JEE Main Mock Test Paper 19 JEE 2018 - FIITJEE

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CHEMISTRY, PHYSICS & MATHEMATICS

Time Alloted: 3 Hours

Writing time – 09.30am – 12.30pm

Maximum Marks: 360

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet, provided separately. 2. This question paper contains Three Sections. Section-1 is Chemistry, Section-2 is Physics and Section-3 is Mathematics. 3. This question paper booklet is single-sided. You may use other side of the printed part as Rough space. Do not use any

extra space for Rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for the same. 4. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are

not allowed. B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Black or Blue Ball point pen only for each character of your

Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. Bubble your answers also with the same pen / ink.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. Every question has only ONE correct option. For every question bubbled correctly, you will be allotted 4 marks. No marks will be allotted for unattempted questions. In all other cases, ¼ th marks (i.e. minus 1) will be deducted.

Name of the Candidate :_______________________________________________________________

Batch :_______________________ Enrolment Number : ____________________________

USEFUL DATA PHYSICS

Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 Planck constant : h = 6.6 3410 J s

Charge of electron : e = 1.6 1910 C

Mass of electron : 319.1 10em kg

Permittivity of free space : 12 2 2

0 8.85 10 /C N m Density of water : water 3 310 /kg m

Atmospheric pressure : 5 210 /Pa N m Gas constant : R = 8.314 J 1 1K mol

USEFUL DATA CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J 1 1K mol = 0.0821 Lit atm 1 1K mol =1.987 2 Cal 1 1K mol

Avogadro’s Number aN = 6.023 2310 1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb 1 calorie = 4.2 joule

Planck’s constant h = 6.625 3410 .J s = 6.6252710 .erg s 1 amu = 1.66

2710 kg 1 eV =191.6 10 J

Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92. Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

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JEE Main Mock Test Paper 19– JEE 2018 a FIITJEE team initiative

JEE Main Mock Test Paper- 19 a FIITJEE team initiative

FIITJEE Office: Main Building, A-3, Nandalal Bithi, City Center, Durgapur - 713216. Ph: 03432542643 FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942

Section – 1 CHEMISTRY 1. The labeling on a bottle of H2O2 solution is 20 “vol,” then the concentration of H2O2 in percentage strength

will be : (A) 3.03% (B) 5% (C)5.55% (D)6.06%

2. The rms of the gas molecule at temperature 27K and pressure 1.5 bar is 1×104 cm s–1. If both temperature and pressure are raised three times, the rms speed of the gas molecules will be

(A) 9×104 cm s–1 (B) 3×104 cm s–1 (C) 3 ×104 cm s–1 (D) 1×104 cm s–1

3. A crystal formula AB3 has A ions at the cube corners and B ions at the edge centres. The coordination numbers of A and B are, respectively (A) 6 and 6 (B) 2 and 6 (C) 6 and 2 (D) 8 and 8

4. In 321 the sum of angular momentum, spherical nodes and angular node is

(A) 6h 4

2

(B)

6h3

2

(C)

6h 2

2

(D)

6h 8

2

5. In which case of mixing of a strong acid and a base, each of 1(N) concentration, temperature-increase is the highest? (A) 20 mL acid and 30 mL alkali (B) 10 mL acid and 40 mL alkali (C) 25 mL acid and 25 mL alkali (D) 35 mL acid and 15 mL alkali

6. Two separate experiments were carried out involving adiabatic reversible expansion, taking monoatomic gas in one case and a diatomic gas in the second case. In each, the initial temperature was Ti and expansion was from volume V1 to volume V2. The final temperatures attained were TM for monoatomic gas and TD for diatomic gas then

(A) M D iT T T (B)

M D iT T T (C) D M iT T T (D)

D M iT T T

7. Two liquids A and B are mixed at temperature T in a certain ratio to form an ideal solution, it was found that the partial vapour pressure of A, that is PA is equal to PB the vapour pressure of B for the liquid mixture.

What is the total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture in terms of AP and BP . ?

