Itil

What is NOT a reason to perform a Post-Implementation Review (PIR)?

Ensure that change goals were met.

Ensure that customers are satisfied with the results.

Ensure that there have been no unexpected side-effects.

Ensure that the Change Management Database (CMDB) was updated properly.

That's right. You do NOT need to ensure that the CMDB was updated properly during a PIR. A PIR should take place after every change.

A PIR is performed for three main reasons: ensure that change goals were met, that customers are satisfied with the results, and that there have been no unexpected side-effects.

The Problem Management process has issued an RFC that involved the relocation of the research department's printer. A Service Desk employee will actually complete the physical

relocation.

In which ITIL process is this Service Desk employee now playing a role?

Incident Management

Change Management

Problem Management

Availability Management

That's right. The Service Desk employee is playing a role in the Change Management process when he completes the physical relocation of a printer as issued by an RFC.

Incident Management and Problem Management does not respond to RFCs. While Availability Management can sometimes respond to RFCs, the printer is not having availability issues. It just needs to be moved.

A user reports that his computer is not able to access the network. A Service Desk representative determines that the network interface card in the computer is defective. According to the Service Catalog, defective computer hardware must be replaced within two hours.

Which ITIL process will replace the defective hardware?

Change Management

Incident Management


Configuration Management

That's right. The Change Management process will replace the defective hardware.

The Incident Management process is responsible for the initial incident issues. The Incident Management process works closely with the Service Desk. Availability Management ensures IT services are available. Generally, Incident Management and Problem Management actually complete the actions that ensure service availability. Configuration Management manages the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

Which duty is NOT fulfilled by the Change Manager?

Implementing the changes

Deciding the category of a change

Closing Requests for Change (RFCs)

Calling all Change Advisory Board (CAB) meetings

That's right. The Change Manager generally does NOT implement the changes.

The Change Manager decides on the category of a change, calls all CAB meetings, and closes RFCs, among other job duties.

The manufacturer of a video card that is used in 35% of your company's computers has released a new driver. This driver must be installed on the computers. Before the actual installation, implementation planning and testing must occur.

Which ITIL process is responsible for the implementation planning and testing of the driver installation?

Service Desk

Change Management


Service Level Management

That's right. Change Management is responsible for the implementation planning and testing of the driver installation. The implementation discussion is usually held under the leadership of the Change Manager. This can be a Change Advisory Board (CAB) discussion or a general Change Management team discussion.

None of the other teams are involved in implementation planning and testing. The Service Desk may help with the actual rollout of the change once the planning and testing is completed.

Which type of change should be kept to an absolute minimum?

Urgent change

High-cost change

Unplanned change

Large-scale change

That's right. Urgent changes should be kept to an absolute minimum. An urgent change is a change that must be made quickly.

While the other types of changes are undesirable, they are not as disruptive and prone to failure as an urgent change.

A software vendor has released a new version of an application that is widely used in your organization.

Which ITIL process is responsible for planning the physical release of the new version?

Change Management

Release Management



That's right. Change Management is responsible for planning or coordinating the release of the new version because Change Management will execute the rollout of the new version.

Release Management plans the successful rollout of a new version but does not plan the actual physical release. Availability Management and Configuration Management may be involved in the process but only in an advisory capacity.

The IT department has decided to implement a new type of network interface card in all computers to ensure a faster network. The exact manufacturer and model of the new card has been agreed upon.

Which ITIL component should be issued to replace all the current network

interface cards with the new models?

Incident

Problem

Known error

Request for Change (RFC)

That's right. An RFC should be issued to replace all the current network interface cards with the new models.

None of the other ITIL components should be used in this scenario. Incidents are issued when a customer or user contacts the Service Desk with an issue. Incidents can become problems when they are forwarded to Problem Management. Issues become known errors when Problem Management has identified the work around.

Which duty is NOT a responsibility of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

Approve all RFCs.

Review all submitted RFCs.

Participate in the scheduling of changes.

Advise Change Management on the change resolution process.

That's right. The CAB is not responsible for approving all RFCs. This is the responsibility of the Change Manager. The Change Manager is ultimately responsible for the entire Change Management process.

The CAB reviews all submitted RFCs, participates in the scheduling of changes, and advises Change Management on the change resolution process.

A new computer has arrived that was requested by a user in your organization. It needs to be installed for the user using standard procedures.

Which ITIL process is responsible for this?

Service Desk

Change Management



That's right. The Change Management process is responsible for installing a new computer using standard procedures that was requested by a user in your organization.

While personnel from the Service Desk may be tasked to actually complete the installation, this person will be completing the work as part of the Change Management process. None of the other processes will be involved.

Why should urgent changes be kept to a minimum?

Lack of testing

Prone to failure

High resource cost

High implementation cost

That's right. Urgent changes should be kept to a minimum because they are prone to failure. Urgent changes are those that must be completed more quickly.

None of the other reasons apply to why urgent changes should be kept to a minimum. Urgent changes are tested. They do not normally have a higher resource or implementation cost than any other changes.

Standard changes are changes that have been identified, fully described, and approved. They do not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time. Urgent changes have no such structure in place and must be evaluated by Change Management.

What is the purpose of Change Management?

To restore regular service operations as quickly as possible

To plan and oversee the rollout of software and related hardware

To prevent incidents resulting from modifications to the IT infrastructure

To prevent recurrence of incidents related to errors within the IT infrastructure

That's right. The purpose of Change Management is to prevent incidents resulting from modifications to the IT infrastructure.

The purpose of Incident Management is to restore regular service operations as quickly as possible. The purpose of Release

Management is to plan and oversee the rollout of software and related hardware. The purpose of Problem Management is to prevent recurrence of incidents related to errors within the IT infrastructure.

Which subject should NOT be discussed at the Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting?

Failed changes

Change reviews

Change priorities

RFC assessment

That's right. Change priorities should NOT be discussed at the CAB meeting. Change priorities are assigned by the Change Manager.

The CAB meeting should discuss failed changes, change reviews, RFC assessment, and ongoing or concluded changes.

Who is ultimately responsible for authorizing changes?

IT Manager

Change Manager

Release Manager

Change Advisory Board (CAB)

That's right. The Change Manager is ultimately responsible for authorizing changes.

None of the other entities have this responsibility. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) can make recommendations on change authorization but cannot actually make the decision.

Which statement is true of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

Membership is dynamic in nature.

Approval of the entire CAB membership is vital.

The CAB should only be comprised of members of the IT department.

CAB meetings should include a review of the Incident Management process.

That's right. Membership of the CAB is dynamic in nature. It changes based on the needs of the RFCs that are to be assessed by the CAB.

Approval of the entire CAB membership is NOT vital. The CAB serves in an advisory capacity only. They make suggestions to the Change Manager, but the Change Manager is ultimately responsible for change approval.

The CAB should be comprised of members of every group that RFCs may touch, including the customer or user, services staff, experts, and others that may have a direct impact on the successful implementation of a change.

CAB meetings should NOT include a review of the Incident Management process. Only the Change Management process is a concern for the CAB.

Several users are getting new printers. The steps for installing the new printers are documented. A service technician will use the documentation to install the printers within the next few days.

Which type of change will occur?

Urgent change

Service request

Standard change


That's right. A standard change will occur in this scenario. A standard change occurs when an established course is followed to complete the task.

An urgent change is a change that needs to be implemented in a timelier manner than a standard change. A Request for Change (RFC) is a formal document that outlines the details of a requested change. An RFC is the first step in the change process. A service request can sometimes result in an RFC.

Which type of model can provide information for comprehensive evaluation?

Flowchart

Change model

Process model

Information model

That's right. A process model can provide information for comprehensive evaluation.

There are generally two types of change models that are used: flowcharts and process models. Flowcharts are very simple and do not provide information for comprehensive evaluation. An information model is a formal representation of information entities including their properties, relationships, and the operations that can be performed on them.

What are the two main costs for Change Management?

Hardware and software

Personnel and support tools

Diagnostic tools and assessment tools

Test environment and lab environment

That's right. The two main costs for Change Management are personnel and support tools.

Support tools can include, but are not limited to hardware, software, diagnostic tools, assessment tools, a test environment, and a lab environment.

Which entity stores the relationships between incidents, problems, known errors, changes, and releases?

Definitive Software Library (DSL)

Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

That's right. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) stores the relationships between incidents, problems, known errors, changes, and releases. The Configuration Management process is ultimately responsible for the CMDB.

The Definitive Software Library (DSL) is the facility where the authorized versions of all software configuration items are stored. Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is a written agreement between a service provider and the customer or user that identifies the service goals and duties for both parties. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is a list of approved changes and projected implementation dates.

Your organization has decided to add a new subnet to the network. Which ITIL process is responsible for documenting this change?

Change Management

Release Management



That's right. The Configuration Management process is responsible for documenting any changes to the IT infrastructure, including the addition of a new subnet. The goals of this process include accounting for all IT assets, configurations, and services within the organization, providing configuration information and documentation to all other processes, providing a basis for Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, and Release Management, and verifying records against actual configurations.

Which process preserves associations between assets?

Asset Management




That's right. Configuration Management preserves associations between assets.

While Asset Management and Configuration Management are closely related, Asset Management focuses more on the accounting issues of assets, such as depreciation. Configuration Management shows how the assets relate to each other.

Availability Management focuses more on the availability of organizational resources and services. Service Level Management focuses more on ensuring that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met.

The IP address for a router on your network needs to be changed. Which ITIL process should analyze the effects of this change?

Change Management



IT Service Continuity Management

That's right. Configuration Management should analyze the effects of changing a router's IP address. Configuration Management must provide insight into the consequences of changes to ensure service is not interrupted or errors do not result.

Change Management will be responsible for testing and implementing the change, but they are not tasked with analyzing its effects.

Availability Management focuses more on the availability of organizational resources and services. IT Service Continuity Management focuses more on ensuring a certain level of service to support business requirements.

Which ITIL process is responsible for identifying and recording all resources in the IT infrastructure?

Service Desk

Capacity Management



That's right. The Configuration Management process is responsible for identifying and recording all resources in the IT infrastructure. The goals of this process include accounting for all IT assets, configurations, and services within the organization, providing configuration information and documentation to all other processes, providing a basis for Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, and Release Management, and verifying records against actual configurations.

For a particular server on your network, you gather a data backup and all system state information, including a list of hardware, hardware drivers used, and all software installed, at a particular point in time to serve as a reference for future configuration activities.

What is the purpose of this information?

