Malpeli Revision
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Transcript of Malpeli Revision
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Malpeli Revision
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1. The recommended activity levels for adults (CDHAC) are:
A: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 60 minutes every day of the week
B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)
C: Participating in vigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff” for 30 minutes three to four days per week
D: Participating in vigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff” for 60 minutes five days per week (minimum)
ANSWER:B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)
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2. The physical activity pyramid encourages people to:
A: Participate most in Level 2 activities
B: Participate most in Level 3 activities
C: Participate least in Level 1 activities
D: Participate least in Level 4 activities
ANSWER:
D: Participate least in Level 4 activities
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3. The following is an example of an objective measure of physical activity:
A: Heart rate monitoring
B: Self-report logs
C: Physical activity diary
D: None of the above
ANSWER:A Heart rate monitoring
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4. For overweight and obese individuals, to prevent weight regain once weight is lost:
A: 30-60 minutes of physical activity is recommended on at least 5 days per week
B: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended on at least 5 days per week
C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day
D: 30-60 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day
ANSWER:C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day
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5. Stage 6 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Termination stage which:
A: Allows participants to temporarily “drop out” of physical activity for a period of time
B: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years
C: Can only be experienced when Stage 5 has been met for at least 6 months
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years
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6. The following is an example of a “constructed environment”
A: A skate park next to a school
B: A statue in the local mall
C: Paving to replace footpaths
D: None of the above
ANSWER:A: A skate park next to a school
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7. The mass media promotes involvement in physical activity by:
A: Increasing interest in physical activity
B: Providing information about the consequences of inactivity
C: Providing information about the psychological benefits of being active
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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8. The most effective school based setting physical activity promoting strategies:
A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits
B: Promote increased physical activity during breaks, and especially lunchtime
C: Offer before and after school sporting programs
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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9. A benefit associated with having a physically active group of office workers include:
A: Reduced absenteeism
B: Increased productivity
C: Reduced staff turnover
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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10. At rest, most of our energy comes from:A: Fats
B: Carbohydrates
C: Proteins
D: A combination of all of the above
ANSWER:A: Fats
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11. The ATP-PC system is:A: Anaerobic
B: Quick to supply energy
C: Limited by the amount of available phosphocreatine
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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12. The energy system interplay is best described when:
A: ATP is released from the ATP-PC system, then the LA system and lastly the aerobic system
B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems
C: The three energy systems are used during play rather than rest
D: The three energy systems collectively supply ATP to working muscles in a sequential pattern
ANSWER:B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems
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13. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs :
A: The LA system becomes the major energy supplier
B: The PC system is able to replenish energy stores now that it is not being used and “rested”
C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
D: An active recovery should commence immediately
ANSWER:C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
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14. Steady state occurs when:
A: Oxygen consumption reaches a maximum level
B: The Cori cycle starts to break down built up lactic acid and convert it to glycogen to be reused
C: The heart and lungs have had sufficient time to supply working muscles with oxygen
D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand
ANSWER:D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand
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15. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 100m sprinter (athletics) is:
A: PC depletion
B: Lowered muscle Ph
C: Accumulation of iron(s) – Fe, Ph, Al, etc.
D: Lactic Acid accumulation
ANSWER:A: PC depletion
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16. Following a 10 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period?
