JEE Main 2015 Set a Ques Paper

20
Tllis booklet contains 24 printed pages. LMN I PAPER -1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRt & MATHEMATICS I . Do not open this Test Booklet until you '!l"e asked to do so. No.: Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Important Instructions : 150426605 Test Booklet Code A I 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/ Black Ball Point Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3:' . The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C conSisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each corred response. 6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct respo nse of each question . . V. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each . question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as ' per instrudion 6' above. B. : U:se B7ue/.Black Ball Point Pen onty.for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-l and . Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. ' 9. No ' candidate is. allowed to carry any textual 'material; printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/ hall. 10. Rough work is to be done on the space proyided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This sp<lce is given at the bottom of each page and in three pages (Pages 21 - 23) at the end of the booklet. 11. On completion of the test, the candidate mu st hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. ' 12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the ca ndidate shou ld immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters ): ________________________ _ Roll Number : in figures I I I I I I I ! I : inwords ____________________________ _ Examination Centre Number: I I I I I I Name of Examination Centre (in Capi tal letters) : ___ ___________ _______ _ Cand idate 's Signature: _ ________ _ 1. Invigilator'sSignature : _________ _ 2. [nvigilator's Signature : _ _ ____ ___ _

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Transcript of JEE Main 2015 Set a Ques Paper

  • Tllis booklet contains 24 printed pages. LMN I PAPER -1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRt & MATHEMATICS I

    . Do not open this Test Booklet until you '!l"e asked to do so.

    No.:

    Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

    Important Instructions :

    150426605 Test Booklet Code

    A I 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen~

    Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test

    Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3: ' . The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C conSisting of Physics, Chemistry and

    Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each corred response.

    6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question . . V. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from

    the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each .

    question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as 'per instrudion 6' above.

    B.: U:se B7ue/.Black Ball Point Pen onty.for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-l and . Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. '

    9. No 'candidate is. allowed to carry any textual 'material; printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/ hall.

    10. Rough work is to be done on the space proyided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This sp

  • PART A - PHYSICS

    1. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously. from the edge of acliif 240 m high with . initial speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/ s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first?

    (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/ s2) . (The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

    (YZ-Yl) m 240 . . . ... .. . .

    (1) iL...----.:-:--i>s - -i1">2--;> 1(5) t~

    240

    (2) 1L...---'\12"---O> 1(5)

    '(Y2-Yl) m 240 . . . .. . .. . .. ,

    (3) iL...-_-gi.--ci1"'2--7 1(5)

    (Y2-Yl) m 240 . . .. .. . . . .

    (4) 1L--~i-g--'tl"2 -1> 1(5)

    2. . The period of oscillation of a simple-

    3.

    pendulum is T = 2'fT Ji. Measu.~edvalue of L is 20.0 em known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of Is resolution. The accuracy in the determination of g is :

    (1) 2%

    (2) 3%

    (3) 1 %

    (4) 5%

    Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 Nand 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is :

    (1) 100 N

    (2) 80 N

    (3) 120 N

    (4) 150 N

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    , 4.

    5.

    A particle of mass m moving in the 6. x direction with speed 2v is hit by another par'tide of mass, 2m moving in the y direction with speedv. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to :

    (1) 44%

    (2) 50%

    (3) 56%

    (4) 62%

    FJ:::S>m a solid sphere of mass M and radius R " cube of maximum possible volume is Ctlt, Moment of inertia of c~be about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to one of its faces is :

    (1) MR2 32J2", MR2

    (2) 16J21T

    4MR2 (3) 9.fi1T

    4MR2 (4) 3.fi1T

    7. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius

    Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone from its vertex is z 00 If the radius of its base is R and its height is h then Zo is equal to :

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    3h 4

    5h 8

    R R" a spheri~al portion of .adius '2 is removed, as shown in the figure .. Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = 00, the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is: (G = gravitational constant)

    . ." (1) - GM

    2R

    (2) - GM R

    (3) - 2GM 3R

    (4) - 2GM R

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    9.

    A pendulum made .of a uniform wire of cross sectional area A has time period T. When an additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to TM . If the Young's modulus of the material of the

    1 wire is Y then Y is equal to :

    (g =gravitational acceleration)

    (1) [(T;J-1] :g (2) [(T; J -1] ~g (3) [1 - (T;J] :g (4) } -( T: n :g Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body radiation inside it can be considered as an ideal gas of photons with internal energy per unit

    volume U 4 u = - oc T and pressure V

    p = ~ (~). If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between T and R is : (1) T ex e - R (2) T ex .e- 3R

    1 (3) Toc -R

    1 (4) Toc -R 3

    , 10. A solid body of constant heat capacity

    1 IrC is being heated by keeping it in . contact with reservoirs in two ways:

    (i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat.