To provide a configuration status

To provide a configuration baseline

To provide configuration verification

To ensure proper license management

That's right. Anytime you gather configuration data at a particular point in time to serve as a reference for future configuration activities, you are providing a configuration baseline. Configuration

baselines provide a standard configuration for resources in your organization. Information about the baseline data can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

Configuration status accounting reports all current and historical data throughout the lifecycle of each configuration item (CI). Configuration verification reviews CIs and ensures that they are correctly documented in the CMDB. Proper license management ensures that software being used by organization resources is legal, preventing fines and possible imprisonment.

Application or software baselines allow you to rebuild a specific version at a later date.

What is the primary purpose of the Configuration Management verification activity?

Testing configuration items

Auditing configuration items

Identifying configuration items

Reporting data concerned with a particular configuration item

That's right. The primary purpose of the Configuration Management verification activity is to audit configuration items (CIs). This ensures that they are correctly recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

Identifying CIs takes place during the Configuration Management identification activity. Reporting data concerned with a particular CI takes place during the Configuration Management status accounting activity. Testing CIs does not really occur in the Configuration Management process.

A new server is purchased by your organization that will be a new configuration item (CI). What is vital when registering it in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

Its history

Its component CIs

Its relationship to other CIs

Its Request for Change (RFC) number

That's right. It is vital to register the CI's relationship to other CIs when a new server is purchased that will be a new CI.

The new CI will not have a history.

It is not always necessary to record all component CIs for a new server. The level of granularity of your CMDB should be determined by Configuration Management. Component CIs can include individual hardware components and applications. Even if this information is deemed important to ensure that appropriate future changes can be recorded, it is not as vital as the relationship of the CI to other CIs.

While it is also ideal if the RFC number can be recorded, this is not as vital as the relationship because this is a new item, not an existing item.

Which type of information is usually NOT contained in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

CI user

CI history

CI location

CI components

That's right. Configuration item (CI) user information is usually NOT contained in the CMDB for many reasons. Some CIs may not have a 'user' in the real meaning of the word. For example, a network router is generally a piece of equipment that performs the routing function but it not 'used' by a dedicated user. Some CIs may have several users, especially in situations involving shift work. Some CIs may be accessed across the network only. Therefore, identifying a single primary user may not be possible, as in a networked file server.

Generally, you can always count on the CMDB to identify the CI history, CI location, and all components of a CI. In addition, other information contained in the CMDB may include release contents, component version numbers, CIs affected by an authorized change, all RFCs regarding a particular CI, CI purchase information, and CI configuration schedules.

You need to track all versions of a particular application. Which ITIL component will give you this information?

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Definitive Software Library (DSL)

Operational Level Agreement (OLA)


That's right. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) should be used to track all versions of a particular application.

The Definitive Software Library (DSL) is used to store the current licensed versions of applications but does not provide its own tracking mechanism for application versions outside the CMDB.

Service Level Agreement (SLAs) and Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) are part of the Service Level Management process and are not concerned with tracking versions of applications.

Who is responsible for all master copies of software and documentation?

Change Manager

Configuration Manager

Configuration Librarian

Service Desk Manager

That's right. The Configuration Librarian is responsible for all master copies of software and documentation. This person should ensure that access to software and documentation is controlled and logged.

While the Change Manager is responsible for the entire Change Management process, the Configuration Manager is responsible for the entire Configuration Management process. The Service Desk Manager is responsible for the Service Desk.

Release Management develops an application upgrade for an in-house application. This application is only used by the research department. When installing the upgrade on the client computers, one of the computers does not have enough disk space to complete the installation.

What should you do?

Implement the back-out plan on every computer.

Implement the recovery plan on every computer.

Implement the back-out plan on the single computer.

Implement the recovery plan on the single computer.

That's right. You only need to implement the back-out plan on the computer that has disk space issues. You do not need to use the back-out plan on every computer because only one computer is experiencing rollout issues.

Release Management should always develop a back-out plan for every release before the release is approved for distribution. While Release Management is ultimately responsible for the deployment of the back-out plan, members of other processes may actually implement the plan.

A recovery plan is used when you need to recover a computer in the event of hardware failure, not when a release cannot be fully deployed at the computer.

The Help modules for a .NET application that was developed in-house has many errors. The in-house .NET developers have corrected the errors in a new version of the application.

Which ITIL process should test the new version?

Release Management

Change Management



That's right. Release Management should always test any new releases, including new application versions that are released to fix a specific problem.

Change Management will get involved once the release is accepted and scheduled for rollout. Configuration Management will help to determine any relationships that could be affected by the release, and Service Level Management will help to determine if any services will be affected by the new release.

Who should the Configuration Librarian contact when a new authorized version of an application that was developed in-house is needed for the Definitive Software Library (DSL)?

Change Management

Release Management

Configuration Manager


That's right. The Configuration Librarian should contact Release Management when a new authorized version of an application that was developed in-house if needed for the DSL. The DSL should contain authorized versions of all software that is used by your organization and license information for the software. The Configuration Librarian is responsible for maintaining the DSL.

In the past, your company has had problems with unauthorized applications being installed on computers and the introduction of viruses through these unauthorized applications.

Which ITIL process is responsible for preventing these problems?

Release Management

Change Management



That's right. Release Management is responsible for preventing the installation of unauthorized applications and for preventing the introduction of viruses through the unauthorized applications.

When the Release Management process is effectively deployed, it can provide many other benefits, including a greater release success rate, release process consistency, minimal service disruption when releases are deployed, a more stable environment, and so on.

Who is primarily responsible for recommending the content of releases?

Change Manager

Release Manager

Development Manager

Change Advisory Board (CAB)

That's right. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is primarily responsible for recommending the content of releases. Advice is given by Release Management.

The Change Manager is the chair of the CAB but is not solely responsible for recommending the content of releases. The Release Manager is responsible for a release once its content is decided. The Development Manager will manage the development of a release and can offer advice on content.

Which ITIL entity describes IT services that can be supplied, including service details and personnel responsible for ensuring levels are maintained?

Service Catalog




That's right. The Service Catalog describes IT services that can be supplied, including service details and personnel responsible for ensuring levels are maintained.

A SLA provides target performance levels for specific services at the broadest level, and an OLA is a supporting document for an SLA that is more specific by providing targets for each element in the process. The CMDB is used by Change Management to inventory all configuration items (CIs) in an organization's IT infrastructure. While the CMDB will list the services, it will not go into the same depth as the other entities.

What is NOT explained in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

Reliability details

Availability details

Performance details

Development details

That's right. Development details are NOT explained in an SLA.

An SLA includes several sections. The Service Hours section gives the details of the hours that the service is needed, includes information on requesting service extensions, and provides a service calendar. The Availability section provides targets within agreed hours as percentages. The Reliability section details the mean time between failure (MTBF) and mean time between system incidents (MTBSI) details. The Support section contains all support information relevant to the specific service, including support available hours. The Throughput section describes the traffic level and activity levels for performance measuring. The Transaction Response Times section gives the details on promised response times. The Batch Turnaround Times section gives details on input and output delivery times. The Change section gives Request for Change (RFC) guidelines regarding the service. The IT Service Continuity and Security section gives service continuity and security details.

Which entity is used in Service Level reports for the customer?

Returns on Investment (ROIs)

Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)

That's right. KPIs are used in Service Level reports for the customer. The report should include performance details, comparing the measurements against the SLA targets. The report should cover only the service provided, not any internal processes that affect the service, such as the Service Desk, Change Management, and so on.

ROIs describe the amount of return an organization will realize when it invests in a particular technology or service. It is not part of a Service Level report.

SLAs and OLAs provide the basis for the KPIs. They are only used in the Service Level report for a comparison basis.

What is determined when measuring customer satisfaction in the Service Level Management (SLM) process?

SLM value

SLM effectiveness

SLM performance

SLM expectations

That's right. SLM effectiveness is determined when measuring customer satisfaction in the SLM process. The effectiveness is more about customer perception than actual metrics, but metrics can affect a customer's perception.

SLM value and performance are determined using reporting and monitoring procedures that provide metrics in the form of a Service Level report. These metrics can affect customer satisfaction in a positive or negative way but are not the only things that affect SLM effectiveness. SLM expectations should be analyzed during the SLM planning process. It is necessary to understand expectations before designing the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and Operational Level Agreement (OLA).

Your organization out sources the development and delivery of its Web site to a third-party company. Recently, the Service Level report showed that the Web site was not handling customers as efficiently as promised in the Service Level Agreement (SLA), although the customer level falls within the projected levels in the SLA.

What is an example of a service adjustment?

Monitoring the service over a longer period of time

Implementing a Service Improvement Program (SIP)

Increasing resources until the Web site performs as promised in the SLA

Creating a new SLA that lowers the performance metrics required of the Web site

That's right. Increasing resources until the Web site performs as promised in the SLA is an example of a service adjustment. Service adjustments are completed at the service provider end to ensure that the service performs within the acceptable ranges, provided there is no underlying difficulty that is adversely affecting the service performance. If the service provider just fails to allocate enough resources, the service provider should be responsible for adjusting the service to the levels outlined in the SLA unless the metrics on which the levels were defined were false. For example, the service provider would not be responsible for adjusting the service if the performance problems were due to a higher number of customers than projected. This would require the implementation of an SIP.

If an underlying difficulty is adversely affecting the service performance, an SIP should be implemented. An SIP is implemented only when the underlying cause of the service level problem falls outside the realm of Service Level Management. For example, an SIP should be implemented if a service is not performing efficiently because of lack of user training.

According to the scenario, the service has already been monitored because a Service Level report has been produced.

Creating a new SLA that lowers the performance metrics required of the Web site is not a service adjustment. This is an SLA amendment or adjustment.

A network application is not performing as defined in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). Upon monitoring the service, the report determines that the main problem is the lack of user training.

What should be done?

Revise the SLA to lower the projected service level.

Increase resources until the application performs as projected in the SLA.

Implement a Service Improvement Program (SIP) that will focus on user training.

Implement an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) that will focus on user training.

That's right. You should implement an SIP that will focus on user training because an underlying problem is causing the performance issue.

You should not revise the SLA because the SLA objectives can be met with adequate user training.

Increasing the resources will probably not work. Even if more users can connect to the application and application throughput were increased, more than likely the underlying user training issue would still degrade performance.

An Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is a supporting document for an SLA that is more specific by providing targets for each element in the process. While an OLA may state that adequate user training must be given, it does not provide a plan for providing that user training.

Which step occurs during the managing of the on-going process activity of Service Level Management?

Planning

Monitoring

Negotiating

Implementing

That's right. Monitoring occurs during the managing of the on-going process activity of Service Level Management. Monitoring is the process of capturing the metrics of the particular service to guard the agreement with the customer. This step leads to reporting.