(A) A B

A B

P P

P P

(B) A B

A B

2P P

P P

(C) A

A B

P

P P

(D) A

A B

2P

P P

8. For the reaction: 2 22HI(g) H (g) I (g), the degree of dissociation of HI(g) is related to equilibrium

constant , Kp by the expression

(A) p1 2 K

2

(B)

p1 2K

2

(C)

p

p

2K

1 2K (D)

p

p

2 2K

1 2 K

Space for rough work



9. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from

(A) Cathode to anode through internal supply (B) Cathode to anode through external supply (C) anode to cathode through internal supply (D) Cathode to anode in solution

10. Consider the standard reduction potential ( in volts) as shown below. Find E°

(A) 0.326 V (B) 0.425 V (C) 0.756 v (D) 0.512 V

11. The high temperature (1200 K) decompositions of 3 ( )CH COOH g occurs as follows as per simultaneous

first order reaction 1

2

3 4 2

3 2 2

k

k

CH COOH CH CO

CH COOH CH CO H O

What would be the % of CH4 by mole in the product mixture (excluding 3CH COOH )?

(A)

1

1 2

50k

k k (B)

1

1 2

100k

k k (C)

1

1 2

200k

k k (D) It depends on time

12. Lyophilic solution are more stable than lyophobic solution because. (A) The colloidal particles have positive charge (B) The colloidal particle have negative charge. (C) The colloidal particles are solvated (D) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles

13. Choose the correct order of the property given below :

(A) 3 2 :N O ionic radius (B) :N O First ionization energy

(C) :N O second ionization energy (D) :N O electron affinity order

14. In which of the following process, the value of magnetic moment does not change?

(A) 2 2N N (B) 2 2N N (C) 2 2O O (D)2 2O O

15. Which is the correct order of the bond angle?

(A) 3 3NH NF (B)

2 2H O Cl O (C) 3 3PH SbH (D)

2 2H Te H S

16. Which of the following statement is true for the compounds: 3 2

6 6( ) ?CoF I and NiF II

(A) Both I and II are paramagnetic (B) Both I and II are diamagnetic (C)I is paramagnetic while II is diamagnetic (D) I is diamagnetic while II is paramagnetic.

17. Identify M and N in the following reaction

2

2

Controlled heatingin pressure of air

N

Copperglance M SO

M Cu SO

(A) M = Cu2O; N = self reduction (B) M = Cu2O+Cu2S; N = only heating (C) M =Cu2O ; N = carbon reduction (D) M = Cu2O ; N = Electrolytic reduction




18. Which of the following processes is not feasible spontaneously? (A) H2O+F2→HF+HOF (B) H2O+Cl2→HCl+HOCl (C) H2O+Br2→2HBr+[O] (D) H2O+I2→2HI+[O]

19. Which of the following give NH3 on heating ?

(I) NH4NO3 (II) NH4NO2 (III) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (IV) (NH4)2CO3 (V) Mg(NH4)PO4

(A) I, IV (B) II, V (C) IV only (D) IV, V

20. Na2SO4 solution+M2+→Yellow ppt. (A). The cation M2+ and yellow ppt. A are respectively (A) Sr2+ and SrSO4 (B) Hg2+ and HgSO4 (C) Hg2+ and 2HgO.HgSO4 (D) Hg2+ and HgO.2HgSO4

21. The correct order of the following compounds is:

(A) 2>1>3>4 (B) 1>3>>2>4 (C) 3>1>2>4 (D) 2>2>3>4

22. Predict the major product of the addition of HBr to isoprene under kinetic reactions

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

23. Which of the following compounds is most likely to undergo a bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction with aqueous NaOH?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)




24. Predict the major product of the following reaction

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25. Predict major product of the following Cannizaro’s reaction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

26. Consider the following sequence of reaction

The end product (B) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)




27. In an aqueous solution of D-glucose the percentage of and anomer at the equilibrium condition are

respectively: (A) 80% and 20 % (B) 20 % and 80% (C) 36 % and 64 % (D) 64 % and 36 %

28. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of:

(A)

(B)

(C) (D)

29. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer? (A) Naproxen (B) Tetracycline (C) Chlorpheninamone (D) Equanil

30. Given the polymers 6,6; ;A Nylon B Buna S C Polythene Arrange these in decreasing order of their intermolecular forces: (A) C< B < A (B) B > C > A (C) B < C < A (D) C < A < B




Section – 2 PHYSICS

1. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. When presented on PV. It would

2. 28 gm of N2 gas is contained in flask at a pressure of 10 atm and at a temperature of 57°. It is found that due to leakage in the flask, the pressure is reduced to half and the temperature reduced to 27°C . The quantity of N2 gas that leaked out is (A) 11/20 gm (B) 20/11 gm (C) 5/63 gm (D) 63/5

3. In the circuit shown in figure reading of voltmeter is V1 when only S1 is closed, reading of voltmeter is V2 when only S2 is closed. The reading of voltmeter is V3 when both S1 and S2 are closed then:

(A) V2>V1>V3 (B) V3>V2>V1 (C)V3>V1>V2 (D) V1>V2>V3

4. Which of the following quantities do not change when an ohmic resistor connected to a battery is heated due to the current? (A) Drift speed (B) Resistivity (C) resistance (D) number of free electrons

5. Two planets A and B are orbiting around their sun in circular orbits of radii r and 4r. In a quarter year of planet B, How many revolutions will the planet A make? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

6. A closed loop lying in the XY-plane carries a current. If a uniform magnetic field B is present in the region, the force acting on the loop will be zero. If B is in (A) the X-direction (B) the Y- direction (C) the Z-direction (D) any of the above directions

7. A circular coil of 100 turns and effective diameter 20 cm carries a current of 0.5 A. It is to be turned in a magnetic field B = 2 T from a position in which equal zero to equals 180°. The work required in the process is ( is angle between magnetic moment and magnetic field ) (A) J (B) 2 j (C) 4 J (D) 8 J

8. A wheel with N spokes is rotated in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field of earth such that an emf e is induced between axle and rim of wheel. In the same wheel, number of spokes is made 3 N rotated in the same manner in the same field, then new emf is (A) 2e (B) 3/2 e (C) e/3 (D) e




9. A Current of 2 A is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s through a coil of inductance 2H.The energy stored in the inductor per unit time is (A) 2 J/s (B) 1 J/s (C) 16 J/s (D) 4 J/s

10. In an L–R circuit, current at t= 0 is 20 A. After 2 s, it reduces to 18 A. The time constant of the circuit is (in s)

(A) 10

ln9

(B) 2 (C) 2

10ln

9

(D) 10

2ln9

11. For the circuit as shown in figure. If the value of rms current is 2.2 A, the power factor of the box is

(A) 1

2 (B)1 (C)

3

2 (D) 1/2

12. Velocity of particle moving along x-axis is given as v = (x3-x2+2) m/sec. Find the acceleration of particle at x= 2 meter. (A) 48 m/s2 (B) 16 m/s2 (C) 32 m/s2 (D) 8 m/s2

13. A homogeneous block rests against vertical wall for which the coefficient of friction is ½ . A force ‘F’ is applied to the block in the direction as shown in figure. Find the maximum magnitude of applied force ‘F’ such that block remains in rest. (A) mg (B) 5 mg (C) mg/5 (D) mg/2

14. A particle of mass ‘m’ moves from ‘A’ to ‘C’ under the action of force 2ˆ ˆ2F xyi y j ,

along different paths as shown in figure. Pick the correct option. (A) Force is conservative in nature

(B) Work done by force is 8

3Joule when particle moves along path ABC

(C) Force is non-conservative in nature and work done along path AC is 1 Joule.

