INDIA’S BEST STUDENT CONTEST 2015

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India’s Best Student Contest Test - 2 / Stage - II 1 1 JEE | MEDICAL-UG | BOARDS | KVPY | NTSE | OLYMPIADS Date : 23 rd August, 2015 Duration : 2½ Hours Maximum Marks : 400 INDIA’S BEST STUDENT CONTEST 2015 1. Read each question carefully. 2. It is mandatory to use black ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR sheet. 3. Bubble mark should be dark and fill the circle completely. 4. Here are some examples of incorrect OMR filling. The Correct one is 5. Rough work must not be done on the OMR sheet. 6. Before handing over the OMR sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Standard, Roll No. / Name & Test Date are mentioned correctly. 7. The OMR sheet has to be returned to the invigilator immediately after the examination. 8. There are 100 questions in the paper. Each question carries 4 marks with –1 Negative marking. The paper contains questions based on Science, Maths & Logical Reasoning. 9. All questions are single correct answer type. INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES STAGE - II

Transcript of INDIA’S BEST STUDENT CONTEST 2015

India’s Best Student Contest Test - 2 / Stage - II

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JEE | MEDICAL-UG | BOARDS | KVPY | NTSE | OLYMPIADS

Date : 23rd August, 2015 Duration : 2½ Hours Maximum Marks : 400

INDIA’S BESTSTUDENT CONTEST

2015

1. Read each question carefully.

2. It is mandatory to use black ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR sheet.

3. Bubble mark should be dark and fill the circle completely.

4. Here are some examples of incorrect OMR filling. The Correct one is

5. Rough work must not be done on the OMR sheet.

6. Before handing over the OMR sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Standard,

Roll No. / Name & Test Date are mentioned correctly.

7. The OMR sheet has to be returned to the invigilator immediately after the examination.

8. There are 100 questions in the paper. Each question carries 4 marks with –1 Negative marking. The paper

contains questions based on Science, Maths & Logical Reasoning.

9. All questions are single correct answer type.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

STAGE - II

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PHYSICS

01. A body is moving with a constant acceleration it covers distance 20 meter in first 2 seconds. Find thedistance covered in next 2 seconds.(A) 20 meter (B) 30 meter (C) 60 meter (D) 80 meter

02. A rocket of mass 120 kg is fired in the gravity free space. It ejects gases with velocity 600 m/s relativeto rocket at the rate of 1 kg/s. What will be initial acceleration of rocket(A) 1 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 10 m/s2 (D) 15 m/s2

03. In the figure shown the pulley is moving with a velocity 20 m/sec. Calculate the velocity of the blockattached with string

mv = 20m/sec

(A) 20 m/sec (B) 40 m/sec (C) 10 m/sec (D) None

04. Two fifth of a cylindrical block of wood floats inside a liquid. If the relative density of a wood is 0.7. Findthe density of liquid.(A) 1750 kg/m3 (B) 700 kg/m3 (C) 875 kg/m3 (D) 1500 kg/m3

05. A bullet when fired at a target with a velocity of 100 m/sec penetrates one meter into it. If the bullet isfired at a same target with a thickness 0.5 meter then it will emerge it with a velocity

(A) 50 2 m/sec (B) 50 m / sec

2 (C) 50 m/sec (D) 10 m/sec

06. A machine part is under going SHM with a frequency of 5 Hz and amplitude 1.8 cm. How long does ittake to go from x = 0 to x = – 1.8 cm.

(A) 1 sec20 (B)

1 sec15 (C)

1 sec10 (D)

1 sec30

07. A driver of a car approaching a vertical wall notices that the frequency of his car horn has changed from440 to 480 Hz when it gets reflected from the wall. Find the speed of the car if the speed of the sound is330 m/sec(A) 16.3 m/sec (B) 15.3 m/sec (C) 14.3 m/sec (D) None

08. In the network shown in figure each resistance is R. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

R

R RRR RR

R R

BA

C D

E F

(A) 20 R11 (B)

19 R20 (C)

8 R15 (D)

R2

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09. The displacement time graph of a moving particle is shown as below. The instantaneous velocity of theparticle is negative at the point