    (ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with S reservoirs such thilt each reservoir supplies same amount.of heat.

    In both the cases body is brought from initial temperature .100C to fi.nal

    . temperature 200C. Entropy change of the . body in the two cases respectively is :

    (1) In2, 4ln2

    (2) In2, In2

    (3) ln2, 21n2

    (4) 21n2, Sln2

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    11. Consider an 'ideal gas confined in an 12. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted isolated closed chamber, As the gas between its kinetic energy (KE) and undergoes an adiabatic expansion, . the potential energy (PE) against its average time of collision between displacement d. Which one of the molecules increases as Vq, where V is the following represents these correctly ? volume of the gas. The value of q is : (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

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    3"1 .;,. 5 6

    "I + 1 2

    "1 - 1 2

    (1)

    (2)

    fJy::, "",A? [~KEd

    E KE

    --

    d (3) , ,- - -, , , , , , , , , , , ,

    'PE

    E PE

    . . .

    (4) . KE . ,

    13. A train is moving on a straight track with speed 20 ms - 1 It is blowing its whistle at . the frequency of 1000 H z. The percentage change in the frequency heard by a person standing near the track as the train passes him is (speed of sound =320 ms - I ) close to: (1) 6% (2) 12 % (3) 18 % (4) 24 %

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    A long cylindrical shell carries positive \6. In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2".F capacitor changes as C is varied &om 1j.1.F to. 3j.1.F. Q2 as a function of 'C is given properly by : (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)

    surface charge (J in the upper half and negative' surface charge ...; (J in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in : (figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has potential Vo (measured with respect to 00) on its surface. For this sphere the equipotential surfaces with potentials

    3Vo 5Vo 3Vo and Vo have radius Rl,

    2' 4' 4 4 R2, R3 and R4 respectively. Then

    (1) R}=O and R2 > (R4- R3) (2) R} '" 0 and (R2 - R}) > (R4 - R3) (3) R} =0 and R2 < (R4 - R3) (4) 2R < R4

    Charge

    (1 ) /

    (2) Q2 C/:

    , , , ,

    Charge

    (3) / , , . : C

    If'.F 3f'.F

    Charge

    (4) ~ 17. When 5V potential difference is applied

    across a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 x 10 - 1 ms -1 If the elec tron densi ty in the w ire is 8 x 1028 m - 3, the resistivity of the material is close to : (1) 1.6xl0 - 8 nm (2) 1.6xI0 - 7 nm (:') 1.6xl0 - 6 nm (4) 1.6xl0- 5 nm

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    In the circuit shown, the current in the 10 resistor is :

    (1) 1.3 A, from P to Q

    (2) OA

    (3) 0,13 A, from Q to P

    (4) 0,13 A, from P to Q

    19. Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction, Let ->

    F1 be the magnetic force on the inner ->

    solenoid due to the outer one and Fz be the magnetic force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then:

    (1) -> ->

    (2) 1'1 is radially inwards and Fz is radially outwards

    -> -> (3) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0

    -> -> (4) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0

    20.

    ,

    , Two long current carrying thin w ires, both with current I , are held by insulating threads of length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle 'I)' with the vertical. If wires have mass A per unit length then the value of I is : (8 =gravitational acceleration)

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    sinO

    2sinO

    7TAgL fLO cosO

    'TTAgL fLO cosO

    2 'TTgL tan 0 fLO

    'TTAgL 8 --tan

    fLO

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  • 21. A tectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 22. An inductor (L = 0.03H) and a resistor 5 cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed (R= 0.15 kG) are connected in series to a . in different orientations as shown in the figures below:

    z

    (a) x

    z

    (b) x

    z

    Bi [

    (c) ,.--L------y [ .

    x

    z

    (d) x

    battery of 15V EMF in a circuit shown . below. The key Kl has been ~ept clqsed for a long time. Then at t = 0, Ki is opened and key. K2 is closed simultaneously. At t = 1ms, the current in the circuit will be: (h150)

    O~ OlS kf1

    1----./ _IS"'----__ --l

    (1) 100 rnA

    (2) 67 rnA

    (3) 6.7 rnA

    (4) 0.67 rnA

    23. A red LED emits light atO.1 watt uniformly If there is a uniform magnetic field of around it. The amplitude of the electric 0.3 T in the positive z direction, in which field of the light at a distance of 1 m from orientations the loop would be in (i) stable the diode is : equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium ?