The planning step occurs during the planning the process activity of Service Level Management and the negotiating step occurs during the implementing Service Level Agreements (SLAs) activity. The implementing step occurs during the implementing the process activity.

Which document includes sections that cover service hours, availability, reliability, support, and throughput?





That's right. An SLA document includes sections that cover service hours, availability, reliability, support, and throughput. Other sections include transaction response time, batch turnaround time, change, IT Service continuity and security, charging, service reporting and reviewing, and performance incentives/penalties.

RFC is a document that simply requests a particular infrastructure change. It generally gives the configuration item (CI) information, the change requested, and other pertinent information. An OLA is a supporting document for an SLA that is more specific by providing targets for each element in the process. The CMDB is a tool that is used to track all CIs, including all incidents, problems, known errors, and RFCs that affect the items.

Which type of Service Level Agreement (SLA) covers all the customers of a service?

Multi-level SLA

Service-based SLA

Customer-based SLA

Company-based SLA

That's right. A service-based SLA covers all the customers of a service and should be used when the needs of all customers are the same.

A customer-based SLA should be used for an individual customer group when the needs of that group fall outside a normal service-based SLA. A multi-level SLA contains three parts: corporate level, customer level, and service level. This ensures that all needs of the service are met when the needs of the service vary greatly within an organization.

A company-based SLA is an invalid type.

Which process works closely with Availability Management to identify vital business operations and to assess the impact of the failure of these operations?

Problem Management

Capacity Management



That's right. IT Service Continuity Management works closely with Availability Management to identify vital business operations and to assess the impact of the failure of these operations. This includes devising various precautionary measures that are taken.

Problem Management identifies the cause of incidents and trends. Capacity Management ensures that adequate capacity is available at all times to meet business requirements. Service Level Management ensures that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) are met and that service quality remains high.

Which Availability Management term refers to the capability of a resource to be preserved in or returned to an operational state?

Reliability

Availability

Serviceability

Maintainability

That's right. Maintainability is an Availability Management term that refers to the capability of a resource to be preserved in or returned to an operational state.

Reliability is an Availability Management term that refers to a resource's freedom from operational malfunction. Availability is an Availability Management term that refers to the capability of a resource to complete its responsibilities at a specific instance or over a period of time. Serviceability is an Availability Management term that is actually determined by the availability, reliability, and maintainability of a resource and is based upon negotiated contracts for resources or services provided by a third party.

Other Availability Management terms include security, vital business function, user, and IT support organization. Security ensures that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data are protected. Vital business function is a term used for a function or resources that is considered to be a business critical entity. A user is a consumer of an IT service or resource. The IT support organization is all the IT functions necessary to ensure that the IT infrastructure can support the level of availability defined in the Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

Which ITIL process includes serviceability as it relates to third-party contracts?

Problem Management




That's right. Availability Management includes serviceability as it relates to third-party contracts. Serviceability is the level to which IT services or resources can be sustained by maintenance contracts.

None of the other processes are concerned with serviceability as it relates to third-party contracts.

Which type of downtime reflects the difference between what was projected and what actually occurred?

Actual downtime

Planned downtime

Extended downtime

Unscheduled downtime

That's right. Extended downtime reflects the difference between what was projected and what actually occurred. Availability Management requires a report that specifies the duration of interruptions to configuration items (CIs).

Actual downtime is the downtime that actually occurred. This can be higher or lower than the planned downtime.

Planned downtime is the downtime that was planned or projected.

Unscheduled downtime is downtime that occurs that is not predicted and, therefore, is not scheduled outside regular business hours or during times of low activity.

What is NOT an example fixing single point of failure (SPOF) issues?

Dual backbones for the network

A RAID-0 array installed in a server

A server farm for the public Web site

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) attached to a server

That's right. A RAID-0 array installed in a server is NOT an example of fixing SPOF issues. A RAID-0 array is disk striping occurring over several drives. This Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) example is for performance purposes only as it allows you to extend usable disk space to another physical hard drive. It provides no redundancy and will not fix a SPOF issue. Other RAID implementations, such as RAID 1 and RAID 5, are good examples of fixing

SPOF issues.

Implementing dual backbones for the network, a server farm for the public Web site, and an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) attached to a server are good examples of fixing SPOF issues.

Which Availability Management technique should be used to provide a planned method to identify service interruption causes?

Fault Tree Analysis

Systems Outage Analysis (SOA)

Technical Observation Post (TOP)

Component Failure Impact Assessment (CFIA)

That's right. The Systems Outage Analysis (SOA) technique should be used to provide a planned method to identify service interruption causes.

The Fault Tree Analysis technique determines the sequence of events that leads to a service interruption. A Technical Observation Post (TOP) is a group of technical staff personnel that holds meetings to focus on specific areas of Availability Management. The Component Failure Impact Assessment (CFIA) technique attempts to forecast and assess the impact of service failures.

Which Capacity Management activity is used to determine the hardware capacity required to support an application?

Trend analysis

Application sizing

Analytical modeling

Simulation modeling

That's right. The application sizing activity is used to determine the hardware capacity required to support an application.

Trend analysis, analytical modeling, and simulation modeling are three modeling techniques used in Capacity Management. Trend analysis generally provides estimates of future capacity needs. Analytical modeling uses arithmetic methods to represent the behavior of computer systems. The model is usually built using a software package. Simulation modeling requires more time and effort than analytical modeling. It actually involves event modeling.

Which ITIL process is responsible for influencing resource demand?

Capacity Management




That's right. Capacity Management is responsible for influencing resource demand. Its main concern is resource management.

Availability Management is responsible for ensuring that resources are available. Service Level Management ensures that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) are met and that service quality remains high. Configuration Management identifies associations between a configuration item (CI) that is to be altered and any other CIs that the alteration may affect.

Which ITIL process is responsible for tuning to ensure efficient utilization of resources?

Change Management

Capacity Management



That's right. Capacity Management is responsible for tuning to ensure efficient utilization of resources. Capacity Management also includes monitoring resource performance, forecasting future resource requirements, influencing resource demand, determining hardware requirements for application support, and producing a Capacity Plan.

Change Management is responsible for ensuring that all resource changes are standardized. Service Level Management ensures that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) are met and that service quality remains high. Configuration Management identifies associations between a configuration item (CI) that is to be altered and any other CIs that the alteration may affect.

Analysis has been completed that determines that an application upgrade will result in memory paging issues on the application server.

Which ITIL process should distribute this information to ensure that the available memory is increased?

Capacity Management




That's right. The Capacity Management process should distribute the information from the scenario to ensure that the available memory is increased.

Capacity Management is responsible for tuning to ensure efficient utilization of resources. Capacity Management also includes monitoring resource performance, forecasting future resource requirements, influencing resource demand, determining hardware requirements for application support, and producing a Capacity Plan.


Which ITIL process includes monitoring, tuning, and modeling to identify future performance issues?

Change Management

Capacity Management



That's right. Capacity Management includes monitoring, tuning, and modeling to identify future performance issues.

Change Management is responsible for ensuring that all resource changes are standardized. Availability Management is responsible for ensuring that resources are available. Service Level Management ensures that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) are met and that service quality remains high.

How often should a new Capacity Plan be published?

Monthly

Quarterly

Semi-annually

Annually

That's right. A new Capacity Plan should be published annually. The plan's timeframe should coincide with the organization's budgetary cycle.

Which ITIL process includes analyzing risks and documenting and testing back-out procedures?

Capacity Management




That's right. IT Service Continuity Management includes analyzing risks and documenting and testing back-out procedures. Its primary concern is ensuring that IT services can be recovered within agreed timelines.

Capacity Management is responsible for tuning to ensure efficient utilization of resources, monitoring resource performance, forecasting future resource requirements, influencing resource demand, determining hardware requirements for application support, and producing a Capacity Plan.

Availability Management is responsible for ensuring that resources are available.

Configuration Management identifies associations between a configuration item (CI) that is to be altered and any other CIs that the alteration may affect.

Due to a natural disaster, your facility will experience a power and telecommunications outage that is longer than the time mentioned in the corresponding Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

As the Continuity Manager, what should you do?

Implement the backup plan.

Implement the recovery plan.

Implement the IT Service Continuity Plans.

Implement the Operational Level Agreements (OLAs).

That's right. When an outage of any kind is expected to last longer than the maximum amount of time mentioned in the SLA, the Continuity Manager should implement the IT Service Continuity Plans for the respective services.

A backup and recovery plan is a documented procedure that defines how to backup and restore the data on a computer. An Operational Level Agreement (OLA) supports the SLA by providing more detail on the processes involved in achieving the SLA.

Which ITIL process includes creating a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Capacity Management




That's right. IT Service Continuity Management includes creating a BIA. It also includes performing risk assessment, developing a business continuity strategy, developing a backup/recovery strategy, testing the strategies, and so on.

Capacity Management is responsible for tuning to ensure efficient utilization of resources, monitoring resource performance, forecasting future resource requirements, influencing resource demand, determining hardware requirements for application support, and producing a Capacity Plan.

Availability Management is responsible for ensuring that resources are available.

Configuration Management identifies associations between a configuration item (CI) that is to be altered and any other CIs that the alteration may affect.

You need to identify which types of service disruptions will occur. What should be done?

Perform a risk assessment.

Take risk deduction measures.

Create a Business Impact Analysis (BIA).

Develop an IT Service Continuity Management plan.

That's right. You should perform a risk assessment to identify which types of service disruptions will occur. This is done as part of the IT Service Continuity Management process.

Generally, a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is created before a risk assessment. It identifies the key business process and the damage that can result from a loss of these processes.

Risk reduction measures can only be done after the risks are identified. An IT Service Continuity Management plan is developed after a risk assessment. Risks must be identified to ensure that you have adequate information to prepare the plan.

Which type of offsite facility is one in which the parties agree to come to each other's aid in the event of a disaster by providing an alternate facility?

Hot site

Warm site

Cold site

Reciprocal agreement

That's right. A reciprocal agreement is an offsite facility in which the parties agree to come to each other's aid in the event of a disaster by providing an alternate facility. This is usually the cheapest of the offsite choices but usually does not work well. Reciprocal agreements are hard to enforce even though they are based on contracts and agreements. Reciprocal agreements should not be used in situations where the business continuity period is low, meaning site recovery must occur quickly.

A hot site is the offsite facility that is the most expensive to implement. A hot site is a backup facility that is owned by another company and can be brought online relatively easily. The company needing the backup services pays a fee to the owner. The owner is responsible for management of the hot site. If a

disaster occurs at the primary site, the hot site is brought online quickly and easily. The other offsite facilities are not as expensive to implement as a hot site.