R S

Q

P

s

t(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

10. In the circuit shown below the current that flows from a to b when switch is closed is

20

105

a

b

s 10V +–

(A) –1.5 A (B) + 1.5 A (C) + both A and B (D) – 1.0 A

11. Let A and B be the point respectively above and below the earth’s surface each at a distance equal tohalf the radius of the earth. If the acceleration due to gravity at these points be gA and gB respectively thengB : gA is(A) 1 : 1 (B) 9 : 8 (C) 8 : 9 (D) zero

12. Two pulley arrangements (A) and (B) are as shown in the figure. Neglect the masses of the ropes andpulley and the friction. The ratio of the acceleration of mass m in arrangement (A) to that in arrangement(B) is

2mm

(A)

f = 2mgm

(B)

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 1

13. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance moved bythe body in time t is proportional to

(A) 12t (B)

34t (C)

32t (D) 2t

14. A metallic body having density 8000 kg/m3 has a cavity inside, A spring balance shows its mass to be 10kg in air and 7.5 kg when immersed in water. The ratio of the volume of the cavity to the volume of thebody must be

(A) 25 (B)

12 (C) 1 (D)

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15. When two ends of a spring are pulled apart increasing its length it produces force equal to kx at its end.At a point 1/3 of its length from one end the force is(A) 0.25 kx (B) 0.33 kx (C) 0.75 kx (D) 1.0 kx

CHEMISTRY

16. In the reaction 3 4 2 38Al 3Fe O 4Al O 9Fe the number of electrons transferred from the reductant tooxidant is(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 24

17. A metal sulphate has the formula M2(SO4)3. A pyrophosphate of the same metal will have the formula(A) M3(P2O4)4 (B) M(P2O7)2 (C) M4(P2O7)3 (D) M3(P2O7)4

18. The pH of 10–8 molar solution of HCl in water is(A) 8 (B) –8(C) between 7 to 8 (D) between 6 and 7

19. 50 ml of 0.1 N HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 0.1 N KOH solution the pH of the solution will be(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 9

20. The metals present in insulin, haemoglobin and vitamin B12, are respectively(A) Zn, Hg, Cr (B) Zn, Cr, Co (C) Mg, Fe, Co (D) Zn, Fe, Co

21. Two liquids CCl4 and water can be separated by(A) Separating funnel (B) distillation(C) Filtration (D) evaporation

22. Substances which can undergo sublimation are(A) Iodine (B) Camphor (C) Naphthalene (D) All of these

23. Bohr’s model of atom explains(A) Zeeman’s effect (B) Heisenberg’s principle(C) Stark’s effect (D) None of these

24. Which property is not shown in colloids(A) coagulation (B) Tyndall effect (C) cataphoresis (D) homogenity

25. The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of the element of atomic number 24 is(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 6

26. What is the total number of atoms present in 25.0 mg of camphor (C10H16O)(A) 9.89 × 1019 (B) 2.67 × 1021 (C) 6.02 × 1020 (D) 2.57 × 1021

27. Which of the following compound has carbon 40% by mass(A) CH4 (B) C12H22O11 (C) C6H12O6 (D) C6H10O5

28. Law of definite proportions is given by(A) Dalton (B) Proust (C) Lavoiser (D) Ritcher

29. If 0.5 mol of BaCI2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na3PO4. The maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 that can beformed is(A) 0.70 mol (B) 0.5 mol (C) 0.10 mol (D) 0.20 mol

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30. Which of the following represents the suitable conditions for the liquefaction of gases(A) low temperature, low pressure (B) high temperature, low pressure(C) high temperature, high pressure (D) low temperature, high pressure

BIOLOGY

31. Find the odd one out with respect to breeds of cow.(A) Karan swiss (B) Karan fries (C) Fire swal (D) Brown swiss

32. Main sugar of honey is(A) Lavulose (B) Glucose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose

33. Name of the cell organelle which is not present in neuron but plays very important role in sexual reproductionin human(A) Golgi apparatus (B) Endoplasmic Reticulum(C) Centrioles (D) Mitochondria

34. With respect to largest number of chromosomes, which pair is correct.(A) Ophioglossum and Aulacantha (B) Ophioglossum and Human(C) Aulacantha and Human (D) Elephant and Human

35. The substance present in cell wall of phellem, making it water resistant is(A) Cellulose (B) Suberin (C) Lignin (D) Pectin

36. Inner surface of Fallopian tube is lined by(A) Cubodial epithelium (B) Columnar epithelium(C) Squamous epithelium (D) Ciliated epithelium

