KVPY MOCK TEST III · 2019-10-17 · KVPY MOCK TEST-3(MPC)_C-XII_4 FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh...

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KVPY MOCK TEST-3(MPC)_C-XII_1 FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 26, Ph: 011-45634000. FIITJEE KVPY MOCK TEST III Class XII QP Code: 124666 Time: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 120 Please read the instructions carefully. INSTRUCTIONS 1: General: (a) The question paper consists of 90 questions. (b) There are Three parts in the question paper. Part A is (Mathematics), Part B is (Physics) & Part C is (Chemistry). The distribution of marks subject wise in each part is as under: 2: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme: Part A (Mathematics) Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & 0.25 for incorrect response. Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & 0.50 for incorrect response. Part B (Physics) Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & 0.25 for incorrect response. Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & 0.50 for incorrect response. Part C (Chemistry) Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & 0.25 for incorrect response. Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & 0.50 for incorrect response. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work Enrollment No. : Batch : Name : Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

Transcript of KVPY MOCK TEST III · 2019-10-17 · KVPY MOCK TEST-3(MPC)_C-XII_4 FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh...

Page 1: KVPY MOCK TEST III · 2019-10-17 · KVPY MOCK TEST-3(MPC)_C-XII_4 FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 26, Ph:

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FIITJEE K V P Y M O C K T E S T – I I I

Class – XI I QP Code: 124666

Time: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 120 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

1: General:

(a) The question paper consists of 90 questions.

(b) There are Three parts in the question paper. Part – A is (Mathematics), Part – B is (Physics) & Part – C is (Chemistry). The distribution of marks subject wise in each part is as under:

2: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme: Part – A (Mathematics)

Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & −0.25 for incorrect response.

Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & −0.50 for incorrect response.

Part – B (Physics)

Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & −0.25 for incorrect response.

Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & −0.50 for incorrect response.

Part – C (Chemistry)

Question No. 1 to 20 consists of One(1) mark for each correct answer & −0.25 for incorrect response.

Question No. 21 to 30 consists of Two(2) mark for each correct answer & −0.50 for incorrect response.

• Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

• No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

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PART – A MATHEMATICS

1. Three mothers have each brought a child for admission to a school. The Principal of the school

wishes to interview six persons one by one, taking care that no child is inverviewed before his/her mother. In how many different ways can the interviews be taken?

(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) 90

2. If ( )n

1 1 1s

2n n 1 2 n 2= − +

+ + then

14

n

n 1

135S ,

k=

= then the numerical k must be _____

(A) 545 (B) 544 (C) 546 (D) 548

3. The sum of the series ( )

2 3 151.2 2.2 3.2 15.2........

3! 4! 5! 17 !+ + + + equals

(A) ( )

1716.22

17 !− (B)

( )

1722

17 !− (C)

( )

1716.21

17 !− (D)

( )

1621

17 !−

4. Let a and b be real numbers such that the equations 2x 3y 4+ = and ax by 7− = have exactly one

solution, then which of the following system of equations also has exactly one solution?

(A) 12x 8y 9, bx ay 0− = + = (B) 12x 8y 9, ax by 0− = + =

(C) 12x 8y 0, ax by 9− = + = (D) None of these

5. There are exactly k triplets (x, y, z) of positive integers x, y, z such that

3 2 2

2 3 2

2 2 3

x 1 x y x z

xy y 1 y z 30

xz yz z 1

+

+ =

+

then k must be ________

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 6. In a triangle ABC let O, G and H be circumcentre, centroid and orthocentre of the triangle ABC then

OA OB OC+ + must be

(A) OG (B) 3OG (C) OH (D) 2OH

7. If b c, 2b , b a− − = are in H.P., then a , b , c2 2 2

− − − are in

(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) none of these 8. A pack of playing cards was found to contain only 51 cards. If the first 13 cards which are examined

are all red, then the probability that the missing card is black is

(A) 2

3 (B)

15

26 (C)

16

39 (D)

37

52

Space for rough work

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9. In a 3 3 matrix the entires ija are randomly selected from the digits 0,1,2,.....9 with replacement.

