ITIL Foundation Examination Sample Paper D...

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EN_ITIL_FND_2011_SamplePaperD_V2.0

ITIL Foundation Examination

Sample Paper D

Question Booklet

Multiple Choice

Exam Duration: 60 minutes

Instructions

1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

2. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. Use a pencil (NOT ink pen).

3. There is only one correct answer per question.

4. You have 60 minutes to complete this paper.

5. You must achieve 26 or more out of a possible 40 marks (65%) to pass this

examination.

H4_Exam02_2975C-009-3

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EN_ITIL_FND_2011_SamplePaperD_V2.0

1. Which of the following examples is a source of best practice?

a) A hardware supplier

b) A service management tool

c) ISO / IEC 20000

d) A consultancy organization

2. Which is the CORRECT explanation of how a service facilitates an outcome?

a) By enhancing the performance of associated tasks and reducing the effect of constraints

b) By comparing service value with service cost to ensure there is an equal ratio

c) By ensuring data is translated directly into wisdom allowing better business decisions to be

made

d) By allowing the achievement of contractual obligations and avoiding financial penalties

3. What term is used for customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the

service provider?

a) Strategic customers

b) External customers

c) Valued customers

d) Internal customers

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© AXELOS Limited 2016.

AXELOS® and ITIL® are registered trademarks of AXELOS Limited. The AXELOS swirl logo is a trade mark of AXELOS Limited.

Reproduction of this material requires the permission of AXELOS Limited. All rights reserved.

3 EN_ITIL_FND_2011_SamplePaperD_V2.0

4. What should be defined for every process?

a) The process owner, process policy and set of process activities

b) The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures

c) The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps

d) The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions

5. All of the stages of the ITIL lifecycle have a role to play in ensuring the delivery of high quality IT

services at optimum cost.

Which of these has the BEST opportunity to prevent difficulties as early as possible and minimize

the cost of any remedial work?

a) Service transition

b) Continual service improvement (CSI)

c) Service design

d) Service operation

6. Which is NOT part of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Successfully deploying service releases into supported environments

b) Designing and developing capabilities for service management

c) Ensuring that service changes create the expected business value

d) Planning the resources required to manage a release

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7. Which is an objective of service operation?

a) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver services to the

business and manage them at agreed levels

b) To successfully release services into a live or supported environment

c) To identify opportunities to provide services and exploit them

d) To define the capability required to deliver the IT strategy

8. Which is the BEST description of a business case?

a) A decision support and planning tool that details the likely consequences of a business action

b) A document that details the terms of a service for particular customers in the same company

c) A complaint by the business about a missed service level

d) The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

9. Which of these statements about service asset and configuration management is CORRECT?

1. A configuration item (CI) can be a component part of one or more other CIs

2. How an organization groups components into configuration items will depend on the level of

control they wish to exert

3. A single configuration management database (CMDB) is the objective for an organization

4. All CMDB audits should be conducted by external auditors using a CMDB standard

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) 1 and 4

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10. Which BEST defines availability?

a) How quickly a service or component can be restored after failure

b) The ability of a third party supplier to meet the terms of its contract

c) The ability of a service desk to restore service to configuration items (CIs) and infrastructure

components

d) The ability of a service, component or CI to perform its agreed function when required

11. The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

a) Facilities management

b) Access management

c) Request fulfilment

d) Service asset and configuration management

12. ‘A cause of one or more incidents’ is the ITIL definition of which of these terms?

a) A known error

b) A workaround

c) A problem

d) A root cause

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13. Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

a) CSI register

b) Known error database

c) Capacity management information system

d) Configuration management database

14. Which is NOT a defined area of value?

a) Customer preferences

b) Business policies

c) Customer perceptions

d) Business outcomes

15. An Internal IT department would be considered which one of the ‘four P’s’ of service design?

a) Provider

b) People

c) Partner

d) Performer

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16. Which do technology metrics measure?

a) Components

b) Processes

c) The end-to-end service

d) Customer satisfaction

17. What is the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model:

1. What is the vision?

2. Where are we now?

3. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get there?

