which marking tool are you going to use?

a. Compassb. Dividerc. Trammeld. Scriber

Ans. B

285. A center punch is used to _________.

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a. Locate the centers of a round stockb. Make a slight indentation on a workpiece to locate the

intersection of center linesc. Produce holes in metalsd. Make starting mark for drill when hole are to be drilled on metal

workpieces

Ans. D

286. Straightedge is used for _________.

a. Measuring long irregular shape surfaces for accuracyb. Checking long flat surfaces for accuracyc. Testing small and short flat surfaces for accuracyd. Checking flat and square surfaces for accuracy

Ans. B

287. Clamps are used for ________.

a. Holding small object, bending and shaping wiresb. Joining two or more workpiece/machine parts temporarilyc. Gripping and locking small parts togetherd. Binding and pressing two or more parts together, holding them

firmly in their relative position

Ans. D

288. Pliers are generally used for _________.

a. Holding parts together while they are worked onb. Holding and/or positioning material while it is being workedc. Holding small object and cutting, bending and shaping wired. Binding and pressing two or more pieces together

Ans. C

289. You were tasked to file keyway and other smaller square or rectangular holes with 90 degrees sides. What would do to accomplish the job?

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a. Use any file to finish the jobb. Select a suitable square file to accomplish the jobc. Get the triangular file to the corners holesd. Use a bastard file to accomplish the job.

Ans. B

290. You were given the task to scrape an internal curved surface and to remove the sharp edges from curved surfaces and holes. Which type/s of scrapers are you going to use?

a. Flat scraper, half-round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper

b. Flat scraper and half-round scraper onlyc. Half round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper onlyd. Half-round scraper only

Ans. D

291. Which statement is NOT true regarding the proper use of chisel employing safety precautions?

a. Remove any chisel head mushrooming by grinding becomes dangerous

b. Wear any type of eye protection equipment against flying chipsc. Edges cut on metal with a chisel are sharp and can cause bad

cuts. Remove them by grinding or filingd. Hold chisel so that if you miss the hammer it will not strike the

injure your hand

Ans. B

292. Threading dies are used for cutting __________.

a. Internal threadsb. Small holesc. External threadsd. Big holes

Ans. C293. What will be the most logical thing to do after identifying the

hazards in your work place such as the machine shop?

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a. Control the hazardsb. Evaluate and eliminate the hazardsc. Wear personal and protective equipment (PPE)d. Follow rules and regulations

Ans. B

294. Why is it necessary to wear a pair of safety shoes when performing an electric arc welding operation?

a. Because it will protect the wearer against slippagesb. Because it can relied upon for protection against falling objects

and floor obstructionsc. Because the wearer can depend on it against sharp objectsd. Because it can protect the wearer against excessive heat on

the floor area

Ans. B

295. “Electric arc” welding means _______.

a. A welding terminology which means a filler metal and base metal, or base metal only, melting together to form a weld

b. Simply that the welding is done with an arc between a covered metal electrode and the work

c. A welding process in which the joint is heated to fusion by a large electric current

d. To establish an arc for welding and cutting by the use of electrical current

Ans. C296. Which statement is true about the function of an electrode as an

essential part of a typical arc welding circuit?

a. It carries electric current from the power source to melt the parent metal

b. An essential part through which the current flow s between the electrode holder and the arc

c. The filler metal used for filling in the gap to fused metal parts together.

d. The part of an arc welding circuit that is produced by passing an electric between two electrodes separated by a small gap.

Ans. B

297. Carbon or Tungsten welding electrodes which establish the arc and maintain it without being melted are classified as ________ electrodes.

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a. Consumableb. Non-consumablec. Coatedd. Rutile

Ans. B

298. The materials used to prevent, dissolve or help remove oxides or undesirerable materials from weld are called _________.

a. Coatingsb. Fluxesc. Fillersd. Metal cores

Ans. B

299. Which statement is true regarding the difference/s between alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)?

I - AC uses transformer to lower the voltage while DC uses rectifier to elevate the currentII - AC continuously vary in value and reverses its direction of flow at regular intervals while DC current flowing in one direction, from a negative pole to a positive poleIII - AC cannot be sent long distances and its energy is lost along the way while DC can be sent long distances in almost all power distribution system.IV - AC flows at the same strength until it is turned off while DC flows in a variable manner.

A.I onlyB. II onlyC. Both III and IVD. Both II and IV

Ans. B

300. What is the effect of straight polarity in a given workpiece?

a. It produces a higher electrode melting rate.b. It provides a wider weld surface area.c. It increases penetration of weld.d. It does not have any effect at all on the workpiece.

Ans. C

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301. The fused metals at the joint is referred to as _______.

a. Jointb. Weldc. Weaved. Weld joint

Ans. B

302. The components or the necessary parts that need to function properly when using the modern center lathe machine onboard for a smooth and effective outside threading are __________.

I – carriage assembly II – quick change gear III – end gear train

a. I, II & IIIb. II & IIIc. I & IId. I & III

Ans. A

303. What are the ways or systems that can easily change the speed of the center lathe machine onboard during operation?

I – Gears II – Belts III – Motors

a. I & IIIb. I, II & IIIc. I & IId. II & III

Ans. A304. What kind of clothing should be worn when working in a center

lathe machine?

a. Coverallb. Lightc. Tightd. Loose

Ans. C

305. What is the best thing to do to hard and irregular form of metal object to be machined to its designed shape on a lathe machine?

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a. Boringb. Temperingc. Centeringd. Refacing

Ans. C

306. Which of the following tools is/are commonly used on a modern center lathe machine onboard?

I – Facing tool II – Boring tool III – Cutoff tool

a. II & IIIb. I, II & IIIc. I & IIId. I & II

And. B

307. Which of the following parts of a center lathe machine has the ability to rotate clockwise and counter clockwise for an effective operation?

a. Tailstockb. Apronc. Carriaged. Chuck

Ans. D

308. For a safe and effective threading operation on a lathe machine, the desired number of threads can be perfectly attained by using the_________.

a. speed of chuckb. adjustment of beltsc. series of gearsd. angle tool bit

Ans. C

309. Which of the following items below is the hardest tools’ tip than can endure the highest speed and have the smallest wear when used in the operation of a center lathe or electric driven shaper onboard?

a. Cast alloy

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b. High speed steelc. Diamondd. Ceramics

Ans. C

310. What do you call an operation where one end the product diameter is smaller that the other end?

a. Taperingb. Boringc. Drillingd. Refacing

Ans. A

311. Which of the parts of the center lathe listed below is needed to turn a right head

thread into a left hand thread?

a. Feed screwb. Indexing dialc. Tool postd. Universal chuck

Ans. A

312. A metal file has been clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file ____.

a. steel brushb. cardc. hair brushd. remover

Ans. B

313. When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files below will produce a fine finish?

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a. A double cut fileb. A fine cut file c. A single cut filed. A second cut file

Ans. C

314. A taper shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a ____________.

a. taper punchb. vice gripc. drill driftd. leather mallet

Ans. C

315. The type of force that tends to move toward the center is _____________.

a. centrifugal forceb. rotary forcec. centripetal forced. accelerated force

Ans. C

316. For feed and cutting works, most modern lathes are provided with ___________.

a. jaw chucksb. universal chucksc. quick change geard. all of these choices

Ans. D

317. Which angle are you looking for when center gage is used?

a. Thread pitchb. Center punchc. Drill centerd. 60 deg cutting tool

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Ans. D

318. What do you call a procedure wherein a uniformly roughened or checkered surface is made in a lathe machine?

a. Checkeringb. Rougheningc. Knurlingd. Cross cutting

Ans. C

319. Which of the following items below is another term for a lathe dog fitted with a headless screw?

a. Fixing clampb. Holding clampc. Standard clampd. Safety lathe dog

Ans. D

320. In a lathe machine tapering attachment, the taper produced is determined by setting the ________.

a. guide bar b. automatic cross angle feedc. tool bit angled. compound rest angle

Ans. A

321. To ensure that the stock remains “on center” in a lathe, you should use with the aid of a/an _____________.

a. gauge blockb. dial indicatorc. micrometerd. tool bit feed

Ans. B

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322. Which of the following is gibbed to the bed and form similar to letter “H”?

a. Saddleb. Head stockc. Tool postd. tailstock

Ans. A

323. Which of the following defines the amount of the tool advanced per revolution on a lathe machine?

a. Feedb. Speedc. Depthd. Gear

Ans. A

324. To properly drill an oil hole in a bushing in a lathe machine, you would mount the

crotch center in the ___________.

a. universal chuckb. 3-jaw chuckc. tailstockd. tool post

Ans. C

325. Which of the following cutting tool is commonly used on the shaper?

a. Right-hand roughing b. Carbide tip c. Finishing d. Left hand

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Ans. A

326. The Shaper can be used to produce either concave or convex surfaces although it was intended originally to produce only plane surfaces like ___.

a. flat steel plateb. bulkheadc. doord. ball

Ans. A

327. What shape or form of the metal material to be machined can the electric shaper onboard are used safely and effectively?

a. Circleb. Flatc. Triangulard. Round

Ans. B

328. In order to obtain an economical and efficient operation of a shaping machine, which of the following factors should be put into good use?

a. Proper feed rateb. Tool selectionc. Stroke adjustmentd. All of these choices

Ans. D

329. For the prevention of distortion or springing of the work fastened to the Shaper’s table, an important consideration is to tighten the clamp bolts holding the work ________________.

a. no more than is necessary to hold the work firmly on the tableb. very tightly to hold the work in placec. lightly to prevent breakage of the clamping unitd. and assist by holding it firmly by hand

Ans. A

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330. Which of the following cuttings is/are commonly used on a shaping machine?

a. Right-hand roughingb. Gooseneckc. Round nosed. All of these choices

Ans. D

331. Which type of motion does a cutting tool of a shaping machine encounters in cutting a work secured in a vise?

a. Rotaryb. Circulatec. Back and forthd. Up and down

Ans. C

332. The shaper’s cutting and sliding motion on the object to be machined can be adjusted by means of the ___________.

a. feed handleb. speed of the strokec. sharpened of the tool bitd. height of the object

Ans. A

333. Which of the listed hand files is the best tool for carrying out a smooth finish on the metal?

a. Mill b. Second cutc. Single cutd. bastard

Ans. A

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334. After some heavy filing, the teeth may be filled up with the metal filings and may harm your work. This condition is called ______________.

a. jammingb. pinningc. bindingd. choking

Ans. A

335. Which of the following factors may affect the efficient operation of a Shaper?

a. expertise of the operatorb. depth of feedc. speed of the stroked. depth and speed

Ans. D

336. What do you call a cutting tool that moves an object in a horizontal motion on a ram and it cuts the work in the forward stroke?

a. Shaperb. Hacksawc. Grinderd. Lathe

Ans. A

337. Double cut file is usually employed in ___________.

I. finishing II. quick removalIII rough work

a. I & IIb. II onlyc. II & IIId. I, II and III

Ans. C

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338. Which of the following types of file is used generally for finishing the work?

a. Single cutb. Double cutc. Bastard cutd. all of these choices

Ans. A

339. In cutting metal with a machine driven cutting tool, what is the most important factor in the cutting action?

a. Pressureb. Materialc. Sharpnessd. Depth

Ans. A

340. Which of the following statement below is NOT true for a cutting tool to give maximum production with the least amount of trouble and maintenance?

a. The right kind of tool material for the purpose of the tool must be selectedb. The tool must be given the correct hardening and heat-treatment.c. The tool must be applied with a deep cutd. The tool must be ground every use

Ans. D

341. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied ONLY on the _____________.

a. backward stroke b. forward stroke c. material being cutd. all of these choices

Ans. B

342. How should the teeth of the blade for a power hacksaw be installed?

a. The teeth should be pointing in accordance with the machine maker's instructions.

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b. The teeth should be pointing towards the motor end of the machinec. The teeth pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth bladed. None of these choices

Ans. B

343. Normally, why is a hand hacksaw blade installed in the saw frame, with the teeth pointing away from the saw handle?

a. The blade will less likely to breakb. Cutting fluid must flow to the material being cutc. The cutting speed is betterd. Cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke

Ans. D

344. When sharpening any tool, the finishing cut of the grinding wheel is too rough. The use of a/an ____________is recommended.

a. leather clothb. emery clothc. grinding compoundd. oilstone

Ans. D

345. The tool used in a precision work to smoothen or enlarge a slightly undersize hole, is called a/an ____________.

a. round fileb. flat point drillc. reamerd. drill bit

Ans. C

346. What procedure below should be followed when coming to the end of a cut, using a hand hacksaw?

a. Support the piece that may fall b. Reduce cutting speed and pressurec. Change to a fine cut bladed. Increase cutting speed and pressure

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Ans. B

347. Which among the materials listed below is used in the manufacture of cutting tools that retains hardness at the highest temperature?

a. Cemented carbideb. Ceramicsc. High speed steeld. Cast alloy

Ans. A

348. When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode thus getting only shallow penetration, you should ___________.

a. use a lower current b. speed up your electrode travelc. use larger electrodesd. increase the amperage

Ans. D

349. The temper is likely to be drawn out on the chisel edge when you _________.

a. hold it next to a wet grinding wheelb. soak it in hot oil for long periodsc. grind the cutting angle too smalld. grind it for long period of time with much pressure

Ans. D

350. What should you do with chisel that has a mushroomed head?

a. Remove the ragged edges by grindingb. Do not strike the mushroomed head portionc. Use only right hammer blows to the chiseld. Knock-off the ragged edges with a hammer

Ans. A

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351. For mild steel and general work, the correct angle of a drill point is _______ degrees.

a. 29b. 118c. 90d. 45

Ans. B

352. Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as the drill point begins top break through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to ___________.

a. break cleanly through the bottom of the work pieceb. cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the work piecec. form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work pieced. dig into the work piece and tend to whirl around

Ans. D

353. Which of the following sets compose a hand tap set?

a. Taper, plug, and finishb. Taper, plug, and bottomc. Short, medium, and longd. Starting, through, and finishing

Ans. B

354. Round, split dies are usually adjustable to ____________.

a. Allow threading on oversized stockb. Control the diameter of thread cutc. To help start the die squarely on the round stockd. Allow threading up to a shoulder

Ans. B

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355. Mill files are always ___________.

a. single cutb. double cutc. fine cut d. triple cut

Ans. A

356. What is the type of milling machine cutter that is suited for surface milling, profiling, slotting and so on?

a. Fly cutterb. Flitting cutterc. Rough cutterd. End mill

Ans. D

357. By means of a multi-tooth rotating cutter, which of the listed power driven machine cuts metal?

a. Latheb. Millingc. Honingd. Cutting

Ans. B

358. For a safe and effective metal machining, the factors in determining the right feed and cutting speed during the operation of the modern milling machine onboard are _________.

I – Kind of material to be machined II – Machinability of the metal to be cut III – Material of cutting tool to use

a. I & IIb. I, II & IIIc. II & IIId. I & III

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Ans. B

359. What is/are the method listed below can be used in securing a metal object during milling operation?

I – Special jig with clamping bolts II – Secure to an angle plate III – Use vise bolted to table

a. I & IIb. II & IIIc. I, II & IIId. I & III

Ans. C

360. Which among the types of milling machines below is the most versatile and widely used effectively in the manufacture of helical grooves to drill buts, helical gears and milling cutters?

a. Horizontalb. Universalc. Plaind. Vertical

Ans. B

361. Which of the metal materials that uses the highest cutting speed for an effective rough cutting in a modern milling machine?

a. Carbon steelb. Milleable ironc. Bronzed. Brass

Ans. D

362. In order to prevent accident and danger to the operator of a milling machine, proper precautions should be followed thereby ensuring the ______________.

a. safe and profitable operation b. fast turn around of work

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c. high production of workd. operator’s employment

Ans. A

363. When operating a milling machine, a liquid coolant should not be used with cast iron because the coolant tends to _____________.

a. create sticky mass and clogs the cutting teethb. cost more to fabricate an objectc. make the work brittle and easy to crackd. make a mess on the floor

Ans. A

364. Prior to operating a milling machine, it should be well-oiled and there must be an ample supply of ______________.

a. liquid coolant in the reservoirb. fresh air in the areac. cutting tools on standbyd. eye wash liquid in the area

Ans. A

365. Proficiency in the use and care of milling machine is a necessity for an operator and he should be capable of determining the cutting tool’s proper __________.

a. speed b. size c. tensiond. rotation

Ans. A

366. A type of milling machine cutter that is used to cut curved or irregular surfaces is called ___________.

a. end mill b. helical cuttingc. forwardd. side cutting

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Ans. A

367. Milling machine oil channel can be clogged with chips coming from work and may ____________.

a. interfere with the precision-machiningb. damage the cutting tool teethc. heat up the workd. none of these choices

Ans. A

368. Milling machine feed rate should be decreased for a better finish and if the cutter begins to produce long chips, the feed rate should be ___________.

a. raisedb. increasedc. decreasedd. stopped

Ans. C

369. Many kinds of work pieces could be produced ___________. In a milling machine than on a shaper or planer.

a. economicallyb. fasterc. costlyd. slowly

Ans. A

370. The purpose of supercharging the diesel engine is _________.

I - to increase the power output of an engine II - to give sufficient air for the combustion III - to make it easy to overhaul

a. I & IIb. I & IIIc. II & IIId. I, II & III

Ans. A

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371. Which of the following will result if operator continues to operate a centrifugal bilge pump while the discharge valve is closed?

a. Pump will stop.b. Relief valve will open.c. Motor will overloadd. Motor will overheat.