(D) Work done along path ADC is 14

5Joule

15. In one dimensional collision between two identical particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ , ‘B’ is stationary and ‘A’ has momentum 5 kg-m/sec before impact. During impact ‘B’ gives an impulse 3 kg-m/sec to ‘A’ the coefficient of restitution between A and B is (A) 2/5 (B) 1/5 (C) ½ (D) 3/5

16. Find the moment of inertia of a plate cut in shape of a right angled triangle of mass M, side AC= BC= a about an axis perpendicular the plane of the plate and passing through the mid point of side AB

(A) 2

12

Ma (B)

2

6

Ma (C)

2

3

Ma (D)

22

3

Ma




17. A hollow sphere of radius R and mass m is fully filled with non viscous liquid of mass m. It is rolled down a horizontal plane such that its centre of mass moves with a velocity v, If it purely rolls

(A) Kinetic energy of the of system is 5

6mv2

(B) Kinetic energy of the system is 4

5mv2

(C) Angular momentum of the sphere about a fixed point on ground is 8

3mvR

(D) Angular momentum of the sphere about a fixed point ground is 14

5mvR

18. There is a 1mm thick layer of glycerine between a flat plate of area 100 cm2 & big fixed plate. If coefficient of viscosity of glycerine is 1.0 kg/m–s then find the force is required to move the plate with a velocity of 7 cm/s? (A) 3.5 N (B) 0.7 N (C) 1.4 N (D) None

19. The angular amplitude of a simple pendulum is 0. Then the maximum tension in the spring will be

(A) 201mg (B)2 2

01mg (C) 203 1mg (D) 2

04 1mg

20. A string of length ‘ ’ is stretched by / 40and the speed of transverse waves along it is v. The speed if wave when it is stretched by /10 from its natural length will be (assume that Hook’s law is applicable)

(A) 2v (B) / 2v (C) 2v (D) 4 v

21. Suppose a smooth tunnel is dug along a straight line joining two points on the surface of the Earth and a particle is dropped from rest at its one end. Assume that mass of Earth is uniformly distributed over its volume. Then

(A) The particle will emerge from the other end with velocity 2

e

e

GM

R

where eM and eR are Earth’s mass and radius respectively

(B) The particle will come to rest at centre of the tunnel because at this position, particle is closest to Earth centre.

(C)Potential energy of the particle will be equal to zero at centre of tunnel if it is along tunnel’s diameter (D) Acceleration of the particle will be proportional to its distance from midpoint of the tunnel

22. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation

1 1sin cosy t t

a b will be

(A)a b

ab

(B)

ab

a b (C)

a b

ab

(D)

a b

ab




23. The observer ‘O’ sees the distance AB as infinitely large. If refractive index of liquid is 1 and

that of glass is 2 . Then 1

2

is

(A) 1 (B) ½ (C) 2 (D)

24. A convex lens of local length 20 cm and another plano-convex lens of focal length 40 cm are placed co-axially as shown in figure. The plano-convex lens is silvered on plane surface. What should be the distance ‘d’ so that final image of the object ‘O’ formed on ‘O’ itself

(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 25 cm

25. An electron of mass ‘m’ starts moving with initial velocity 0

ˆv v i in an electric field 0ˆE E j if 0

0

h

mv , then

its de-Broglie wavelength at time ‘t’ is

(A) 0

2 20

2 20

1e E t

m v

(B) 0

2 20

2 20

3

1e E t

m v

(C) 0

2 20

2 20

2

1e E t

m v

(D) 0

2 20

2 20

4

1e E t

m v

26. The decay constant for a given radioactive sample is 0.3465 day–1. What percentage of this sample, will get decays in a period of 4 days. (A) 50% (B) 60% (C) 25% (D) 75%

27. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c, and x is calculated from

2

3

abX

c . If the percentage errors a, b and c

are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the percentage error in X can be (A) 13% (B) 7% (C) 4% (D) 1%

28. A flat air capacitor C consists of two large plates that are closed to each other. Initially, one of the plates was not charged, while the other had charge Q. If entire space between the plates is filled with a slab of finite electrical resistance, estimate total amount of energy lost in the slab.