    (1) 1.73 Vim (1) (a) and (b), respectively

    (2) (a) and (c), respectively (2) 2.45 V 1m

    (3) (b) and (d), respectively (3) 5.48 V 1m

    (4) (b) and (c), respectively (4) 7.75 V 1m

    AI Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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    24.

    .... " .:,~ ,

    ~'.~~" '~ . . - ' :;-"; 'Iy"" . , Q. .. :~. .

    . . '

    Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism of angle A. If the refractive index of

    .' .'

    the material of the prism is 11, a ray; incident at an angle e, on the face AB . would get transmitted through thefaceAC of the prism provided:

    B C

    (1) 8> sin- 1 [11 sin (A - sin-1 e))] (2) e < sin- 1 [11 sin (A - sin- 1 (~ ))] (3) e > cos - 1 [11 sin (A + sin -1 C~))] . (4) 0 < cos-1 [11 sin (A + sin- 1 (~ ))]

    25. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:

    (1) becomes narrower (2) goes horizontally wi thout a ny

    deflection

    (3) bends downwards (4) bends upwards

    26.

    27.

    Assuming human pupil to have a radius ,of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 2Scm, the rriinimum separation between two objects that human eye can resoive at 500 run wavelength is :

    (1) 1 11m

    (2) 30 11m

    (3) 100 11m

    (4) 300 11m

    As an electJ:on makes a transition from an exCited state to 'the ground state oLa: hydrogen - like atom/ion :'

    (1) its kinetic en ergy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease

    (2) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease

    (3) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains saIne

    (4) kinetic en e rgy and to tal energy decrease but potential energy increases

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    28. Match List - I (Fundamental Experiment) ... with List - II (its conclusion) and select

    the correct option from the choices given below the list :

    .:.'.;. , " ~~~--~--~~-----~ List - I . List - II

    (A) Franck-Hertz Experunent.

    Photo-electric (B) . expenment.

    C) Davison - Germer Experiment.

    Particle nature (i) of light

    Discrete energy (ii) levels of a tom

    (iii) Wave nature of electron

    Structure of (iv) atom

    (1) (A) - (i) (B) - (iv) (C) - (iii)

    (2)

    (3)

    (A) ~ (ii)

    (A) - (il)

    (B) - (iv) (C) - (iii)

    (B) ~ (i) (C) - (iii)

    (4) (A) -(iv) (B) - (iii) (C) - (ii)

    29. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The frequencies of the resultant signal is/are:

    (1) 2 MHz only

    (2) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz

    (3) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

    (4) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

    30 . An LCR circuit is equivalent to a da:nped pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor is charged to QO and then connected to the Land R as shown below:

    Rl

    L..-_--I' ,~'c=--_--.I I r

    If a student plots graphs of the square of maximum charge ( Q~ax ) on the capacitor with time(t) for two different values L j and ~ (~ > l:2) of L then which of the following represents this graph correctly? (plots are schematic and not drawn to scale)

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4) Q2

    M" Qo (For both L, and LV

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    PART B - CHEMISTRY 34. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is :

    . ' .

    31. . The inolecul~r fo~mula of a corruriercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is CSH7S03Na (Mol. wt. 206).

    \ What would be the maximum uptake of i ea2+ ions by the resin when expressed in \ mole per gram resin?

    1 (1) 103 1 (2) 206 2 (3) 309 1 (4) 412

    32.. Sodiummet"'l crystalliies in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29A. The radius of sodiu m atom is approximately :

    (1) 1.86A (2) 3.22A (3) 5.72A (4) 0.93A

    33. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen ?