Ans. C

372. What is the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system?

a. Eliminate addition of fresh waterb. Cooling exhaust gases without using coolantc. Lower lubricating oil pressure when operating long periodd. Allow changes of the cooling water volume due to heating or

cooling

Ans. D

373. Which of the following components listed below whose function is to clean air before sending it to pneumatic controllers?

a. Air removerb. Dehumidifierc. Control air drain valved. Air controller

Ans. B

374. If an emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an automotive type thermostat, what will happen if it losses its charge?

a. Open, and the coolant temperature will increaseb. Open, and the coolant temperature will decreasec. Close, and the engine coolant temperature will increased. Close, but with no effect in coolant temperature

Ans. B

375. In large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines, piston ring groove wear usually occurs at the ____________.

a. top of the ring groove

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b. back of the ring groovec. bottom of the ring grooved. none of these choices

Ans. C

376. Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________.

a. close control air supplyb. allow the boiler to cool completelyc. put all safety interlock switches to standby moded. close all manually operated fuel valves

Ans. D

377. Which of the following is used extensively to lubricate rolling contact bearings?

a. Grease b. Petroleum jellyc. Bearing oild. Roller oil

Ans. A

378. An air-compressor can be unloaded at start-up by ___________.

a. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphereb. holding the discharge valve openc. using an enlarged, permanently opened expansion spaced. a pre-charged accumulator

Ans. A

379. One boiler of a 2-boiler plant has ruptured a tube and the water cannot be maintained in sight in the gage glass. After securing the fires, your next action should be to _____________.

a. repair the damaged tubeb. open the steam drum air ventc. increase load on the remaining running boilerd. close the boiler main steam stop valve

Ans. D

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380. Vapor is produced in a fresh water evaporator by introducing ____________.

a. heated water in a high pressure areab. steam through cooling coilsc. heated water in a low pressure aread. sea water and heated water in a vacuum container

Ans. D

381. In a diesel engine cooling water system, the expansion tank is connected to the

____________.

a. none of these choices b. freshwater pump suctionc. freshwater pump discharged. high pressure water pump suction

Ans. B

382. Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools can be avoided if the operators will _______.

I - always use new equipments II - use color coded hose only III - inspect hoses for cracks and other defects IV - bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections

a. I & III onlyb. II & IV onlyc. I and II onlyd. III and IV only

Ans. D

383. What is the use of a hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch?

a. It is used to cut any type of metalb. It is used to cut soft iron such as brass rodsc. It is used to cut any type of tubingsd. It is used to cut iron such as stainless steel

Ans. B

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384. Assume that impeller diameter, width, and speed are identical, which of the following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?

a. A multi-stage straight vane impellerb. A single-stage curved vane impeller c. A multi-stage curved vane impellerd. None of these choices

Ans. C

385. When an engine will not start on air, which of the following maybe the cause of the problem?

a. Stop valves between air reservoirs and engine are openb. Starting air distributor valves are not properly lubricatedc. The turning gear is engagedd. Telegraph lever in wrong command

Ans. C

386. Which of the items listed below is normally describe a ventilating fan?

a. Rotary vaneb. Axial flowc. Positive displacementd. Centrifugal

Ans. B

387. If the fresh water jacket cooling spaces of generator engine has plenty of scales, the most possible cause is _____________.

a. high ph valueb. idled for long periodc. low water temperatured. low water pressure

Ans. C

388. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will _____________.

a. cause high load current b. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland

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c. cause damage in the stuffing boxd. reduce pumping rate

Ans. B

389. What is the reason why condensate must be removed from the intercooler and after cooler in an air compressor?

a. Water causes erratic operation in pneumatic componentsb. The volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains in itc. A danger of explosion is possible if water is present in the compressord. It affects the compressor cooling effect

Ans. A

390. Which of the following fresh water generator components is/are used for boiling the seawater?

I – Boiler II – Evaporator III - Condenser

a. I, II & IIIb. II & IIIc. I & IId. I & III

Ans. B

391. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just before it enters the __________.

a. frosting region b. evaporatorc. condenserd. gage pressure

Ans. C

392. Sensible heat can be possibly measured with the use of a/an __________.

a. thermometerb. anemometerc. barometerd. colloids

Ans. A

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393. A perfect vacuum is represented by _________.

a. 30 in. Hgb. 25 in. Hgc. 15 in. Hgd. 10 in. Hg

Ans. A

394. The purpose of an exhaust pyrometer is to determine the __________________.

a. exhaust temperatureb. cylinder loadsc. engine temperatured. firing temperature

Ans. A

395. A shortage of refrigerant in the refrigeration system is indicated by ___________.

a. the compressor short cyclingb. high head pressurec. high suction pressured. bubbles in the sight glass

Ans. D

396. The type of pump that is usually used to transfer engine room bilges is the ____________.

a. reciprocating b. rotaryc. vaned. centrifugal

Ans. A397. Purging air from a hydraulic oil system is necessary when

_________.

a. system has been overheatedb. adding small amount of oil to the system

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c. system has been idle for a long periodd. system has been drained and filled with new oil

Ans. D

398. When there is a leak in a freon system, the flame color of the halide torch will turn to ___________.

a. redb. violetc. grayd. green

Ans. D

399. In a freon system, the filter direr is filled with ___________.

a. activated aluminab. activated chloridec. sodium nitrated. sodium compound

Ans. A

400. Which factor tends to increase scale formation at the salt-water side of the heat exchanger?

a. operating the engine with a high seawater outlet temperatureb. leaks in the cooler tube nestc. baffle plates that have been bent prior to removald. punctured seawater strainer supplying cooling water to the heat exchanger

Ans. A

401. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have __________.

a. higher firing pressureb. more power outputc. lower fuel pressured. less power output

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Ans. D

402. While overhauling a jerk-type pump and you must replace the pump plunger, what other part must also be replaced?

a. delivery check valveb. pump barrelc. pipe to the injectord. fuel nozzle

Ans. B

403. FAULTY operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be caused by ______.

a. water in the fuel oil supplyb. excessive fuel nozzle coolingc. a distorted fuel spray patternd. leakage past the plunger into the oil rain

Ans. A

404. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by __________.

a. fuel oil pressureb. a cam operated followerc. a spring loaded pressure plated. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft

Ans. A

405. In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed in _____________.

a. grams per horsepower per hourb. tons per dayc. liters per horsepower per hourd. kiloliters per day

Ans. A

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406. Which part is common to both diesel and gasoline engines?

a. Pistonb. Carburetorc. Injectord. Distributor

Ans. A

407. The oil scraper ring of a 4-stroke engine piston is installed at the __________.

a. top ringb. lowest ringc. 2nd ringd. 3rd ring

Ans. B

408. In refrigeration, what type of compressor is used where the driving motor is sealed in a dome?

a. reciprocatingb. airc. hermeticd. rotary

Ans. C

409. Having high exhaust temperatures would affect the __________:

a. efficiency of the engineb. speed of the turbochargerc. high temperature of air receiverd. fuel consumption of the engine

Ans. A

410. A light brown haze color of the smoke coming out from the stack is an indication of ___________.

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a. proper combustionb. no supply of airc. lost compressiond. delayed ignition

Ans. A

411. The shaft coupling for the gear pump is prevented from rotating on the shaft by a

_________.

a. keyb. set screwc. universal fittingsd. lock nut

Ans. A

412. Which of the valves listed below permits its flow in only one direction?

a. Globe bulbb. Check valvec. Gate valved. Plug cock

Ans. B

413. What part of a refrigeration system reduces the pressure of a liquid refrigerant?

a. Expansion valve b. Liquid receiver c. Tube condenserd. Reefer compressor

Ans. A

414. In air conditioning system, which part of the system where the refrigerant begins to boil and flash into gas?

a. Evaporatorb. Condenserc. Compressor

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d. Receiver

Ans. A

415. To prevent fire inside scavenge air spaces in marine diesel engines, it is important that it should be occasionally ___________.

a. drainedb. oiledc. wateredd. steamed

Ans. A

416. What part of an engine that transmits the reciprocating motion of the piston to the

driven unit in the form of rotary motion?

a. camshaft b. tail shaft c. propeller shaftd. crankshaft

Ans. D

417. One horsepower is equal to ___________.

a. 955 ft-lbb. 778 ft-lbc. 746 wattsd. 270 ft-lb/min

Ans. C

418. Two hundred twelve degrees Fahrenheit is equal to __________.

a. 75 ºC

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b. 100 ºCc. 25 ºCd. 0 ºC

Ans. B

419. Dirty condenser in a refrigeration system would indicate ___________.

a. emulsifyingb. floodingc. high pressure discharged. drifting

Ans. C

420. Which of the following is used as moisture arrester and dryer in the refrigeration

system?

a. Silica gelb. Compressorc. Drain valved. Bimetallic thermostat control

Ans. A

421. Humidity is the measure of the __________.

a. water vapor contentb. dry-bulb temperaturec. efficiency of coolingd. fluidity of the refrigerant

Ans. A

422. The type of heat exchanger that has gained great advantage in terms of specific output in a turbo-changed diesel engine is _______________.

a. plate type heat exchangerb. shell-and-tube type heat exchangerc. charge air cooler

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d. single-cut file

Ans. C

423. The functional difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke cycle engine is in the number of ________.

a. piston stroke needed to one complete revolutionb. piston stroke needed to complete a combustion cyclec. strokes in each combustion eventd. combustion event occurring in each stroke

Ans. B

424. Which turbocharger component increases air density and helps improve engine-operating efficiency?

a. compressorb. impellerc. exhaust diffuserd. air cooler

Ans. D

425. Which of these bearings listed below is preferred by makers for use in the engine room supply blowers?

a. Ballb. Rollerc. Sleeved. Thrust

Ans. A

426. A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector would be caused by ___.

a. increase in engine speedb. increase in cylinder turbulencec. leaking needle valved. reducing cylinder turbulence

Ans. C

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427. A DEFECTIVE nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause _________.

I - engine power loss II - smoke due to unburned fuel III - high exhaust temperature reading

a. I onlyb. II onlyc. III onlyd. I, II, and III

Ans. D

428. Fuel oil to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the __________.

a. turbochargerb. injector nozzle tipc. carburetord. fuel oil pump

Ans. B

429. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system having individual plunger-type pumps __________.

a. changes the position of the fuel inlet portsb. changes the length of the pump strokec. varies the quantity of fuel deliveredd. varies the compression of the delivery valve spring

Ans. C

430. What causes hizzing sound during the operation of a heavy fuel oil transfer pump?

a. Low suction temperatureb. High suction temperaturec. Defective relief valved. Defective suction valve

Ans. A

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431. What is the main reason why the pressure of water in the domestic water service faucet aboardship is low?

a. Hydrophore tank valve closeb. Hydrophore tank fullc. Pump delivery pressure lowd. Return line shut

Ans. B

432. What is the proper pH value to be maintained on diesel engine F.W. jacket cooling water in order to avoid scale formation and corrosions?

a. 4-7 a. 7 Aprilb. 8-11 OR b. 11 Augustc. 12-15 c. 15 Decemberd. 16-19 d. 08 October

Ans. B

433. What is the ideal temperature in C to be maintained in air trunk of diesel engines to maximize air to cylinder and avoid condensation?

a. 30-35b. 35-40 c. 41-45d. 46-50

Ans. C

434. In a tank or compartment that is not gas free, the only portable electric equipment permitted is a lamp that is ____________.

a. approved explosion proof, self contained & battery operatedb. lamp that is easy to replacec. made of tungstend. made of light emitting diode

Ans. A

435. International Regulations require watertight doors in cargo vessels to be _________.

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a. pneumatically operated only for openingb. hydraulically powered only for closingc. tested at each inspection for certificationd. tested within 24 hours before entering port

Ans. C

436. Which of the items listed below is a planned and formalized activity to verify and improve the General Management System suitability and effectiveness at regular intervals?

a. Master's Management Reviewb. Chief Officer Quarterly Reviewc. ISO 2000 systemd. Chief Officer Safety Plan

Ans. A

437. According to International Regulations, lamps, paints, and oil lockers and similar compartments shall ____________.

a. suitably insulated from wood worksb. be constructed of steel or shall be wholly lined with metalc. shall not be situated in a corridord. be fitted with hand rails and wooden pallets

Ans. B

438. When a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small-enclosed space, what danger awaits the crew if they are exposed?

a. Frost bitesb. Zero visibilityc. Suffocationd. Eye irritation

Ans. C

439. Before you commence using the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a serious fire, you should ___________.

a. activate the fire alarmb. request permission from Masterc. evacuate all engine personnel

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d. turn off electrical power

Ans. C

440. Where should the Muster lists to be posted?

a. In crew’s recreation spaceb. In each alleywayc. On the navigating bridged. In the emergency equipment room

Ans. C

441. In which of the following areas where a fire resulting from spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?

a. Laundry roomb. Galley exhaust ductc. Engine workshop gas welding roomd. Paint locker

Ans. D

442. Who will decide the watch keeping arrangements and the make up of watch on the engine department?

a. Masterb. Technical directorc. Chief engineerd. STCW 95

Ans. C

443. The usual symptom/s of cavitations in a centrifugal pump is/are _____

a. noise and vibration b. an increase in pump casing temperaturec. an increase in suction pressured. a decrease in discharge pressure

Ans. A

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*NOTE:3 Possible answers

1. Engine room2. Navigating bridge3. Crew Accommodation

Space

444. Scavenging trunks are more prone to fire because they are ________.

a. located below the cylinder b. always over pressure c. accumulating oily substanced. recipient of fresh air

Ans. C

445. Which of the following marine inspection would require the officer in-charge to be notified?

a. Renewal of steel platesb. Vessel being placed in drydockc. Oil transfer operationd. None of these choices

Ans. B

446. Upon completion of bunkering operation, these bunkering hoses should be ____.

a. plugged to eliminate leakageb. stowed with their ends open for ventingc. drained into drip pans or tanksd. stowed to its proper location

Ans. C

447. Which of the fire fighting agents listed below is NOT suitable for fighting liquid paint fire?

a. Dry chemicalsb. Foamc. Waterd. Carbon dioxide

Ans. C

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448. Prior to bunkering operation from the shore side facility, what should be determined in order that all the requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer?

a. Checklist before oil transfer operation has been completedb. Determine if the Coast Guard of the port has inspected the vessel and bunker facilityc. Determine if the bunker facility was inspected by the designated person in- charge of the vessel and vice versa d. Determine if the vessel and bunker facility are jointly inspected by their respective designated person in-charge

Ans. A

449. All of the following items listed below are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ____.

a. combustiblesb. oxygenc. heatd. conduction

Ans. D

450. A class C fire would most likely to occur in the __________.

a. electrical motorb. waste rag fire in engine roomc. main switchboardd. laundry room

Ans. C451. The signal given to begin lowering the lifeboat is _____________.

a. three short blasts of the ship's whistleb. one short blast of the ship’s whistlec. three long blasts of the ship's whistled. one long blast of the ship's whistle

Ans. B

452. Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should include ___.