37. Find the correct binomial name from the list below :(A) Panthera Leo (B) Mangifera Indica(C) Solanum tuberosum (D) Indica mangifera

38. Most highest number of species of animals which are Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and metamericallysegmented belongs to Phylum –(A) Mollusca (B) Arthropoda (C) Plathyhelminthes (D) Mammalia

39. Find the correct matched pair(A) Acute disease - Tuberculosis (B) Non communicable disease - Chicken Pox(C) Chronic disease - Tuberculosis(D) Communicable disease - Night blindness

40. The process of formation of soil from rocky Earth’s crust is called ________.(A) Pedogensis (B) Haemolysis (C) Ploughing (D) Irrigation

41. In an adult human, dental formula is

(A) 2 1 22 1 2

(B) 2 1 22 1 2di dc dp / di dc dp

(C) 2 1 2 32 1 2 3

(D) 2 1 2 22 1 2 2

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42. Find the correct statement about blood groups(A) Agglutinogen (Antigen) is a glycoprotein present in WBCs.(B) Agglutinin occurs in RBCs.(C) Person having blood group O is universal donor and receives blood from O blood group person only.(D) AB group is universal recipient and can donate blood to A, B and AB blood group individuals.

43. Find the wrong pairing(A) Nephridia : Leech (B) Organ of Bojans : Snail(C) Malpighian tubules : Spider (D) Kidney : Rat

44. Find the heterogenous option.(A) STH, TSH (B) FSH, LH (C) Thyroxine, Calcitonin (D) PL, Insulin

45. In mammals the speed of nerve impulse in motor neurons is __________.(A) 10 – 120 m/sec (B) 10 – 120 mm/sec (C) 5 – 25 m/sec. (D) 5 – 25 mm/sec.

MATHEMATICS

46. The value of 5 5 5 5....... is

(A) 0 (B) 5(C) Can’t be determined (D) infinity

47. Last digit of the number 17299 × 4300 × 29623 × 8321 is(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 2

48. Mr. Rahul asked Mr. Dheeraj that which year did he graduated from IIT Bombay. Mr. Dheeraj said that theyear is the remainder when 1 + x + x2 + ..... + x2012 is divided by x – 1. Can you tell in which year Mr.Dheeraj graduated from IIT Bombay?(A) 2011 (B) 2013 (C) 2012 (D) 2014

49. In a certain town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car, 65% families own neither a phone nor acar. 2000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following statements :-(i) 10% families own both a car and a phone.(ii) 35% families own either a car or a phone.(iii) 40,000 families live in the town. Which one of the statements are correct?(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

50. a2 + 4b2 + 9c2 – 2ab – 6bc – 3ac. Given term is always.(A) Positive (B) Non - Positive (C) Negative (D) Non - Negative

51. If the non - zero numbers a1, a2, a3, ...., an are in AP, then 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 5 n 2 n 1 n

1 1 1 1.....a a a a a a a a a a a a

is

(A) 2 1 1 2 n 1 n

1 1 12 a a a a a a

(B) n 1 1 2 n 1 n

1 1 12 a a a a a a

(C) 2 1 1 n

1 1 12 a a a a

(D) n 1 1 n 1 2 n

1 1 1a a a a a a

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52. The points (1, 3) and (5, 1) are two opposite vertices of a rectangle. The other two vertices lie on the liney = 2x + c. Then value of c and other two vertices are(A) C = 4, (4, 12), (3, 10) (B) C = 0, (1, 2), (2, 4)(C) C = – 2 (4, 6), (2, 2) (D) C = –4, (4, 4), (2, 0)

53. If two numbers p and q are chosen at random from the set { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6,7, 8, 9, 10} with replacement,determine the probability that the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0 are real.(A) 3/5 (B) 61/100 (C) 31/50 (D) 67/100

54. If log x log y log zy z z x x y

then the value of y z z x x yx y z is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 10

55. If x = loga (bc), y = logb (ca) and z = logc (ab) then the value of (x + 1)–1 + (y + 1)–1 + (z + 1) –1 is(A) 27 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