(A) 2

2

Q

C (B)

2

8

Q

C (C)

23

8

Q

C (D)

27

8

Q

C

29. Two particles each of mass 100 g and charge 10 C are released on a horizontal plane at a distance 1.0 m from

each other coefficient of friction between the particles and the plane is 0.1 and acceleration of free fall is 10 m/s2. Maximum speed acquired by the particles after they are released is closest to (A) 2.0 m/s (B) 2.8 m/s (C) 3.0 m/s (D) 4.2 m/s

30. Zener diode functions in

(A) forward biased condition (B) Reverse biased condition (C) both forward and reverse biased condition (D) None of the above




Section – 3 MATHEMATICS

1. If 3=1, 1 and 1, 1, 2, 3 and 4 be the roots of x5 – 1 = 0, then 31 2 4

2 2 2 2

1 2 3 4

=

(A) 1 (B) (C) ² (D) –

2. The value of 1

11

b

asin

2

1

4tan

b

asin

2

1

4tan

, where 0 < a < b) is

(A) a2

b (B) b2

a (C) b2

ab 22 (D) a2

ab 22

3. Number of solutions of 2cos x = sin x in [-2, 2] is;

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) None of these

4. If y = mx + c is a tangent to the hyperbola x2 3y2 = 1, then (A) c2 = m2 (B) c2 = m2 + 1 (C) c2 > m2 (D) c2 < m2

5. The system of equations x + y + z = 6; x + 2y + 3z = 10 and x + 2y + az = b has infinite number of solutions, then

(A) a = 3, b = 10 (B) a = 3, b 10 (C) a 3, b = 10 (D) a 3, b 10

6. If 3xcosxsin2log5

then

(A) = 1, = 2 (B) 5 , = 5 (C) = 0, = 2 (D) none of these

7 Minimum value of the expression 1x

2x2x2

24

is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

8. a, b, c are in A.P. and ax + by + c = 0 represents the family of line. Equation of line of this family passing through

P(, ); where = values of ‘x’ where 1x

1x2

2

has the least value and = dxxx

1

1

; is

(A) 3x + y − 1 = 0 (B) x + y + 1 = 0 (C) 3x − 2y − 7 = 0 (D) none of these

9. Sum to 15 terms of the series 1 1 2 3

....5 6 7 8

is

(A) 2 1

5 16

(B) 1 1 15

4 4 19

(C) 1 1 3

4 3 17

(D) 1 15

4 19

10. If a + b + c = 0 and a, b, c are rational, then the roots of the equation (b + c – a)x2 + (c + a – b)x + (a + b – c) = 0 are (A) rational (B) irrational (C) imaginary (D) equal




11. The co-efficient of 53x in the expansion of

100

0m

mm100

m100 2.3xC is equal to

(A) 100

47C (B) 100

53C (C) 100

53C (D) 100

100C

12. If the chord of contact of tangents from a point P(h, k) to the circle x2 + y2 = a2 touches the circle x2 + (y - a)2 = a2, then locus of P is (A) y2 = a2 – 2ax (B) y2 = a2 + 2ax (C) x2 = a2 +2ay (D) x2 = a2 – 2ay

13. If a0, a1, a2, a3, …….. and b0, b1, b2, b3, …………. are two geometric progressions with a1 = 23 and 1

52b 3

9 if

3a99b99 = 104, then

101

i i

i 0

a b is

(A) 102 (B) 3536 (C) 2040 (D) 3120

14. If a point moves so that the sum of the squares of its distances from the six faces of the cube, having length of each edge 2 units is 46 units, then the square of the distance of the point from its body centre is (A) a variable. (B) a constant equal to 20 units. (C) a constant equal to 24 units. (D) a constant equal to 49 units.