A: 10 seconds (1: 1 work : rest ratio)
B: 180 seconds
C: 240 seconds
D: 300 seconds
ANSWER:B: 180 seconds
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17. Males exhibit greater muscular strength than females due to:
A: Greater participation in physical activity
B: Having more unipennate muscles
C: Having a higher percentage of fast-twitch fibres
D: Increased cross sectional area
ANSWER:D: Increased cross sectional area
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18. Anaerobic power is a measure of:
A: The PC system’s ability to produce energy
B: The LA system’s ability to produce power
C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways
D: None of the above
ANSWER:C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways
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19. The most important fitness component for a 1,500m swimmer performing a tumble turn is:
A: Reaction Time
B: Agility
C: Balance
D: Aerobic Power
ANSWER:B: Agility
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20. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to:
A: Work out the important fitness components
B: Consider the interplay of energy systems during the activity
C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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21. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are:
A: Reliable
B: Valid
C: Relevant
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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22. The most specific test to assess the agility of a tennis player would be the:
A: Illinois Agility Run
B: Semo Agility Test
C: Harvard Twist Touch Test
D: Margarita Agility Run
ANSWER:B: Semo Agility Test
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23. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they:
A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring regionB: Train more than femalesC: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of thisD: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the game
ANSWER:A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region
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24. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of”
A: Periodisation
B: Mesocycles
C: Microcycles
D: Tri-cycles
ANSWER:A: Periodisation
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25. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is:
A: 2 times / week
B: 3 times / week
C: 4-5 times / week
D: 7 times / week
ANSWER:C: 4-5 times / week
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26. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates:
A: The athlete needs to be thinking about “tapering”
B: A period of adaptation
C: A “steady State” has been achieved
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: A period of adaptation
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27. The best example of long interval training listed below is:
A: 20 x 2 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
B: 2 x 20 x 100 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:2
C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
D: 2 x 20 x 10,000m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:10
ANSWER:C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
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28. “Fartlek” training :
A: Can be overloaded by completing the same distance in a slower time
B: Is also knows as “playing with speed”
C: Requires rest periods to restore PC
D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals
ANSWER:D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals
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29. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities:
A: Skipping, max push ups in 60 seconds, running on the spot for 30 seconds (max intensity)
B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding
C: 10 x 20 m sprints every 45 seconds followed by 15 x 15m sprints every 30 seconds
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding
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30. Plyometrics can be overloaded by:
A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity
B: Decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions
C: Increasing the rest and decreasing the intensity
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity
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31. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 4 represents:
A: Repetitions
B: Sets
C: Resistance
D: The day of the week training is undertaken
ANSWER:B: Sets
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32. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths:
A: Increased capillarisation
B: Increased plasma volume
C: Increased cardiac output
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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33. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in:
A: Transporting more oxygen around the vascular system
B: Preventing the myoglotic stretch reflex (less slow twitch muscle trains)
C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria
D: None of the above
ANSWER:C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria
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34. Aerobic training results in decreases to the systolic blood pressure (except at max effort) due to:
A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels
B: Increasing LDL’s and reducing plaque build up on the inside of blood vessels
C: Reciprocal increases in diastolic blood pressure
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels
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35. Aerobic training has the following effect on ventilatory muscle oxygen consumption at the diaphragm & intercostals:
A: Increases
B: Decreases
C: Remains relatively unchanged
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: Decreases
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36. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres:
A: Increased “whiteness”
B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores
C: Increased contraction speed
D: Increased triglyceride stores
ANSWER:C: Increased contraction speed
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37. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres:
A: Increased aerobic force capacity
B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores
C: Increased contraction speed
D: Increased triglyceride stores
ANSWER:D: Increased triglyceride stores
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38. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to lactic acid tolerance:
A: Decreased reliance of glucose as a fuel
B: Increased oxidative enzyme stores
C: Decreased buffering ability
D: Increased acid-base regulation
ANSWER:D: Increased acid-base regulation
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39. Training with high intensity/loads and low repetitions will generally result in greater changes in:
A: Type IIB fibres
B: Type IIA fibres
C: Type I Fibres
D: Type IA Fibres
ANSWER:A: Type IIB fibres
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40. Massage assists recovery by:
A: Increasing blood flow to the massaged area(s)
B: Increasing the amount of oxygen transported to the massaged area(s)
C: Increasing the rate of waste removal from the massaged area(s)
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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41. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to:
A: Keep a training log
B: Try to remember everything undertaken during a week of training
C: “Listen” to what your body is saying to you by the way it feels
D: None of the above
ANSWER:A: Keep a training log
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42. Risk management includes:
A: Risk Identification
B: Risk Reduction
C: Risk Avoidance
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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43. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by:
A: Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team
B: Ensuring first aid kits are available at every training session
C: Enlisting the support of non paid qualified staff
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team
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44. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area:
A: Protective equipment and barriers
B: Equipment care
C: Hygiene
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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45. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries
A: Ensuring players participate in accredited courses so they’ll have a job when they finish playing
B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries
C: Using new pre-season training methods that have worked with in the USA for NFL footballers but haven’t been trialled here
D: Players wearing helmets to avoid serious head injuries (similar to NFL footballers)
ANSWER:B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries
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46. The following strategy can assist enhancing performance by building or maintaining confidence:
A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional
B: “Walking the talk”
C: Faking an injury to upset an opponent’s concentration
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional
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47. The following drink allows quickest absorption and hydration:
A: Hypotonic
B: Hypertonic
C: Hypatonic
D: Hyputonic
ANSWER:A: Hypotonic
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48. Minerals are important in assisting performance PB’s by:
A: Assisting in water loss to help with thermoregulation
B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function
C: Adding to the amount of ATP that can be produced
D: Ensuring the Essential Electrolytic Balance (EEB) is maintained
ANSWER:B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function
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49. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA. Side-effects include:
A: Hyperactivity
B: Hypotension
C: Hypertension
D: All of the above
ANSWER:C: Hypertension
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50. An example of a medico-legal issue being raised by athletes taking legal performance enhancers such as creatine monohydrate is:
A: Athletes suffering an allergic reaction to the substance
B: Athletes being admitted to hospital
C: Athletes suing the administrative body for a “botched up” Series A sample
D: None of the above
ANSWER:A: Athletes suffering an allergic reaction to the substance
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51. In terms of the physical activity pyramid, lifetime physical activities should have the following Frequency (F); Intensity (I) and Time/Duration (T):
A : F = most days of the week I = Moderate T = 30 minutes minimumB : F = 3-4 days of the week I = Moderate T = 30 minutes minimumC : F = most days of the week I = Vigorous T = 60 minutes minimumD : F = 3-4 days of the week I = Vigorous T = 30 minutes minimum
ANSWER:A : F = most days of the week I = Moderate T = 30 minutes minimum
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52. The most consistent predictor of children’s physical activity levels, according to the CLASS study, is the :
A The amount of encouragement provided by parents
B The amount of time spent outdoors
C The educational attainment of parents
D The socio-economic status of their family
ANSWER:
B : The amount of time spent outdoors
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53. According to the National Physical Activity Guidelines:
A Adults should engage in more physical activity than children
B Children should engage in twice as much physical activity as adults
C Adults should engage in at least 2 hours of electronic media for entertainment
D Children should engage in at least 2 hours of electronic media for entertainment
ANSWER:
B Children should engage in twice as much physical activity as adults
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54. Effective interventions target changes in the following four dimensions:
A Interpersonal, workplace, social & policy
B Intrapersonal, social, physical environment & policy
C SPPI (Social, Political, Personal and Industrial)
D None of the above
ANSWER:B Intrapersonal, social, physical environment & policy
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55. The following is an example of a cognitive strategy to bring about change:
A Comprehending personal benefits of being physically active
B Providing rewards for being physically active
C Enlisting social support
D None of the above
ANSWER:A : Comprehending personal benefits of being physically active
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56. Stage 2 of the “Stages of Change” model is also known as:
A Preparation
B Contemplation
C Prelapsation
D None of the above
ANSWER:B Contemplation
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57. Self-efficacy can best be described as:A Feeling confident you can participate in activities under certain circumstances
B Being able to speak in front of a group of people
