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UNIT 1: LAW OF CONTRACT
1) The __________ forms the oldest branch of the law relating to business.
a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 b) Sales of Goods Act, 1930
c) Companies Act, 1956 d) Law of Contract, 18722) Law is:
a) A general rule of external human action b) Body of principles
c) Both d) None
3) Law happens to be one of the most effective instruments of __________.
a) Co-operation b) Control
c) Service d) Regulation
4) __________ is the portion of law dealing with rights and obligations of
transactions between mercantile persons.
a) Commercial Law b) Mercantile Law
c) Business Law d) All5) An __________ enforceable by law is called a contract [u/s 2(h) of Indian
Contract Act, 1872].
a) Tie-up b) Pact
c) Agreement d) Treaty
6) __________ is every promise and every set of promises forming __________
for each other.
a) Consideration & Agreement b) Agreement & Consideration
c) Acceptance & Contract d) Contract & Consideration
7) A __________ is an accepted __________.a) Promise & Proposalb) Proposal & Promise
c) Promise & Acceptance d) Acceptance, Proposal
8) An agreement becomes enforceable only when it is couples with __________.
a) Acceptance b) Obligation
c) Proposal d) Promise
9) __________ is the legal __________ which binds the parties to a contract.
a) Obligation & Agreement b) Agreement & Contract
c) Obligation & Bond d) Promise & Bond
10) Obligations from agreements should be legal, and not, __________
obligations.a) Social b) Moral
c) Religious d) All
11) All contracts are agreements, but all agreements need not be contracts.
a) Trueb) False
12) Agreements that create __________ obligations are contracts.
a) Social b) Moral
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c) Legal d) Religious
13) Free consent is one that is free from all sorts of __________.
a) Agreements b) Promise
c) Pressure d) Consideration
14) Contractual capacity of a person means that he/she should be:
a) Major b) Of sound mind
c) Qualified under law of the land d) all
15) __________ is the price of a __________.
a) Consideration & Promiseb) Promise & Consideration
c) Agreement & Contract d) Contract & Agreement
16) Agreements in India may be __________ or __________.
a) Oral, Writtenb) Implicit, Explicit
c) Verbal, Gestural d) Oral, Verbal
17) An agreement not enforceable by law [u/s. 2(g)] is _________.
a) Valid contract b) Void contractc) Voidable contract d) Illegal contract
18) An agreement enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties
thereto but not at the option of the other
or others is __________.
a) Valid contract b) Void contract
c) Voidable contract d) Illegal contract
19) All illegal agreements are void but, all void agreements are not illegal.
a) Trueb) False
20) A contract becoming unenforceable due to some technical reason is
__________.
a) Valid contract b) Unenforceable contract
c) Voidable contract d) Illegal contract
21) Promisor is a person making the __________ and promise is the one, accepting
the __________.
a) Offer b) Proposal
c) Both d) None
22) An offer may be __________ or __________.
a) Verbal, Written b) General, Specificc) Explicit, Implicit d) Simple, Complex
23) The test of contractual intention is __________ and not __________.
a) Objective & Subjectiveb) Subjective & Objective
c) Supplementary & Complementary d) Complimentary & Supplimentary
24) An offer must be __________ and __________.
a) Ambiguous & Uncertain b) Definite & Certain
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c) Indefinite & Certain d) Indefinite & Uncertain
25) Are all terms of an offer be expressed?
a) Yes b) No
26) __________ is not an offer.
a) Statement of intention b) Invitation to offer
c) Both d) None
27) __________ is necessary to complete the operation of an offer.
a) Agreement b) Communication
c) Consideration d) Contract
28) __________ is a two-sided bargain based on the freedom of contract.
a) Proposal b) Agreement
c) Offer d) Consideration
29) Two __________ offers do not make a contract.
a) Different b) Identical
c) Conflicting d) Opposite30) A proposal, when accepted, becomes a __________.
a) Offer b) Acceptance
c) Promise d) None
31) __________ turns the offer into a __________ obligation.
a) Acceptance & Social b) Acceptance & Binding
c) Proposal & Legal d) Proposal & Legal
32) Should be from the person to whom it is made | Unconditional & absolute | To
be communicated | Should be
according to the prescribed form | Must be provoked by offer | Must be given
before the offer lapses or is revoked|
Should not be provisional |
Which of the above is true for acceptance?
a) First three b) First five
c) All d) None
33) A qualified or conditional acceptance is a __________.
a) Valid acceptance b) Invalid acceptance
c) Counter-offer d) Deviated acceptance
34) Acceptance is not a mental resolve, but some __________ manifestation.
a) Internal b) Externalc) Implied d) Explicit
35) If the offeree does not signify his assent to the offeror according to the mode
prescribed, it becomes __________.
a) Valid acceptance b) Invalid acceptance
c) Counter acceptance d) Deviated acceptance
36) __________ is not a binding agreement unless final approval is given.