A warm site is a backup facility that is owned by another company and is partially configured, usually excluding the servers. If a disaster occurs at the primary site, the company needing the service would bring the hardware and software to the site for setup.

A cold site is a backup facility that is owned by another company and only includes a basic room rental, such as electricity, air conditioning, plumbing, and so on. If a disaster occurs at the primary site, the cold site would need to be configured completely, sometimes taking weeks to set up.

What is the most important consideration when choosing an alternate computing facility?

Cost

Location

Resources available

Amount of time facility needed

That's right. The location of the alternate computing facility is the most important consideration when choosing the facility. As a result, the alternate facility should be located a minimum of five miles away. Some recommendations state that an alternate facility should be up to 200 miles away depending on the criticality of the operations to minimize the impact of regional disasters.

None of the other factors matter if the facility is unavailable due to being affected by the same disaster.

The cost of the alternate facility is usually a major concern for companies. The cost will be weighed based on the critical nature of the data and the need for quick recovery. Keep in mind that disaster recovery is often incorrectly considered a discretionary expense by most companies. As a result, it may be necessary to validate the cost of an alternate facility to senior management.

The amount of time the facility is needed is a concern. Some sites are available for limited periods of time and would not be a good choice during a long term recovery period.

The resources available at the site would determine the amount of resources you would need to configure.

What are the three main areas of Financial Management of IT Services?

Services, customers, and billing

Budgeting, accounting, and charging

Services, processes, and customers

Accounts payable, accounts receivable, and personnel costs

That's right. The three main areas of Financial Management of IT Services are budgeting, accounting, and charging. Budgeting predicts the amount of money needed for a particular period and reduces overspending. Accounting provides a report of the money spent to provide IT services. Charging ensures that the customer is appropriately charged for provided services.

Which statement is NOT a concern of Financial Management of IT Services?

Allocating the costs of contracts

Setting up the cost allocation system

Billing customers for service provided

Allocating staff resources to budgeted personnel dollars

That's right. Financial Management of IT Services does NOT allocate staff resources to budgeted personnel dollars. This is left up to the respective manager of the area to which the staff resource belongs.

Financial Management of IT Services performs budgeting, accounting, and charging functions. This includes allocating the costs of contracts, setting up the cost allocation system, and billing customers for service provided. It does not concern itself to the micromanagement of the finances for the separate processes or departments.

Which type of costs can change based on usage or time?

Fixed costs

Direct costs

Indirect costs

Variable costs

That's right. Variable costs can change based on usage or time.

Fixed costs do not vary. Direct costs can clearly be allocated to a single customer. Indirect costs are usually acquired for everyone.

Which stage of the Deming Circle should you complete after the Plan stage?

Do

Act

Check

Measure

That's right. The Do stage of the Deming Circle should be completed after the Plan stage.

The Deming Circle was developed by W. Edwards Deming. The four stages in order are Plan, Do, Check, and Act.

During the Plan stage, the project plan is derived. During the Do stage, the project is actually implemented. During the Check stage, an audit of the project is completed. During the Act stage, new actions are compiled. Completing these stages appropriately ensures continuous quality control and consolidation.

What is the differentiating factor between a process and a project?

Cost

Lifespan

Resolution method

Communication method

That's right. The differentiating factor between a process and a project is the lifespan. A process is continuous with no ending. A project has a definite start and end date.

Which ITIL process ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data?

Security Management




That's right. Security Management ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.


An access control policy has been implemented for your organization. Which ITIL process is responsible for ensuring the access control policy is implemented?

Security Management




That's right. Security Management is responsible for ensuring the access control policy is implemented.


Which Security Management tenet is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of data?

Integrity

Reliability

Availability

Confidentiality

That's right. Integrity is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of data.

The Security Management tenet is also called the CIA triad. It stands for confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure of data. Availability ensures that data can be accessed when it is needed.

What are the four phases of quality improvement as promoted by Joseph Juran?

Plan, do, check, and act

Start-up, test, scale-up, and institutionalization

Assess, theorize, test, and implement

Create, process, examine, and strategize

That's right. The four phases of quality improvement as promoted by Joseph Juran are start-up, test, scale-up, and institutionalization.

The four steps of the Deming Circle are plan, do, check, and act. None of the other options are valid.

What is Six Sigma?

A set of international quality standards

A set of quality management absolutes

A process for quality improvement that includes four stages

A set of information for executing a common quantitative method for quality improvement

That's right. Six Sigma is a set of information for executing a common quantitative method for quality improvement.

International Standards Organization is responsible for setting international quality standards. The Crosby TQM approach gives a set of quality management absolutes. The Deming Circle is a process for quality improvement that includes four stages.

ITIL – V3Service Management

The ITIL series of books are considered to be a Best Practice framework.

True

False

That's right. ITIL is considered to be an industry Best Practice framework, alongside other best practices such as CobiT and ISO 27002.

Which of the following is NOT a service?

Something the customer desires

The service produced must be different

The service does not need to conform to customer desire

May be customer-facing or resource-facing

That's right. The service must be usable and must meet customer desires.

Which of the following does IT Service Management NOT aim at?

Aligning IT services of the business, customers and users

Improving the quality of the IT services delivered

Reducing the long term cost of providing IT services

Increasing the cost of management and support

That's right. The main method to realize this is to develop, maintain, and manage the correct processes to improve the quality of IT services and to reduce cost of management and support.

The Service desk is a function rather than a process.

True

False

That's right. The Service desk is a function. It may need to perform several processes before it has the desired output a customer is looking for.

Which one of the following is considered a process input?

The process owner first organizes a process around a set of objectives.

The process should include process measurements such as metrics, reports, and process improvements.

Feedback is important to add quality measures to the output.

The input is reviewed to ensure that it meets the objectives and feedback is provided to increase the inputs effectiveness.

That's right. The process owner first organizes a process around a set of objectives. The objectives should be measurable and should be aligned with business strategy and goals. Choices B, C, and D refer to the process output and not to process input.

Which of the following process characteristics does NOT describe a process definition (such as an action, dependency or sequence)?

Measurable

Deliver a specific result

Respond to a specific event

Deliver primary results to a customer

Deliver cost justifications

That's right. Process definitions are measurable, deliver a specific result, respond to a specific event, and deliver primary results to a customer or stakeholder. Process definitions do not deliver cost justifications.

Service Lifecycle

Choose five. Identify the core publications of the ITIL Library.

Service Strategy

Service Design

Service Implementation

Service Transition

Service Operation

Continual Service Improvement

That's right. The ITIL core consists of five publications. Service Implementation is not part of the ITIL Core.

After the business requirements are documented, what Service Lifecycle stage receives the Service Level Package?

Service Strategy

Service Design

Service Transition

Service Operation


That's right. The completed Service Level Package is passed to the Service Design stage. The output of that stage is the Service Design Package, which details the solution the customer is requesting and ensures that the solution meets all requirements throughout the lifecycle.

What Service Lifecycle stage evaluates, tests, and validates a Service Design Package?

Service Strategy

Service Design

Service Transition

Service Operation


That's right. The Service Design Package passes through the Service Transition stage for evaluation, testing and validation.

Choose five. Identify the benefits an organization will experience if it adopts ITIL.

Reduced costs

Standards and guidance

Improved use of skills and experience

Improved customer metrics on reporting

Improved productivity

Improved IT services through the use of proven best practice processes

That's right. Adopting ITIL can provide other benefits as well, including the use of compensating controls from other best practices to improve IT service delivery, improved customer awareness and satisfaction through a more recognized framework and standards for service delivery, and improved internal productivity due to streamlining processes and activities via automated tools and metrics.

Which of the following is NOT a Service Support process?

Incident Management

Problem Management

Change Management

Service Desk Management

Release Management


That's right. Service Desk is a function, and not a process in Service Support. The Service Desk's objective is to identify a single point of contact in the organization for customers and business partners to notify for service delivery support.

What Service Support process has the goal of protecting the live environment?

Incident Management

Problem Management

Change Management


Release Management


That's right. The goal of Release Management is to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the production environment.

What Service Delivery process deals with managing IT recovery services in the event of a catastrophic failure?

Incident Management

Problem Management



Release Management


That's right. IT Service Continuity Management describes the process by which an IT organization manages continuity of operations through a combination of comprehensive assessment of business critical operations and threats and a robust strategy of vigilance and monitoring.

Service Strategy doesn't prioritize services or have an impact on decisions about funding services that are working.

True

False

That's right. Service Strategy does prioritize services, and it makes decisions on funding services that are working. Service Strategy directs the organization to make rationale decisions based on competitive analysis competitors.

Service Strategy ensures that services are aligned with current state and future state requirements to meet the organization's business strategy.

True

False

That's right. Service Design, not Service Strategy, ensures that services are aligned with current state and future state requirements to meet the organization's business strategy.

Choose four. What business values are part of Service Design?

Service Catalog

Capacity Management

Service Portfolio



That's right. Service Portfolio is not a business value of Service Design.

The success of Service Transition is the acceptance of the change and the smooth transition of the change to the customer, while providing Continual Service Improvement.

True

False

That's right. The success of Service Transition is the acceptance of the change and the smooth transition of the change into the Service Operation production environment. Also monitoring the change in the production environment to measure its effectiveness and efficiency and providing Continual Service Improvement.

Which of the following is NOT a business value of Service Transition?

Confidence that staff have bought into the change, resulting in higher productivity

Having the competitive edge to quickly make a change

Ensuring all requests are logged and tracked, including approval authority to fulfill the request

Cancellations or changes to maintenance contracts are performed in a more timely fashion

That's right. Ensuring that all requests are logged and tracked, including approval authority to fulfill the request, is a business value of Service Operation.

Choose four. To ensure integration with the rest of the ITIL lifecycle, what should Service Operation service support and service delivery control points include?

Application Management

Change Management

Operations Management

Scalable Practices


That's right. Continual Service Improvement is not a service support or service delivery control point within Service Operation.

Which is NOT considered a key process or activity of Service Operation?

Event Management processes identifying anomalies

Maintaining an Incident Tracking Management System

Maintaining a threat matrix

Ensuring that all requests are logged accordingly

Ensuring that access rights are assigned appropriately

Investigating problems

That's right. Maintaining a threat matrix is not a key process or activity.

How would you characterize Continual Service Improvement as an ongoing organizational practice?

Proactive

Reactive

Point-in-time

Quick-fix

That's right. An IT organization needs to be proactive during their process activities as opposed to a reactive response to a short or long term crisis. ITIL provides guidance to an organization on how to incorporate ten process areas into their operations to deliver consistently and provide repeatable process activities as part of their service, and to strive to identify and implement continual improvements for quality assurance.