5. Did we get there?

6. ?

a) What is the return on investment (ROI)?

b) How much did it cost?

c) How do we keep the momentum going?

d) What is the value on investment (VOI)?

18. Which do service metrics measure?

a) Functions

b) Maturity and cost

c) The end-to-end service

d) Infrastructure availability

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19. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against

targets?

a) Operational level agreement (OLA)

b) Capacity plan

c) Service level agreement (SLA)

d) SLA monitoring (SLAM) chart

20. Where would a customer’s initial service targets be recorded before the service level agreement

(SLA) is produced?

a) In an operational level agreement (OLA)

b) In a list of service level requirements (SLR)

c) In the service catalogue

d) In the configuration management database (CMDB)

21. The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

a) Before the change is approved

b) Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out

c) After implementation but before the post implementation review

d) After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change

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22. Which of the following lists shows change types defined in ITIL?

a) Strategic, emergency and normal

b) Strategic, urgent and emergency

c) Standard, urgent and normal

d) Standard, emergency and normal

23. Which is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

a) To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management

activities

b) To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided

c) To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency

d) To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

24. What should be documented in an incident model?

1. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

2. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) targets and reliability

3. Details of agreed service continuity requirements

4. Escalation procedures for who should be contacted and when

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) 1 and 4

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25. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of

incidents that cannot be prevented?

a) Service level management

b) Problem management

c) Change management

d) Event management

26. With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding

systems?

a) Incident management

b) Service asset and configuration management

c) Capacity management

d) IT service continuity management

27. Which BEST describes budgeting for financial management of IT services?

a) A periodic negotiation cycle to recover costs to deliver services to customers

b) Predicting and controlling the income and expenditure of money

c) The process that enables a company to determine where its money is spent

d) The process to bill customers for the services supplied to them

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28. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and

dependencies of all live services and services that are about to be implemented?


b) Service catalogue management

c) Demand management

d) Service transition

29. Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

a) Capacity management

b) Incident management

c) Service level management

d) Financial management

30. Which service design process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly

addressed in all service designs?

a) Availability management

b) Capacity management

c) Design coordination

d) Release and deployment management

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31. Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

a) Knowledge management

b) Release and deployment management

c) Service asset and configuration management

d) Service level management

32. Which term describes the experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals?

a) Data

b) Information

c) Knowledge

d) Governance

33. What is the purpose of transition planning and support?

a) Provide overall planning for service transitions and coordinate the resources they require

b) Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized

c) Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be

recorded and tracked

d) To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

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34. Which would NOT involve event management?

a) Intrusion detection

b) Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre

c) Recording service desk staff absence

d) Monitoring the status of configuration items

35. Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from

users?


b) Service portfolio management

c) Request fulfilment

d) Demand management

36. Which is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

a) The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves

b) The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk

locations are in one place

c) The desk provides 24 hour global support

d) There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

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37. Which activity does application management perform?

a) Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

b) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome

c) Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will be

d) Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

38. Which statement about a service owner is INCORRECT?

a) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

b) Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own

c) Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own

d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

39. Which rules should be followed when defining a RACI authority matrix?

a) More than one person is accountable

b) At least one person is consulted

c) Only one person is accountable

d) Only one person is responsible

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40. Which does NOT benefit from service automation?

a) Monitoring

b) Wisdom

c) Pattern recognition

d) Prioritization

END OF EXAMINATION

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EN_ITIL_FND_2011_Rationale_SamplePaperD_V2.0

For exam paper: ITIL_FND_2011_EN_SamplePaperD

Q A Syllabus

Ref

Book Ref

Rationale

1 C FND01-1 SS 2.1.7 Best practice in the public domain, Figure 2.3, Sources of service management best practice

Suppliers (answer A), Toolsets (answer B) and Consultants (answer D) are enablers of best practice. ISO / IEC 20000 as a standard is a source of best practice.