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a) Provisional acceptanceb) Deviated acceptance
c) Counter acceptance d) Conditional acceptance
37) Under Indian Law, the communication of acceptance is complete as against the
acceptor only when it comes to the
Knowledge of the __________.
a) Acceptor b) Proposer
c) Promisee d) Offeree
38) An offer can be terminated by:
a) Lapse b) Rejection & destruction of the subject matter
c) Revocation d) All
39) A __________ has the same effect as rejection.
a) Counter offerb) Deviated acceptance
c) Conditional offer d) Provisional acceptance
40) The withdrawal of an offer by the offeror is called __________.
a) Revocationb) Rejectionc) Cancellation d) Lapse
41) A proposal may be revoked by the proposer before the __________ of its
acceptance is complete.
a) Offer b) Communication
c) Registration d) Promise
42) The majority age of a minor, whose guardian is appointed by a court is
__________.
a) 21 yearsb) 18 years
c) 15 years d) 23 years
43) As per the principles governing a minors contract:
a) Judges are counselors b) Jury are servants
c) Law is guardian d) All
44) A minors agreement is __________.
a) Invalid b) Valid
c) Void-ab-initio d) Unenforceable
45) A minor, in law, is incapable of giving __________.
a) Consentb) Approval
c) Acceptance d) Promise
46) A minor can be __________ under law.a) Payee b) Endorsee
c) Promisee d) All
47) __________ relates back to the date of making the contract.
a) Acceptance b) Promise
c) Ratification d) Consideration
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48) A contract which was __________ originally cannot be made valid by
subsequent __________.
a) Void, Amendment b) Void, Ratification
c) Invalid, Ratification d) Void-ab-initio, Ratification
49) In a free consent, there should be
a) Consensus ad idem b) Identity of minds
c) Both d) None
50) __________ is the committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by
the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
a) Fraud b) Coercion
c) Undue influence d) Mistake
51) Threat to file a false suit is __________ under Indian Penal Code.
a) Fraud b) Coercion
c) Undue influence d) Mistake
52) Elements of undue influence include:a) Dominating the will of a person b) Obtaining unfair advantage over another
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
53) Unlike __________, __________ must come from a party to the contract and
not a stranger to it.
a) Undue influence, Coercion b) Coercion, Undue influence
c) Fraud, Coercion d) Fraud, Mistake
54) Undue influence involves __________.
a) Physical force b) Moral force
c) Emotional force d) Social force
55) Coercion involves __________.
a) Physical forceb) Moral force
c) Emotional force d) Social force
56) In a suit, the party __________ the contract must prove the existence of undue
influence.
a) Making b) Accepting
c) Avoiding d) Offering
57) A contract made by a dominant party with a weaker party is called
__________.
a) Provisional contract b) Unconscionable contractc) Enforceable contract d) Invalid contract
58) Does undue influence involve any criminal liability?
a) Yes b) No
59) A fraud is a statement:
a) Made knowingly b) Without belief in its truth
c) Being recklessly careless d) All
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60) In a fraud, the representation made must be a __________.
a) Factb) Opinion
c) Intention d) All
61) __________ of material facts amounts to fraud.
a) Revealing b) Active concealment
c) Exposing d) None
62) A __________ is merely irrelevant if it has not induced the party to whom it
was made to act upon.
a) Coercion b) Fraud
c) False misrepresentation d) Undue influence
63) Silence is not fraud except under __________ circumstances.
a) Three b) Two
c) Four d) Five
64) Silence amounts to fraud when:
a) It is the duty to speak b) Silence is equivalent to speechc) Both (a) and (c) d) None
65) Statement of fact made by one party to another at the time of entering into
contract with an intention to induce the
other party to enter into the contract is called __________.
a) Proposal b) Representation
c) Offer d) Promise
66) A misrepresentation may be __________ or __________.