What commonly used Continual Service Improvement component does NOT measure value from changes of Service?

Improvements

Benefits

Return on Investments (ROI)

Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Value of Investments (VOI)

That's right. Annualized Loss Expectancy is a risk management assessment used to calculate annual risk expectancy. It is not a measurement of value for Continual Service Improvement.

Generic Concepts

Choose three. What is the impact if assets are not available to an IT organization?

Margins

Policy

Revenue

Customer satisfaction

That's right. If assets are not available to the IT organization, it could have a direct impact on the IT organization's revenue, margins, and customer satisfaction.

Which of the following is considered a Capability and NOT a Resource?

In which of the following resources not used for information.

Databases

Network infrastructure

Software applications

Finances available for purchasing

Knowledge of staff

That's right. Capabilities consist of the knowledge that senior leadership brings to the organization, the processes such as Capacity Management and Release Management, and the knowledge of the staff and all the expertise they have from individual training, on the job training and prior work experience.

Resources are the data information that resides in the databases or mainframe computers, software applications, network infrastructure, and the finances available for purchasing.

Which of the following is NOT considered resource-facing?

Internal Email

Analysis and design

Database backups

Server monitoring

That's right. An example of "customer-facing" is email and collaboration. Technical services -- often termed "resource-facing" -- are services the IT organization uses in delivery of business services. These would be services that the IT organization's business users and constituents would not necessarily know or care about, but which are vital to the IT organization's ability to deliver business services. Analysis and design, database backups, and server monitoring are examples of technical services.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of an Application Portfolio?

Visibility

Architecture

Governance

Mapping applications to data interdependencies / Database Crosswalk

Mapping applications to regulatory interdependencies / Regulatory Crosswalk

That's right. Mapping applications to regulatory interdependencies is not part of Application Portfolio Management.

Which of these should a business case contain?

Proposal's purpose

Return on Investment

How it supports other business units

Risk mitigation strategy

Backup strategy

That's right. A business case should, at a minimum, describe a proposal's purpose, identify expected benefits, and explain how the proposed system supports one of the organization's business strategies. The business case should also identify alternative solutions and detail as many informational, functional, and network requirements as possible.

What is another name for an IT organization that offers services to internal customers and external customers?

Service Solution Provider

Computer Security Incident response Team

Service Provider

Help Desk Support

Service Delivery Unit

Service Capabilities and Service Resource Provider

That's right. An IT organization is considered to be a service provider if it offers any type of service to a external customer or if it offers services internally to another business unit within the organization.

Choose five. Which processes should managing contracts include?

Storage of all contracts in a centralized database

Supplier performance of services

Service Implementation

Review of the contract for amendments, termination or renewal

Supplier management of services


That's right. It is important that contracts are managed properly for continued service and business recovery if needed.

Which of the following is NOT considered an Operational Level Agreement?

Legal Assistance

Facility maintenance

Third-party Service Level Agreement

Security

Mail delivery

That's right. An Operational Level Agreement is a contract that is developed internally for services of support to the IT organization to help them provide the necessary resources or activities to meet customer delivery and expectations outlined in the Service Level Agreement. Examples of this would be legal aide from the legal department, security protection after hours, mailroom delivery, and facility maintenance.

Choose five. Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting a new supplier?

Track record of the supplier

Size of the Supplier

Reputation

Past financial history

Security breaches

Business Continuity

That's right. The choices include many of the best practices for selecting a new supplier.

Choose five. Which of the following criteria does the Service Design Package contain?

Regression testing of the service

Usability of the service by the customer

Security protecting the integrity of the service

Utilities identifying the services to be delivered internally

Business functionality of the service

Availability of the service to the customer

That's right. The Service Design Package is developed in alignment with the organization's service strategy and policies regarding service delivery.

Choose four. To ensure that availability target dates are met, which of the following should an IT organization incorporate into the Service Design of a solution before it is moved into the production environment?

Monitoring controls

Metrics

Event Management notification and analysis

Incident response and problem resolution

Training

That's right. Reactive activities are typically performed as a measurement after the fact to check that service delivery targets are being met.

Which of the following is NOT contained in the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)?

Assets

Vendor information

Known errors

Problem resolutions

Problem initiator

Partner information

That's right. One of the most valuable resources available to a user is the SKMS, but the problem initiator is not contained in the SKMS.

Which one of the following is NOT a configuration assurance?

Additions

Testing

Deletions

Changes

That's right. Testing is not an assurance. Configuration management provides assurance that additions, deletions, or changes made to the system do not compromise the trust of the originally evaluated system to deliver services internally or externally to the customer as outlined in a Service Level Agreement.

Choose two. Which of the following are NOT included in the Definitive Media Library?

Vendor

License key

License expiration date

IT owner

Patches

Audit findings

That's right. Configuration Items are what actually is checked into and stored in the Definitive Media Library relating to its category, vendor, license key, IT owner, date entered, approved usage, software, release packages, patches, system images, physical location, naming conventions, environment supported, security controls, capacity planning and audit procedures.

Known Error Control is responsible for resolving Incidents or providing Workarounds or alternatives.

True

False

That's right. Known Error Control has responsibility for permanently resolving errors in the IT infrastructure. Known Error Control does not have responsibility for resolving Incidents or providing Workarounds or alternatives.

Key Principles & Models

Choose two. What assets are needed by an organization to create valuable products and services?

Resources

Products

Services

Capabilities

People

That's right. Resources and capabilities are considered types of assets within an organization. The organization needs the combination of both to create value in the form of products and services. The organization will not be able to create value if it uses capabilities only without resources and vice versa.

The market does NOT play an important role in the perception of the customer.

True

False

That's right. If services are being delivered as the customer desires, then their position in the market may give them a better image than their competitors as being the front runner in that particular industry or market.

Choose four. What are the four P's of Service Management?

People

Processes

Products

Policies

Partners

Procedures

That's right. People, processes, products, and partners are a very important to an IT organization delivering Service Management. Without the four P's together, or if even one of them is missing, an IT organization will not be able to provide a service to a customer.

Which of the following is NOT included in the Service Portfolio?

Service Knowledge Management Service

Service Design

Service Portfolio

Service Pipeline

Service Catalog

Retired Services

That's right. Service Design is important for ITIL, but it's not part of the Service Portfolio.

The Service Catalog is one of the most important management systems used by an organization to manage all ten processes.

True

False

That's right. It's the Service Portfolio that's used to manage the ten processes.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a delivery strategy for service delivery?

Insourcing

Outsourcing

Co-sourcing

Application Service Provision

Application Service Activity

That's right. There are seven delivery strategies an organization may use in service delivery: Insourcing, Outsourcing, Co-sourcing, Partnership or Multi-sourcing, Business Process Outsourcing, Application Service Provision, and Knowledge Process Outsourcing.

What does the Service V-model represent?

A strategy plan for detail testing through the Service Design stag

Five levels of configuration for build and testing

Service validation testing requirements

Service validation testing criteria and plans

A strategy plan for detailed testing through the Service Strategy stage

Four-levels of testing for build and configuration

That's right. The V-model depicts five levels of configuration for build and testing in the Service Transition stage of the lifecycle.

Choose three. To ensure a balance between stability and responsiveness in Service Operation, what actions may an IT organization need to perform, at a minimum?

Ensure that purchased resource technologies are flexible enough to stay competitive in the market and adjust to clients needs.

Ensure that Service Level Management is properly sustained to avoid any conflicts between business and IT managers.

Provide continual service improvement to a design by submitting input as the design goes through its lifecycle.

Ensure that changes are incorporated into a design accordingly, and mapped to include all interfaces.

That's right. In addition to these actions, an IT organization needs to ensure that the Service Level Management is initiated in the beginning of the design phase and is managed all the way throughout the lifecycle into the production environment

Choose two. Identify the Plan, Do, Check, Act stages which seem to be most important to an organization for Continual Service Improvement.

Plan

Do

Check

Act

That's right. When the design has moved into the production environment, all four stages will have been implemented with the Continual Service Improvement. The focus will be on the Check and Act stages, where the IT organization will have implemented processes to monitor, measure, review, and implement actions.

Choose four. Identify the reasons to monitor and measure business value.

To Validate

To Measure

To Direct

To Justify

To Mitigate

To Intervene

That's right. ITIL points out the following four reasons to monitor and measure the value to business: to validate, direct, justify, and intervene.

Selected Process

Choose three. What phases are the Service Portfolio broken into?

Service Catalog

Service Application

Service Pipeline

Retired Service Level Agreements

Retired Services

That's right. The Service Portfolio can be broken down into three distinct phases.

Choose four. What Service Portfolio Management Methods depict the Service Portfolio process flow?

Define

Analyze

Mitigate

Approve

Charter

That's right. The Define, Analyze, Approve, and Charter Service Portfolio Management Methods depict the Service Portfolio process flow.

Choose four. Key Performance Indicators are a central component of a measurable organizational objective. What items are needed to manage the quality of service provided?

Benchmark

Direction

Target

Baseline

Time frame

That's right. A Baseline isn't required for this.

Service Portfolio Management includes verification of all service information currently being offered in the production environment to ensure that it is current and accurate.

True

False

That's right. It's Service Catalog Management which includes verification of all service information.

Which of these is NOT a Change Management step?

Initiating and recording changes

Determining the architectural impact

Estimating the effect of the change

Reviewing the Customer Satisfaction Survey

Obtaining approval

Estimating the cost of the change

That's right. Change Management doesn't typically include reviews of customer surveys.

Choose five. Configuration Management oversees the IT environment by tracking all versions of which of the following?

Hardware

Software

Resources

Documentation

Processes

Procedures

That's right. Configuration Management identifies, controls, and tracks all versions of hardware, software, documentation, processes, procedures, and all other inanimate components of the IT organization.

Which is NOT considered an ITIL Incident Management step?

Incident Identification

Incident Logging

Incident Categorization

Incident Prioritization

Incident Problem Analysis

That's right. The methodology for Incident Management could be different in different organizations, as there are many elements to choose from, but Incident Problem Analysis isn't generally a part of it.

Choose two. Under ITIL, how can events be categorized?

Regular Service Level Agreement events

Regular Operation events

Events that signify a deviation

Events that signify an exception

Regular occurring events

That's right. Regular operation events are events such as the notification that a scheduled workload has been completed, a new user has successfully logged in for the first time to an application, or a recipient has received and viewed an email that was sent to them. Events may also signify an exception, such as when a user tries to log onto an application three times and is locked out, a resource's capacity requirements have met or have exceeded some threshold, or notification arrives that unauthorized software has been added to a personal computer or laptop.

Selected Functions

Which of the following is NOT a structure an organization can choose for their Service Desk?