2 A FND01-3 SS 2.1.1 Services “Definitions”

Answer A is the ITIL guidance explanation of how outcomes are facilitated. Answer B is incorrect. An equal ratio is not always an objective, let alone the means to facilitate an outcome of a service. Answer C is incorrect. Wisdom does indeed allow better business decisions but this is not derived directly from data nor is it the deliverable from a service. Answer D is incorrect. This statement is false and not accurate about services or facilitating outcomes.

3 B FND01-4 SS 3.2.1.2 Internal and external customers

The fact that the customer belongs to a different organization to the service provider makes them an external customer. Internal customers (answer D) belong to the same organization as the service provider. Strategic and valued customers (answers A and C) may, or may not, belong to other organizations.

4 A FND01-10 SS 2.2.2 Processes Figure 2.5

The process must have an owner to ensure it is followed, a policy to guide its activities and the detailed activities themselves. In answer B, the ‘service owner’ pertains to the service as a whole, not that particular process. Also an SLA is not required for every process. In answer C, a process does not necessitate an OLA in every instance. In answer D, again ‘service manager’ and ‘service contract’ do not pertain to that particular process. Only the work instructions might be documented.

5 C FND02-5 SD 1.1.1 Purpose and objective of service design, 1.1.2 Scope

Chronologically, service design comes first so has the first opportunity to get things off to a good start with a good design and to pick up any potential difficulties or costs earliest.

6 B FND02-7 ST 1.1.1 Purpose and objective of service transition

Answer B relates to service design, not service transition, so this is the correct answer. Answers A, C and D indeed relate to service transition objectives and what needs to happen during the service transition lifecycle stage. Copyrighted Materia

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7 A FND02-9 SO 1.1.1 Purpose and objectives of service operation

Answer A is a purpose of service operation. Service operation manages the services at agreed levels through its processes and functions. Answer B is an objective of service transition and both options C and D are objectives of service strategy.

8 A FND03-6 SS 3.6.1.1 Business case

A business case will contain costs, benefits and risks that will allow an organization to make an informed decision on the viability of an action. Answer B describes a service level agreement or a contract. Answer C describes a concern which may be raised in a service review meeting. Answer D describes something that might be assessed in a business case but not the case itself.

9 A FND03-17 ST 4.3.4.2 Basic concepts -service assets, configuration items, configuration records, the CMS and the SKMS

Statement 1 is correct so a CI may be part of another CI e.g. a monitor may be a CI and part of a PC configuration item. Statement 2 is also true. For example, the level of detail an organization chooses to record about its hardware may be dictated by the level of control required by industry regulation. Statement 3 is incorrect as multiple CMDB’s are perfectly acceptable practice. Statement 4 is also incorrect as CMDB audits can be conducted using internal resources and often using automated tools.

10 D FND03-15 SD 4.4.4.3 Aspects of availability

This is the ITIL book definition. Answer A describes an element of maintainability. Answer B is serviceability. Answer C just focuses on the service desk and technology, not services.

11 D FND03-19 ST 4.3.4.4 Asset management

The definitive media library (DML) is the secure logical library in which the definitive authorized versions of all media CIs are stored and protected. It is the responsibility of service asset and configuration management. The other three answers may involve the DML but are not responsible for it: Facilities management (answer A) may be responsible for a fireproof safe allowing the physical store of the actual media; Access management (answer B) may be involved in granting rights to use the DML; Request fulfilment (answer C) might be the route to accessing the components in the DML for users and customers.

12 C FND03-29 SO 4.4 Problem management

This is the ITIL book definition.

13 A FND03-38 CSI 3.4 CSI Register

The CSI register contains all improvement opportunities to be considered. The known error database (answer B), as indicated by the name, contains known errors. The capacity management information system (answer C) contains the business, service and component data to allow the capacity management process to function. The CMDB (answer D) contains CI information.

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14 B FND04-02 SS 3.2.3 Value, 3.2.3.1 Creating value, Figure 3.6 Components of value

Business policies are not a defined area of value. Value is defined by customer preferences (answer A) i.e. what they want, customer perceptions (answer C) i.e. if they think it is valuable, and by delivering on outcomes (answer D) i.e. it enables them to complete their task.