The probability that the 3 – digit numbers in each row will be divisible by 11 is

(A)

3

6

7

10 (B)

3

6

13

10 (C)

3 3

6

7 .13

5 (D)

3 3

9

7 .13

10

10. The number of positive integer pairs (x, y) such that 1 1 1

,x yx y 2007+ = , is

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

11. The number of positive integers that are divisors of at least one of 10 710 ,15 and

1118 is

(A) 22 30 18 (B) 12 23 11 (C) 23 13 12 (D) 23 39 17

12. ( )

2n

nk 1

k k 1lim

k 1 !→=

+ −

+ is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 13. From a pack of 52 playing cards; half of the cards are randomly removed without looking at them.

From the remaining cards, 3 cards are drawn randomly. The probability that all are king

(A) ( ) ( ) ( )

1

25 17 13 (B)

( ) ( ) ( )1

25 15 13 (C)

( ) ( ) ( )1

52 17 13 (D)

( ) ( ) ( )1

13 51 17

14. If a, b, c, x, y, z are real and 2 2 2 2 2 2a b c 25, x y z 36+ + = + + = and ax by cz 30,+ + = then

a b c

x y z

+ +

+ + is equal to:

(A) 1 (B) 6

5 (C)

5

6 (D)

3

5

15. If ( )

n

n n 1 nn

n.3 1lim ,

3n x 2 n.3 3+→=

− + − then the range of x is (where n N ):

(A) ( ),− (B) ( )1, 5− (C) ( )1, 5 (D) )2, 5

16. The value of ( )n n1

0k 1r 1

1x r dx

x k==

+

+ is

(A) n (B) n! (C) (n + 1) ! (D) n.n !

Space for rough work

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17. Line segments drawn from the vertex opposite to the hypotenuse of a right angle triangle to the points

trisecting the hypotenuse, have lengths sinx and cosx , where 0 x2

. The length of hypotenuse

is

(A)4

3 (B)

3

2

(C)3 5

5 (D) can’t be determined uniquely

18.

1 1a a

1/ a a

n

a 1nk 1

k n k

limn

− −

+→=

+

is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these

19. Let 5 1

f : 0, , 32 2

such that ( )

x 1f x

x 1

+=

+ where . represents the greatest integer function

and . represents the fractional part of x, then which of the following is / are true.

(A) f(x) is injective continuous function. (B) f(x) is surjective differentiable function.

(C) ( ) ( )( ) ( )x 1 x 1

min lim f x , lim f x f 1− +→ →

= (D) max ( ) ( )( ) ( )x 2 x 2lim f x , lim f x f 2

− +→ →=

20. Let f(x) = 30 – 2x – x3, then find the number of positive integral values of ‘x’ which satisfies f(f(f(x))) >

f(f(-x)). (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 21 Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4,……..,n} and fn be the number of those subsets of S which do not contain

consecutive elements of S, then

(A) 6f 22= (B) 7f 44= (C) 4f 9= (D)

8f 66=

22. a, b,c are 3 unit vectors such that each is inclined at angle with the other. A unit vector d is

equally inclined with these vectors at an angle then 4cos 3cos2 1 − =

(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 3 (D) 1

2−

23. The ordinate MP of a hyperbola 2 2x y

130 21

− = is produced to the point Q so that MQ = SP

Locus of Q is a line L1. Similarly we have another locus L2 of a point Q’ where Q’ is obtained on

producing MP so that MQ’ = S’P. If d is the distance between L1 and L2. Find the value 3

5d.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Space for rough work

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24. The locus of the centre of variable circle touching two circles of radius r1 and r2 externally which also

touch each other externally, is conic. The eccentricity of the conic, if 1

2

r

r= 3 + 2 2 is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1

2 (D) 2 2

25. If z i 1− = and ( )arg z = where 0,2

, then

2cot

z − equals

(A) 2i (B) – i (C) i (D) 1 i+

26. Let ( ) ( )n

2 2

k

k 0

f n n 2k C=

= − f find f (6).