Local Service Desk

Virtual Service Desk

Best Practice Service Desk

Follow the Sun

Specialized Service Desk groups

Centralized Service Desk

The correct answer is C. The Service Desk can be structured differently in many organizations; most choose to centralize it for maximize efficiency and effectiveness. But there is no "Best Practice Service Desk" structure.

Choose three. What types of positions are found in the Technical Support Group?

Help Desk Technician

Help Desk Analyst

Help Desk Manager

User Management Specialist

The correct answers are A, C, and D. Within most corporate IT environments there is a department called Operations and Support, which contains a centralized Technical Support Group responsible for operating the Service Desk.

Choose three. Which objectives does training allow the Application Management staff to meet?

Provide resources and knowledge to strategically design and build cost effective software applications

Transition new or modified software applications into the production environment

Implement regulatory compliance requirements

Perform problem resolution pertaining to software application failures

The correct answers are A, B, and D. Training also allows staff to implement security software controls within ITIL and best practices, provide Continual Service Improvement for IT services and resources, assist management in developing policies and procedures, and ensure that the software applications operate within the specifications and business objectives outlined in the Service Level Agreement.

Choose two. What types of positions are found in the Requirement Management Group?

Requirements Manager

Requirements Analyst

Security Analyst

Business Systems Analyst

The correct answers are A and D. Within Application Management, the Requirements Management Group is responsible for eliciting, coordinating, documenting, and controlling functional and performance requirements for all business applications that are either developed or maintained in-house or contracted for with specified vendors.

Choose three. What tasks may the Operations staff perform on a daily basis?

Print jobs

Maintenance activities

Restore capabilities

Manage the Computer Security Incident Response Team

Service Transition

Manage the Business Continuity Team

The correct answers are A, B, and C. The Operations staff performs daily tasks to provide for control over the infrastructure.

Choose three. What types of positions are found in the Hardware Support Group?

Hardware Support Technician

Network Administrator

Security Analyst

Network Engineer/Specialist

The correct answers are A, B, and D. Within Operations and Support, the Hardware Support Group is responsible for providing hardware support to meet the desktop and network needs of the customers, network administration and backup, Active Directory/Exchange/SharePoint support, and providing level 3 help desk support, OS/COTS integration testing, and patch management.

The principal function of Technical Management is to deliver the most efficient and useful applications in a manner that will be valuable to the customers throughout their lifecycle.

True

False

The statement is false. This definition describes the Application Management Group. The main function of the Technical Management department is to ensure the maximum efficiency of the IT organizational structure and the optimum utilization and safeguarding of information for the organization.

Choose three. What types of positions are found in the Database Management Group?

Database Analyst

Database Administrator

Database Manager

Database Specialist

The correct answers are A, B, and C. Within Technical Management, the Database Management Group is responsible for managing the data needs of the enterprise.

Choose three. What types of positions are found in the Database Management Group?

Database Analyst

Database Administrator

Database Manager

Database Specialist

That's correct.

Selected Roles

Choose five. Which of the following are Process Owner responsibilities?

Implement metrics using Key Performance Indicators

Review process strategy documentation and update with any applicable changes

Ensure enforcement of management reviews of services delivered

Ensure enforcement of policies and procedures

Review Key Performance Indicators and identify mitigation steps

Identify continual service improvement capabilities for the process design

The correct answers are A, B, D, E, and F. The Process Owner isn't responsible for ensuring the enforcement of management reviews.

For each of the ITIL functions, a specific individual should be designated as the formal Process Owner. That person should be evaluated on the success of the function's improvement according to target.

True

False

That's right. The statement applies to ITIL processes, not to ITIL functions.

Choose four. Which of the following are Service Owner responsibilities?

Be involved with major Problem Management and Incident Management issues

Ensure that ongoing support to the customer meets requirements outlined in the Service Level Agreement

Coordinate with the Continual Service Improvement Manager in identifying and prioritizing to improve services

Participate in all external service process review meetings and report back to the IT organization

Ensure that business continuity recovery procedures are updated

The correct answers are A, B, C, and D. Ensuring that business continuity recovery procedures are updated is not the responsibility of the Service Owner.

The Service Owner is the liaison between the IT organization and the customer.

True

False

That's right. The Service Owner acts as a liaison between the IT organization and the customer to ensure that a service is started, to ensure that there's ongoing maintenance support, and to ensure a smooth transition of the service from the IT organization to the customer.

What does the acronym RACI stand for?

Responsible, Available, Completed, Informed

Responsible, Auditable, Consulted, Informed

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

Reported, Achievable, Consulted, Informed

That's right. A RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed) chart is one of the common matrixes used in ITIL to define what must be delegated, and to whom.

When staff are performing ordinary functional duties, who is their reporting manager?

Immediate supervisor

Functional manager

Service Owner

Process Owner

The correct answer is B. In the RACI model, there's only one person assigned accountability for a given activity, although many personnel across the organization perform a role in the activities surrounding an incident. A person performing ordinary functional duties will report to their functional manager.

Technology & ArchitectureChoose two. How is Service Transition supported by technology?

Tools targeting specific systems that Service Transition supports completely or in part

Tools targeting specific systems for performance monitoring

Enterprise-wide tools supporting the large systems and processes within which Service Transition delivers support

Enterprise-wide tools supporting all systems and processes within which Service Operation delivers support

The correct answers are A and C. There are two ways Service Transition is supported by technology: by enterprise-wide tools that support the large systems and processes within which Service Transition delivers support, and through tools which target specific systems Service transition supports completely or in part.

When preparing for the automation of a service, a risk assessment does not need to be conducted to identify the impact to the organization because it is known that there is minimal risk.

True

False

That's right. A risk assessment should be conducted to identify the impact to the organization. The risk assessment will identify the strengths and weaknesses of the automated tool and allows the organization to put the necessary controls in place to mitigate the identified risks.

ITIL Qualification Scheme

Which of the following is NOT an ITIL certificate an individual can achieve?

ITIL Foundation

ITIL Practitioner

ITIL Manager (or ITIL Expert)

ITIL Specialist

The correct answer is D. ITIL delivers a formal training, examination and certification scheme for an individual. There are three levels of certification available: Foundation Certificate, Practitioner Certificate, and Manager (or Expert) Certificate.

Which is NOT a benefit to an organization implementing ITIL?

An organization can rely on well defined, Best Practice standards, guidance and tested processes.

ITIL helps organizations manage administrative tasks and technical tasks more effectively.

It drives more sales and increases profit.

It streamlines and reduces costs in an organization.

The correct answer is C. In addition to these benefits, with ITIL an organization will improve metrics and reporting kept on customers, increase internal productivity by streamlining processes and activities with automated tools, such as templates and checklists, and internal process metrics. Also, customer awareness and satisfaction will increase because ITIL is a recognized and acclaimed framework for Service Delivery that results in continual improvement of process efficiencies.

Which is NOT considered an intermediate exam for the ITIL Practitioner's Certificate?

Agree and Define

Release and Control

Service and Design

Support and Restore

The correct answer is C. In order to obtain an ITIL Practitioner's Certificate, the candidate must pass a Foundation ITIL exam followed by at least one of the following three intermediate exams: "Release and Control," "Support and Restore," and "Agree and Define."

Choose two. Identify the two organizations that can accredit course providers.

Examination Institute for Information Science

Office for Government Commerce Examination Board

Information Technology Infrastructure Library Examination Board

Information Systems Examination Board

The correct answers are A and D. Only accredited course providers approved by the Examination Institute for Information Science (EXIN) or the Information Systems Examination Board (ISEB) may give certificates. Any certification from a non-accredited trainer would be purposeless.

A prerequisite for taking the ITIL Manager (or ITIL Expert) exam is that the candidate must already have passed the ITIL Practitioner's Certificate exam.

True

False

The statement is false. The Foundation, but not the Practitioner's Certificate, is a prerequisite for the ITIL Manager's (or Expert's) Certificate exam.

Practice Exam

Which public frameworks can be used as a source of 'good practice' for a service provider? (Choose all that apply.)

CMMI

COBIT

ITIL

ISO 9000

The correct answers are A, B and C. Public frameworks that can be used as a source of 'good practice' are Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT) and Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL). Good practice for a service provider refers to a way of doing things effectively. Sources of good practice are public frameworks, standards, and proprietary knowledge of individuals and organizations.

The standards such as International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 20000 and ISO 9000 can be used as a source for good practice.

ISO 9000 is a standard and not a public framework.

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT about 'good practice'?

1. Sources of 'good practice' include standards.

2. Sources of 'good practice' include public frameworks.

3. Sources of 'good practice' include proprietary knowledge of individuals and organizations.

1 only

2 only

3 only

All of the above

That's right. Sources of good practice are public frameworks standards and proprietary knowledge of individuals and organizations. The public frameworks, such as Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI), Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT), and Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL), can be used as sources for good practice for a service provider. The standards such as International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission

(ISO/IEC) 20000 and ISO 9000, can be used as sources for good practice.

Good practice for a service provider refers to a way of doing things effectively. It is in wide industry use, although it is not adopted by all organizations.

What is the output of IT Service Management?

Public frameworks

Services that provide value to customers

Standards for a service provider

Resources and capabilities representing service provider assets

That's right. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG) "IT service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services." Services that provide value to customers are an output of IT Service Management. IT Service Management allows an organization to understand what their customers want, what services the organization should provide, and what the risks and costs associated with providing the services are.

Inputs to IT Service Management are resources and capabilities representing service provider assets.

Effective IT Service Management can be implemented by using 'good practice.' Good practice refers to a way of doing things effectively. Sources of good practice are public frameworks, standards, and proprietary knowledge of individuals and organizations.

Which set of functions, processes, methods, roles, and activities of a service provider provide value to the customer?

Service management

Good practice

Customer relationship management

Infrastructure management

That's right. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), "IT service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services." To provide value to customers these specialized organizational capabilities include the following components of a service provider: functions, processes, methods, roles, and activities.

Good practice refers to a way of doing things effectively.

Customer relationship management is management of customers' records and relationships using technology.

Infrastructure management is management of organizational infrastructure assets including hardware, software, data, and resources.

Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT for ALL processes?

1. They are measurable.

2. They are performance driven.

3. They have specific results.

4. They are traceable to a specific trigger only.

1, 2, and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

4 only

The correct answer is D. The incorrect statement regarding ALL processes is that they are traceable to a specific trigger only. Processes respond to either a specific event or trigger.

Processes provide resolution toward a goal; they are both measurable and performance driven. The measurable components of a process include cost, quality, duration, and productivity. Processes have specific results. Finally, processes deliver value to the customer.