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I - posting a fire watch in the immediate area II - providing an extinguisher that is ready for immediate use III - requiring the fire watch to leave his post immediately after completion of welding or burning IV - running of emergency fire pump until the completion of welding or burning

a. I onlyb. II onlyc. I, II and III only d. III and IV only

Ans. C

453. International Regulations require tank sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels to be located in which of the listed spaces below?

a. Engine roomb. Laundry roomsc. Crew lounged. Aft deck

Ans. A

454. Which of the following personnel reports to the chief officer but directs the deck seaman, pumpman and multi-purpose crew assigned to deck service?

a. ABb. OSc. 3rd officerd. Bosun

Ans. D

455. Which extinguishing agent is the BEST for fighting electrical fires?

a. Foam

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b. Water fogc. Dry chemicalsd. Halon

Ans. D

456. A segregated ballast system is a system where __________.

a. all ballast is processed through the oily water separatorb. ballast tank is isolated from oil tankc. ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdamsd. all ballast lines, tanks and pumps are independent

of those used for oil

Ans. D

457. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, the precaution should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an _____________.

a. orsat apparatusb. flame safety lampc. halide torchd. combustible gas apparatus

Ans. D

458. Before the sea gets rough, it is a good safety practice to ___________.

a. secure loose gearb. move quickly about the shipc inform your fellow seafarers d. carry out inspection

Ans. A

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459. On the muster list ("Station Bill"), you find: “Three (3) short blasts on the whistle and three (3) short rings on the general alarm bells.” This signal is for _______________.

a. lower lifeboatb. end of emergency drillsc. fire and emergencyd. man overboard

Ans. B

460. Engine room bilge water can be pumped out overboard safely by the use of which equipment listed below?

a. Foam type filterb. Oil separatorc. Fine mesh filterd. Oil purifier

Ans. B

461. What physical or chemical property of fuel oil that greatly affects the good efficiency of the pump during the transfer of fuel oil from one tank to the other?

a. Viscosityb. Pour pointc. Densityd. Flash point

Ans. A

462. Which personal equipment is NOT included in the fireman’s outfit being used onboard the vessel?

a. Life jacketb. Protective helmetc. Fire axed. Protective clothing

Ans. A

463. What kind of tank is being used onboard that collects the dirty water from basins and sinks when the vessel is in port so that water pollution can be prevented?

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a. Drainb. Sewagec. Bilged. Sludge

Ans. B

464. What procedure must be made before making repairs on the evaporator of a refrigeration system?

a. Pump the refrigerant from the system to a clean empty drumb. Drain the system through the purge valve connectionc. Exhaust the refrigerant to the atmosphered. Pump the refrigerant to the receiver

Ans. D

465. When there is excessive formation of frost in the evaporator coils it will ____.

a. keep compartment coolerb. lessen load on compressorc. reduce efficiency of refrigerating plantd. system in normal condition

Ans. C

466. Excessive vibrations created by the main propulsion machinery are detrimental to the _________ equipment.

a. galleyb. electronic c. cabind. navigation

Ans. D

467. When maintenance is undertaken at sea, the engine personnel shall take precaution to ______.

a. sudden roll of the shipb. ballast the tanks c. fill fuel service tankd. empty the bilges

Ans. A

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468. When an area is made slippery by snow during bunkering and fixing the hose connection on deck, what material should be spread over the snow?

a. Pebbleb. Sandc. Graveld. Stone

Ans. B

469. Without the permission of the master and chief engineer officer, no console alarms should be ____________.

a. acknowledgedb. isolatedc. switchedd. tested

Ans. B

470. Which of the following items listed below are fire hazards in the machinery spaces?

I. Warm water in the cascade tank II. Arc welding activity at the lowest flat III. Exposed exhaust manifold

a. I and IIb. II and IIIc. I and IIId. I, II and III

Ans. B

471. Which of these areas is considered an enclosed space?

a. Cofferdamb. Machineryc. Batteryd. Generator

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Ans. A

472. Where is the safest place to do hot work in the engine room?

a. Purifier roomb. Electrical shop c. Boiler roomd. Work shop

Ans. D

473. Which of the following practices should be avoided to minimize fire hazard?

a. Smoking near the burner frontb. Smoking in the machine shopc. Stowing oily rags in a paint lockerd. Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position

Ans. C

474. When using a chisel or similar tool, you should ___________.

a. wear glovesb. hold the tool lightlyc. be certain it is non-sparking typed. wear safety goggles

Ans. D

475. When an engineer on duty is inspecting an UMS-mode operated engine room at night, what precaution should be taken?

a. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS modeb. Switch the engineers call alarm to notify other engineersc. Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can heard. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room

Ans. D

476. What material does a zinc anode protects?

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a. Ironb. Bronzec. Aluminumd. Brass

Ans. A

477. What is the minimum standard rest of a rating forming part of an engineering watch within a 24-hour period?

a. 12 hoursb. 10 hoursc. 8 hoursd. 6 hours

Ans. B

478. During relieving time, the outgoing officer in charge of the engineering watch should ___________.

a. check that the reliever is capable to carry out watch keeping dutiesb. stop the bilge pump before relieving timec. hand over the main engine consoled. leave the engine room immediately

Ans. A

479. To prevent the spread of fire by convection, you should ____________.

a. cool the bulkhead around the fireb. remove combustibles from direct exposurec. close all openings to the aread. shut off all electrical power

Ans. C

480. A diesel engine fuel leak in high-pressure fuel pipe between the injection pump and fuel nozzle needs immediate repair because of the __________.

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a. high cost of fuelb. serious fire hazardc. possibility of pollutiond. poor combustion will occur in that cylinder

Ans. B

481. The proper storage of oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be ________.

a. upright with the cylinder caps offb. upright with the cylinder caps screwed onc. horizontal with the cylinder caps offd. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on

Ans. B

482. An incinerator is a waste disposal unit that will burn ______________.

a. liquid materialb. solid material and all types of liquid wastec. gasesd. solid material

Ans. B

483. The purpose of shielding the fuel oil high-pressure injection pipe between the injection pump and injector is to prevent __________ hazard.

a. floodb. injuryc. fired. accident

Ans. C

484. Heating the oil makes the oil____________.

a. less viscousb. extremely viscousc. frictionlessd. easy to store

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Ans. A

485. The process of killing the harmful bacteria from the water so as to make it safe for use is called ____________.

a. sterilizationb. disinfectionc. filtrationd. carbonization

Ans. B

486. Which of the following conditions is indicative of the oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank bull’s eye?

a. Excessive oil is stored in a gravity tankb. Turbine bearing failure has occurredc. Insufficient oil is being pumped to the gravity tankd. Sufficient oil flow is being supplied to the gravity tank

Ans. D

487. What type of electric light fittings is used in oil tanker pump room?

a. Shock proofb. Water proofc. Flame proofd. Acid proof

Ans. C

488. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to ___________.

a. flood the burn with water for two minutesb. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned areac. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility d. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth

Ans. C

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489. If there is a fire inside the engine room, where does a running fuel oil service pump be switched off?

a. Accessible place outside the engine roomb. Switch at the CO2 roomc. At the emergency generator roomd. From the oxy/acetylene room

Ans. A

490. When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is LOWER THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, the effect would be a/an_________.

a. delay in the start of injection b. reduction in the duration of injection c. decrease in the quantity of fuel injected d. increase in quantity of fuel injected

Ans. D

491. What could be the main cause why a crew fell while working aloft?

a. No safety beltb. No safety helmetc. Broken bosun chaird. Broken slings

Ans. A

492. What is lowest oxygen content in percent of oxygen where a crew can work safely inside enclosed spaces?

a. 19b. 20c. 21d. 22

493. An advantage of aluminum piston when compared to cast iron piston is ___________?

A. greater high temperature strength

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B. better heat conductivityC. greater weight per cubic inchD. increased resistance to wear

Ans. B

494. The service life of worn aluminum piston, with no spare available can be extended by ___?

A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric valuesB. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then

remachiningC. knurling the piston skirt surfaceD. increasing the dimension of the ring land grooves

Ans. C

495. Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the cylinder liner is about ___?

A. twice as large as with a cast iron pistonB. the same size as with a cast iron pistonC. half as large as with a cast iron pistonD. the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston

Ans. A

496. Cast iron piston are constructed with ________________?

A. no taper what so everB. the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirtC. the skirt being tapered and smaller than the crownD. the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown

Ans. B

497. A measurement of 0.625 is equal to ________________?

A. ½ inchB. 9/16 inchC. ¾ inchD. 5/8 inch

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Ans. D

498. The term ‘5/16 – 24’ is describe ______________?

A. steel plate gauge size and thicknessB. bearing puller sizeC. machine bolt size and threads per inchD. cutting torch tip size

Ans. C499. What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw

describe as ½ - 13 NC – 2?

A. 2B. 2-JanC. 13D. NC

Ans. A

500. A tap marked ‘1/4 inch – 20’ will cut a thread ____________?

A. ½ inch long having a total of 20 threadsB. 1/20 of an inch long ¼ inch in diameterC. a total of 20 threads with a pitch of ¼ inchD. ¼ inch in diameter wit a pitch of 20 threads per inch

Ans. D

501. Fire main outlet valves or hydrants shall be installed _________?

A. pointing downward or horizontal to prevent kinking of the fire hose

B. in screened enclosure in all passagewayC. where they are protected from the weather D. in a protected location to prevent cargo damage

Ans. A

502. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal, in order to _____?

A. avoid kinking of the fire hoseB. avoid personal injury during connectionC. make connecting easier

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D. prevent spray on electrical equipment

Ans. A

503. A wrench that completely surrounds a nut or bolt head is a ____________?

A. adjustable wrenchB. tappet wrenchC. opened wrenchD. box wrench

Ans. D

504. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is ________?

A. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrenchB. indicated by an audible clickC. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrenchD. indicated by a release or break of the handle

Ans. C

505. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _________?

A. chain pipe wrenchB. monkey wrenchC. basin wrenchD. strong back

Ans. A

506. A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________?

A. hexagonal objectsB. square objectsC. round objectsD. flat objects

Ans. C

507. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when ________.

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A. the wrench jaws are at the widest open settingB. a maximum pull is exerted with one handC. an extension is placed on the wrench handleD. The bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth

Ans. D

508. Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.

A. allow it to be used as a pry barB. prevent the shank from bendingC. Allow turning with a wrenchD. permit striking with a hammer

Ans. C

509. Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve ‘frozen’ in positioning by using a wrench on the handwheel?

A. Over compression of the packingB. Rapid corrosion of the valve discC. Bending of the valve stemD. Cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve

Ans. C

510. A hacksaw blade is normally pointed in the saw frame with the _________.

A. maximum possible tension on the bladeB. teeth pointing away from the handleC. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting

widthD. teeth angled toward the saw handle

Ans. B

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511. For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade should have __________.

A. 32 teeth per inchB. the teeth pointing towards the handleC. the blade and teeth of ‘all-hand’ qualityD. 14 teeth per inch

Ans. A

512. Copper tubing is best with a _________.

A. hand hacksawB. tubing cutterC. pipe cutterD. flare cutter

Ans. B

513. To cut iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?

A. 4B. 18C. 32D. 24

Ans. D

514. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________.

A. applying maximum pressure at the start of the cut

B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut

C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame

D. File a nick where the cut is to be started

Ans. D

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515. The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth _________.

A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine

B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine

C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade

D. Pointing toward the motor end of the machine

Ans. D

516. Fir cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should have ______.

A. 14 teeth per inchB. 18 teeth per inchC. 24 teeth per inchD. 32 teeth per inch

Ans. A

517. Which of the saw blades listed, when mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, can be used to cut an intricate shape with precision, will cut on both the forward and reverse strokes and cut smoothly through a metal file?

A. hardenedB. rodC. dullD. flexible

Ans. B

518. A saw blade produced of bonded tungsten-carbide particles and mounted in a hacksaw frame is known as a _________.

A. wave set bladeB. Rod saw bladeC. hardened bladeD. flexible blade

Ans. B

519. To cut drill rod, light angle iron, or tool steel with a hand hacksaw, it is best to use a blade with __________.

A. 14 teeth per inchB. 18 teeth per inch

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C. 24 teeth per inchD. 32 teeth per inch

Ans. B

520. Which of the saw listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a surface where a hand held hacksaw frame could not be used?

A. coping sawB. Stab sawC. back sawD. hole saw

Ans. B

521. Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of teeth in opposites directions?

A. alternateB. rakeC. double alternateD. Wave

Ans. D

522. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right known as __________.

A. AlternateB. double alternateC. rakerD. wave

Ans. A

523. The term referring to the amount or degree the teeth of a hacksaw blade are pushed out or canted from the blade center is known as _________.

A. SetB. pitch

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C. chokeD. blade cut

Ans. A

524. Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using a hand held hacksaw will generally ______________.

A. sharpen the bladeB. cause the blade to cut fasterC. Dull the bladeD. not change how the blade cuts

Ans. C

525. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where every third tooth remains straights, while the other two are alternately set is known as _______.

A. alternateB. double alternateC. rakerD. wave

Ans. C

526. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then the two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as _______.

A. alternateB. Double alternateC. rakerD. wave

Ans. B

527. The piston full floating wrist pin is prevented from contacting the cylinder walls by ___?

A. piston relief grooveB. piston pin cupC. snap ringD. bronze bushing

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Ans. C

528. The term describe the piston pin having a surfaces in both the piston bosses and connecting rod eye _________.

A. stationaryB. full floatingC. semi-floating D. free rolling

Ans. B

529. The type of wrist pin which uses bearing in the piston bosses, but is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod ________.

A. semi floatingB. full floatingC. solidD. fixed

Ans. A

530. The main purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of auxiliary boiler is to _______.

A. prevent slag accumulation on the corbelsB. protect the inner casing and reduce heat lossC. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure sealD. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank

Ans. B

531. Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boiler are protected from direct heat of hot gas by ________.

A. refractory and insulationB. several rows of screen tubesC. steel baffles D. water wall tubes

Ans. A

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532. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?

A. chilled water system supply temperatureB. chilled water system return temperatureC. compressor discharge temperatureD. compressor suction pressure

Ans. A

533. When operating the oily-water separator, why is it necessary to avoid detergents mixing with the bilge water?

A. The detergent will aggitate within the separator and cause it to explose

B. The detergent will damage the special protective coating in the inside of the unit

C. The detergents may cause the oil and water to become an emulsion which this unit is not capable of separating

D. The detergent will foam causing the main bilge pump to become airbound

Ans. C

534. Under what conditions would the oily-water separator system illustrated fail to effectively process a mixture of oily-water?

A. When the oily-water mixture is an emulsion the effectiveness of the separator is greatly reduced

B. Without detergents the effectiveness of the separator is greatly reduced

C. When there are small air leaks in the discharge piping, the effectiveness of the separator will greatly reduced

D. When the oily-water separator is in the

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process mode it will effectively handle emulsions

Ans. A

535. Validity of work permit in an enclosed space is _________?

A. 12 hoursB. 1 hourC. 6 hoursD. 18 hours

Ans. A

536. As the pH of the boiler water approaches zero, the water becomes increasingly ________.

A. softB. alkalineC. neutralD. Acidic

Ans. D537. The amount of sodium phosphate in treated boiler water can be

measured by a/an ___.

A. alkalinity testB. Phosphate testC. chloride testD. sodium phosphorous test

Ans. B

538. A test of boiler water for chloride content indicates the amount of ______.

A. suspended matter presentB. dissolved gases present C. Seawater contamination presentD. all of the above

Ans. C

539. Any feedwater testing done on a routine basis would normally include testing for ______.

A. ChlorideB. phosphate

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C. electrical conductivity (total dissolved solids)D. all of the above

Ans. A

540. Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of ________.

A. total alkalinity in the water B. phosphates present in the water C. methyl orange that should be added D. Dissolved salts from sea contamination

Ans. D

541. Boiler water samples should be circulated through a cooling coil prior to analysis because _______.

A. This keeps the water from flashing into steam as it is drawn from the higher pressure of the boiler to the lower pressure of the fireroomB. it reduces the amount of suspended matter that frequently finds its way into the dead end lines C. the cool sample has a higher conductivity measurement and the total dissolved solids in the water are easier to identifyD. the degree of acidity as measured on the pH recorded is amplified by cool water temperatures

Ans. A

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542. The end product of reactions occurring when boiler water is chemically treated, remain in the boiler and increase the need for _______.