(A) 3021 (B) 3022 (C) 3023 (D) 3024

27. If P is any point on the ellipse with foci, S1 and S2 and eccentricity 1

2 such

that 1 2 2 1 1 2PS S , PS S and S PS = = = , then cot ,cot ,cot2 2 2

are in

(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) none of these

28. If , be the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 (a, b, c R), c

a<1 and 2b 4ac 0− , f(n) = ( )

nr r

r 1=

+ , then

nLt→

f(n) is equal to

(A) 1

a1

c−

(B) 1

a1

c−

(C) c

a c− + (D)

2

a1

c−

29. If all the real solutions of the equation ( ) ( )x x4 a 3 2 a 4 0− − + − = are non positive, then

(A) 4 < a 5 (B) 0 < a< 4 (C) a> 4 (D) a< 3

30. If tangents at two points (1,2) and (3,6) on a parabola intersect at point (-1,1) then the slope of directrix of parabola is

(A) 2 (B) -2

(C) -1 (D) 1

Space for rough work

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PART – B PHYSICS

1. The positive charge Q is placed at the centre in the cavity of the spherical conductor.

(A) the induced charge at the surface 1 is −Q and on the surface 2 is +2Q (B) the surface charge density at inner surface is uniform (C) the surface charge density at the outer surface is non-uniform (D) the charge Q will experience electric force.

+

2

1

Q

2. Two identical circular coils M and N are arranged coaxially as shown in

the figure. Separation between the coils is large as compared to their radii. The arrangement is viewed from left along the common axis. The sign convention adopted is that currents are taken to be positive when they appear to flow in clockwise direction. Then which of this is incorrect.

N M

(A) if M carries a constant positive current and is moved towards N, a positive current is induced in N (B) if M carries a constant positive current and N is moved towards M, a negative current is

induced in N (C) if a positive current in M is switched off, a positive current is momentarily induced in N (D) if both coils carry positive currents, they will attract each other

3. A battery of emf 0 24V = is connected across a 4m long uniform wire

having resistance 4/m. The cells of small emfs 1 2V = and 2 4V =

having internal resistance 2 and 6 respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If galvanometer shows no deflection at the point N, the distance of point N from the point A is equal to :

(A) 1

m6

(B) 12.5 cm

(C) 25 cm (D) 50 cm

1

2

r1

r2

G

N

B A

0 R=8

4. The image of an object, formed by a plano-convex lens at a distance of 8 m behind the lens, is real

and is one-third the size of the object. The wavelength of light inside the lens is 2

3 times the

wavelength in free space. The radius of the curved surface of the lens is (A) 1 m (B) 2 m (C) 3 m (D) 6 m 5. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane as

shown in figure. It is struck by a jet releasing water at the rate of 1 kg/s and at speed of 5 m/s. The magnitude of initial acceleration of the block is

(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 7.5 m/s2 (D) 10 m/s2

2kg

block

a

Space for rough work

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6. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5 V. The incident radiation lies in

(A) X-ray region (B) ultra-violet region (C) infra-red region (D) visible region

7. Three identical sources S1, S2 and S3 are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. If they have intensity I0 each at centroid c of triangle. The resulting intensity of sound at c will be

(A) 3I0 (B) 6I0 (C) zero (D) 9I0

S1

S2 S3

C

8. A ball of mass m and density is immersed in a liquid of density 3 at a depth h and released. To what height will the ball jump up above the surface of liquid? (neglect the resistance of water and air, radius of ball << h).

(A) h (B) h/2 (C) 2h (D) 3h

9. Find the current flowing through the resistance R1 of the circuit

shown in figure if the resistances are equal to R1 = 10. R2 = 20

and R3 = 30 and the potentials of the points 1, 2, and 3 are equal

to 1 = 10V, 2 = 6V and 3 = 5V (A) 0.1 Amp (B) 0.4 Amp (C) 0.3 Amp (D) 0.2 Amp

R1

R2

R3

2

1 O

3

10. A conducting liquid bubble of radius a and thickness ( )t t a is charged to potential V.

If the bubble collapses to a droplet, find the potential on the droplet.

(A) V

1/3a

3t

(B) 1/3Va (C) V

2

2/3

a

t

(D)

1/3

3

Va

3g

11. Two inductors 1 2L and L are connected in parallel and a time

varying current flows as shown. The ratio of currents 1 2i / i at any

time t is:

(A) 1 2L / L (B) 2 1L / L

(C) 2 2

1 1 2L / (L L )+ (D) 2 2

2 1 2L / (L L )+

1L

2L

1i

2i

i i

12. A rigid circular loop of radius r and mass m lies in the x-y plane of a flat table and has a current I

flowing in it. At this particular place the earth’s magnetic field is x 2B B i B k= + . The value of i so that

the loop start tilting is

(A) 2 2

x z

mg

r B B + (B)

x

mg

rB (C)

z

mg

rB (D)

x z

mg

r B B

Space for rough work

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13. In an L-C-R series AC circuit the voltage across L, C and R is 10 V each. If the inductor is short circuited, the voltage across the capacitor would become