    (1) +13.6 eV (2) -6.8 eV (3) - 3.4 eV

    (4) +6.8 eV

    (1) ion - ion interaction (2) ion - dipole interaction (3) London force (4) hydrogen bond

    35. The following reaction is performed at 298 K.

    2NO(g) + 02(g) ~ 2N02(g) The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the s tandard free energy of formation of N02(g) at 298 K? (Kp =1.6 x 1012) (1) R(298)ln(1.6 x 1012) - 86600 (2)

    (3)

    86600 + R(298) In(1 .6 x 1012)

    86600 _ In (1.6 x 1012 ) R (298)

    (4) 0.5[2 x 86,600 - R(298) In(1.6 x 1012))

    36. The vap our pressure of acetone at 20C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone a t 20C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol - }) of the substance IS:

    (1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 128 (4) 488

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  • 37. The standard Gibbs energy change at 40. 300 K for the reaction 2A -= B + C is

    3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of ace"tlc acid solution (O.06N) in a" " flask. After "an hour it w.as filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is :

    2494.2 J. At a given time, the composition 1

    of the reaction mixture is [A) = "2' [B) =2 1

    and [C) = "2' The reaction proceeds in the: [R=8.314 J/K/mol, e=2.718] (1) forward direction because Q > Kc (2) reverse direction because Q > Kc (3) forward direction because Q < Kc (4) reverse direction because Q < Kc

    38. Two Faraday of e lectricity is passed through a solution of CuS04' The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is : (at. mass of Cu =63.5 amu) (1) 0 g (2) 63.5 g (3) 2 g (4) 127 g

    39. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due

    (1) 18 mg (2) 36 mg

    (3) 42 mg (4) 54 mg

    41. The ionic radii (in A) of N3-, 0 2- and F-are respectively:

    (1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40

    (3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36

    (4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40

    42. In the context of the Hall - Heroult process for the ex traction of AI, which of the following statements is false?

    to : (1) CO and CO2 are produced in this process (1) low probability of simultaneous

    collision of all the reacting species

    (2) increase in entropy and activation energy "as more molec ules are involved

    (3) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions

    (4) loss of active species on collision

    (2) AI20 3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the me ltin g point of the mixture and brings conductivity

    (3) AI3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al

    (4) Na3AIF6 serves as the electrolyte

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    43, From the following statements regarding 46. Match the catalysts to the correct

    44.

    H20:!,choose the incorrect statement :

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    It can act only as an oxidizing agent

    It decomposes on exposure to light

    It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark

    It has to be kept away from dust

    Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy ?

    (1) CaS04

    (2) ,BeS04

    (3) BaS04

    (4) SrS04

    45. Which among the following is the most reactive ?

    (2) Brz

    (3) Iz

    (4) ICI

    47.

    processes:

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D) (1) (2) (3)

    Catalyst

    TiCl3 (i) PdClz (ti)

    Process

    Wacker process

    Ziegler - Na,tta , polymerization

    CuClz (iii) Contact process V Z05 (iv) Deacon's process (A ) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iv), (0) - (i) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (0) - (iii) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (0) - (i)

    (4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (0) - (iv)

    Which one has the highest boiling point?

    (1) He (2) Ne (3) Kr (4) Xe

    48. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar [Pt (CI) (py) (NH3) (NHzOH)] + is (py = pyridine) : (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

    49 , The color of KMn04 is due to :

    (1) M -7 L charge transfer transition (2) d - d transition (3) L -7 M charge transfer transition (4) 0' - 0'* transition

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    50, Assertion: Nitrogen and Oxygen are the 53. Which compound would give l . main

    .in "the , 5 - keto ' - 2 ~ , methyl , components hexanal upon ..

    atmosphere but these do not ozonolysis?

    ~ , react to form oxides of nitrogen. I -. .:1 '" ~ : ... .

    , CH3 Reason: The reaction between nitrogen ,.," : '. & CH3 and oxygen requires high (1) temperature.

    (1) Bo t.h assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct

    CH3 explanation for the assertion 6CH, (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the (2) correct explanation for the assertion (3) The assertion is incorrect, bu t the

    reason is correct 0 , 1 "j (4) Both the assertion and reason are 1

    , 1 , incorrect (3) , { .

    CH3 51- In Carius method of estimation of

    halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound CH3 gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of

    , H3C'() bromine in the compound is : (4) ' (at. lIlass Ai? = 108; Br =80) (1) 24 (2) 36 (3) 48 54. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best (4) 60 accomplished by :

    52. Which of the fo llowing compounds wi ll (1 ) Free radical fluorination exhibit geomeh'ical isomerisln ? (1) 1 - Phenyl - 2 - butene (2) Sandmeyer's reaction (2) ,3 - R'1enyl - 1 - butene (3) Finkelstein reaction (3) 2 - Phenyl - 1 - butene (4) 1, 1 - Diphenyl - 1 - propane (4) Swarts reaction

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  • 55. In the following sequence of reactions :

    .. Toluene KMn04 j A SOCI:2 ) B . H .. / Pd ) C, o BaSO"

    the prod ud C is :

    (1) C6HsCOOH (2) C6HSCH3 (3) C6HsCHPH (4) C6HsCHO

    56. In the reaction

    NaN02 / Hel ) D _-,C=.uC",Nc;-'-"KC",N-,---> E + N o 5C A) 2

    the product E is:

    (1)

    (3)

    (4)

    ( l ( I

    57. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints .and lacquers ?