A. acid cleaningB. makeup feedC. boiler blowdownD. waterside corrosion treatment

Ans. C

543. If a routine boiler water test indicates high salinity, you should blowdown the boiler to reduce salinity and the ________.

A. add carbonates to control sludgingB. treat the boiler water with phosphatesC. reduce the firing rate to prevent scalingD. increase the firing rate to prevent foaming

Ans. B

544. Phosphates are used in the chemical treatment of boiler water to ______.

A. control alkalinity and neutralize vanadium B. convert scale forming salts to relatively harmless sludgeC. neutralize the harmful effects of hydrogen embrittlementD. decrease dissolved oxygen content

Ans. B

545. The concentration of total dissolved solids in boiler water could increase as a result of ______.

A. infrequent bottom blowsB. zero water hardness C. dissolved oxygen deaerationD. priming and carryover

Ans. A

546. Scale prevention in boiler water is accomplished by adding treatment chemicals to ______.

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A. precipitate scale forming salts as sludgeB. solidify the scale as powder C. Increase boiler water acidityD. cause the water to be neutral

Ans. A

547. High salinity can be reduced in a steaming boiler by adding caustic soda, phosphate, and then _______.

A. using the continuous blowdownB. steaming at a low firing rate for 24 hoursC. adding hydrazine to control dissolved oxygenD. adding calcium carbonate to precipitate solids

Ans. A

548. Dissolved oxygen can be removed from the boiler water by _________.

A. frequent surface and bottom blowsB. dumping and refilling the boiler weeklyC. passing the water through obsorbent filtersD. treating the water with chemical scavengers

Ans. D

549. The most troublesome corrosive substances in boiler water are oxygen and ________.

A. hydrogen sulfideB. sulfur dioxideC. carbon dioxideD. ammonia

Ans. C

550. Chemicals are added to boiler feedwater to ________.

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A. reduce the frequency of blowdownsB. prevent precipitation of sludgeC. retard heat transferD. prevent oxygen corrosion

Ans. D

551. Chemicals are added to boiler water by injecting them ________.

A. as a powder into the mud drum B. as a powder into the steam drumC. insolution into the main feed lineD. in solution through the chemical feed pipe

Ans. D

552. Which of the following precautions should be observed when adding treatment chemicals to the boiler compound tank?

A. Cool the feedwater before it enters the tankB. Ensure there is no pressure on the tank before opening itC. Raise the boiler water level before adding chemicalsD. All of the above

Ans. B

553. Treatment of boiler feedwater for the control of hardness is necessary to prevent ______.

A. excessive feedwater alkalinityB. foaming C. carryoverD. waterside scale deposits

Ans. D

554. Chemicals are added to boiler water to ________.

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A. eliminate the need for blowdown B. stabilize feedwater if a boiler becomes salted upC. prevent scale forming depositsD. maintain on acidic condition in the feedwater

Ans. C

555. What is the purpose of chemically treating boiler water?

A. To reduce formation of scale on the waterside of the boiler

B. To reduce to a minimum corrosion of boiler metal

C. To reduce foaming and moisture carryoverD. All of the above

Ans. D

556. Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?

a. More fuel efficientb. More flexible c. Lighter d. Less maintenance

Ans. B

557. If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of the diesel engine, the cause maybe?

a. Excess valve clearanceb. Stuck valvec. Broken valve stemd. All of the above

Ans. D

558. If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of the diesel engine, the cause maybe?

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a. Excess valve clearanceb. Worn valve seatc. Tight rocker arm d. Weak rocker arm

Ans. A

559. How many ton is a 24,000 BTU? (One Refrigeration ton = 12,000 BTU/hr)

a. 1 ton b. 2 tonc. 3 tond. 4 ton

Ans. B

560. 70% of the body is ________.

a. Bloodb. Waterc. Tissued. Bone

Ans. B

561. What is the function of the blower type crankcase ventilation system on some diesel engines?

a. Prevents accumulation of combustible gasb. Improves cold weather startingc. Increase the sludge forming ability of the lube oild. Improves lube oil cooling

Ans. A

562. If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while the engine is running, the cause maybe an _______.

a. Excessively late injectionb. Incorrectly adjust fuel injector

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c. Incorrectly adjust intake valve timingd. Incorrectly adjust intake valve clearance

Ans. B

563. Which of the listed parts in a lobe-type rotary pump to reduce the wear of the lobe wedges?

a. Replaceable Gibsb. Spur gearc. Liner platesd. Casing gear

Ans. A

564. ‘Respiratory heat’ is a term applied primarily to which of the following cargoes?

a. Fresh vegetablesb. Meatc. Frozen vegetablesd. All of the above

Ans. A

565. If you notice smoke coming from crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect that _______.

a. A crack cylinder linerb. Clogged intake portc. A broken piston ringsd. A faulty head gasket

Ans. C

566. The tube sheet is usually installed in a fire tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by?

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a. Girder staysb. Fire tube and stay tubesc. External boiler platingd. Separate crown sheet

Ans. B

567. A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapor is noted in the exhaust, this indicate _______.

a. Excessive cylinder lubricationb. A lugging enginec. A leaking cylinder linerd. Overloading of one cylinder

Ans. C

568. Which of the following electric motors would be the safest and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel foul in weather conditions?

A. Sealed motorB. Drip proof motorC. Enclosed motorD. Watertight motor

Ans. D

569. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?

A. The brake will be set by springB. The motor will overspeed and burn upC. The load suspended from the cargo boom will fallD. Nothing will happen, the winch will continue to operate as usual

Ans. A

570. How much heat can a 5 ton refrigeration unit remove from a refrigerated space?

A. 60,000 BTU/HR

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B. 80,000 BTU/HRC. 100,000 BTU/HRD. 120,000 BTU/HR

Ans. A

571. If a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU per hour, the equivalent tonnage of the unit would be ______.

A. 2 tonsB. 4 tonsC. 6 tonsD. 8 tons

Ans. B

572. The function of screen tube is to protect the _________.

A. superheaterB. refractoryC. steam drumD. water wall

Ans. A

573. The advantage of installing water wall tubes in a boiler furnace is to _____.

A. increase the flow of gases through the furnaceB. decrease the flow of gases through the furnaceC. increase heat transfer to the mud drumD. permit higher combustion rate

Ans. D574. One advantage of installing water wall take in a boiler furnace is

to _____.

A. Increase furnace sizeB. Reduce furnace temperatureC. Decrease refractory maintenance D. Reduce combustion rates

Ans. C

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575. If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely cause is _________________.

a. low compression temperatureb. low ambient air pressurec. high lube oil pump pressured. high fuel oil booster pump pressure

Ans. A

576. What could be the cause of inadequate starting speed during the cranking of a cold diesel engine.

a. high lube oil viscosityb. low lube oil viscosityc. late fuel injectiond. early fuel injection

Ans. A

577. Which of the statement describe the correct procedure for closing a watertight door.

a. Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinge, snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side, then evenly set up all remaining dogs

b. Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges then evenly set up all the remaining dogs

c. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs

d. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs

Ans. A

578. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the _____________.

a. lower thermal expansion rates than wet linersb. greater heat transfer rate than wet linersc. greater wear resistance than wet liners

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d. procedure to replace dry liners is simple than wet liners

Ans. D

579. One of the advantages in the use of dry liner over a wet liner is _________________.

a. it is fitted with neoprene O’ring seals b. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil

filmc. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion

spaced. it fits more loosely due to the decrease in heat transfer through

the composite wall

Ans. C

580. Which of the following instrument can be use to measure the rate of airflow ________.

a. Anemometerb. Thermometerc. Psychometerd. Aerometer

Ans. A

581. The temperature of fuel oil in a storage tank before pumping is ________.

Ans. 40-45oC

582. Carbon dioxide formed by improper chemical treatment in the boiler, may cause corrosion in the ________.

Ans. Condensate lines

583. During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too slowly and FAILS TO START, this problem is most likely the result of _______________.

a. high lube oil viscosity b. low fuel oil temperaturec. high fuel oil viscosity

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d. energized glow plugs

Ans. A

584. A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but not cranked over. The probable cause is _________________.

a. a seized pistonb. an improperly fitted bearingc. a closed or obstructed air starting line valved. insufficient compression

Ans. C

585. A diesel fails to start because of water in the fuel, in order to start the engine you should _______________.

a. drains filters and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump.

b. Turn engine with jacking gearc. Use ether to start the engine with blowndown valvesd. Blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent

Ans. A

586. Which of the following statement is correct for the design and installation of diesel engine cooling water system.

a. An alarm device with audible and visible signals is required for all cooling system

b. Propulsion engines with bore over 200mm are to use fitted with cooling water thermometer at each cylinder

c. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a suitable head tank

d. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder water jackets

Ans. D

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587. Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system vary the flow of through the engine.

a. changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot spot

b. emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the jackets were controlled

c. excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads

d. excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the cooler

Ans. A

588. A closed fresh water cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the ______________.

a. need for water treatment is eliminated b. cooling water temperature differential is greater c. cooling water pumps are directly reversibled. jacket water temperature is more easily controlled

Ans. D

589. In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged four – stroke / cycle engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by ____________.

a. improper venting of the cooling systemb. carrying the expansion tank level too highc. a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pumpd. an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control

Ans. A

590. An oil FO6 lubrication system is recommended for ___________.

a. gear shaft bearingb. high speed continuous operation of roller bearingc. low and moderate speed ball bearingd. heavily loaded and high speed ball bearings

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Ans. B

591. The sea painter on a rescue boat / lifeboat should be led _____________.

a. forward and outside of all obstructionb. forward and inside of all obstructionsc. up and down from the main deckd. to the foremost point of the vessel

Ans. A

592. Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the lasting effect on the crew with respect to SAFETY________.

a. Posting posters illustrating practiceb. Showing video tapes of actual accidentc. Incorporating safety practice in daily routined. Publishing comprehensive safety rules

Ans. C

593. According to Regulation, how many means of ESCAPE must be provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed______________.

a. Two, both of which must be through watertight doorsb. Two, both of which are located as close as possible to

centralized escape routec. Two, at least one of which shall be independent of watertight

doorsd. Two, both of which must be vertical ladders terminating in

locked watertight doors

Ans. C

594. If a matching nut and bolt have a “Class 4” or “No.4” fit, they will __________.

a. Be loosely and only suitable for rough construction workb. Be difficult to turn by hand but easy to turn with a wrenchc. Require less torque than specificationsd. Require a hydraulic torque wrench to obtain the specified

torque

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Ans. B

595. Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of shutdown, prior to starting may result in ________.

a. an air bound fuel systemb. damage to cylinder heads and pistonc. excessive fuel injection d. excessive air value lift

Ans. B

596. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to __________.

a. closely observe the pump discharge temperature b. close off the discharge value, and watch for a rise in pressurec. momentarily close off the suction value, and watch for a rise in

pressured. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past

records

Ans. B

597. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a _________.

a. fixed foam extinguisherb. fixed CO2 systemc. steam smothering systemd. carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system

Ans. B

598. An air conditioning system, required to remove from 33,000 to 35,000 BTU per hour, should have a minimum capacity of __________.

A. 1.5 tonsB. 2.0 tonsC. 2.5 tonsD. 3.0 tons

Ans. D

599. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed and no ignition occurs. This could be the result of __________.

A. low lube oil temperature

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B. low starting air temperature C. air bubbles in the fuel oil systemD. water in the starting air system

Ans. C

600. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut will not loose it self due to vibration?

A. Square nutB. Wing nutC. Cap nutD. Castellated nut

Ans. D

601. When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy location, you should direct the stream from __________.

A. down windB. up windC. across the windD. directly above

Ans. B

602. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only?

A. handheld red flareB. self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flareC. orange smoke signalD. red aerial pyrotechnic flare

Ans. C

603. Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of _________.

A. corrosion frettingB. insufficient lubricationC. abnormal wearD. fatigue failure

Ans. D

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604. Fire doors are released by a/an __________.

A. method that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption of control system power

B. pneumatic heat sensorC. spring loaded catch

Ans. A

605. Emergency signals for use on a river passenger vessel are to be listed on/in the ___________.

A. bank cardB. master listerC. vessel’s logbookD. ship’s articles

Ans. B

606. In order to convert taper per inch to taper per foot, you should ________.

a. Subtract 12b. Add 12c. Divide by 12d. Multiply by 12

Ans. D

607. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?

a. The driving engine will overspeedb. The anchor will immediately drop

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c. The clutch will overheatd. The brake’s effectiveness will be reduced

Ans. D

608. The purpose of the energy all, or air cell, is to _____.

a. cause auto-ignition in the cell rather than in the main combustion chamber

b. create a high turbulence within the main combustion chamberc. allow the spray to hit the piston rim rather than the cooler

cylinder walld. make a blast in the main chamber prior to the piston expansion

stroke

Ans. B

609. Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder secured?

a. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increasedb. Only the turbocharger speed should be reducedc. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increasedd. Engine speed should be reduced

Ans. D610. Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an

accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase of an idle diesel engine?

a. Excessive condensation in that cylinderb. Water in the fuel systemc. Cracked cylinder linerd. Leaking lube oil cooler

Ans. C

611. You hear the general alarm bell and ships whistle sound for over or not less than 10 seconds. Traditionally this is the signal for _______.

a. abandonshipb. dismissal from drillsc. fire and emergency (go to fire station)d. lower lifeboat

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Ans. C

612. The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engine is to ______.

a. improve piston coolingb. stratify the fuel chargec. prevent carbon buildupd. provide a fuel/air mixing or place for combustion

Ans. D

613. In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are prevented from rotating by ________.

a. Swelling the wearing rings into the casingb. Using wear rings with larger outside diameterc. Using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ringd. Using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using

the upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled

Ans. D

614. If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds, are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to ________.

a. Stopb. Turn backc. Overheatd. Overspeed the driving end

Ans. C

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615. When relieving the watch in the fireroom, you should first check the boiler water level and then next _________.

a. Inspect the fires and burnersb. Prepare to blow tubesc. Empty all the oil drip pansd. Report to the engineer on watch being relieved

Ans. A

616. A piece of tapered round stock 36 inches long, 4 inches in diameter at the large end and 2 ½ inches in diameter at the small end. What tailstock set over was used to machine the taper?

a. 0.375 inchesb. 0.750 inchesc. 1.500 inchd. 2.500 inch

Ans. B

617. Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be _________.

A. protected by a circuit breaker set at 125% and a thermal overload device

B. provided with a running motor overcurrent protection deviceC. served by a single two conductor cableD. served by two feeder circuits

Ans. D

618. A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear would cause the rudder to ________.

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A. swing 35o right or leftB. remain locked in its last positionC. move to the midship position automaticallyD. jam against the rudder emergency stops

Ans. B

619. To obtain a ½ inch per foot taper on an 18 inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over ____________.

A. 3/8 inchB. ½ inchC. 3/6 inchD. 7/8 inch

Ans. A

620. An American standard tapered pipe thread has a taper of ________________.

A. ¼ inch per footB. ½ inch per footC. ¾ inch per footD. 1 inch per foot

Ans. C

621. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

A. 24 monthsB. 36 monthsC. 42 monthsD. 54 months

Ans. C

622. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the __________________.

A. dew point temperatureB. condensation temperatureC. psychometric temperatureD. absolute humidity temperature

Ans. A

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623. The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the ________.

I – Quality of air filtrationII – Effectiveness of lubricationIII – Type of fuel

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I, II & III

Ans. D

624. Which cannot be ground/grind on ordinary wheels?

A. High speed steelB. CarbideC. Carbon steelD. Graphite steel

Ans. B

625. What is the rate at which a point on the circumference travels?

A .RpmB. Cutting speedC. Feed rateD. Depth

Ans. B

626. While filing, you can prevent pinning by keeping the file clean and rubbing the file with?

A. Light oilB. ChalkC. GraphiteD. Talc

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Ans. B

627. Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block , are characterized by which of the following disadvantages?

a. the conduct heat poorlyb. they are expensivec. they cannot be replacedd. they require special toll for removal

Ans. C

628. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubricant of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign pressures and lubricants below are required?