C Knowing you have the potential to do something better than what you currently are
D Never giving up easily
ANSWER:A Feeling confident you can participate in activities under certain circumstances
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58. The most effective school based setting physical activity promoting strategies:
A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits
B: Promote increased physical activity during breaks, and especially lunchtime
C: Offer before and after school sporting programs
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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59. A benefit associated with having a physically active group of office workers include:
A: Reduced absenteeism
B: Increased productivity
C: Reduced staff turnover
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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60. At rest, most of our energy comes from:A: Fats
B: Carbohydrates
C: Proteins
D: A combination of all of the above
ANSWER:A: Fats
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61. The ATP-PC system is:A: Anaerobic
B: Quick to supply energy
C: Limited by the amount of available phosphocreatine
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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62. The energy system interplay is best described when:
A: ATP is released from the ATP-PC system, then the LA system and lastly the aerobic system
B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems
C: The three energy systems are used during play rather than rest
D: The three energy systems collectively supply ATP to working muscles in a sequential pattern
ANSWER:B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems
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63. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs :
A: The LA system becomes the major energy supplier
B: The PC system is able to replenish energy stores now that it is not being used and “rested”
C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
D: An active recovery should commence immediately
ANSWER:C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
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64. Steady state occurs when:
A: Oxygen consumption reaches a maximum level
B: The Cori cycle starts to break down built up lactic acid and convert it to glycogen to be reused
C: The heart and lungs have had sufficient time to supply working muscles with oxygen
D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand
ANSWER:D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand
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65. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 100m sprinter (athletics) is:
A: PC depletion
B: Lowered muscle Ph
C: Accumulation of iron(s) – Fe, Ph, Al, etc.
D: Lactic Acid accumulation
ANSWER:A: PC depletion
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66. Following a 10 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period?
A: 10 seconds (1: 1 work : rest ratio)
B: 180 seconds
C: 240 seconds
D: 300 seconds
ANSWER:B: 180 seconds
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67. Males exhibit greater muscular strength than females due to:
A: Greater participation in physical activity
B: Having more unipennate muscles
C: Having a higher percentage of fast-twitch fibres
D: Increased cross sectional area
ANSWER:D: Increased cross sectional area
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68. Anaerobic power is a measure of:
A: The PC system’s ability to produce energy
B: The LA system’s ability to produce power
C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways
D: None of the above
ANSWER:C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways
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69. The most important fitness component for a 1,500m swimmer performing a tumble turn is:
A: Reaction Time
B: Agility
C: Balance
D: Aerobic Power
ANSWER:B: Agility
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70. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to:
A: Work out the important fitness components
B: Consider the interplay of energy systems during the activity
C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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71. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are:
A: Reliable
B: Valid
C: Relevant
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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72. The most specific test to assess the agility of a tennis player would be the:
A: Illinois Agility Run
B: Semo Agility Test
C: Harvard Twist Touch Test
D: Margarita Agility Run
ANSWER:B: Semo Agility Test
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73. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they:
A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring regionB: Train more than femalesC: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of thisD: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the game
ANSWER:A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region
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74. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of”
A: Periodisation
B: Mesocycles
C: Microcycles
D: Tri-cycles
ANSWER:A: Periodisation
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75. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is:
A: 2 times / week
B: 3 times / week
C: 4-5 times / week
D: 7 times / week
ANSWER:C: 4-5 times / week
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76. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates:
A: The athlete needs to be thinking about “tapering”
B: A period of adaptation
C: A “steady State” has been achieved
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: A period of adaptation
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77. The best example of long interval training listed below is:
A: 20 x 2 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
B: 2 x 20 x 100 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:2
C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
D: 2 x 20 x 10,000m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:10
ANSWER:C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1
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78. “Fartlek” training :
A: Can be overloaded by completing the same distance in a slower time
B: Is also knows as “playing with speed”
C: Requires rest periods to restore PC
D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals
ANSWER:D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals
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79. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities:
A: Skipping, max push ups in 60 seconds, running on the spot for 30 seconds (max intensity)
B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding
C: 10 x 20 m sprints every 45 seconds followed by 15 x 15m sprints every 30 seconds
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding
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80. Plyometrics can be overloaded by:
A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity
B: Decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions
C: Increasing the rest and decreasing the intensity
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity
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81. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 4 represents:
A: Repetitions
B: Sets
C: Resistance
D: The day of the week training is undertaken
ANSWER:B: Sets
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82. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths:
A: Increased capillarisation
B: Increased plasma volume
C: Increased cardiac output
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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83. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in:
A: Transporting more oxygen around the vascular system
B: Preventing the myoglotic stretch reflex (less slow twitch muscle trains)
C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria
D: None of the above
ANSWER:C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria
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84. Aerobic training results in decreases to the systolic blood pressure (except at max effort) due to:
A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels
B: Increasing LDL’s and reducing plaque build up on the inside of blood vessels
C: Reciprocal increases in diastolic blood pressure
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels
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85. Aerobic training has the following effect on ventilatory muscle oxygen consumption at the diaphragm & intercostals:
A: Increases
B: Decreases
C: Remains relatively unchanged
D: None of the above
ANSWER:B: Decreases
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86. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres:
A: Increased “whiteness”
B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores
C: Increased contraction speed
D: Increased triglyceride stores
ANSWER:C: Increased contraction speed
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87. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres:
A: Increased aerobic force capacity
B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores
C: Increased contraction speed
D: Increased triglyceride stores
ANSWER:D: Increased triglyceride stores
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88. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to lactic acid tolerance:
A: Decreased reliance of glucose as a fuel
B: Increased oxidative enzyme stores
C: Decreased buffering ability
D: Increased acid-base regulation
ANSWER:D: Increased acid-base regulation
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89. Training with high intensity/loads and low repetitions will generally result in greater changes in:
A: Type IIB fibres
B: Type IIA fibres
C: Type I Fibres
D: Type IA Fibres
ANSWER:A: Type IIB fibres
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90. Massage assists recovery by:
A: Increasing blood flow to the massaged area(s)
B: Increasing the amount of oxygen transported to the massaged area(s)
C: Increasing the rate of waste removal from the massaged area(s)
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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91. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to:
A: Keep a training log
B: Try to remember everything undertaken during a week of training
C: “Listen” to what your body is saying to you by the way it feels
D: None of the above
ANSWER:A: Keep a training log
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92. Risk management includes:
A: Risk Identification
B: Risk Reduction
C: Risk Avoidance
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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93. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by:
A: Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team
B: Ensuring first aid kits are available at every training session
C: Enlisting the support of non paid qualified staff
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team
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94. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area:
A: Protective equipment and barriers
B: Equipment care
C: Hygiene
D: All of the above
ANSWER:D: All of the above
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95. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries
A: Ensuring players participate in accredited courses so they’ll have a job when they finish playing
B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries
C: Using new pre-season training methods that have worked with in the USA for NFL footballers but haven’t been trialled here
D: Players wearing helmets to avoid serious head injuries (similar to NFL footballers)
ANSWER:B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries
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96. The following strategy can assist enhancing performance by building or maintaining confidence:
A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional
B: “Walking the talk”
C: Faking an injury to upset an opponent’s concentration
D: All of the above
ANSWER:A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional
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97. The following drink allows quickest absorption and hydration:
A: Hypotonic
B: Hypertonic
C: Hypatonic
D: Hyputonic
ANSWER:A: Hypotonic
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98. Minerals are important in assisting performance PB’s by:
A: Assisting in water loss to help with thermoregulation
B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function
C: Adding to the amount of ATP that can be produced
D: Ensuring the Essential Electrolytic Balance (EEB) is maintained
ANSWER:B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function
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99. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA. Side-effects include:
A: Hyperactivity
B: Hypotension
C: Hypertension
D: All of the above
ANSWER:C: Hypertension