INF2004 2007 Mid-Term Test (DBMS)

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University of Cape Town Information Systems INF2004F April 2007 Mid-Term Test – 2 Hours Marks Section 1- MCQ 40 Section 2- Short Questions 10 Section 3- Essay Questions 50 Total 100 PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY Section 1 contains MCQ questions that are penalised by the standard formula depending on the number of choices in the question. Failure to answer a question is NOT penalised. Answers must be entered into the correct box on the answer sheets at the back of the exam paper. For each question there is only 1 best answer. Enter the answer onto the answer sheet in clear pencil. Should you wish to change your answer, erase it and rewrite. Unclear answers will not be marked. Sections 2 and 3 have no negative marking. Answers must be given in point form in the boxes provided. Please limit your answers to key words and phrases. IMPORTANT NOTES: Write your name, initials and student number on the front of this exam paper and on the answer sheets at the back of the exam paper. Do not separate the answer sheets from the rest of the paper. You must hand back the entire question paper at the end of the test. For office use only S1 S2 S3 Total Student Name:

Transcript of INF2004 2007 Mid-Term Test (DBMS)

Page 1: INF2004 2007 Mid-Term Test (DBMS)

University of Cape Town

Information Systems INF2004F

April 2007

Mid-Term Test – 2 Hours

MarksSection 1- MCQ 40Section 2- Short Questions 10Section 3- Essay Questions 50Total 100

PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Section 1 contains MCQ questions that are penalised by the standard formula depending on the number of choices in the question. Failure to answer a question is NOT penalised. Answers must be entered into the correct box on the answer sheets at the back of the exam paper. For each question there is only 1 best answer. Enter the answer onto the answer sheet in clear pencil. Should you wish to change your answer, erase it and rewrite. Unclear answers will not be marked.

Sections 2 and 3 have no negative marking. Answers must be given in point form in the boxes provided. Please limit your answers to key words and phrases.

IMPORTANT NOTES:

Write your name, initials and student number on the front of this exam paper and on the answer sheets at the back of the exam paper.

Do not separate the answer sheets from the rest of the paper.

You must hand back the entire question paper at the end of the test.

For office use only

S1 S2 S3 Total

Student Name:

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Student No:

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Section 1 -Multiple Choice Questions – 40 MarksAnswer the following 40 Multiple Choice (MCQ) questions by MARKING

the appropriate box on the MCQ answer sheet.

Q1. Closely dependent sub-systems in an organisation

A. Operate in a closed systemB. Experience feedback problemsC. Experience coupling problemsD. All of the above are correct

Q2. Systems thinking emphasize that

A. Controls should not be integrated in systemsB. A holistic approach should be adoptedC. Environmental, organisational, technological and human dimensions should

be examined independentlyD. B and C are correct

Q3. Which symbol portrays a source or destination of data outside the system?

A. Data flow symbolB. external entity symbolC. bubble symbolD. file symbol

Q4. Those entities which perform no information processing activities for the system are called

A. external entitiesB. internal entitiesC. boundary entitiesD. environmental entities

Q5. Examine the following context diagram and the related level 0 logical data flow diagram. Which of the following statements is true?

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A. The data flow diagrams are prepared correctly.B. A context diagram must have a least two external entities.C. The logical data flow diagram is not balanced.D. The logical data flow diagram must have 5 to 7 processes.

Q6. Which of the following systems flowcharting symbol descriptions is incorrect?

A. DiskB. computer processC. manual processD. CRT display

Q7. The risks to a business of Internet commerce include all of the following except:

A. technological advances quickly antiquate hardware installationsB. hackers may attempt to access sensitive informationC. individuals or organizations may attempt to overload the system,

preventing legitimate customers from accessing the siteD. business partners have access to sensitive information

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5 Q8. Which of the following Internet applications would not be categorized as a

customer relationship management system?

A. A customer can check their outstanding balance.B. A customer can design the product.C. A customer can download a software upgrade.D. A customer can determine the status or location of a product

shipment.