A. water under positive B. water under negative pressure C. oil under positive pressure D. oil under negative pressure

Ans. A

629. What type of material is used in the mechanical seal of most centrifugal water pumps?

A. Copper and carbonB. CarbonC. Casing volutes

Ans. B

630. The letters NC in ¼ - 20 , NC means that the bolt is______.

a. not coated with any coatingb. made of non-corrosive metalc. made of nickel cadmium metald. threaded with national coarse threads

Ans. D

631. The number of screw threads per inch for a standard National Coarse ½ inch bolts is ____.

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a. 13b. 16c. 18d. 20

Ans. A

632. Pinning is often caused by_____.

a. dropping the fileb. chalking the fidec. cleaning the filed. bearing to hand on the file

Ans. D

633. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of steering system would be indicated by_____.

a. ram relief valves liftingb. Improper or sluggish rudder responsec. Bubbles in the sight glassd. Pump over-speeding

Ans. B

634. The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engines is to____.

a. improve piston coolingb. stratify the fuel chargec. prevent carbon build-upd. provide a place for combustion

Ans. D

635. A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause_______.

a. High firing pressureb. Abnormally high cooling water temperaturec. Rapid wearing of piston ringsd. Combustion gases in the cooling water

Ans. C

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636. A 4 stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 hp diesel engine has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, causing excessive black exhaust smoke and a rapid use in the lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should ________.

a. reduce loadb. check your exhaust c. adjust cooling water temperatured. increase lube oil flow

Ans. A

637. A 4 stroke/cycle, 1000 hp diesel engine fails to start at normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be____.

a. Glazed liners or pistonsb. Excessive value clearancec. A stuck valued. All of the above

Ans. D

638. PAC (Poly Aluminum Chloride)

A. EmulsionB. DemulsificationC. Solid mixD. Flux flotation

Ans. C

639. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of ________.

A. vapor pocketsB. water hammer actionC. fluid frictionD. steam knock

Ans. A

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640. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before they are use because.

A. Hydraulic fluid must be at proper viscosity or at operating room temperature

B. Warm-up allows the relief value to be properly testedC. Warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with

oilD. Hydraulic strainer operate only during the warm-up period

Ans. A

641. The lathe steady rest is normally use for supporting one end of a ________.

A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuckB. long workpiece for facing, drilling and boringC. short workpiece being machine to an internal taperD. tubular workpiece being parted between centers

Ans. B642. Which centrifugal pump component converts kinetic energy of

velocity to the potential energy of pressure.

A. ImpellerB. Electric motorC. VoluteD. Eye

Ans. C

643. Which centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the _______.

A. Electric motorB. VoluteC. ImpellerD. Diffusion nozzle

Ans. C

644. When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the fresh water pump loses suction, you should ________.

A. loosen the mechanical sealB. vent the pump casing

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C. check the discharge strainerD. all of the above

Ans. B

645. The ring lands on a large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine piston may crack due to ____.

A. Insufficient cylinder liner wearB. Contaminated lubricating oilC. High main lubricating oil system temperatureD. Insufficient ring groove clearance

Ans. D

646. Which of the following areas should be check first when taking over a fire watch?

A. The fuel pressure to the burnerB. The boiler water levelC. The boiler steam pressureD. The condition of the furnace fire

Ans. B

647. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?

A. The jaws on the 3-jaw chuck can be individually adjustedB. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjustedC. The 3-jaw chuck will hold square, round and irregular shapes in

either a concentric or an eccentric positionD. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-

centering, it is always more accurate than the 4-jaw independent chuck

Ans. B

648. A man aboard a vessel , signaling by raising & lowering his out stretched arms to each side , & indicating _______.

a. A distress signalb. Danger , stay awayc. All is clear , it is safe to passd. All is clear , it is safe to approach

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Ans. A

649. Which of the listed pressure vessels is normally exempt from hydrostatic testing at the regular coast guard inspection for certification occurring 4 years after the initial inspection?

a. Potable system hydrophore tankb. A hydraulic occumulatorc. Main boilersd. Air receiver repaired by a certified welder

Ans. B

650. Where should be the suction of a portable tank cleaning machine___.

a. Fire mainb. Inert gas scrubberc. Muckling supply systemd. Pump room sea chest

Ans. A

651. Open combustion chamber are designed to ?

a. Eliminate carbon build-upb. Improve piston coolingc. Prevent air charge turbulenced. Provide place for combustion

Ans. D

652. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be use because ________?

a. The chisel cannot be struck squarelyb. Pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyec. The hammer head may be may be chippedd. It must be held firmly by the head to strike it.

Ans. B

653. Radial thrust developed in a high pressure centrifugal pumps can be eliminated bys the use of a __________.

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a. single voluteb. a single diffusion nozzlec. a diffusion ringd. a modified kingsburry thrust bearing

Ans. C

654. An efficient seal between the cylinder block an cylinder heads on many diesel engine is obtained with ________.

a. graphite packingb. sealing compoundc. lubricating oild. gasket

Ans. D

655. If an auxiliary diesel engine frequently stalls, the trouble may be caused by _______.

a. low exhaust back pressureb. air/water in the fuel systemc. gasket blow-by or leakaged. incorrect assembly of idler spring

Ans. B

656. After the main engine has reached full sea speed, which of the following conditions could cause the water level in the boiler steam drum to keep falling?

a. Open cut out valves on the boiler gaugeb. Condensate recirculating line is excessivelyc. Feed pump discharge pressure is set to lod. Feed pump recirculating valve is closed

Ans. C

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657. To provide emergency feed water supply to a steaming boiler if it becomes necessary to secure the DC heater, suction should be taken on the DISTILLATE WATER TANK using the_____

a. Emergency ejector dischargeb. Feed booster pumpc. Main feed pumpd. Main condensate pump

Ans. C

658. The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following condition

a. Type of pumpb. Condition of the shaftc. Length of time in used. All of the above

Ans. D

659. What factor determines the service life of packing in a pump?

a. Condition of the shaftb. Condition of the valvec. Condition of the motor

Ans. A

660. The pump packing gland has been respectfully tightened by small increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive?

A. Replace all of the packingB. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packingC. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with

lead wrapD. Continue to add more turns of packing

Ans. D

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661. It is the fastest and most effective system of giving information to the crew if there is malfunction of running machinery?

A. Alarm gongB. Electric sirenC. Blinkering lightsD. All of these

Ans. B

662. Which of the following is the most important action to be done after receiving information from the barge master that the bunkering process is already completed?

A. Ask for the receiptB. Remove the hose connectionC. Calculate the fuel oil receivedD. Ask for the sample

Ans. C

663. What is the most important thing to do after declaring that a tank is already empty?

A. Remove the hoseB. Close the suction valveC. Ask fuel sampleD. Take ship’s draft

Ans. B

664. What does the bore of a diesel engine describes?

A. Length of the pistonB. Height of the pistonC. Volume of the cylinderD. Diameter of the cylinder

Ans. D

665. Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing water?

A. Main circulating pump jacket water coolingB. Saltwater service pumpC. Auxiliary condensate pumpD. Bilge pump

Ans. D

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666. An inert gas used as shielded gas in MIG & TIG welding is ________.

A. ArgonB. AcetyleneC. CadmiumD. Copper

Ans. A667. Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of

overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston?

A. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring grooveB. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston headC. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possibleD. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring bell

Ans. B

668. A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose fire fighting nozzle when the handle is ________.

A. Pushed all the way forwardB. Pushed forward one notchC. Pulled halfway backD. Pulled all the way back

Ans. D

669. A sudden breakdown/trouble happened in the main engine while underway & it cannot be remedied.

A. Notify the Chief EngineerB. Call 2nd EngineerC. Inform the bridgeD. None of these

Ans. A

670.For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, youshould use a ______.

a. faceplateb. steady restc. draw-in collet chuckd. compound rest

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Ans. B

671.Which of the following statements accurately describes the tool feed when referring tolathe work?

a. The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the workb. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiecec. The distance of the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point per minuted. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute

Ans. A

672.When knurling a piece of work in a lathe, it is important to ___________.

a. operate the lathe at the slowest speed b. use plenty of oilc. mount the knurling tool securely in the tool postd. all of these choices

Ans. D

673.To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the ____.

a. feed-change leverb. split or half-nutc. back gear leverd. thread-chasing dial

Ans. B

674.To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _________.

a. disengage the spindle clutch b. engage the feed change leverc. disengage the feed reverse leverd. stop the lathe rotation

Ans. D

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675.If all of the metals listed below are two inch in diameter, which of those listed can be cut withthe highest operating lathe speed?

a. Cast ironb. Machine steelc. Aluminumd. Soft brass

Ans. C

676. If you are cutting off a piece of work in a lathe and the piece tends to climb over the top of the cut-off, you should ___________.

a. increase the lathe spindle speedb. increase the height of the tool cutting edgec. stop the lathe and tighten the chuckd. stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center

Ans. B677. When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface

scale are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken ___________.

a. slowly to prevent tool chatterb. deep enough to get under the scalec. lightly to avoid dulling the toold. rapidly in a continuous chip

Ans. B

678.When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.

a. drive motor and spindleb. spindle and feed rodc. lead screw and head stock spindle d. lead screw and feed stock

Ans. C

679.The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the ________.

a. guide (swivel) bar b. automatic cross feedc. tailstock off center

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d. compound rest angle

Ans. A

680.Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a_________.

a. crotch center b. Chuck c. lathe dogd. spindle

Ans. B681. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine _________.

a. cutting-off toolb. threads on long slender shaftsc. work mounted on a lathe carriaged. round stock to a finish dimension

Ans. B

682. Which of the file listed can be used for sharpening a tool?

a. A double cut fileb. A single cut file c. Any bastard cut filed. Only a double bastard cut file

Ans. B

683. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a smooth fine finish on metal?

a. Mill a. Millb. Float OR b. Second cutc. Warding c. Single cutd. Second cut d. bastard

Ans. A

684.Which of the item listed below is a metal-removing machine, wherein the cutting tool is moved ina horizontal plane by a ram having a reciprocating motion, and it cuts on the forward stroke?

a. Lathe machineb. Milling machinec. Shaper

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d. Planer

Ans. C

685. What is the use of a mill file?

a. To produce a very fine finish by draw filingb. To produce a coarse finish by push filingc. To file leadd. To file plastic

Ans. A

686.Regarding Shaper’s construction, which of the item listed below is a heavy casting attachedto the base by means of gib plates and bolts?

a. Crossrailb. Basec. Saddled. Table

Ans. A

687. Double cut files are most effective when used for ____________.

a. sharpening tools b. draw filingc. finish workd. rough work

Ans. D

688. What factor affects the efficient operation of the shaper?

a. Selection of the cutting tool b. Adjustment of the strokec. Selection of proper fed and cutting speedd. All of these choices

Ans. D

689. Pinning is often caused by _____________.

a. dropping the file b. chalking the file c. cleaning the file d. bearing too hard on the file

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Ans. D

690.The Shaper can be used to produce either concave or convex surfaces although it was intendedoriginally to produce only plane surfaceslike _________________ .

a. angularb. horizontalc. verticald. all of these choices

Ans. D

691. Aside from the shape of the cutting edges, what other factor determines how the tool must be applied and what shape and finish will it produce?

a. Sharpnessawb. Curvec. Locationd. Point

Ans. C

692. What controls the shapers cutting tool and tool slide?

a. Vertical feed handle at the top of the headb. Number of cutting strokes made by the ramc. Horizontal fed handle at the bottom of the headd. Rocker arm movement

Ans. A

693. Which of the following is a fine wire bristled brush for cleaning files?

a. File brushb. File cardc. Pulling brushd. Cleaning card

Ans. B

694. The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the ____________.

a. smooth cut fileb. warding filec. mill file

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d. second cut file

Ans. C

695. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the ________________.

a. drill's lengthb. drill's diameterc. drill's clearance angled. web thickness

Ans. B

696. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ______________.

a. oil grooves in bearingsb. v-grooves and inside sharp angles c. holes through metal platesd. keyways having square corners

Ans. B

697. Which of the items below should you apply pressure when using a handheld hacksaw?

a. Only when cutting thin wall tubingb. Only when cutting carbon steelc. Only when cutting conduitd. At all times

Ans. D

698. What is the proper use of a flat chisel?

a. For cutting inside corners b. For cutting slots or keywaysc. For cutting half-round grooves d. For cutting flat stock

Ans. D

699.Which of the chisels listed below should be used for cutting oil grooves?

a. Diamond pointb. Flat cold chiselc. Round nosed. Square nose

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Ans. C

700. Which of the following statement below is NOT true for a cutting tool to give maximum production with the least amount of trouble and maintenance?

a. The right kind of tool material for the purpose of the tool must be selectedb. The tool must be given the correct hardening and heat-treatment.c. The tool must be correctly designedd. The tool must be ground every use

Ans. D

701. What is the best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway?

a. Round nose chisel b. Flat cold chiselc. Diamond point chiseld. Cape chisel

Ans. D

702. Which of the following tools below has only one straight cutting edge set at right angles to the tool shank?

a. neckingb. roughingc. round nosed. v-threading

Ans. A

703. Which of the following number of teeth per inch should be used to cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw?

a. 14b. 18c. 24d. 32

Ans. D

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704. Cutting tool must combine sufficient _____________ to maintain a sharp cutting edge.

a. strengthb. wear resistancec. toughnessd. hardness

Ans. A

705. Which of the items listed below indicates that the plane that forms the flank on the side of the tool has been ground aback at an angle sloping down from the side cutting edge?

a. End clearance b. Side rakec. Side clearanced. Sloping rake

Ans. C

706. When sharpening any tool, the finishing cut of the grinding wheel should be light. The use of a/an ____________is recommended.

a. fileb. emery clothc. grinding compoundd. oilstone

Ans. D

707. In tool and die shops, which type of milling machine is more frequently used than any other kind of milling machine?

a. Knee and column b. Knee and row c. Knee and elbow d. Multi-tooth

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Ans. A

708.

Which of the following milling machine is generally in better mechanical position than in one which dirt has been allowed to accumulate?

a. Clean and Oiled b. Greased and Oiledc. Clean and Paintedd. Painted and Greased

Ans. A

709.A liquid coolant should not be used with cast iron because the ___________ while operating a millingmachine

a. chips mix with the liquid, resulting in a sticky mass that clogs the cutter teeth and is difficult to removeb. liquid coolant may mix with the oilc. the chips may scatter and dustd. none of these choices

Ans. A

710. Proficiency in the use and care of the milling cutters is a must for every operator and he should be capable of determining the _____________.

a. correct feeds and speeds for their operation b. names and sizesc. correct speed of feedsd. both a and c

Ans. A

711.Who among the persons below should first understand thoroughly the construction andthe operating action of the machine before attempting its operation?

a. Chief Engr. b. Operator

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c. Fitterd. Owner

Ans. B

712. By knowing the construction and the operating action of the milling machine, the chance of the machine from being ____________ will be lessened.

a. used frequently b. cleaned frequentlyc. damaged seriouslyd. dirtied quickly

Ans. C

713. As a safety precaution, the operator of a milling machine should _____________ .

a. not move an operating level without knowing in advance the action that is going to take place b. never play with the control levels or carelessly turn the handles of the milling machine while it is stoppedc. remove chips with a brush or other suitable means but NEVER with the fingers or handsd. call the chief engineer before he start working on a project

Ans. A

714. What is the type of milling machine cutter that is suited for surface milling, profiling, slotting and so on?

a. Fly cutterb. Flitting cutterc. Slotting cutterd. End mill

Ans. D

715.Who is the person responsible for the practical keep-up of machinery and the manning of the engineroom and will decide the watch keeping arrangements and the make

170

up of watch?

a. 2nd engineer a. Masterb. 3rd engineer OR b. Technical directorc. Chief engineer c. Chief engineerd. 4th engineer d. STCW 95

Ans. C

716. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for ork. doing wWhat kind of horsepower is this?

a. Netb. Indicatedc. Braked. Friction

Ans. C

717. What is the principal characteristic of governor stability?

a. To have speed droop incorporatedb. The ability of the governor to maintain constant speed with various enginec. The ability of the governor to return the engine to the set speed after each load change. d. The speed of action of the governor from no load to full load

Ans. C

718. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________.

a. fuel injection rateb. fuel spray nozzlec. combustion in the cylinderd. cylinder air turbulence

Ans. C

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719. When do you pump diesel oil into the burners of an auxiliary boiler?

a. Overload capacity is requiredb. Starting a "dead" shipc. Heavy smoking persistsd. Heavy fuel must be blended

Ans. B

720. Which of the following conditions can result from low fuel oil temperature at a steam atomizer? I - shorter flame, II - higher than normal burner air pressure -

a. Both I and IIb. II only c. I onlyd. Neither I nor II

Ans. C

721. In a fuel oil burner having a standard mechanical atomizer, the fuel and air are mixed as the fuel leaves the __________.

a. oil passageb. orifice c. annular slotsd. tangential slots

Ans. B

722. Which of the following does not occur during air leaking into a flash type distilling plant?

a. Valve stems air leakageb. Gasketed joints leakingc. Air ejector d. Gage glass packing not sealing

Ans. C

723.What causes air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compressor?

a. A dirty inlet filter elementb. An improper adjusted discharge valvec. A broken intake valved. High compression pressure in the cylinder

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Ans. C

724. Why would you cut a hole in a boiler tube which has been plugged?

a. To prevent pressure build up b. To allow it to turn out more quicklyc. To identify tube when it is time to renewd. To replace it with a new tube

Ans. A

725. What maybe attributed to an irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to flash evaporator?

a. Excessive pressure in the seawater feed heaterb. Dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction linec. Erratic water flow through the air eductord. Clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser

Ans. B

726.