15 B FND04-03 SD 3.1.5 Comprehensive and integrated service design, Figure 3.3 The four P’s

The balance of service design is achieved through the balance of people, process, products and partners. Answer B is correct. ‘People’ of the 4 P’s refer to those within the organization and describe internal IT departments Answer C ‘Partners’ refers to external providers such as suppliers, manuafacturer or vendors within the structure of the 4 P’s. Answers A and D are not one of the 4 P’s

16 A FND04-10 CS 5.5 Metrics

Three categories of metric used in CSI are: technology, process and service metrics. Components are measured by technology metrics, o answer A is correct. Processes (answer B) are measured by process metrics. End-to-end service (answer C) is measured by service metrics. Customer satisfaction does not fit into any of the three catgories.

17 C FND04-9 CSI 3.1 Figure 3.1 Continual service improvement approach

The final stage of the process is ‘How do we keep the momentum going?’, as defined in the CSI approach.

18 C FND04-10 CSI 5.5 Metrics

Service metrics measure elements which cover the total end-to-end service. The performance of a function (answer A) might be measured through compliance to a process or other process success metrics. Maturity (answer B) is a process metric. Infrastructure availability (answer D) is a technology metric.

19 D FND05-31 SD 4.3.5.5 Producing service reports

The SLAM chart shows progress against service targets, in a simple, pictorial form. An OLA (answer A) details internal operational targets and an SLA (answer C) details service targets. Neither of these documents compare them with progress. A capacity plan (answer B) shows the future needs and plans for capacity within the organization.

20 B FND05-31 SD 4.3.5.2 Determining, documenting and agreeing requirements for new services and producing SLRs

Service level requirements (SLR) describe the customer’s actual needs for the service, which can be verified by the service provider and perhaps amended by negotiation before arriving at a signed SLA. An OLA (answer A) details the internal supporting targets for the SLA. The service catalogue (answer C) would be used as the basis to start the discussion of service level requirements. The CMDB (answer D) is not used as part of this process. Copyrighted Materia

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21 A FND05-51 ST 4.2.4.8 Remediation planning

The remediation plan allows the service provider to recover a service or have an alternative should a change fail. It must be evaluated BEFORE the change is approved. After the change has failed (answer B) is a bad time to find out that you cannot do anything about it! Answers C and D are equally poor from a timing perspective, being AFTER the change has taken place.

22 D FND05-51 ST 4.2.5.10 Change advisory board, CAB meetings

ITIL defines three types of change: Standard change; a pre-authorised change which is low risk, relatively common and follows a process or work instruction: Emergency change; A change that must be implemented as soon as possible e.g. to resolve a major incident; Normal change; any service change that is not a standard or emergency change. Strategic and Urgent are NOT ITIL defined change types.

23 A FND05-71 SO 4.2.5.3 Incident categorization

The reason we categorize anything (incidents included) is to make management easier. Spotting recurring incidents by category will facilitate the identification of problems. Simply categorizing an incident does not make it certain that the SLA will not be breached (answer B). The partitioning of the incident management database (answer C) is not a consideration when deciding on incident categories. Categorization could, in some circumstances, be used to decide if a user can log an incident (answer D) but the question asks for the BEST reason.

24 D FND05-71 SO 4.2.4.2 Incident models

Statements 1 and 4 are part of an incident model. The incident model tells us how to deal with the type of incident and this would be described in chronological order. Escalation procedures are a logical part of this. Statement 2 is impractical as multiple SLA targets and the reliability of the service are not directly related to the pre-defined steps to handle the incident process in an agreed way. Statement 3 would be part of a business continuity plan.

25 B FND05-72 SO 4.4.1.2 Problem management objectives

This is an objective of problem management.

26 A FND05-72 SO 4.4.2 Problem management scope

Problem management shares categorization and impact codes with incident management. This makes matching incidents to problems and known errors a much easier task. Problem management will make use of the CMDB (answer B) in its process but not share categories with service asset and configuration management. Capacity management (answer C) will share data with problem management but not codes / categories. ITSCM (answer D) might share information for risk assessment (including impact codes) with problem management but it is highly unlikely that they will share categories.