    (1) . Bakelite

    (2) Glyptal

    (3) Polypropene

    (4) Poly vinyl chloride

    58 . Which of the vitamins given below is w a ter soluble?

    (1) Vitamin C

    (2) Vitamin D

    (3) Vitamin E

    (4) Vitamin K

    59. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?

    (1) Aluminium hydroxide (2) Cimetidine

    (3) Phenelzine

    (4) Ranitidine

    60. Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow ?

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    K3[Co(N02)6]

    (NH4)3 [As (Mo3 0lU)4]

    BaCr04

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    PART C - MATHEMATICS '

    61. , LetA and B be two sets ,"ontaining four and two elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set A x B, each having at least three elements is :

    (1) 219 (2) 256 (3) 275 (4) 510

    62. A complex number z is said to be

    64.

    , . .

    . .

    [

    1 2

    HA= , ! '~ -~ },' =,~ ",",lying the equation AA T = 91, where I is 3 x 3 identity matrix, then the ordered pair (a, b) is equal to : (1) (2, -1) (2) (-2,1) (3) (2, 1) (4) (-2, - 1)

    unimodular if Izi = 1. Suppose z1 and z2 65. The set of' all values of A for which the Zl - 2z2

    are complex numbers such that 2 - zl z2

    is unimodular and z2 is not unimodular. Then the point zllies on a: .

    (1) straight line parallel to x-axis. (2) straight line parallel to y-axis. (3) circle of radius 2.

    (4) circle of radius .fi.

    63. Let a and J3 be the roots of equation x2-6x-2=0. If an = an - J3n, for n '" 1,

    . alO - 2aS then the value of is equal to :

    2a9

    (1) 6 (2) - 6

    (3) 3 (4) - 3

    system of linear equations :

    2x1- 2x2+ x3 = Axl

    2x1 - 3x2+ 2x3 = Ax2

    , '-xl +2x2 = Ax3

    has a non-trivial solution,

    (1) is an empty set. (2) , is a singleton. (3) contains two elements. (4) contains more than two elements.

    66. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8, without repetition, is :

    (1) 216 (2) 192 (3) 120 (4) 72

    A/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

    \ ~'-I 5r

    L.f ",,~'I- -," . I , , '~ ~t ..-. \ ')..

    . b 'l.'b 'l-

    \ ' ':, D3 6 ( '" \'~

  • I the .

    ts .

    000 i, 6,

    - .

    68.

    69.

    ,

    The sum of coefficients' of integral powers 70.

    of x in . the binomial expansion of .

    . lim (1 - cos 2x}(3 + cosx) is. equal to .: x-->'O . x tan 4 x .

    . 50 (1 - 2.JX) is: (1) 1.(350 + 1) 2 . (2) ~(350 )

    (3) ~(350 -1) (4) ~(250 + 1)

    If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers I and n (I, n > 1) and Gl' G2 and G3 are three geometric means between 1

    and n, then Gi + 2G~ + G~ equals. (1) 4Z2mn (2) 41m2n (3) 41mn2

    (4) 4 Z2m2n2

    The sum of first 9 terms of the series

    13 13 + 23 -+ 1 1 +3

    (1) 71 (2) 96 x (3) 142 (4) 192

    13 + 23 + 33 + + .... is:

    1 + 3 + 5

    (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) (4)

    2 1 2

    71. If the function.

    g(x) = {k.JX+l mx + 2

    o ~ x ~3 3 < x ~5

    is differentiable, then the value of k + m is :

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    2

    16 5

    10 3

    4

    72. The normal to the curve, x2 + 2xy - 3y2 = 0, at (1, 1) :

    (1) does not meet the curve aga in .

    (2) meets the curve again in the second quadrant.

    (3) m eets the curve again in the third quadrant.

    (4) meets the curve again in the fourth quadrant.

    A/ Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUG H WORK t ... "'S\"Q.~)'L \.b~ (

  • , . , I!'