In refrigeration system with multiple evaporators, the metering of the refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by ___________.

a. individual coil expansion valvesb. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest boxc. a solenoid valve in the liquid lined. the king expansion valve

Ans. A

727.

What should you do FIRST to correct a condition wherein a diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperature on all cylinders?

a. Increase the cooling water flowb. Reduce the engine load c. Increase the lube oil pressured. Adjust the fuel rack

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Ans. B

728.A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water cooled condenser is used to ______.

a. ensure positive air circulationb. remove non-condensable gasesc. free tubes of accumulated scaled. charge the systems with refrigerant

Ans. B

729.What is the proper time to take water test to obtain better chemical results?

a. Before adding chemicals or blowing down b. After bottom blowc. After surface blowd. After adding chemicals to the boiler

Ans. A

730.Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing ____________.

a. heated water in a high pressure area

b. steam through cooling coilsc. heated water in a low pressure aread. steam through heating coils

Ans. C

731.What could be the cause of an excessive cylinder exhaust back pressure in a diesel engine?

a. An obstruction in the exhaust silencerb. Slight timing discrepancies

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c. Heavy fuel injectiond. A fouled intake manifold

Ans. A

732.How are cylinders and intercoolers of most small air-compressors being cooled?

a. By waterb. By airc. By oild. By carbon dioxide

Ans. B

733. What is the possible fault when compressor capacity is low?

a. Defective, non-return valveb. Dirty or damaged valve c. Air nozzle flapper signald. Air line delivery valve

Ans. B

734. What causes oil to foam in the compresssor crankcase?

a. Load changeb. Pressure change c. Temperature changed. Mechanical change

Ans. B

735. What is the purpose of the stuffing box seal?

a. Make the unit start up easily after lying idle overnightb. Prevent refrigerant from leaking out of the crankcase c. Totally ensure air will not be drawn into the crankcased. Lubricate the bearings with cup grease

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Ans. B

736.The purpose of a demister in alfa-laval fresh water generator is to _____________.

a. secure down the vapour of seawater dropletsb. conceal any particles with glues in the vapour dropletsc. ensure that vacuum condition is attained in the evaporatord. divert the passage of oil travels with the refrigerant

Ans. C

737. What would result in an overcharge of refrigerant?

a. Increase in capacity with an increase in suction pressureb. Increase in capacity with an increase in head presssurec. Decrease in capacity with an increase in head pressured. Increase in horsepower with an increase in capacity

Ans. B

738.Jacket water temperature in a closed cooling system of a diesel engine is normally controlledby _____________.

a. quick level of the fresh water expansion tankb. varying the engine load to meet temperature requirementsc. regulating the chromate level in the primaryd. the operation of the thermostatic valve

Ans. D

739.What is the BEST way to determine the quantity of refrigerant charged into the system ?

a. Open the petcock on the liquid receiverb. Zone the temperature change of the receiver shellc. Weigh the cylinder charge of refrigerant

176

d. Put a gas meter on the liquid line

Ans. C

740. In accordance with International regulations, it is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel bunkers are taken. This sample must bepreserved until the _____________.

a. voyage is completedb. U.S. port where upon it must sent ashore for chemical analysisc. particular supply oil is exhaustedd. water has cleared with any residual

Ans. C

741. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling temperature from an individual cylinderbegins to rise, what should you suspect?

a. That there is an overloading of cylinderb. That there is an overloading of the adjacent cylinder c. That there is an increase blow-by of the cylindersd. That there is an incomplete combustion in that cylinder

Ans. A

742.The expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is located at _____________.

a. the lowest point in the systemb. or near the floor plate levelc. the highest point in the systemd. or near the tank top level

Ans. C

743. Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank could be caused by a _____________.

a. cracked cylinder headb. leaking oil coolerc. leaking exhaust valve

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d. worn piston

Ans. A

744. What effect does the film of alkaline chromate have in the metal surfaces of the cooling system of a diesel engine?

a. It protects metallic surfaces from corrosionb. It increases the rate of heat transferc. It retards the flow of cooling waterd. It tends to increase corrosion

Ans. A

745. What do you call the lowest portion of a diesel engine where the crankshaft is laying and absorbed the impact of the piston during combustion?

a. Cylinder blockb. Cylinder head c. Bedplated. Propeller shaft

Ans. C

746.Which of the following can cause crankshaft misalignment of a crankshaft?

a. Engine overload b. Worn main bearings c. Uneven M.E.P. of the cylindersd. Worn thrust bearing

Ans. B

747.To take main bearing clearances of the crankshaft, we use the following except _____________.

a. feeler gauge b. clock or dial gauge c. lead wire methodd. deflection gauge

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Ans. D

748.What do you call that instrument use to take misalignment of the crankshaft?

a. Feeler Gauge b. Clock or Dial Gauge c. Lead Wire Methodd. Deflection Gauge

Ans. D

749.Bolts that hold the cylinder block to the bedplate is called _________.

a. foundation bolts b. holding down bolts c. tie bolt or tie rodd. connecting rod bolts

Ans. A

750.Corrosion on the piston rings can occur due to which of the following?

a. Insufficient cylinder oil b. Incorrectly fitted rings c. Overheatingd. Attack from corrosive elements in the fuel ash deposits

Ans. D

751.The advantages of water-cooling for piston are as follows EXCEPT for ______________.

a. it is relatively cheap and plentifulb. internal surface are kept free from depositsc. water can operate at higher temperatured. leakage into the crankcase does not present contamination problem

Ans. D

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752. One common cause of cylinder liner wear is __________.

a. correct scavenge air temperatureb. engine load changes carried out graduallyc. burning heavy fuel oil with significant amount of sulphurd. correctly fitted piston rings

Ans. C

753. Oxidation of the oil is one of the major causes of its deterioration, and it is caused by high temperature due to ___________.

a. incorrect grade of oilb. excessive S.W. at the oil coolerc. small bearing clearancesd. correct use of oil pre-heater for the oil purifier

Ans. C

754. One of the major causes of oil deterioration, which is caused by high temperature in main engine is called ____________.

a. oxidation b. scale c. corrosiond. pitting

Ans. A

755.Slight damage to the thrust face (nozzle joint face) of the holder can be rectified by which of the following?

a. Honingb. Boring c. Weldingd. Lapping

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Ans. D

756.When tightening the nozzle nut of fuel injector, which of the following tool/s is used?

a. A spanner and an extensionb. Applied a force that there will be no leak foundc. Torque wrenchd. Simply tighten it

Ans. C

757. A control system for typical marine diesel engine that comprises of automatic valve, a pilot valve, a distributor and starting valves is called ___________.

a. governorb. interlocksc. starting geard. air distributor

Ans. C

758. Which of the following will lead to lower efficiency because of the reduction in heat transfer rates?

a. Scale b. Pitting c. Corrosiond. Caustic cracking

Ans. A

759.Which of the following boiler fitting is the most important in the boiler that prevents overpressure?

a. Check Valve b. Main Valve c. Safety Valved. Globe Valve

Ans. C

760. Burning electrical insulation is extinguished by __________.

a. soda acid b. foamc. water fogd. dry chemical or carbon dioxide

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Ans. D

761. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially ______________.

a. leave the access door partially open b. enter from the lowest possible levelc. enter from the highest level with breathing apparatusd. attempt to start the main engine and generator

Ans. C

762. When fighting a liquid natural gas fire, you should _________.

a. use only carbon dioxideb. use only dry chemical powderc. extinguish the fire then secure the source of gasd. secure the source of the gas then extinguish the fire

Ans. D

763. If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST ____________.

a. secure the ventilationb. find a soda acid extinguisherc. shut off the fuel supplyd. secure the generator

Ans. C

764.When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the FIRST step is to _____.

a. secure the electrical supplyb. ventilate area to remove the smokec. start the fire pump and lead out hoses

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d. apply foam extinguisher

Ans. A

765. When fighting a fire inside a tank with fuel the FIRST action you should attempt is __________

a. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank b. begin transferring fuel to other tanks c. top off the tank to force out vapord. station someone at the fixed CO2 release control

Ans. A

766.A fully charged standard SCBA can be expected to supply air under non-stressful conditionfor approximately __________.

a. 15 minutes b. 20 minutesc. 25 minutesd. 30 minutes

Ans. D

767.The temperature at which liquid will change to gas is called _________.

a. flash pointb. boiling pointc. condensation pointd. reactive point

Ans. B

768. Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a

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liquid gives off sufficientvapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source?

a. Explosion pointb. Flash pointc. Fire pointd. Danger point

Ans. B

769.As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will ________.

a. remain the sameb. Increase c. decreased. vaporize

Ans. B

770. On tanker vessels, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur would be _________.

a. at the midship house b. at the main deck manifoldc. in the engine roomd. in the pump room

Ans. D

771. What is the use of a hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch?

a. It is used to cut angle iron and heavy pipeb. It is used to cut cast and soft iron such as zinc rodsc. It is used to cut thin tubing or sheet metald. It is used to cut drill rod and tool sheets

Ans. B

772.What is the main purpose of an aftercooler when used in conjuction with a turbocharging?

a. Increase the density of the cylinder air chargeb. Prevent turbocharger from overheatingc. Eliminate the need of a pre-coolerd. Remove moisture from air compressor by the turbocharger

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Ans. A

773. Which of the following is the term SWL in cargo handling?

a. Sea Water Levelb. Safe Working Loadc. Safety Working Limitd. Summer Water Loadline

Ans. B

774. One method of keyless propeller fitting is the ________.

a. tailshaft b. oil injection system c. c. couplingd. flanged

Ans. B

775.The attachment of this substance to the propeller would result in a loss of efficiency, an increasein absorbed power and a lower speed is ____.

a. copperb. nickelc. barnaclesd. lignum vitae

Ans. C

776. These are the effects of a barnacles in the propeller except for the _________.

a. increase in absorbed powerb. increase in speed c. loss of propeller efficiencyd. lower revolution per minute

Ans. B

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777. This is an intense discrete frequency sound radiating from the propeller and is much like a steady bell tone called ___________.

a. vibration b. hummingc. poundingd. singing

Ans. D

778. It is a kind of special seal attached to the stern to be with a projecting edge, which is held in contact with a shaft to prevent oil leakage or water entry.

a. lignum vitae b. lip seal c. face seald. none of these choices

Ans. B

779. These were arranged to operate in conjunction with motor cut-outs when cranes has reached its hoisting and luffing limits,or if slack turns occur on the hoist barrel is the ____________.

a. relief valve b. cylinder rod c. brakesd. jib

Ans. C

780. Which of the following prevents the entry of large object to the pipeline and safeguard the internal parts of the pumps?

a. Mud Box b. Safety Valvec. Suction Valve

186

d. Perforated Plate

Ans. A

781.What should be ensured to avoid “back fire” explosion during start-up of boiler?

a. Fuel oil valve to burner is openedb. Air damper to burner is openedc. Fuel vapour in furnace is eliminated by running the forced draught fan for a few minutesd. The burner should be ignited manually

Ans. C

782.In the water tube boiler, the fire in the furnace is located ___________.

a. inside the tubes b. outside the tubes c. inside and outside the tubesd. none of these choices

Ans. B

783. In fire tube boiler, the fire in the furnace is located ____________.

a. inside the tubes b. outside the tubes c. inside and outside the tubesd. none of these choices

Ans. A

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784. In preparing the boiler for survey, the boiler should be cooled down slowly until the pressure gauge registers zero. Which of the following shouldbe opened to avoid formation of a vacuum?

a. Drain Valveb. Manhole Coverc. Air Cockd. Main Steam Valve

Ans. C

785.The alternative methods of treating the feed water to eliminate scale-formers are either _________.

a. to evaporate the make-up feed water to produce good quality distillate.b. to pass the water through a base-exchange unit which will exchange sodium ions for the scale forming calcium and magnesium ionsc. to use demineralization to remove all dissolved solids. d. all of these choices

Ans. D

786. Which of the following are the major source of scale problems?

a. Sodium and Chloride b. Calcium and Magnesium c. Magnesium and Hydroxided. Sodium and Carbonate

Ans. B

787.Which of the following is the normal pH valve range of feed water to the boiler?

a. 7.5 – 8.2b. 8.5 – 9.2c. 9.5 – 10.2d. 10.5 – 11.2

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Ans. B

788. Governor is a means of engine speed _____________.

a. limitation b. regulationc. accelerationd. all of these choices

Ans. B

789.Isochronous governor, regardless of load, maintains a _______ speed.

a. constantb. variablec. higherd. lower

Ans. A

790.In a governor, the fall in speed which occurs as the load on the engine increases is called ________.

a. slipb. droopc. decreasedd. reduced

Ans. B

791.Which substance listed below that lubricating oil possesses but tends to deteriorate with age andbecomes acidic in character and promotes corrosionto machinery parts?

a. Minerals b. Greasec. Additivesd. Water

Ans. C

792. Oil mist detector is an instrument used to detect an oil mist formation in the engine crankcase caused by _____________.

a. dirty oil b. overheating of oil

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c. low oil pressured. low oil level

Ans. B

793.The best way to recondition a defective fuel injector is to __________.

a. overhaul and clean each partsb. overhaul, clean and lap with grinding compoundc. lap the needle to its seat with metal polishd. send to the nearest authorized repairer

Ans. D

794. During injection, the cam nose of the camshaft will push up the plunger of the pump, forcing the fuel to the ____________.

a. fuel injectorb. fuel filterc. fuel viscometerd. fuel heater

Ans. A

795.Most of the fuel injection pumps will then close after injection, because they are fitted with a _______.

a. safety valve b. fuel regulating valvec. spring loaded discharge check valved. spill valve

Ans. C

796. In helix-controlled injection pump, rotation of the plunger is achieved by lateral movement and controls the amount of fuel injected by the ___________.

a. fuel rackb. cam nose c. barrel

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d. delivery valve

Ans. A

797. Scavenging trunks are more prone to fire than they are to ________.

a. explosion b. over pressure c. evaporationd. distillation

Ans. A

798.The causes of scavenge space deposit or flammable mixture usually comes from ___________.

a. unburn fuel b. unburn cylinder oil c. carbon from defective piston ringsd. all of these choices

Ans. D

799. A turbocharger is an air compressor driven by ________.

a. gear or chain of the engineb. air deliveryc. engine exhaust gasesd. compressed air

Ans. C

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800. Which of the following admits air to the piston of a cylinder relay valves in a correct sequence for engine starting?

a. Starting Air Distributor b. Starting Air Valve c. Reversing Air Valved. Brake-Air Valve

Ans. A

801.Which component listed below that each cylinder is fitted with, to operate pneumatically by one of the starting air distributor control valve?

a. Starting Air Distributor b. Starting Air Valve c. Reversing Air Valved. Brake-Air Valve

Ans. B

802. Which of the listed interlocks stops the valve in the remote operating valve line of air starting system from opening?

a. Clutch Lever b. Shifting Leverc. Turning Geard. All of these choices

Ans. C

803.A multi-stage flash evaporator will be unable to produce pure distillate if the ________.