56. Number of real solutions of the equation 2 2x 3 x 3

5 2 6 5 2 6 10

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

57. Find the value of sin21º + sin22º + sin23º ... + sin290º.(A) 42 (B) 44.5 (C) 43.5 (D) 45.5

58. If a + b + c = 0, then 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2a b c a b c a b cx x x

(A) 2 2 2a b cx (B) 12x (C) 2 2 2

1a b cx (D) x3

59. A cube of side 6cm is painted on all its 6 faces with red colour. It is then broken up into 216 smaller identicalcubes. What is the ratio of N0 : N1 : N2 where N0 Number of smaller cubes with No colored surfaceN1 Number of smaller cubes with 1 red face.N2 Number of smaller cubes with 2 red faces.(A) 3 : 4 : 6 (B) 3 : 4 : 5 (C) 4 : 6 : 3 (D) 6 : 4 : 3

60. If 3 2x3 5

and 3 2y3 5

then the value of x2 + y2 + xy is

(A) 32 (B) 98 (C) 98 2 (D) 99

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MENTAL ABILITYDirections for Q. 61 & 62 : In the following questions, three words are given which have something in commonamong themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose that alternative as your answer which is similar to thegiven words.61. Which of the following is the same as ‘Varanasi’, ‘Kanpur’, ‘Lucknow’?

(A) Gaya (B) Jodhpur (C) Ghaziabad (D) Bhagalpur

62. Release : Liberate : Emancipate(A) Pardon (B) Ignore (C) Quit (D) Free

63. In a certain code language ‘SHORE’ is written as ‘QFMPC’, then how will ‘WNKGL’ is written in thatlanguage?(A) NIMPY (B) YPMIN (C) ULIEJ (D) ULIGE

64. If in a certain code language ‘ORIENT’ is written as ‘532146’ and ‘SOUL’ is written as ‘7598’, then howwill ‘LINE’ be written in that language?(A) 9241 (B) 7341 (C) 8241 (D) 6241

65. If ‘flower’ is called ‘tree’, ‘tree’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘gold’ and ‘gold’ is called ‘white’, then withwhich of the following items, jewellery is made?(A) Tree (B) Red (C) White (D) Flower

Directions for Q. 66 and Q. 67 : In the following questions, three alternatives are same in a certain way out of fourand so form a group. Find the odd word that does not belong to the group.66. (A) Ring (B) Tyre (C) Plate (D) Bangle

67. (A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 35 (D) 49

68. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESLA, using each letter only once in eachword?(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

69. If 382 is written as 238, 473 as 347 and so on, then which of the following two numbers will have leastdifference between them?(A) 473 and 382 (B) 629 and 728(C) 629 and 568 (D) 728 and 847

70. From the word ‘LAPAROSCOPY’, how many independent meaningful English words can be made withoutchanging the order of the letters and using each letter only once?(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Directions for Q. 71 to Q. 73 : In each question below, is given a group of letters by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the four combination correctly representsthe group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of thatcombination as your answer.

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letterDigit/Symbol code

B6

A$

D7

E8

F#

H1

J2

K M%

I U O43

W9

F@

P5

(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, their codes are to be interchanged.(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as ' ' .(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.

71. EKFUDH(A) 8 # 7 8 (B) 1 # 7 8 (C) # 7 8 (D) 1 # 7 1

72. JMEIUD(A) % (B) % (C) % (D) %

73. PEJDWU(A) 5 8 2 7 9 (B) 8 2 7 9 (C) 8 2 7 9 (D) 5 8 2 7 9 5

Directions for Q. 74 & Q. 75 : In the following series, replace the question mark (?) with the suitable option.74. 51975, 9450, 2100, 600, 240, 160,?

(A) 80 (B) 120 (C) 320 (D) 240

75. 77, 59, 55, 35, 25, ?(A) 24 (B) 28 (C) 20 (D) 27

76. In the following question, which character when placed at the sign of interrogation (?) shall complete thegiven pattern.

(A) DK (B) DW (C) DL (D) DE

77. In this question, choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

A

U

I?

I

OA

E74

5 3

8

2811

1 64

? 216

(A) U and 28 (B) I and 26 (C) E and 27 (D) A and 25

Directions for Q. 78 to Q.80 : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions thatfollow.Each of the six friends A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A andE. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest scored 81 marks. Escored 62 marks.78. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?

(A) 70 (B) 94 (C) 86 (D) 61

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79. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?(A) D’s score was definitely less than 60.(B) F scored the maximum marks.(C) Only two people scored more than C(D) None of the above is true.