    , , .

    73. Let f( x) b e a polynomial of degree four . having extreme values at x~1 and.x=2.

    If lim [1 + f(;)] = 3, thenf(2) is equal x-->o X

    to:

    (1) -8 (2) - 4 (3) 0 (4) 4

    74. The integral f dx % equals: x 2 (x4 + 1) 4 .

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4) -( x:: 1 J + C 75. The integral

    j log x2 d 210g x 2 + log (36 _ 12x + x2 ) X

    is equal to

    (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 6

    76. The area (in sq. units) of the re gion described by

    {(x,y) : y2 :5 2x and y ;:. 4x - I} is :

    7 (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    32

    5 64

    15 64

    9 32

    77. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation

    (x logx) dy . + Y = 2x logx , (x ;:.l ) . . dx .

    'Then y(e) is equal to : (1) e (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 2e

    78. The number of pOints, having both co-ordinates as integers, that lie in the interior of the triangle w ith vertices (0, 0), (0,41) and (41, 0), is :. (1) 901 (2L 861 (3) 820 (4) 780

    A/ Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUG H WORK

  • on

    ial

    th

    i),

    79. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x - 3y + 4) + k (x - 2Y'l\3)=, 0, \ kR,isa: (1) straight line parallel to x-axis .. (2) straight line parallel to y-axis. (3) circle of radius ../2. (4) circle of radius J3.

    BO. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 - 4x - 6y -12 = and x2+l+6x+18y+26 = O, is: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    B1. The area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral

    formed by the tangents at the end points of the latera recta to the ellipse

    x2 l

    -+-=1 is: 9 5 '

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    27 4

    18 27 2

    27

    82. Let 0 be the vertex and Q be any point on the parabola, x2 = By. If the point P divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio 1 : 3, then the locus of P is : (1) x2 =y (2) l=x (3) l=2x (4) x2 =2y

    I , t

    83. .. The distance of the point .(1,0; 2) froin the . ...

    . point a! . intersection of the line

    x-2 =y+1 =z -2 3 4 12 and the plane

    x-y+z=16, is : (1) 2M (2) 8 (3) 3m (4) 13

    84. The equation of the plane containing the ' line 2x - 5y + z = 3; x + Y + 4z = 5, and

    parallel to the plane, x + 3y + 6z = 1, i~ : (1) 2x+6y+12z=13 (2) x+3y+6z=-7 (3) x+3y+6z=7 (4) 2x+6y+12z=-13

    ---7 ~ -4 85. Let a, band c bethreenon-zerovectors

    such that no two of them are collinear and

    -7 -7 -7 1 1-711-71 -7 (a X b) x c = '3 b ca. If e is the -7 -7

    angle between vectors band c, then a value of sin e is :

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    2../2 3

    -../2 3

    2 3

    - 2J3 3

    i A/Page 19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK - ,

    ., .

  • .. , I i:' f ;." ..

    .-:t 86. If 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 Let ,. .. ~ ~, identical boxes, then t,he probability that , ",

    ' / 'r. one of the boxes contains exactly 3 balls:

    tim- l 'y = ' . , (2X ) IS: tan-

    l x + tim-1 2 ' 1 - x

    (1) 5:(~r 1 where Ixl < J3' Then a value of y is : "

    (2f ~ r-(2) 55 - 3x - x3 3 (1) 1 - 3x2 I

    220Gf ! .

    (3) 3x + x3

    cr (2)

    1 - 3x2 (4) 22 -3

    3x - x3

    i 87. The mean of the data set comprising of 16 (3)

    1 + 3x2 , observations is 16. If one of the observation t); I. I. valued 16 is deleted and three new ,

    3x + .x3 , observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added .. (4) i 1 + 3x2 ' I to the data, then the mean of the resultant ! data, is : (1) 16.8 (2) 16.0 90. The negation of - s v (- r 1\ s) is equivalent (3) 15.8 to: (4) 14.0 ~~

    (1) s/\ ...... r 88. H the angles of elevation of the top of a

    tower from three collinear points A, Band (2) s l\ (r l\- s) C, on a line leading to the foot of the tower, are 30, 45 and 600 respectively, (3) s v (r v - s) then the ratio, AB : Be, is :

    (1) J3: 1 (4) S l\ r

    (2) J3:J2 ,7 (3) 1: J3 (4) 2:3 -000-

    A/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

    J -,'

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