a. distillate meter stopsb. vacuum is fluctuatingc. tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internallyd. distillate cooler is dirty

Ans. BWhat could cause air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a

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804. running compressor?

a. A dirty inlet filter elementb. An improper adjusted discharge valvec. A broken suction valve d. High compression pressure in the cylinder

Ans. C

805.If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service fails to unload, the ________.

a. compressor would run continuouslyb. compressor could be stopped abruptly by the high pressure protection switchc. air receiver indicates pressure would be excessively lowd. compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication

Ans. B

806. What does low viscosity produce?

a. Controlled passages of fuel flowb. Fine mistc. Build up oil passaged. Automatic build up of fluidity

Ans. B

807.What would result in the improper cooling of a cylinder liner due to scale deposits?

a. Poor contact between compression rings and linerb. Piston seizurec. Low compression pressured. Increased lube oil consumption

Ans. B

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808.What causes high temperature in the cooling system of a diesel engine?

a. Clogged water passage in the engineb. Entrapped air in the cooling waterc. Incorrectly set temperature controlsd. All of these choices

Ans. D

809. How would oil enter into the water cooling system of a diesel engine?

a. Leaking oil cooler coilb. Leaking oil cooler bafflec. Leaking metal edge strainerd. Leaking automatic temperature regulator

Ans. A

810.A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates engine cooling water temperature by __________.

a. passing a portion of the water around the coolerb. passing a portion of the water around the enginec. throtting water flow from the coolerd. throtting water to the engine

Ans. D

811. What results in higher than normal air temperature at the intake of a diesel engine?

a. Greater overall efficiencyb. Lower compression ratec. Lower horsepowerd. Greater fuel economy

Ans. C

812. Which of the items listed below need to be reduced when operating large, low-speed main propulsion diesel at low loads?

a. Injection pressureb. Control air supply pressurec. Tube oil temperatured. Cooling water flow through aftercoolers

194

Ans. D

813.What is the principal difference between loop methods and single acting engine?

a. Volume of air admitted to the cylinderb. Sequence of port openingc. Method of opening exhaust portsd. Direction of air flow in the cylinder

Ans. D

814 Removing exhaust gases from a cylinder with the aid of a blower is known as ____________.

a. forced draftb. Scavenging c. turbochargingd. aspiration

Ans. B

815. Which scavenging method has exhaust valve in the cylinder head?

a. Return flowb. Uniflowc. Cross flowd. Direct flow

Ans. B

816.Which practices should be followed at all times when using electric grinding machine?

a. Wear goggles or face shieldsb. Be certain that the frame is properly groundedc. Be properly trained in the use of this toold. All of these choices

Ans. D

817. Safety glasses should be worn when ___________.

a. using a hand portable grinder b. scraping paint with a hand scraperc. using a hammer and a chiseld. all of these choices

Ans. D

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818. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.

a. determine the size of the gasket b. hang a bucket below the jointc. have a first aid kit on handd. be sure no pressure exists on the line

Ans. D

819.Which of the following is TRUE concerning the issuance and use of Port Authority "permit toproceed to another port for repairs?

a. The permit can only be issued if the vessel has a valid certificate of inspectionb. No freigt or passenger are allowed to be carried when the vessel is issued the permitc. The permit can only be issued upon written request from the Master, agent or owner representatived. All of these choices

Ans. C

820.The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its ___________.

a. viscosityb. pour pointc. volatilityd. lower explosive limit

Ans. C

821.The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated in its __________.

a. ignition temperatureb. flash point c. flammable ranged. convection index

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Ans. B

822. The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the ___________.

a. lowest temperature fuel can igniteb. lowest temperature fuel can continue to burnc. temperature of fuel oil must be heatedd. temperature of fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace

Ans. A

823. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated conditions provides the largest shielding effect for the fire?

a. A straight stream of waterb. Light water and foaming agent c. A low velocity fogd. A sealed space of carbon dioxide

Ans. C

824.Which statements listed below describes the relationship between pour point andignition point?

a. Both are higher than normal burning temperaturesb. The flash point temperature is higherc. The ignition temperature is always higherd. They are not necessarily related.

Ans. C

825.Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have tanks installed as far aspracticable from the ___________.

a. landing area and source of vapor ignitionb. main deckc. engine roomd. drill floor

Ans. A

826. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared __________.

a. safe for personnelb. safe for hot work

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c. not safe for personneld. not safe for hotwork

Ans. B

827. International Regulations require tank sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels to be located in which of the listed spaces below?

a. Washroomsb. Laundry roomsc. Crew lounged. None of these choices

Ans. D

828.Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge water for overboard discharge?

a. A 100ppm oily water separatorb. A 15ppm oily water separatorc. A magnetic strainerd. Fine filter

Ans. B

829. According to International Regulations, which of the equipments below should be tested not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port?

a. Steering gearb. Shaft generatorc. All external communication equipmentd. All of these choices

Ans. A

830.Watertight doors on cargo vessels must be inspected and tested by a Coast Guard inspector ____.

a. at each inspection for certification b. at each cargo gear inspectionc. within 12 hours prior to departure

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d. at every fire and boat drills

Ans. A

831. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?

a. Chief engineerb. Deck Officer on watch c. Masterd. Engineer on watch

Ans. C

832.Regarding battery rooms, ventilation should be provided _____________.

a. at the lowest point of the roomb. horizontally near the batteriesc. at the highest point of the roomd. only when charging is in progress

Ans. C

833.While on watch on a steam propelled vessel, you suddenly hear a loud, piercing sound.Which of the following actions listed belowshould you take?

a. Vacate everyone from the engine room immediatelyb. Rapidly move towards the direction of the noise to investigate the probable causec. Cautiously move towards the source of the noise, sweeping the beam of your flashlight ahead of youd. Move away from the noise to find a broom then cautiously advance, sweeping the handle ahead of you to locate the source

Ans. D

834. Any abnormal condition or emergency occurring in the engine room must be immediately reported to the ____________.

a. engineer on watchb. deck officer on watchc. first asst. engineerd. coast guard

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Ans. A

835.When required to work where there is possible explosive gases, you should use toolswhich are _____.

a. coast guard approved b. high carbon steelc. fixed with ferrous liningd. non-sparking

Ans. D

836. Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by __________.

a. allowing better access in an emergencyb. eliminating potential fuel sourcesc. eliminating trip hazardsd. improving personal qualifications

Ans. B

837. Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury when you are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck?

a. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch when it fallsb. Attach lines to the end of the pipe so they can catch it if it fallsc. Place an old mattress under the pipe to prevent it from hitting the deck d. Have a first aid kit at the job site

Ans. B

838.What safety precautions should the crew observe while working around machineryin an engine room? I. They should wear safety helmets. II. They should wear ear protection. III. They should NOT wear jewelry.

200

a. I onlyb. II onlyc. I and III d. I, II and III

Ans. D

839. To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near hoisting operation, which of the following precautions listed below should be observed?

a. Keep load on the hoist until all personnel are finished workingb. Set the load on a movable vehicle when transportation may be neededc. Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady itd. Ensure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded

Ans. D

840. According to International Regulations, all exposed and dangerous equipments such as gears and machineries shall be protected with ____________.

a. Covers b. guardsc. railsd. all of these choices

Ans. D

841.People should be protected from the rotating parts of machine by________.

a. ventsb. bright lightsc. reflective tapesd. guards

Ans. D

842.Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents?

a. Speedb. Excessive knowledge or skillc. Human errord. Excitement

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Ans. C

843.If accidents are considered as an "unexpected contact", you will be able to perform a betterjob by observing which of the followingpractices?

a. Looking for unsafe practicesb. Inspecting for unsafe conditions c. Analyzing jobs for safer methodsd. Doing all of these choices

Ans. D

844. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?

a. Unsafe actionsb. Orderlinessc. Frequent inspectiond. Good work habit

Ans. A

845.Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that may be maintained by __________.

a. storing all items in its proper place b. storing all items in a common storage areac. tagging all items according to their age and then storing them togetherd. disposing of worn out items

Ans. A

846. Which of the following is NOT considered safe practice?

a. Securing equipment against slipping or driftingb. Operating machinery at its recommended speed c. Repairing loose handles or tools before usingd. Using tools for purposes which they are not designed

Ans. D

847. What does it signifies if during your watch you hear a sound of an oil mist detector alarm? I - There is leakage of cooling water to the crankcase II - There is a dangerous accumulation of gases in the crankcase III - It could be a false alarm but needs confirmation

202

a. I & IIb. I, II & IIIc. II & IIId. I & II

Ans. B

848. Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat station or boat drill?

a. More than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistleb. Less than five short blast and one long blast of the whistlec. Steady rapid ringing of the ship's bell and one long blast of the whistled. Three short blasts and three long blasts of the whistle

Ans. A

849. While you are on your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle, it indicates ____________.

a. abandon shipb. commence lowering the lifeboat c. stop lowering the lifeboatd. secure the boat stations

Ans. B

850.If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should _____.

a. remove unnecessary weight from the boatb. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanismc. adjust the limit switch on the davitd. engage the motor friction clutch band

Ans. B

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851.When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.

a. straight overheadb. at the vessel whose attention you want to attractc. into the windd. at about 60 degrees above the horizon

Ans. D

852. When should distress flares and rockets be used?

a. Only when there is a chance of them being sighted by a rescue vesselb. They should be set-off at half-hour intervalc. They should be set-off at an hour intervald. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

Ans. A

853.Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed below would be the most suitable for nightsignalling at a ship on the horizon?

a. Red parachute flare b. Red handheld flarec. Flashlightd. Lantern

Ans. A

854.Signalling devices required on an inflatable life rafts includes a/an __________.

a. pistolb. orange smoke signal c. air hornd. lantern

Ans. B

855. Distress signals may be __________.

a. red flaresb. smoke signalsc. sound signalsd. all of these choices

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Ans. D

856.A burning mattress is considered, which of the following classes of fire?

a. Class Ab. Class Bc. Class Cd. Class D

Ans. A

857. An example of Class A fire is a/an _________.

a. burning papers in a garbage canb. electric fire in the engine roomc. oil fire in the engine roomd. oil fire involving a Class A petroleum product

Ans. A

858. A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a/an ____________.

a. class Ab. class Bc. class Cd. class D

Ans. A

859. A fire in a paint locker would probably be __________.

a. class Ab. class Bc. class Cd. class D

Ans. B

860.Burning paint, turpentine or grease would be an example of which of the following classesof fire?

a. Class Ab. Class Bc. Class Cd. Class D

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Ans. B

861. A class B fire would most likely to occur in the __________.

a. electrical motorb. waste rag fire in engine roomc. main switchboardd. engine room bilge oil

Ans. D

862. A class D fire would be considered as burning __________.

a. woodb. oilc. electrical equipmentd. magnesium

Ans. D

863.Fires occurring in combustible metals are classified as class ____________.

a. class Ab. class Bc. class Cd. class D

Ans. D

864. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.

a. heatb. fuelc. oxygend. any of these choices

Ans. D

865. The three basic elements necessary for any fire are _________.

a. heat, gas, and flamesb. fuel, heat, and oxygen c. fuel, heat and nitrogend. fuel, oxygen and nitrogen

Ans. B

206

866.All of the following items listed below are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _________.

a. fuelb. oxygenc. heatd. electricity

Ans. D

867. Which of the toxic gases listed below is a product of incomplete combustion and is often present in closed compartment fire?

a. Carbon dioxideb. Hydrogen sulfidec. Carbon monoxided. Nitric oxide

Ans. C

868. A fuel/air mixture below the explosive limit is too ____________.

a. rich to burnb. lean to burnc. cool to burnd. dense to burn

Ans. B

869. If a mixture containing air and a concentration of flammable vapor, is capable of ignition when exposed to a spark or other source of ignition, it is said to be ___________.

a. in the flammable range b. at the rich point limitc. at the auto ignition limitd. above the ignition point

Ans. A

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870. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents listed below is the best for heat absorption?

a. Water fog b. Dry chemicalsc. Chemical foamd. Carbon dioxide

Ans. A

871.When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog has the ______.

a. greatest ability to produce foamb. best cooling ability c. ability to completely remove toxic chemicalsd. capability to remove combustible vapors

Ans. B

872. A definite advantage of water over other types of extinguishing agent is its ability to _________.

a. alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid becomes vapor.b. absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid to vaporc. rapidly contract as water is converted from liquid to vapord. vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat

Ans. D

873.Which of the fire fighting agents listed below is least harmful to personnel?

a. CO2b. Steamc. Waterd. Dry chemicals

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Ans. C

874. Foam extinguishes the fire by __________.

a. a chemically absorbing the oxygenb. smothering the burning metalc. chemically absorbing the burning metald. releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide

Ans. B

875. Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving _________

a. oilb. burning insulationc. hot bulkheadsd. electrical machinery

Ans. A

876. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed ___________.

a. at the overheadb. at a vertical surfacec. onto the deckd. directly into the bilge water

Ans. B

877.Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

a. It is more effective than CO2b. It leaves no residuec. It destroys ozone layer d. All of these choices

Ans. D

878. To use a portable CO2 extinguisher, you must FIRST ___________.

a. turn the tank upside downb. pull the locking pinc. open the valve on the tankd. shake thoroughly

Ans. B

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879.Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguishers includes ______.

a. inspecting the pressure gauge for proper pressureb. weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight chargec. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder d. discharging, internal cleaning and recharging

Ans. B

880.Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged aboardship?

a. Soda acidb. Carbon dioxidec. Dry chemicals, cartridge-operatedd. Foam

Ans. B

881.When is it necessary for dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged?

a. After each useb. When the temperature exceeds 90 deg Fc. Every six monthsd. Every 12 months

Ans. A

882. The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead or deck as a result of _______.

a. conductionb. radiationc. convectiond. wind flow

Ans. A

883. The ventilation system aboardships has fire dampers restrained by fusible links that will ________.

a. automatically open after a fire is extinguished and then reset the damperb. be replaced after each usec. be replaced before inspection by port authorityd. need replacement if the damper remains closed

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Ans. D

884. Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________.

a. remote operated valveb. fusible linkc. CO2 system pressure switchd. heat or smoke detector

Ans. B

885. Fusible link fire dampers are operated by _________.

a. a mechanical arm outside the vent ductb. electrical controls on the bridgec. the heat of a fire melting the linkd. a break glass and pull-cable system

Ans. C

886. Which of the gases listed below is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment on fire?

a. Nitrogenb. Hydrogen c. Carbon dioxided. Carbon monoxide

Ans. D

887.At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST _____.

a. locate the fireb. determine which type of fire is burningc. sound the alarmd. fight the fire

Ans. C

888. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.

a. all hands are at their fire stationsb. all firefighting equipment is in the scenec. the fixed systems are activatedd. the fire is contained and no longer spreading

Ans. D

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889.To prevent the spread of fire by convection, you should ____________.

a. remove combustible materials from direct exposure b. cool the bulkhead around the firec. close all openings in the aread. shut-off electrical power

Ans. C

890. What could be the probable cause in a full speed main engine when lube oil level in the sump drop rapidly in a clean weather condition?