Which lifecycle entity uses feedback for self-reinforcing and self-corrective action?

A function

A process

A role

A service

That's right. A process is a self-contained unit of an organization that uses feedback for self-reinforcing and self-correction action. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), a process is "a set of coordinated activities

combining and implementing resources and capabilities in order to produce an outcome, which, directly or indirectly, creates value for an external customer or stakeholder." Processes provide resolution towards a goal. Processes are measurable and performance-driven. The measurable components of a process include cost, quality, duration, and productivity. Processes have specific results, and deliver value to the customer.

According to OCG, a function is "a unit of an organization specialized to perform certain types of work and responsible for specific outcomes." Each function has its own body of knowledge.

According to OCG, a role is "a set of responsibilities, activities, and authorities granted to a person or team." A role is defined by a process.

According to OCG, a service is "a means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks."

Which of the following statements about processes are CORRECT?

1. A process achieves business goals.

2. A process may define policies, standards, and guidelines.

3. A process must conform to operational norms.

4. A process is the same as a function.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2, and 3 only

That's right. A process achieves business goals. A process may define policies, standards, and guidelines. A process must conform to operational norms.

A process is a self-contained unit of an organization which uses feedback for self-reinforcing and self-correction action. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), a process may be defined as "a set of coordinated activities combining and implementing resources and capabilities in order to produce an outcome, which, directly or indirectly, creates value for an external customer or stakeholder." Processes provide resolution towards a goal. Processes are measurable and performance-driven. The measurable components of a process include cost, quality, duration, and productivity. Processes have specific results. They deliver value to the customer.

A process is NOT the same as a function. According to OCG, a function is "a unit of an organization specialized to perform certain types of work and responsible for specific outcomes." Each function has its own body of knowledge.

Which type of model is used to improve cross-functional organization and control?

Process model

Function model

Service model

Lifecycle model

That's right. A process model is used to avoid the problem with functional hierarchies by improving cross-functional organization and control. Functional hierarchies often have trouble when processes need to pass between different levels or groups within the hierarchy. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), a process is "a set of coordinated activities combining and implementing resources and capabilities in order to produce an outcome, which, directly or indirectly, creates value for an external customer or stakeholder." Processes provide resolution towards a goal, and are both measurable and performance driven. The measurable components of a process include cost, quality, duration, and productivity. Processes have specific results, and deliver value to the customer.

In ITIL, a function model is not used. According to OCG, a function is "a unit of an organization specialized to perform certain types of work and responsible for specific outcomes." Each function has its own body of knowledge.

According to OCG, a service model is a "blueprint for service management processes and functions to communicate and collaborate on value creation." Service models define how services and customers interact; they are not, however, used to improve cross-functional organization and control.

ITIL does not use a lifecycle model. It uses a lifecycle approach. A lifecyle approach allows a process to transition between the different elements and levels at any time. At the core of the ITIL Service Lifecycle is the Service Strategy. The Service Design, Service Transition, and Service Operation elements of the approach operate in the middle tier and revolve around the Service Strategy. Finally, Continual Service Improvement occurs throughout the Service Lifecycle.

Which of the following statements are CORRECT about a process?

1. It delivers results to internal or external customers or stakeholders.

2. It is driven by performance.

3. It is executed by a single function.

4. It responds to a specific trigger.

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 2, and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 4 only

That's right. A process delivers results to internal or external customers or stakeholders. A process is performance-driven, which ensures that it is measurable. A process responds to a specific trigger or event.

A process is NOT executed by a single function. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), processes that are well-defined "can improve productivity within and across functions."

Which of the following statements about a process is INCORRECT?

A process responds to a specific trigger.

A process is an open-loop system.

A process is performance-driven.

A process delivers value to customers or stakeholders.

That's right. A process is NOT an open-loop system. It is a closed-loop system. Processes provide resolution towards a goal and have specific results.

Processes respond to a specific trigger.

Processes are measurable and performance-driven. Measurable components of a process include components such as cost, quality, duration, and productivity.

Processes deliver value to the customer.

On which components do the Service Lifecycle stages rely to execute each element of the lifecycle?

Processes

Functions

Roles

Services

The correct answer is A. The Service Lifecycle stages rely on processes to execute each element of the lifecycle in a reliable, measurable, repeatable way. The core of Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) concepts is the Service Lifecycle structure, which consists of five components in a hub-and-spoke design. Within it, Service Design, Service Transition, and Service

Operation, revolve around the hub of the lifecycle, the Service Strategy. The Continual Service Improvement component surrounds and anchors the other components. Every part of the lifecycle influences and relies on the other components.

According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), a function is "a unit of an organization specialized to perform certain types of work and responsible for specific outcomes." Each function has its own body of knowledge.

According to OCG, a role is "a set of responsibilities, activities, and authorities granted to a person or team." A role is defined by a process.

According to OCG, a service is "a means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks."

Which is a primary concern of the Service Strategy stage of the Service Lifecycle?

Establishing objectives and expectations

Adapting objectives into services and service assets

Transitioning services into operations

Providing guidance on achieving efficiency in services

Providing improvement to existing services

The correct answer is A. The Service Strategy stage of the Service Lifecycle establishes objectives and expectations. It also prioritizes the objectives and sets policies.

The Service Design stage of the Service Lifecycle adapts objectives into services and service assets.

The Service Transition stage of the Service Lifecycle transitions services into operations.

The Service Operation stage of the Service Lifecycle provides guidance on achieving efficiency in services.

The Continual Service Improvement component of the Service Lifecycle provides improvement to existing services.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

1. Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle provides value.

2. Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle is independent.

3. Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle provides feedback.

4. Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle requires coordination.

1

2

3

4

The correct answer is B. Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle is NOT independent. Each stage influences the other stages and relies on the other stages to provide feedback.

Each stage of the Service Management Lifecycle provides value and feedback and requires coordination. Feedback can impact the stage from which it is obtained or other stages in the lifecycle. Coordination needs to occur between the stages to ensure that the Service Lifecycle is managed and implemented in the most efficient manner.

Which ITIL stage is considered the hub of the ITIL Service Management Lifecycle?

Service Design

Service Strategy

Service Transition

Service Operation

The correct answer is B. Service Strategy is the hub of the ITIL Service Management Lifecycle.

The ITIL Service Management Lifecycle includes the following five stages (or core publications):Service StrategyService DesignService TransitionService OperationContinual Service Improvement.

What is the primary purpose of the Service Strategy stage of the Service Management Lifecycle?

Plan and coordinate resources.

Design a new or changed service.

Provide guidance for the service.

Deliver services at agreed levels.

The correct answer is C. The Service Strategy stage of the Service Management Lifecycle provides guidance for the service.

The Service Transition stage of the Service Management Lifecycle plans and coordinates resources.

The Service Design stage of the Service Management Lifecycle designs a new or changed service.

The Service Operation stage of the Service Management Lifecycle delivers services at agreed levels.

Which of the following is NOT an activity of Service Design?

Processes, roles, and capabilities

New or changed service solutions

Measurement methods and metrics

All services, utilities, and warranties

Technology architectures and management systems

Service Management systems and tools

That's right. Understanding all services, utilities, and warranties is NOT an aspect of Service Design. It is a key principle of Service Transition. The Service Transition stage delivers services required by the business into operational use. It is used to produce and maintain all Service Transition packages.

The Service Design stage is an important element of the business change process of the Service Lifecycle. Service Design has the following five activities:The design of processes, roles, and capabilitiesThe design of new or changed service solutionsThe design of measurement methods and metricsThe design of technology architectures and management systemsThe design of Service Management systems and tools, such as the Service Portfolio.

Which is an outcome of the Service Design stage that is used in the Service Transition stage?

Service Catalog

Service Portfolio

Service Design Package (SDP)

Supplier and Contract Database (SCD)

The correct answer is C. The Service Design Package (SDP) is an outcome of the Service Design stage that is used in the Service Transition stage. The Service Design stage starts with a set of business requirements, and then ends with the design and development of services and service management processes to meet the identified business requirements. The SDP includes all aspects of an IT service and its requirements.

A Service Catalog is not an outcome of the Service Design stage that is used in the Service Transition stage. A Service Catalog is a central repository that contains information about the IT services being delivered to the business by the service provider organization. This information enables you to view an accurate, consistent picture of the IT services available and their details and status. The Service Catalog is used by all five phases of IT Service Management when required.

A Service Portfolio is not an outcome of the Service Design stage that is used in the Service Transition stage. The Service Portfolio is a service management tool that is used to support all processes by communicating and mapping the business needs to provider responses. The Service Portfolio is used by all five phases of IT Service Management when required.

A Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) is not the outcome of the Service Design stage that is used in the Service Transition stage. An SCD provides information on suppliers and contracts and all information required for the management of suppliers, contracts, and their associated services. SCD is a vital source of information for the Supplier Management process, which is a part of the Service Design phase.

Which phase of the Service Management Lifecycle is responsible for implementing the services into production?

Service Strategy

Service Design

Service Transition

Service Operation

The correct answer is C. The Service Transition phase of the Service Management Lifecycle is responsible for implementing services into production. These services may be new or changed services that are designed in the Service Design phase.

The Service Strategy phase of the Service Management Lifecycle provides guidance for the service. It performs the initial planning for the service.

The Service Design phase of the Service Management Lifecycle designs a new

or changed service. After it has completed the design of the service, it passes the service to the Service Transition phase for deployment.

The Service Operation phase of the Service Management Lifecycle is responsible for the day-to-day operations of the service. After the Service Transition phase has deployed the service, the Service Operation phase is responsible for the service.

Which three lifecycle processes are fulfilled solely within the Service Transition stage?

1. Change Management

2. Knowledge Management

3. Transition Planning and Support

4. Release and Deployment Management

5. Service Asset and Configuration Management

1, 2, and 3 only

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 2, and 5 only

2, 3, and 4 only

2, 3, and 5 only

That's right. The Service Transition stage includes all of the processes listed. However, only the following three processes are fulfilled solely within the Service Transition phase:Change ManagementKnowledge ManagementService Asset and Configuration Management

The Service Transition stage involves processes for moving new and changed services into production and testing the new and changed services. It also guides the process of transferring services with an external service provider. The Change Management process is used to ensure that all changes are completed using standardized methods. The Knowledge Management process is typically used to ensure that the person who will deliver and support the services required by the business should have the right knowledge at the right time. This ensures efficient services with high quality and clear understanding of the value provided by the services. The Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) process is used to support the business, using accurate information and management across all assets and relationships related to an organization's infrastructure.