(A) 10 V (B) 20

V2

(C) 20 2V (D) 10

V2

14. If a man at the equator would weight (3/5)th of his weight, then the angular speed of the earth would be

(A) 2 g

5 R (B)

g

R (C)

R

g (D)

2 R

5 g

15. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 division on its circular scale. When nothing is

put in between its jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 4 divisions below the reference line. When a steel wire is placed between the jaws, two main scale divisions are clearly visible and 67 divisions on the circular scale are observed. The diameter of the wire is

(A) 2.71 mm (B) 2.67 mm (C) 2.63 mm (D) 2.65 mm

16. A particle moves on the x axis according to equation2

0x x sin t= . The motion is

(A) periodic but not simple harmonic

(B) simple harmonic with a periodic 2/ and amplitude x0

(C) simple harmonic with a periodic / and amplitude 2x0

(D) simple harmonic with a periodic / and amplitude x0 / 2 17. A heater of power 2000 kW is switched on inside a body, so that its surface temperature is maintained

at 270C. The surrounding temperature is zero kelvin. If the voltage is dropped by 19%, the new equilibrium temperature of body is (consider heat loss due to radiation only) (A) 3000C (B) –30C (C) 2700C (D) –60C

18. Shape of a plane progressive wave at t=0, is shown

in the adjoining phase diagram. The wave equation of this wave is

(A) ( )y 0.05sin8 x 300t= −

(B) ( )y 0.05sin2 300t x= +

(C) ( )y 0.05sin8 300t x= +

(D) ( )y 0.05sin8 300t x= −

v=300 m/s

x(in meter)

y(in meter)

+0.05

-0.05

0 0.5

19. In a sonometer wire, When the tension is maintained by suspending a 20 kg mass from the free end of the wire, the fundamental frequency of vibration is 300 Hz. If the tension is provided by two masses of 5 kg and 15 kg suspended form a pulley (massless and friction less) as shown in the figure, the fundamental frequency will

(A) 300 Hz (B) 490 Hz (C) 184 Hz (D) 260Hz

5kg

15kg

Space for rough work

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20. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F A cosB x CsinDt= + .

The dimensions of D

B are

(A) 0 0 0M L T (B)

0 0 1M L T− (C)

0 1 0M L T− (D)

0 1 1M LT−

21. A certain amount of ice is supplied heat at a constant rate for 7 minutes. For the first one minute the

temperature rise is uniformly with time. Then it remains constant for the next 4 minutes and again the temperature rises at uniform rate for the last two minutes (Given Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g-0C, latent heat of fusion = 80 cal/gm and specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm – 0C)

(A) The initial temperature of ice is -300C (B) The final temperature at the end of 7 min is 40 0C (C) The final temperature at the end of 7 min is 30 0C (D) Between t = 1 min to t = 5 min it does not changes its phase 22. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross sectional area A and

Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the forces in the figure. The elongation of the rod is

(A)3FL

5AY (B)

2FL

5AY

(C)5FL

8AY (D)

8FL

3AY

2F 3F F

L/3

23. A small ball of mass m hits the cylinder which is hinged at top and

free to rotate in vertical plane as shown in figure. Mass of cylinder is M. Liner momentum of system (ball + cylinder)

(A) Remains conserved if y = R

(B) Remains conserved if 3

y R2

=

(C) Remains conserved if 7

y R5

=

(D) Cannot be conserved for any value of y.

R y

m

24. Electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as

E = 1 2 3 0C (C C cos t)cos t+ , here

1 2 3C , C and C are constants, is incident on lithium and

librates photoelectrons. If the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons be 0.592 × 10–19 J. Given that

0 = 3.6 × 1015 rad/sec and = 6 × 1014 rad/sec. The work function of lithium is (take planks constant

h = 6.6 × 10–34 MKS). (A) 1.2 eV (B) 1.5 eV (C) 2.1 eV (D) 2.39 eV

Space for rough work

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25. Four concentric conducting shells A, B, C and D are arranged as shown in figure. A charge + q is given to the outer most shell D. Shell B and C are connected by conducting wire while Shell A and C is earthed. The equivalent capacitance of system is