a) External, Internal b) Direct, Indirect
c)Innocent, Intentional
d) Explicit, Implicit
67) __________ misrepresentation is called __________.
a) External & Fraud b) Innocent & Mistake
c) Direct & Mistake d) Intentional & Fraud
68) Section 18 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with __________
misrepresentation.
a) External b) Innocent
c) Intentional d) Internal
69) Misrepresentation includes:
a) Positive assertion of a fact b) Breach of duty
c) Mistake about subject matter d) All70) A false statement need not be made direct to the plaintiff. True or False?
a) Trueb) False
71) If a misrepresentation has not been embodied in the contract, it creates no
contractual obligation unless it is ______.
a) False b) Fraudulent
c) True d) Binding
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72) When a party to the contract has a duty to disclose all material facts regarding
the subject matter of the contract, but
does not do so, he is said to be guilty of __________.
a) Fraud b) Mistake
c) Misrepresentation d) Undue influence
73) Usually, mistake refers to:
a) Misunderstanding b) Wrong thinking
c) Wrong belief d) All
74) Courts only recognize mistakes that __________ the contract.
a) Misrepresent b) Invalidate
c) Validate d) Stops
75) Mistake may be:
a) Mistake of fact b) Mistake of law
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
76) Bilateral mistake is one where there is no real correspondence of __________and __________.
a) Offer & Proposal b) Offer & Acceptance
c) Promise & Acceptance d) Promisor & Promisee
77) A mutual mistake as to the identity of the subject matter renders the contract
__________.
a) Voidb) Voidable
c) Null and void d) Unenforceable
78) A mistake as to the quality of the subject matter will not render the agreement
__________ owing to the principle of
__________, unless there is a misrepresentation or guarantee by the seller.
a) Void & Consensus ad idem b) Voidable & Equitable justice
c) Void & Caveat Emptor d) Void & Estoppel
79) Where the mistake is __________ and the parties enter into the contract with
false assumption and mistake
regarding the value of the subject matter, there cannot be an enforceable contract
between them.
a) Mutualb) Unilateral
b) Bilateral d) Intentional
80) Section 22 of the Indian Contract Act provides that a contract is not__________ because it was caused by
__________ mistake.
a) Void, Bilateral b) Voidable, Unilateral
c) Voidable, Bilateral d) Void, Unilateral
81) Mistake as to the law of the land does not render the contract __________.
a) Void b) Voidable
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a) Third party b) Stranger
c) Outsider d) Nonentity
94) When rights under a contract are assigned, the ________ can sue upon the
contract for the enforcement of his rights.
a) Assignor b) Proposor
c) Assignee d) Offeror
95) A contract entered into by the agent acting within the scope of his authority can
be enforced by __________.
a) Agent b) Suppliers
c) Principal d) Government
96) An illegal agreement is necessarily unlawful whereas, an unlawful agreement
need not be illegal. True or False?
a) Trueb) False
97) The word Law u/s 23 of the Indian Contract Act means enactment of the
__________.a) Legislature b) Subordinate legislation
c) Hindu & Mohammadan law d) All
98) A legal object aiming at circumventing the provisions of any law becomes
_________ u/s 23 of Indian Contract Act.
a) Voidb) Voidable
c) Unlawful d) Unenforceable
99) An agreement entered with a __________ purpose or to perpetuate fraud on
others is void.
a) Unlawful b) Immoral
c) Fraudulent d) Illegal
100) Agreements interfering marital relations are considered __________.
a) Illegal b) Immoral
c) Oppose to public policy d) None
101) __________ is an elastic term and its connotations may vary with the social
structure of the state.
a) Public policyb) Immoral
c) Illegal d) Unlawful
102) The term enemy u/s 23 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 includes residents
(permanent or temporary) in __________.a) Enemys country b) Enemy occupied territory
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
103) __________ refers to an agreement for sharing the benefit to be derived from
the lawsuit.
a) Maintenance b) Champerty
c) Concubine d) Stifle prosecution
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104) _________ refers to an agreement seeking to provide assistance financial or
otherwise to bring or defend a lawsuit.
a) Maintenanceb) Champerty
c) Concubine d) Stifle prosecution
105) An agreement which unduly restrains the __________ of an individual is
void.
a) Integrity b) Liberty
c) Honesty d) Independence
106) Agreements in restraint of trade, marriage, tending to create an interest
against duty, interfering with parental duties,
restraining personal liberty are examples of __________.