A. leaking on the lube oil pump shaft packingB. leaking lube oil cooler tubesC. Lube oil purifier is overflowing without alarm signal

Ans. C

891. A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by ___________.

a. only fuel injectionb. burned valvesc. too late fuel injectiond. low fuel penetration

Ans. B892. The cause if there is combustion gas venting through the

expansion tank is ________.

a. leaking oil coolerb. cracked cylinder headc. an overheated bearingd. excessive lube oil in the crankcase

Ans. B

893. What is piston displacement?

a. Distance swept by the piston from bottom to center or center to top dead center

b. Distance swept by the piston from top dead center to bottom dead center

c. Volume swept by the piston from bottom to center or center to top dead center

212

d. Volume swept by the piston from top dead center to bottom dead center

Ans. D

894. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for ____________.

a. restoring damage threadb. enlarging existing threadc. cutting original threadd. straightening tapered threads

Ans. A

895. For internal threading, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end tapping of the hole by using a __________.

a. taper tapb. plug tapc. bottoming tapd. finishing tap

Ans. A

896. Many diesel engines have pistons with conceive heads to _______________.

a. Increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing b. Decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixingc. Prevent fuel after burning when injections endsd. Prolong fuel after burning when injection

Ans. A

897. An offset screwdriver is best used for ___.

a. Screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver

Ans. A

898. During the test, what is the best solution in order to reduce the density of the auxiliary water boiler if found to be high?

a. Add soda

213

b. Reduce NaClc. Reduce Hydrogend. Reduce Oxygen

Ans. A

899. A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) as a _________.

a. Sensitizer

Ans. A

900. A reproductive health hazard listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a ____.

a. Mutagen

Ans. A

901. A liquid is listed on a MSDS having a flashpoint below 37.78oC is called a/an ______.

a. Flammable liquid

Ans. A

902. The temperature at which a liquid is listed on a MSDS, will change to gas is called ______.

a. Boiling point

Ans. A

903. The lowest temperature at which a liquid as listed on the MSDS, gives off enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source is called its _______.

a. Flash point

Ans. A

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904. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _______.

a. Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

Ans. A

905. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be _____.

a. Prick punched

Ans. A

906. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called ____.

a. Cross filing

Ans. A

907. A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring setting and lubrications is known as ______.

a. Cross hatch honing cross

Ans. A

908. The process of flaring the section of a boiler tube extending beyond the tube sheet into the drum is known as ________.

a. Belling

Ans. A

909. The device that is used for reducing the exhaust noise is called a/an ____.

a. Exhaust pipeb. Funnel pipec. De-noising piped. Muffler

Ans. D

910. One advantage of a vacuum feed sigh glass indicator used on cylinder lubricators over the side liquid filled type sight glass is ________.

a. Adjustment is not required

215

b. Better visual metering adjustmentc. There are fewer moving partsd. A lower grade on oil may be used

Ans. B

911. The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically to ___.

a. Prevent the gear box from leakingb. Prevent the oil from becoming inflammablec. Make sure it has not become contaminatedd. Make sure the motor bearings are lubricated

Ans. C912. When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum

effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the ______.

a. Stud lengthb. Stud diameterc. Head nut diameterd. Stud material

Ans. B

913. Surging of a turbo charger is usually caused by a sudden shortage of ________.

A. Exhaust gasB. Air deliveryC. Cooled airD. Air cushion

Ans. B

914. What is the importance of counter boring the top of the cylinder liner, extending down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring?

A. Increase cylinder turbulenceB. Prevent wear of the liner from occurringC. Prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of

the ringD. Decrease compression ratio for easier starting

Ans. C

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915. Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt?

A. Faulty combustionB. Excessive ring temperaturesC. Over lubricationD. All of these

Ans. D

916. Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed normal load for prolonged periods will result in ________.

A. Extended value lifeB. Carbon formation on combustion chamber surfacesC. Decrease fuel consumption per brake horsepowerD. More complete cylinder scavenging

Ans. B

917. Air pockets forming with the cylinder head circulation passages may cause _______.

A. Hydraulic stress and distortion will developB. Hot spots will developC. Fuel oil viscosity will increasedD. An increased in trapped deposits of scale and dirt

Ans. B

918. The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always _________.

A. From top to bottomB. From bottom to topC. From left to rightD. From right to left

Ans. B

919. Which of the following should a watchman needs to check at the steering gear while at sea?

217

A. Oil leak in the systemB. Accuracy of the rudder angle indicatorC. Movement of the trick wheelD. Position of the six-way valve

Ans. A

920. When boiler fires begin sputtering, indicating water in the fuel oil setting tank, you should _____.

A. Charge suction to the alternate setting tankB. Reduce the fuel pump operating speedC. Start the alternate fuel oil service pumpD. Shift to the service pump low suction

Ans. A

921. A power driven auxiliary steering gear is required by Coast Guard Regulations rudder over from 15o on one side to 15o on the other side with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, this test must be carried _____.

A. 7 knotsB. 10 knotsC. 15 knotsD. 20 knots

Ans. B

922. Coast Guard Regulations divide petroleum product into combustible liquids and flammable liquids. Flammable liquids will ______.

A. Give off flammable vapor at or below 80oFB. Have a flash point of 150oF or moreC. Always have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 pounds or moreD. Will self-ignite at temperatures below 150oF

Ans. A

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923. After an engine room has been flooded with CO2 due to fire the next thing to do is to _____.

A. Send an investigating team (at the scene of the fire)B. Sealed the areaC. Open the ventilationD. Open the skylight

Ans. A

924. Which of the following statement is true if the oil temperature is allowed to become excessively high in the heaters?

A. Excessive temperature will increase oil viscosity that results to poor combustion

B. Excessive temperature will cause the oil to crystallize resulting in pulsating fires

C. The fuel will carbonize and its heating ability will be reducedD. The fuel will ignite even it has not reached point of ignition

Ans. C

925. Common part found in Plane and Universal milling machine?

A. Speed dialB. Swivel tableC. Over arm positioning

Ans. B

926. Parts of milling machine.

I – TailstockII – Headlining assemblyIII – Head dividing assembly

A. I and IIB. II and IIIC. I and IIID. I, II and III

Ans. B

927. A power driven auxiliary steering gear required by Coastguard regulation to be capable of putting the Rudder over from 15 degrees on one side to 15 degrees on the other side with the

219

vessel running Ahead, For a 20 knots vessel, this test must be carried______.

a. 7 knotsb. 10 knotsc. 15 knotsd. 20 knots

Ans. B

928. According to Regulation, a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 20 knots service speed must be capable of producing a rudder movement at which of the minimum speed listed___

a. 7 knotsb. 10 knotsc. 15 knotsd. 20 knots

Ans. B

929. According to Regulation, a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knots service speed must be able to meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum speed listed___

a. 6 knotsb. 7 knotsc. 9 knotsd. 12 knots

Ans. B

930. The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water system should be maintained between____

a. 6.0 to 7.5b. 8.0 to 9.5c. 10.0 to 11.5

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d. 12.0 to 13.5

Ans. B

931. Pollution Prevention regulation (33 CFR) prohibit draining____.

a. waste oil into the slop tankb. lube oil purifier into the bilgec. fuel oil heater into the bucketd. lube oil strainer into the drip pan

Ans. B

932. Coast guard regulation require an audible and visible alarm to be actuated in the pilot house when the actual position of the rudder differs from the position ordered by the follow-up control system by 5 degrees or more for more than_____

I. 30 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 70 degreesII. 16 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 5 degreesIII. 10 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 2.5 degrees

a. I onlyb. II and IIIc. III onlyd. I,II and III

Ans. A

933. In the diesel engine installing a test cock has important purpose and it is ______.

I – Pressure test the cylinder headII – Purging the cylinder before the startingIII – Connect the pressure indicator

A. I & IIB. I & IIIC. II & IIID. I, II & III

Ans. C

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934. What is the term for a colorless gas with high carbon content, lighter than air with chemical formula of C2H2?

A. AcetoneB. AcetyleneC. ArgonD. Astatine

Ans. B

935. Which property/s of heavy fuel oil will be affected if it will be heated to a certain undesired temperature?

I – ViscosityII – Pour pointIII – Calorific value

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I & IID. I, II & III

Ans. C

936. What cutting edge is the part of the tool where two surfaces, one of which may be curved, intersect to form a curved line?

OR

A _________ cutting edge wherein the other part is curve?

A. ShapedB. CurvedC. PointD. Straight

Ans. A

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937. Which of the listed actions should be carried out if a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period of time ______.

I – Boilers to be laid up wet should be completely filledII – All fuel tanks should be cleaned & gas freedIII – All potable water tanks should be cleaned & disinfected

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I & IID. I, II & III

Ans. A

938. Adding trisodium phosphate in boiler water will _______.

I – Decrease salinityII – Increase salinityIII – Decrease alkalinity

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I & IID. I, II & III

Ans. A

939. Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed practices?

A. Throwing materials from high places to the deckB. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering

materialC. Examining material for sharp edges or protoding points before

handlingD. Closing, tagging or securing valves that permit entrance of

steam, water or air into a fitting or other equipment

Ans. A

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940. Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include ___.

I – Frost burns to fleshII – High toxicity in small quantitiesIII – Noxious odors

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I, II & IIID. I & III only

Ans. A

941. If an anchor windlass has been idle for sometime, you should _____.

A. Repack all valve stemsB. Lubricate it prior to useC. Replace the foundation boltsD. Balance the warping heads

Ans. B

942. A process to determine the impurities contained in the fuel oil?

A. Tank settling processB. Laboratory process

Ans. B

943. Air intake system for diesel engine has an important purpose and what it is?

I – To supply the needed air to the combustionII – To clean the intake airIII – To supply air for supercharging

A. I & II C. II & IIIB. I & III D. I, II & III

Ans. D

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944. Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the ______.

A. carriage stop clamp is tightenedB. pindle dutch is engagedC. carriage clamp screw is loosenedD. thread dial indicator is zeroed

Ans. A

945. In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most difficult to lubricate is the _______.

A. Major thrust sideB. Minor thrust sideC. Top circumferenceD. Bottom circumference

Ans. C

946. What kind of piping materials are used to produce piping in standard, extra strong and double extra strong weights?

A. Copper pipeB. PlasticC. IronD. Reinforce cast iron

Ans. C

947. What factors to be consider in the requisition or ordering spare parts of milling machine ?

I – CapacityII – TypeIII – Horsepower

A. I & IIIB. II & IIIC. I & IID. I, II & III

Ans. D

225

948. What attachment can you find in air reservoir?

I – Safety/Relief valveII – Fusible plugIII – Bursting disc

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I, II & III

Ans. A

649. Most hand operated tools can be operated by the use of _______.

A. AirB. Compressed gasC. OxygenD. Nitrogen

Ans. A

950. Which of the following flammable liquid has the Lowest Explosive Limit (LEL)?

A. HydrogenB. NapthaC. GasolineD. Diesel oil

Ans. B

951. What is the cause of depletion of oxygen in an enclosed space?

A. Rust in painted metal or rusting, organic cargoB. Petroleum products, chemicalsC. No ventilationD. Toxic products/gas

Ans. A

952. During departure from a 2 weeks anchorage, the reason why the windlass cannot lift the anchor up is _______.

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A. Low lube oil tank levelB. Windlass defective by pass valveC. Anchor dragged sunken objectD. Too cold hydraulic oil

Ans. B

953. What should you do if the oxygen breathing apparatus (safety valve) starts to whistle/alarm?

A. Go out/retreat to take fresh airB. Reset the safety valveC. Open the by-pass valveD. Activate the 10 min. to have more

Ans. A

954. Where is the location of the backfire valve?

A. Boiler furnaceB. Scavenging areaC. Gas cylinder

Ans. C

955. The maximum speed for a rough machining of a carbon steel material if a high speed cutter is used in the operation of the modern milling machine onboard is _______.

A. 80 rpmB. 110 rpmC. 100 rpmD. 90 rpm

Ans. A

956. Which of the following has the lowest cutting speed for an effective rough cutting operation if a high speed cutter is to be used in the modern milling machine onboard?

A. BrassB. Bronze

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C. Malleable ironD. Carbon steel

Ans. D

957. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, a steering gear feeder circuit from the emergency switchboard or alternate power supply must have the capacity for continuous operation of the rudder 15 degrees side to side in not more than 60 seconds for a period of _______.

A. 15 minutes A. ¼ hourB. 30 minutes OR B. ½ hourC. 60 minutes C. 1 hourD. 120 minutes D. 2 hours

Ans. B

958. The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room trick wheel, is to ____.

A. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle positionB. set the six way control valve in the trick wheel positionC. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheelD. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage in

trick wheel

959. Cause why cascade tank water temperature is high?

OR

What could be the reason why the feed pump can hardly pump in water to the auxiliary boiler causing the cascade tank water level to rise & temperature too high?

A. High ambient temperatureB. Clogged condenser water tubesC. Filter dirtyD. Low cascade water level

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A

B

960. What could be the possible cause if the engine failed to start even if it turns freely?

I – Engine is too coldII – No fuel is injected to the cylinderIII – Fuel is injected too lateIV – Fuel is injected too early

A. I & IIB. I & IIIC. II & IIID. I, II & III

Ans. A

961. In the boiler’s combustion control system, when the demand for steam is increased, the ______.

A. Air supply increases before fuel supply increasesB. Fuel oil supply increases before airC. Steam pressure increases before air & fuelD. Flue gases increases before air & fuel

Ans. A

962. How does CO2 extinguish a fire?

A. SmotheringB. CoolingC. Absorb heatD. Chemical reaction

Ans. A

963. A _________ when properly ground, is a tool bit.

A. ScriberB. FileC. Tool steelD. Tool blank

Ans. D

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964. In an automatic auxiliary boiler when steam demand is reached, what takes place?

A. A sensing device cuts out the fuelB. The stack switch cuts out the ignition electrodeC. The stack switch cuts out the power supplyD. A pressure switch cuts out the feed water

Ans. A

965. Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium?

A. The chromium will not wear out the piston ringsB. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the

scavenging air portC. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper ringD. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil

Ans. D

966. What effect on the pump if an impeller is replaced using a large suction eye?

A. Impeller suction eye size will not affect the pump’s capacity in gallons per minute

B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM

C. The pump motor will electrically trip off the lineD. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM

Ans. B

967. In welding (gas) the color blue hose is _____.

A. OxygenB. AcetyleneC. NitrogenD. Hydrogen

Ans. A

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968. The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to _________.

A. reduce radial thrust to the impellerB. double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to

a single voluteC. reduce hydraulic end thrustD. provide the effect of multi-staging

Ans. A

969. You vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 48 hours duration. Coast Guard regulation require that the steering gear be examined & tested no earlier than _______.

A. 0600 hoursB. 0900 hoursC. 1200 hoursD. 1500 hours

Ans. A

970. An AC synchronous transmission type remote steering control system consists of a _______.

A. Transmitter at the steering station & a receiver at t6he steering engine

B. Reversible motor at the steering station geared to the steering pumps

C. Small induction motor on the bridge which controls the rudder through pulleys

D. Variable displacement hydraulic pump given by a reversible DC motor

Ans. A

971. Which of the following survival craft onboard can be used alone by crew that was accidentally thrown from the vessel?

A. Life ringB. Life boatC. LiferaftD. Rescue boat

Ans. A

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972. Adding chemical additive in the fuel oil tank is thru _______.

A. sounding pipeB. hand pumpC. during bunkering

Ans. A

973. Boiler water test.

A. Litmus paper

974. Change impeller diameter will vary ___.

A. discharge rate/capB. increase in suctionC. motor will trip

Ans. A

975. Soda get into your eyes.

A. Wash W/H2O & contact doctor by rapidB. Go to doctorC. Notify the C/O

Ans. A

976. Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to _______.

A. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sumpB. decrease piston side thrust pressureC. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring landD. make it more flexible for scraping cylinder surfaces

Ans. A

977. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation can be caused by _______.

A. high fluid level in the reservoirB. hydraulic fluid low floc pointC. excessive discharge pressure from the pumpD. clogged suction strainer in the reservoir

Ans. D

978. Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth?

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A. Second cutB. Dead smooth cutC. Bastard cutD. Smooth cut

Ans. C

979. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _____.

A. cavitationB. electrolysisC. abrasionD. corrosion

Ans. A

980. Shapers cutting tool & tool bite is controlled by the ___.

A. feed handle for vertical feedB. number of cutting strokes made bys the ramC. horizontal feed handleD. speed of stroke

Ans. A

981. What is/are the immediate action to perform during normal operation of the boiler, if the water level drop that become completely out of sight in the sight glass ________.

I – Stop the boilerII – Add feed water until the normal level is achievedIII – Cool the boiler before filling feed water

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I, II & III

Ans. C

982. Mechanical foam used for fire fighting is produced by mechanically missing & agitating ______.

A. Foam chemical with air (high pressure) & waterB. Soda acid & waterC. Dry chemical & waterD. Bicarbonate soda with air & water

Ans. A

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983. What metallurgical process is used to produce metal parts from suitable metal powder place in a die for heating & compacting into desired shape?

A. SinteringB. ExtrudingC. ForgingD. Casting

Ans. A

984. By-passing exhaust gases to the atmosphere is essential during maneuvering when the engine is in variable speed in order to _______.

A. Avoid condensation in the exhaustB. Prevent carbon accumulation in the exhaust boiler

Ans. A

985. What will happen to the pH value of the boiler H2O if you add water on it?

A. Increase pHB. Decrease pHC. Become NeutralD. Nothing happen

Ans. B

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