15. If m and n are positive integers and x

2n 2m 1

1

f(x) t a t b dt, a b

, then

(A) x = b is a point of local minimum (B) x = b is a point of local maximum (C) x = a is a point of local minimum (D) x =a is a point of local maximum

16. A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.2 and P(AB) = 0.7. If A and B are independent events then P(B) =

(A)2

7 (B) 7.9 (C)

3

8 (D) none of these

17. If candb,a

are unit coplanar vectors then the scalar triple product ac2,cb2,ba2

=

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 3

18. The values of in the interval (-/2, /2) satisfying the equation 2sec3 = tan4 + 2 tan2 is

(A) /4 (B) /6 (C) (D) none of these

19. Value of the integral

2/

0

dxxcosxsin

xcosbxsina is

(A) 4

(B) )ba(4

(C) 4

)ba( (D) )ba(

4




20. The normal to the curve x = a (cos+ sin), y = a (sin- cos) at any is such that (A) It makes a constant angle with x-axis (B) It passes through the origin (C) It is at a constant distance from the origin (D) None of these

21. Let a, b, c, a1 , b1, c1 R and ax2 +bx + c > 0 x R and a1x2 +b1x +c1 >0 x R. Then

(A) aa1x2 + bb1 x +cc1 0 x R

(B) aa1x2 + bb1 x + cc1 0 x R (C) aa1x2 + bb1 x +cc1 = 0 , will have real roots.

(D) Nothing can be said in general about the nature of roots of aa1 x2 +bb1 x +cc1 = 0,

22. The general solution of the differential equation 2 2x 1 y dx y 1 x dy 0 is

(A) 2 21 x 1 y 0

(B) 2 21 x 1 y c

(C) 4 21 y c 1 x (D) none of these

23. In a triangle ABC, ACsinb

ac

CBsina

cb 2222

equals

(A) R (B) 0.5 R

(B) 2R (D) none of these

24. A couple decides to have children till they have two boys and one girl. If each birth results in any one of a boy or a girl and the odds in favour of birth of a girl is 2:3, then the probability that they will have exactly five children in order to achieve this is (A) 14/625 (B) 26/325 (C) 23/625 (D)18/125

25. If and are the maximum and the minimum values of the determinant

x2sin1xcosxsin

x2sinxcos1xsin

x2sinxcosxsin1

22

22

22

,

then the INCORRECT statement out of the four options is

(A) +99 = 4 (B) (2n - 2n) is always an even integer for nN

(C) 3 - 17 = 26 (D) a triangle can be constructed having it’s sides as , and - .

26. The vertex of the parabola 2

1 2( 2)x y x y is

(A) (2, –1) (B) 13 17

,4 4

(C) 1 3

,2 2

(D) 19 35

,8 8

27. The value of the determinant of order 3 3 with entry Ii + k in i-th row and k-th column where I = 1 , is

(A) imaginary (B) Zero (C) real and positive (D) real and negative




28. If 3 a + 4 b + 2 c = 0, then the point of concurrent of the family of lines a x + b y + c = 0 and (1, 2) are

(A) on the same sides of the line 4 x y + 1 = 0 (B) on the opposite side of the line 4 x y + 1 = 0 (C) are at equal distances from the origin. (D) None of these

29. The function f (x) = a cos x + b tan x + x has extreme value at x = 0 and x6

, then

(A) 2

a , b 13

(C) 2

a , b 13

(C) 2

a , b 13

(D) none of these

30. Negation of the statement p: for every real number, either x > 1 or x < 1 is

(A) there exist a real number x such that neither x > 1 nor x < 1 (B) there exist a real number x such that 0 < x < 1

(C) there exist a real number x such that neither x 1 nor x 1 (D) none of these




Answer Key – JEE Main Mock Test Paper 19 – JEE 2018

a FIITJEE team initiative

CHEMISTRY

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C

11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C

21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A

PHYSICS

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. C

11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A

21. D 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. B

MATHEMATICS

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A

11. C 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. C

21. D 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. A

JEE Main Mock Test Paper 19 JEE 2018 - FIITJEE

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