(A) 640a (B) 160a

(C) 40a (D) none of these

4a 3a 2a

a

A B

C D

+q

26. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit at a height h equal to radius of the earth

from the earth’s surface. Suddenly due to internal explosion the satellite breaks into two parts of equal masses. One part of the satellite stops just after the explosion and then falls to the surface of the earth. The increase in mechanical energy of the system (satellite + earth) due to explosion will be (acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface is g)

(A) mgR (B) mgR/2 (C) mgR/4 (D) 3mgR/4

27. The resistivity of pure silicon is 2300 -m and the mobilities of electrons and holes in it are 0.135 and 0.048 m2/V-s respectively. The resistivity of a specimen of silicon doped with 1019 atoms of phosphorus per meter will be.

(A) 4.6 m (B) 4 m (C) 4.4 m (D) 0 m

28. The circuit shown in figure contains diodes each with a forward resistance of

50 and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 Volt, the

current through 100 resistance is

(A) 0.15 A (B) 0.02 A

(C) 0.05 A (D) 0.01 A

150

50

100

A

B

6 V

29. A parallel beam of light travelling in water of = 4/3 is refracted by spherical air bubble of radius R = 2 mm. situated in water. Find position of image due to refraction at first surface and position of final image.

(A) 6 mm and 1 mm before the bubble (B) 1 mm and 6 mm before the bubble (C) 10 mm and 6 mm before the bubble. (D) none of these

30. Light of wavelength 6 10-5cm falls on a screen at a distance of 100 cm from a narrow slit. Find the width of the slit if the first minima lies 1mm on either side of the central maximum.

(A) 0.06 cm (B) 0.03 cm (C) 0.12 cm (D) 0.04 cm

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PART – C CHEMISTRY

1. The half-life of a chemical reaction is expressed as: t½ 2

O

3 KC

2

−−= where

OC is the initial

concentration of the reactant. What is the order of the reaction? (A) Zero (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

2. C

Cl

H FH

The largest bond angle observed in the above molecule is

(A) HCCl (B) HCF (C) HCH (D) FCCl 3. Which of the following compounds cannot be converted to anhydrous form on heating? (A) Na2SO4.10H2O (B) MgCl2.6H2O (C) CaSO4.2H2O (D) Na2CO3.10H2O

4. ( )HCl 1eq Pr oduct+ ⎯⎯→

The major product of above reaction is

(A)

Cl

(B)

Cl

(C)

Cl

(D) Cl

5. ( )4

2 4

KMnO

2 2 2 2 H SO , HeatHOCH CH CHCH CH CH Pr oduct s= ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

OH

Which is not a product of above reaction?

(A)

3 3CH C CH− −

O

(B) HCHO

(C) CO2 (D) H2O

Space for rough work

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6. Which of the following can be easily cleaved with dil.HCl?

(A) 3 3CH C CHCH−

O

CH3

(B) 2 3Ph C CHCH CH−

O

CH3

(C)

3 2 3CH CH CHCH CH−

O

(D)

2 2 3PhCH CH CHCH CH

O

7. The molecular mass of a polyhydric alcohol increases by 336 amu if it reacts with CH3COCl in

presence of pyridine to form the corresponding ester. How many OH groups are present in the alcohol?

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 12

8.

( ) ( ) ( )3 22 H POSn/HCl NaNO

HClA B C⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

NO2

The end product (C) in the above reaction sequence is

(A)

(B)

Cl

(C)

CH3

(D)

OH

9. How many mole of phenyl hydrazine can completely react with one mole of glucose to form

glucosazone? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 10. Which of the following reagent is used to separate CH3CHO from its mixture containing CH3CH2OH? (A) Fehling’s solution (B) Tollen’s reagent (C) NaHSO3 followed by Na2CO3 (D) I2/NaOH followed by H+

11. Which of the following readily forms a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution? (A) ClCH2COOH (B) CH3COCl

(C) CH3Cl (D) Cl

Space for rough work

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12. Which of the following complex displays optical isomerism?

(A)

Cl

en en

Cl

Co

+

(B)

Cl

Fe

en

Cl

en

+

(C) Cr

NH3H3N

NH3H3N

CN

CN

+

(D) Cr

CNH3N

NH3H3N

CN

NH3

+

13.