a) Oppose to public policyb) Illegal
c) Immoral d) None
107) When the rights and obligations arising out of contract are extinguished, the
contract is said to be __________.a) Discharged b) Termimated
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Cancelled
108) Contract may be discharged in __________ ways.
a) Five b) Six
c) Seven d) Ten
109) When a contract is duly performed by both the parties, it is discharged
by__________.
a) Performanceb) Mutual consent
c) Lapse of time d) Operation of law
110) Discharge of a contract by performance may be by __________.
a) Actual performance b) Attempted performance
c) Tender d) All
111) A performance becomes attempted performance because of the non-
acceptance of the performance by _________.
a) Promiseeb) Promisor
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
112) Is a conditional tender a valid tender?
a) Yes b) No
113) Is a tender made to a stranger valid?a) Yes b) No
114) Tender by __________ is invalid as it is not a __________ tender.
a) Cash, Legal b) Cash, Valid
c) Cheque, Legal d) Cheque, Valid
115) When a new contract is substituted for an existing contract between the same
or different parties, the consideration
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Mutually being the discharge of the old contract __________ occurs.
a) Alteration b) Novation
c) Rescission d) Remission
116) __________ means change in one or more of the material terms of a contract.
a) Alterationb) Novation
c) Rescission d) Remission
117) A contract discharged by an agreement between the parties, before the date of
performance, so as to make the
contract non-binding is called __________ of the contract.
a) Recission b) Cancellation
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Termination
118) Non-performance of a contract by both the parties for a long period without
complaint amounts to __________.
a) Remission b) Implied recission
c) Recission d) Waiver119) Acceptance of a lesser sum than what was contracted for or a lesser
fulfillment of the promise made is __________.
a) Alteration b) Novation
c) Rescission d) Remission
120) __________ is the deliberate abandonment or giving up of a right which a
party is entitled to under a contract.
a) Remission b) Novation
c) Recission d) Waiver
121) According to section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement to do
an act __________ is itself void.
a) Illegal b) Immoral
c) Impossible d) Oppose to public policy
122) In __________, the dissolution of the contract occurs automatically, not
depending on the choice of the parties.
a) Doctrine of supervening impossibility/illegalityb) Doctrine of frustration
c) Both (a) and (b) d) All
123) Destruction of the subject matter, failure of the ultimate purpose, death or
personal incapacity of promisor, change
of law are instances where the contract is discharged on the ground of__________.
a) Operation of law b) Doctrine of supervening impossibility
c) Mutual consent d) Lapse of time
124) __________ of a contract cannot be discharged on the ground of supervening
impossibility.
a) Commercial impossibility b) Difficulty of performance
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c) Failure of one of the objects d) All
125) Doctrine of supervening impossibility applies when the impossible act is
__________.
a) Beyond the control of promisor b) Not due to the negligence of the promisor
c) Not self-induced by the promisor d) All
126) The specified period within which legal action should be taken by the
aggrieved party for breach of contract is
__________.
a) Period of limitationb) Period of payment
c) Period of action d) Period of suit
127) Death of the promisor, insolvency of one of the parties, merger of an inferior
right contract with a superior right
contract, unauthorized material alteration renders a contract discharge by
__________.
a) Mutual consent b) Lapse of timec) Operation of law d) Breach of contract
128) Where the contract is of a personal nature, death of the __________
discharges the contract.
a) Promisee b) Promisor
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
129) Breach of contract may be:
a) Anticipatory breach b) Actual breach
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Attempted breach
130) Anticipatory breach of contract occurs __________ the time for fixed
performance.
a) After b) Before
c) On d) All
131) Actual breach of contract occurs __________ the time for fixed performance.
a) After b) Before
c) On d) All
132) The fundamental principle underlying damages is not __________ but
__________.
a) Compensation, Punishment b) Punishment, Compensation
c) Punishment, Demurrage d) Compensation, Penalty133) Damages in a contract are of __________ types.
a) Three b) Five
c) Four d) Six
134) Damage arising naturally from the breach is called __________.
a) Ordinary damage b) General damage
c) Compensatory damage d) All
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135) Ordinary damages are restricted to the __________ consequences of the
breach of contract.
a) Direct b) Proximate
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Remote
136) __________ loses which are not naturally and probable consequence of the
breach of contract are not regarded as
ordinary damages.
a) Remote b) Indirect
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Proximate