Q9. Core applications of an ERP are:

A. sales and distributionB. business planningC. shop floor control and logisticsD. all of the above

Q10. The most dominant player in the ERP market for large companies is

A. OracleB. PeopleSoft C. SAPD. Microsoft

Q11. Most ERPs are based on which network model?

A. peer to peerB. client-serverC. ring topologyD. bus topology

Q12. In an event driven architecture

A. business events are processed in batchesB. The enterprise operates in real timeC. The enterprise only uses modules from a single software vendorD. none of the above

Q13. Primary activities of the value chain include

A. ProductionB. ProcurementC. AccountingD. human resources

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Q14. The four W’s of capturing data do not include

A. WhoB. WhatC. WhyD. When

Figure 1

Q15. Element G in Figure 1 above represents:

A. InputB. EffectorC. ComparatorD. Standard

Q16. Element F in figure 1 above represents:

A. StandardB. EffectorC. ManagerD. B and C are correct

Q17. In Figure 1, the flow of information (X) from F to G represents:

A. input data from external sourcesB. Adjustments to GC. Measurements of actual performanceD. All of the above

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Q18. Adding, deleting, or replacing standing data is called

A. Transaction processingB. Master file processingC. Master file updateD. Purging

Q19. A system that consists of an integrated set of computer-based and manual components established to collect, store, and manage data and to provide output information to users is a(n)

A. Decision SystemB. OLTPsC. DatabaseD. MIS

Q20. An information system:

A. is composed of only the computer-based information resources of an organization

B. may consist of both computer-based and manual componentsC. is different from a data processing system because it uses

computersD. is not generally used for transaction processing

Q21. Repositories of data maintained over a relatively long period of time is

A. input dataB. output dataC. business event dataD. master data

Q22. The two types of updates that can be made for master data are

A. information processing and standing dataB. information processing and data maintenanceC. standing data and data maintenanceD. none of the above

Q23. A man made system consisting of people, equipment, organization, policies and procedures with the objective of accomplishing the work of the organization is

A. operations process

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8B. Management processC. information systemD. strategic planning

Q24. All of the following are components of relevance except:

A. feedback valueB. predictive valueC. VerifiabilityD. Timeliness

Q25. All of the following are components of reliability except:

A. ValidityB. AccuracyC. VerifiabilityD. feedback value

Q26. __________________ takes the generalities of the mission statement and turn them into more specific commitments

A. VisionB GoalsC. ObjectivesD. Strategies

Q27. Which of the following is NOT a framework used for the development of strategies?

A. SWOT AnalysisB. Generic strategiesC. Market option matrixD. Critical Success Factors

Q28. Which of the following is a strategic objective?

A. Return On InvestmentB. Higher product qualityC. Earning per shareD. None of the above

Q29. Porter’s generic strategies include:

A. Cost leadershipB. Cost Focus

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9C. Resource based viewD. A and B are correct

Q30. The following are frameworks used during Systems and business planning. Which one is NOT used for strategy selection?

A. Portfolio analysisB. Feasibility analysisC. User acceptabilityD. SWOT

Q31. Another name for sequential coding is:

A. block codingB. serial codingC. hierarchical codingD. significant digit coding

Q32. The uniform product codes (UPC) used in supermarkets are a type of:

A. block codeB. serial codeC. hierarchical codeD. significant digit code

Q33. File locking is a procedure designed to mitigate which of the following problems associated with using a DBMS?

A. data redundancyB. contention (concurrency)C. hardware system crashesD. unauthorized system access

Q34. Airlines having direct ticketing over the Internet

A. increases commissions of travel agentsB. enables the airlines to indirectly reach customersC. enables discontinuing commissions to travel agentsD. None of the above

Q35. Systems analysis is best conducted by a team because:

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10A. Personnel utilization is optimized because team members might otherwise

be idle in their normal job description

B. The work requires a variety of skills seldom possessed by one individualC. A team is better able to utilize structured developmentD. Planning and budgeting is easier with a team

Q36. Which of the following system development costs can be categorised as a capital cost?