The Transition Planning and Support process is not exclusive to the Service Transition stage. The Transition Planning and Support process assists in planning and coordinating resources to ensure that the requirements of the Service Strategy stage encoded in Service Design are effectively realized in

the Service Operation stage. Moreover, the goal of this process is to identify, manage, and control risks related to disruption across transition activities.

The Release and Deployment Management process is not exclusive to the Service Transition stage. This process assists in assembling and consolidating all aspects of services into production, establishing effective use of new or changed services.

Which of the following processes are focused on during the Service Transition stage but are NOT exclusive to the Service Transition stage?

1. Evaluation

2. Change Management

3. Knowledge Management

4. Service Validation and Testing

5. Transition Planning and Support

6. Release and Deployment Management

7. Service Asset and Configuration Management

1, 4, and 6

2, 3, and 7

1, 4, 5, and 6

2, 4, 6, and 7

All of the above

The correct answer is C. The Service Transition stage includes all of the given processes, but the following four processes are not exclusive to the Service Transition stage:EvaluationService Validation and TestingTransition Planning and SupportRelease and Deployment Management

The Evaluation process evaluates whether the service provided to the business is relevant. This process establishes appropriate metrics and measurement techniques for evaluation. The Service Validation and Testing process is typically used to validate and test whether the new changed services support the business requirements and meet the agreed upon Service Level Agreements (SLAs). Service Validation and Testing is used to ensure that a service can be managed, operated, and supported. The Transition Planning and Support process enables you to plan and coordinate resources to ensure that the encoded Service Strategy is effectively understood in the Service Operation stage. Moreover, this process allows you to identify and manage the failure risks across transition activities. The Release and Deployment

Management process enables you to integrate and arrange all phases of services into production. It ensures that the capacity and resource requirements for a release are planned and managed.

The following three processes are exclusive to the Service Transition stage:Change ManagementKnowledge ManagementService Asset and Configuration ManagementThe Change Management process ensures that all changes are completed using standardized methods.

The Knowledge Management process is typically used to ensure that the people who will deliver and support the business services have the required knowledge at the appropriate time. This ensures efficient services with high quality and clear understanding of the value provided by the services. It ensures that quality knowledge of the Change Management and the Release and Deployment Management processes is maintained.

The Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) process is used to support the business, using accurate information and management across all assets and relationships related to an organization's infrastructure.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for the Service Operation phase of IT Service Management?

1. The Service Operation phase delivers and supports services at levels agreed upon by customers and users.

2. The Service Operation phase manages applications that support the delivery of services to customers and users.

3. The Service Operation phase manages the technology and infrastructure that support the delivery of services to customers and users.

4. The Service Operation phase tests services to ensure the business objectives of a service provider are met.

4 only

1, 2, and 3 only

2 and 3 only

All of the above

That's right. The Service Operation phase includes delivering and supporting services at levels agreed upon by customers and users. It also includes managing the applications, technologies, and infrastructure that support the delivery of services to customers and users. Service Operation is a critical phase of IT Service Management because improper execution of this phase will result in a service provider not providing value to customers.

The Service Operation phase does not test services to ensure the business objectives of a service provider are met. Services are tested and validated in

the Service Transition phase.

Which phase of IT Service Management ensures delivery and support of services to customers and users at agreed upon levels?

Service Transition

Service Operation

Service Strategy

Service Design

The correct answer is B. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), the purpose of the Service Operation phase is "to deliver agreed levels of service to users and customers, and to manage the applications, technology, and infrastructure that support delivery of services."

According to OCG, the purpose of the Service Transition phase is "to deliver services that are required by the business into operational use."

According to OCG, the purpose of the Service Strategy phase is "to ensure that services provided must be perceived by the customer to deliver sufficient value in the form of outcomes that the customer wants to achieve."

According to OCG, the purpose of the Service Design phase is "the design of appropriate and innovative IT services, including their architectures, processes, policies and documentation, to meet current and future agreed business requirements.

Which phase of the Service Management Lifecycle provides guidance on enhancing services, processes, and phases of the Service Management Lifecycle?

Service Strategy

Service Design

Service Transition


The correct answer is D. The Continual Service Improvement phase of the Service Management Lifecycle provides guidance on enhancing services, processes, and phases of the Service Management Lifecycle. This phase monitors all processes and services to measure their efficiency. This phase of the Service Management Lifecycle works with all the other phases.

The Service Strategy phase of the Service Management Lifecycle provides guidance for the service. It performs the initial planning for the service.

The Service Design phase of the Service Management Lifecycle designs a new or changed service. After it has completed the design of the service, it passes the service to the Service Transition phase for deployment.

The Service Transition phase of the Service Management Lifecycle is responsible for implementing services into production. These services may be new or changed services that are designed in the Service Design phase.

Which component of the Service Strategy phase is described using the terms availability, capacity, continuity, and security?

Utility

Warranty

Value

Variation

The correct answer is B. The warranty component of the Service Strategy phase is described using the terms availability, capacity, continuity, and security. According to the Office of Government Commerce (OCG), warranty is "derived from the positive effect being available when needed, in sufficient capacity or magnitude, and dependably in terms of continuity and security." Warranty is commonly referred to as fitness for use.

Utility is usually described using the terms outcomes supported, ownership costs, and risks avoided. According to OCG, utility is "perceived by the customer from the attributes of the service that have a positive effect on the performance of tasks associated with desired business outcomes." Utility is commonly referred to as fitness for purpose.

Value occurs when a service provides a benefit to the company in financial terms. Value is defined in terms of the customer's business outcomes and is highly dependent on perceptions. Two types of value provided by the Service Strategy phase are utility and warranty.

Variation is a term used in conjunction with warranty. Warranty reduces performance variation or change by ensuring that availability, capacity, continuity, and security of the service are maintained.

Which term represents the service asset that is the easiest to acquire?

Utility

Warranty

Resource

Capability

The correct answer is C. A resource is the service asset that is the easiest to acquire. Resources provide a direct input into production.

Utility and warranty are not service assets. They are two types of value that can be provided by the Service Strategy phase. The warranty component of the Service Strategy phase is described using the terms availability, capacity, continuity, and security. Utility is usually described using the terms outcomes supported, ownership costs, and risks avoided.

A capability is a service asset that is harder to acquire than a resource. Capabilities represent an ability to coordinate, control, and deploy resources. Capabilities are developed over time and are usually gained by experience.

Which of the following statements regarding the Service Portfolio are CORRECT?

1. The Service Portfolio is a complete set of services managed by a service provider.

2. The Service Portfolio is published to customers.

3. The Service Catalog is the only portion of the Service Portfolio that is published to customers.

4. The Service Pipeline is the portion of the Service Portfolio that is under consideration or development.

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 3, and 4 only

1 and 4 only

All of the above

The correct answer is B. The following statements regarding the Service Portfolio are correct:The Service Portfolio is a complete set of services managed by a service provider.The Service Catalog is the only portion of the Service Portfolio that is published to customers.The Service Pipeline is the portion of the Service Portfolio that is under consideration or development.The Service Portfolio is NOT published to customers. The Service Catalog serves this purpose, and is the part of the Service Portfolio that recovers costs or earns profits.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about IT governance?

1. IT must comply with new rules and regulations.

2. A successful audit of IT by external organizations is needed.

3. IT governance is the responsibility of the board of directors and executive management.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

All of the above

That's right. IT governance is practiced in organizations to ensure that an IT service provider is complying with rules and regulations. The compliance is commonly verified by timely audits done by external organizations. Also, as per ITIL, "IT governance is the responsibility of the board of directors and executive management. It is an integral part of enterprise governance and consists of the leadership, organizational structures and processes that ensure that the organization's IT sustains and extends the organization's strategies and objectives."

Which statement BEST describes external service providers?

They serve business units in which they are embedded.

They serve business units as their direct customers.

They may serve rival customers.

They may serve common stakeholders, enterprise-level strategy, and business units under a common parent.

The correct answer is C. External service providers may serve rival customers. The three types of shared service providers are internal service provider (Type 1), shared services unit (Type 2), and external service provider (Type 3). External service providers are commonly used in scenarios when organizations lack resources, knowledge, capabilities, and scope. External service providers provide services that are purchased by organizations. In comparison to the other two types of service providers, external service providers offer a more competitive cost and reduced overhead.

Internal service providers perform business functions that serve the business unit within which they are embedded. Internal service providers work towards achieving functional excellence and bringing cost advantages to their business units. In this structure, each separate business unit would have its own internal service providers as needed. For example, if a company had three divisions, each division would have its own service providers to provide such needs as accounting, human resources, and IT functions.

Shared Services Units (SSUs) perform functions that are shared by each of the business units they support. Such functions are commonly combined to represent an SSU and serve business units as their direct customers. Customers of an SSU are common stakeholders, enterprise-level strategy, and business units under a common parent. An example of this unit is when central accounting, human resources, and IT departments are created to service the needs of the organization's business units.

Which two phases are involved in managing an organization's risks?

Risk evaluation and response implementation

Risk analysis and risk management

Risk analysis and response implementation

Risk evaluation and risk management

That's right. The two phases involved in managing an organization's risks are risk analysis and risk management. Risks for an organization are uncertainties of outcomes. A risk for an organization can be an opportunity or a threat that can impact organizations achievement of its business objectives positively or negatively. For example, investment in research and development of a new product can be a positive opportunity or a negative threat for an organization.

The risk analysis phase includes risk identification, risk owner identification, risk evaluation, setting of risk tolerance level, and risk response identification. The risk management phase includes implementing risk responses, gaining assurance about effectiveness, and embedding and reviewing.

Risk evaluation is a stage of the risk analysis phase. Response implementation is a stage of the risk management phase.

Which key Service Design role is responsible for ensuring that the levels of service quality are agreed on and met?

Supplier Manager

Security Manager

Service Level Manager

Service Design Manager

The correct answer is C. The Service Level Manager role is responsible for ensuring that the levels of service quality are agreed on and met. Some other responsibilities of the Service Level Manager role include the following:Gathering updates on the changing business needs Identifying and understanding the current and future service requirements of customers and then documenting them in Service Level Agreement (SLA) and Service Level Requirement (SLR) documentsNegotiating and agreeing upon levels of service to be delivered with the customer Negotiating and agreeing on Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) Contributing in the creation and management of a precise Service Portfolio, Service Catalog, Application Portfolio, and the corresponding maintenance procedures

The Supplier Manager role is responsible for the management of underpinning contracts and agreements. Another responsibility of this role is to ensure that value for monetary investments is achieved from all IT suppliers and contracts.

The Security Manager role is responsible for ensuring that the IT security is aligned with the security policy risks and impacts and the requirements of the agreed upon business.

The Service Design Manager role is responsible for coordinating and deploying quality solution designs for services and processes.

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