CH2OH ( 2 )

OH ( 1 )

CH2CH2OH ( 3 )

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the three OH groups? (A) 1 can be substituted by a nucleophile (B) 2 can be substituted by a nucleophile (C) 3 can be substituted by an electrophile (D) 2 can be substituted by an electrophile

14. H2CH3CON

HCl

Step I⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

NaOH

Step II⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

3 4CH COOH NH++

3 3CH COONa NH− +

+

Which of the following step(s) in the above reaction is/are irreversible? (A) Only step – I (B) Only step – II (C) Both the steps (D) None of the steps

15. 2 2 2

2 7 4 2 7

X YCr O CrO Cr O− − −

⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→

In the above change the unknown compounds are:

(A) X = FeSO4 and Y = NaCN (B) X = KCN and Y = NH4Cl

(C) X = NaCl and Y = AlCl3 (D) X = KNO3 and Y = HCN

Space for rough work

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16. Zn(s)| Zn2+(1M)|| Cu2+(1M)|Cu(s)

2 2

0 0

Zn /Zn Cu /CuE 0.76V and E 0.34V+ += − =

Which of the following relation(s) is/are correct for the above electrochemical cell?

(A) cellE > 0 (B)

0

cellE > 0 (C) cellE =

0

cellE (D) All are correct

17. Pure nitrogen gas is obtained by heating (A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) NH4NO2 (C) Ba(N3)2 (D) NH4NO3

18. Which of the following electronic configuration of the metal ion, in its octahedral complex, provides

maximum paramagnetic property according to crystal field theory?

(A) 6 2

2g gt e (B) 4 2

2g gt e (C) 3 2

2g gt e (D) 5 2

2g gt e

19. OCH3

( ) ( )HI excess

Pr oduct s⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

The product(s) of above reaction is/are

(A)

I

and CH 3OH

(B)

OH

and CH 3I

(C)

I

and CH 3I

(D)

OH

and CH 3OH

20. Which of the following metal is extracted by Mond’s process?

(A) Cu (B) Ni (C) Ti (D) Zn 21. Which of the following compound does not exist? (A) CF4 (B) SF4 (C) OF4 (D) XeF4

22. C2 2

NaOHNH Br Pr oduct⎯⎯⎯⎯→− +

O

The product of above reaction is

(A) CH2NH2

(B) NH2

(C) CH - NH 2

OH

(D) C - NH - Br

O

Space for rough work

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23. Which of the following is a colourless complex? (A) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl4 (B) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3

(C) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl2 (D) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl

24. Which of the following releases SO2 gas when treated with dil.H2SO4? (A) Na2SO4 (B) Na2SO3

(C) Na2S (D) All are correct

25. CH3CH3

NH2

( ) ( ) ( )3 3 2

2 4

CH COCl HNO H O

H SO NaOHA B C⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Product (C) in the above reaction is:

(A)

CH3CH3

NHCOCH 3

NO2

(B)

CH3CH3

NH2

NO2

(C)

CH3CH3

NH2

OH

(D)

CH3CH3

NHCOCH 3

OH

26. How many Na+ ions are present in the unit cell of NaCl if the ions along all the body diagonals of the

unit cell are removed?

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) 2 (D) 1

27. The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3 solution from [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is

(A) 1

2 (B)

1

3

(C) 2

3 (D)

1

4

Space for rough work

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28. What would be the vapour pressure of a solution which contains 2 moles of liquid A (vapour pressure = 400 mm) and 3 moles of liquid B (vapour pressure = 600 mm)?

(A) 480 mm (B) 520 mm (C) 2600 mm (D) 1600 mm 29. Element ‘X’ belongs to the fourth period. The magnetic moment of X3+ ion is 5.92 B.M. Therefore, ‘X’

is (A) Ni (B) Fe (C) Mn (D) Co 30. Consider the following equilibrium constants

( ) ( )

( ) ( )

( ) ( )

( ) ( )

1g g

2g g

3g g

4g g

A B ;K

B C ;K

C D ;K

A D ;K

The correct relation among the above equilibrium constants is: (A) K4 = K1 + K2 + K3 (B) K4 = K1 x K2 x K3

(C) K4 =

1 2 3

1 1 1

K K K+ + (D) K4 =

1 2 3

1 1 1

K K K

Space for rough work