A. Software purchase costsB. Consultancy feesC. Data transmission costsD. Staff recruitment fees

Q37. Which of the following systems development costs can be categorised as “One-off revenue cost” item?

A. Software purchase costsB. Power & Maintenance costs C. Data transmission costsD. Staff recruitment fees

Q38. Users can access the data in the tables by:A. a queryB. a report C. an application programD. All the above are correct

Q39. ___________ are events or Activities that are essential to the survival of the organization

A. VisionB. Critical success factorsC. GoalsD. Objectives

Q40. The system development phase that precedes systems implementation phase is

A. Logical designB. Systems designC. Systems surveyD. Systems analysis

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Section 2 –Short Questions. (10 marks)

Q41. A _____________ is a set of independent elements that together accomplish specific objectives.

Q42. Business events are “pushed” immediately and simultaneously to all interested parties in ________________ architecture

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12Q43. Information that improves a decision makers ability to predict, confirm, or correct

earlier expectations has the quality known as _______________.

Q44. In a(n) ____________________ system, use of data entry devices allows business event data to be entered directly into the information system at the time and place that the event occurs.

Q45. ___________ is the system of activities that transform inputs into outputs valued by the customer

Q46. ____________________ is the aggregation of several business events over some period of time with the subsequent processing of these data as a group by the information system.

Q47. A device that is not directly connected to the processing computer is referred to as a(n) ____________________ device.

Q48. A(n) ____________________ system is a real-time system that performs all or part of the processing activities at the data entry terminal location.

Q49. ____________________ are devices that use light reflection to read differences in patterns in order to identify a labeled item.

Q50. A(n) ____________________ is unsolicited non-document mail.

Section 3: Please limit your answers to key words and phrases in the areas allocated. (50 Marks)

QUESTION 51

System Design and Implementation are important stages of the Systems Development Life Cycle.

a) Explain the purpose of each stage [2 Marks]b) List 3 activities that take place in each stage [3 Marks]c) List 3 responsibilities of the user in each stage [3 Marks]d) List 2 contributions of each stage towards successful computerisation. [2 Marks]

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QUESTION 52

Figure TB-4.3 shows a context diagram of a cash sales system. The diagram intentionally violates several of the guidelines and other techniques presented in the study text for drawing Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs).

Required:i) Identify and describe 3 errors in DFD construction. [3

Marks]ii) Suggest what the correct procedure should be in each case.

[3 Marks]

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QUESTION 53

a) Describe the main features of the following logical database models:

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15i) Hierarchical ii) Networkiii) Relational

[12 Marks]

b) List ONE disadvantage of each of the above models. [1.5 Marks]

QUESTION 54

The entity relationship (E-R) Diagram shown below has been provided as part of a functional specification document. The entities in this diagram are shown as rectangular boxes.

a) Provide an appropriate description for each of the symbols A, B, C, D and E.

[2.5 Marks]

b) The diagram will be used to develop a relational database. Relationships between the entities can be described using the notation: One-to-Many (1:N); Many-to-Many (M:N), or One-to-One (1:1). Use this notation to describe the characteristics of following relationships:

(1a) and (1b)(2a) and (2b)(3a) and (3b)(4a) and (4b)

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16(5a) and (5b)

[5 Marks]

c) Why is it particularly important that users should understand such models?

[2 Marks]

ORDERS

SALES

INVENTORY

CUSTOMERS

A

B C D

E

1a 1b

3a

2a

2b 3b

4a

4b

5a 5b

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QUESTION 55

A small company has one credit manager. One of her responsibilities is to decide whether to offer credit to a customer, and if so, to determine an appropriate credit limit. The information she needs should be complete, accurate and reliable.

a) Describe how such characteristics of information are important in assessing the credit-worthiness and credit limit of a customer

[8 Marks]

b) Does the decision to offer credit and set an appropriate credit level fit into a structured, semi-structured or unstructured decision type? [1 Mark]

c) Give two reasons for your choice in (b) above.

[2 Marks]

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