27 B FND05-22 SS 4.3.1 Purpose and objectives

Budgeting involves predicting how much income the organization will receive and how much it will spend. Answers A & D are directly related to charging, and answer C covers accounting.

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28 B FND05-41 SD 4.2.1 Purpose and objectives

The service catalogue will record current details of live (soon to be implemented) services, including their interfaces and dependencies. Service level management (answer A) uses the catalogue to understand the dependencies. Demand management (answer C) and service transition (answer D) will use the catalogue but does not record details in it.

29 A FND05-45 SD 4.5.4.3 Capacity management sub-processes

These are the three sub-processes of capacity management.

30 C FND05-47 SD 4.1.2 Design coordination scope

Design coordination is responsible for addressing the requirements of both utility (fitness for purpose) and warranty (fitness for use). Availability (answer A) and capacity (answer B) are both concerned with warranty only. Release and deployment (answer D) is a service transition, not design process.

31 B FND05-61 ST 4.4.5 Release and deployment management Process activities, methods and techniques

‘Build and test’ is the second phase of the release and deployment process. The other processes have only minor involvement in testing.

32 C FND05-62 ST 4.7.4.2 Data-to-information-to-knowledge-to wisdom

The question uses the characteristics of the knowledge piece of DIKW within knowledge management Data (answer A) becomes more valuable once it is processed into information (answer B). This information becomes the basis for knowledge. Governance (answer D) concerns policy and control and is not part of knowledge management.

33 A FND05-64 ST 4.1.1 Transition planning and support, Purpose and objectives

Transition planning and support carries out a kind of project management role within service transition, ensuring that planning and resource coordination are in scope. Answer B describes the role of change management. Recording and tracking (answer C) is done by service asset and configuration management whilst test scripts (answer D) are part of release and deployment management.

34 C FND05-81 SO 4.1.1 Event management Purpose and objectives

Service desk staff absence would be recorded via an HR system, outside of the scope of ITIL. All other areas could be monitored under the event management process.

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35 C FND05-82 SO 4.3.1.2

Request fulfilment objectives

Complaints, compliments and general enquiries come under the request fulfilment process handled almost exclusively by the service desk. Service level management (answer A) may deal with complaints but at a customer level and would not usually entertain general enquiries. Such interactions are outside of the scope of service portfolio management (answer B) and demand management (answer D)

36 D FND06-1 SO 6.3.3.2 Centralized service desk, Figure 6.3 Centralized service desk

A single centralized service desk supports the whole organization. Answer A describes a local service desk. Answer B is a virtual service desk and answer C describes a follow-the-sun model of service desk.

37 B FND06-2 SO 6.6.2 Application management objectives

Application management is responsible for the functionality/utility. The location of an application vendor is likely to be defined and managed by supplier management. Technical management is more likely to be consulted when deciding who the vendors of a storage device might be (answer C). Answer D is incorrect as agreeing service levels is the domain of service level management.

38 A FND07-1 SD 6.3.1 Generic service owner role

The service owner will be aware of the monitoring and operation of their service but may not be directly involved in the activity. The other three activities are all part of the role of service owner.

39 C FND07-2 SD 3.7.4.1 Designing roles – the RACI model

Only one person should be accountable for a process. This immediately makes answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because it may be that nobody needs to be consulted e.g. logging a service desk call doesn’t need another person be consulted. Answer D is incorrect as multiple people may be responsible.

40 B FND08-2 SS 7.1 Service automation

Technology and automation can help to monitor (answer A), e.g. the free disk space on a server. Pattern recognition (answer C) can also be automated, e.g. spotting repeat incidents through the service desk toolset. Prioritization (answer D) can also be automated through a tool, e.g. when an incident is logged against a certain type of service. Wisdom (answer B) cannot be automated.

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ITIL Foundation Examination Sample Paper D...

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