80. The person who scored the maximum scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can beD’s score?(A) 94 (B) 60 (C) 89 (D) 78

Direction for Q. 81 & Q.82 : In the following question, all the equations except one have been solved accordingto a certain rule. You are required to solve the unsolved equation following the same rule and to choose the correctanswer out of the given options.81. If 4 × 4 = 6, 8 × 8 = 54 and 9 × 9 = 71, then 2 × 3 = ?

(A) 4 (B) – 6 (C) – 4 (D) 5

82. If 4267 = 10 and 3374 = 9, then 4255 = ?(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 8

83. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman relatedwith the man?(A) Sister-in-law (B) Wife (C) Aunt (D) Mother-in-law

Directions for Q. 84 to Q. 87 : Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.I. There is a family of six members.II. Members are A, B, C, D, E and F.III. A and B are married couple, B being the female member.IV. B is the daughter-in-law of F.V. D is the only son of C.VI. E is the siste of D.VII. F’s husband is not alive.VIII. C is A’ brother.

84. How is F related to C?(A) Sister (B) Mother (C) Aunt (D) Mother-in-law

85. Who is C to B?(A) Nephew (B) Brother (C) Brother-in-law (D) Son-in-law

86. How is F related to A?(A) Sister (B) Sister-in-law (C) Mother (D) Mother-in-law

87. How many males are there in the family?(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

88. What angle will be traced by the hands of a clock at 7 : 35?

(A) 1º72 (B)

1º172 (C)

1º272 (D)

1º372

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89. Two clocks are set correctly at 9 am on Monday. Both the clocks gain 3 min and 5 min respectively in anhour. What time will the second clock register, if the first clock which gain 3 min in an hour shows the timeas 27 min past 6 pm on the same day?(A) 6 : 27 pm (B) 6 : 45 pm (C) 6 : 25 pm (D) 6 : 50 pm

Directions for Q. 90 to Q. 94 : Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below. A word andnumber arrangement machine when given a particular. Input, rearranges if following a particular rule. The followingis the illustration of input and the steps of arrangement.

Input 15 give not hot 45 33 forStep I for give not hot 45 33 15Step II for not give hot 33 45 55Step III 15 not give hot 33 45 forStep IV 15 give not hot 45 33 forStep V for give not hot 45 33 15

90. If ‘19 36 43 50 31 22 25’ is the input, then find out the Step IV.(A) 43 19 36 50 31 22 25 (B) 25 22 31 50 43 36 19(C) 50 31 22 25 43 36 19 (D) 19 36 43 50 31 22 25

91. If ‘rat cat fat chat that hat mat’ is the Step II, then what would be the input?(A) mat fat cat chat hat that rat (B) chat mat fat cat rat that hat(C) fat mat chat cat rat hat that (D) that hat rat cat chat mat fat

92. If input is ‘16 nine 32 ten two five six’, then find Step V.(A) 32 ten two five 16 nine six (B) 32 six ten two five 16 nine(C) six nine 32 ten two five 16 (D) 16 five two ten 32 nine six

93. We have Step V as ‘24 99 100 121 fine wine dine’, then what would be the Step II?(A) 24 100 99 121 wine fine dine (B) dine fine wine 24 100 99 121(C) wine fine dine 24 100 99 121 (D) 121 99 100 24 dine fine wine

94. Step III ‘39 40 41 59 35 tap map’. Find the input.(A) map 41 40 59 tap 35 39 (B) 39 35 tap 59 40 41 map(C) tap 41 40 59 map 35 39 (D) none of these

95. The following question consists of five problem figure marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 followed by four answer(A), (B), (C) and (D). Find out the figure from the answer figures which will continue the given series.Problem Figures Answer Figures

96. The following series consists of six figures, two of which at the ends are unmarked. One of the fourmarked figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.

O XS X

S

X O T P

O X

O X X O

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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97. In the following question, a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of figures. Select thepair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair. The best possible answer is to be selected froma group of fairly close choice.

98. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 13

99. From the given four positions of a single dice, find the digit at the face opposite to the face having digit 3.

4

56

I

5

36

II

1

24

III

1

46

IV

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5

100.

To which hexagon below can a dot be added, so that both dots then meet the same conditions as the twodots in the hexagon above?

(A) (B) (C) (D)