IIT-JEE 2010 Model Test Sample Question Paper

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360° coverage, analysis and guidance on education MODELTEST IIT – JEE - 2010 (PAPER – 1, CODE – A) Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240 A. Question paper format: 1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part has 4 sections. 2. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct. 3. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct. 4. Section III contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct. 5. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more statements(s) given in column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS. B. Marking scheme: For More Sample Paper and Their Answer Key Visit -http://www.educationmaster.org/ GLS, P-9, 2 nd Floor, Pandav Nagar, Mayur Vihar, Phase-I, Delhi – 110091 Ph: 011- 22750201 www.iitconnection.com

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IIT-JEE 2010 Model Test Sample Question Paper

Transcript of IIT-JEE 2010 Model Test Sample Question Paper

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MODELTEST IIT – JEE - 2010 (PAPER – 1, CODE – A)Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

A. Question paper format:

1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part has 4 sections.

2. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

3. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

4. Section III contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

5. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more statements(s) given in column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

B. Marking scheme:

6. For each question in Section I you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

7. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, Minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

8. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

9. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

PART I: PHYSICSFor More Sample Paper and Their Answer Key

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SECTION – ISingle Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONLY ONE is correct.Q.1 The circuit below is made up using identical light bulbs. The light bulbs of maximum

brightness of the following will be

(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

Q.2 A ray of light is incident at the interface separating two media having refractive indices µ

1 = 1 and µ

2 =

2 as shown. If angle of incidence of ray is equal to the critical angle for the two media, then deviation in the ray is :

(A) 45º (B) 90º (C) 30º (D) 15º

Q.3. In an experiment to determine the focal length (f) of a concave mirror by the u–v method, a student places the object pin A on the principal axis at a distance x from the pole P. The student looks at the pin and its inverted image from a distance keeping his/her eye in line with PA. When the student shifts his/her eye towards left, the image appears to the right of the object pin. Then, (A)x < f (B) f < x < 2f(C) x = 2f (D)x > 2f.

Q.4. A circuit is connected as shown in the figure with the switch S open. When the switch is closed, the total amount of charge the flows from Y to X is (A)0 (B) 54 C(C) 27 C (D)81 C.

Q.5. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with

an initial velocity v. It reaches up to a maximum height of

3v2

4 g with respect to the initial position. The object is

(A) ring

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(µ = 11

2µ 2

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(B) solid sphere

(C) hollow sphere

(D) disc

Q.6. Water is filled upto a height h in a beaker of radius R as shown in the figure. The density of water is , the surface tension of water is T and the atmospheric pressure is P0. Consider a vertical section ABCD of the water column through a diameter of the beaker. The force on water on one side of this section by water on the other side of this section has magnitude

(A) |2 P0 Rh+ πR2 ρ gh−2 RT| (B)

(C)

|P0 πR2+ Rρ gh2−2RT|(D)

|P0 πR2+ Rρ gh2+2RT|

Q.7. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere having a charge distributed uniformly in its volume as shown in the figure. The electric field inside the emptied space is

(A) zero everywhere (B) non–zero and uniform

(C) non–uniform (D) zero only at its centre

Q.8 A radioactive sample decays by -emission. In first two seconds 'n' -particles are emitted and in next 2 seconds, '0.25n' -particles are emitted. The half life of radioactive nuclei is(A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec (C) 1 sec (D) none

SECTION – IIMultiple Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONE OR MORE is /are correct.Q.9 Monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic gases whose initial volume and pressure are same,

each is compressed till their pressure becomes twice the initial pressure then.(A) If the compression is isothermal then their final volumes will be same(B) If the compression is adiabatic, then their final volume will be different(C) If the compression is adiabatic, then triatomic gas will have maximum final volume(D) If the compression is adiabatic then monoatomic gas will have maximum final volume

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Q.10 Coherent light consisting of two wavelengths 1 = 4500 Å & 2 = 6000 Å is sent through

both slits of a Young's double slit apparatus(A) Central maxima for both wavelengths will coincide(B) The third order bright fringe of 1 will coincide with the fourth order bright fringe of

2

(C) The third order bright fringe of 2 will coincide with fourth order bright fringe of 1

(D) The fringes of wavelength 1 will be wider than the fringes of wavelength 2

Q.11 In Young’s double slit experiment, phase difference between the waves at a point on screen having intensity less than the average intensity on screen may be (A) /4 (B) 2/3 (C) (D) 7/8

Q.12 Three equal point changes (Q) are kept at the three corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side a. P is a point having equal distance a from A, B and C. If E is the magnitude of electric field and V is the potential at point P, then

(A) E = 2

0a4

Q3

B) E =2

0a4

Q6

(C) V = a4

Q3

0 (D) E =2

0a4

Q63

SECTION –IIIComprehension TypeThis section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Eachquestion has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Comprehension: (Q.13 to Q.15)The fact that a changing magnetic flux produces an electric field is basic to the operation of many high energy particle accelerators. Since the principle was first successfully applied to the acceleration of electrons (or particles) in a device called the betatron, this method of acceleration is often given that name. The general idea involved is shown in figure.

An electromagnet is used to produce a changing flux through a circular loop defined by the doughnut-shaped vacuum chamber. We see that there will be an electric field E along the circular length of the doughnut, i.e. circling the magnet poles, given by

2aE = dt

d

Where a is the radius of the doughnut. Any charged particle inside the vacuum chamber will experience a force qE and will accelerate. Ordinarily, the charged particle would shoot out of the vacuum chamber and becomes lost.However, if the magnetic field at the position of the doughnut is just proper to satisfy the relation Centripetal force = magnetic force

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or a

mv2

= qvBthen the charge will travel in a circle within the doughnut. By proper shaping of the magnet pole pieces, this relation can be satisfied. As a result, the charge will move at high speed along the loop within the doughnut. Each time it goes around the loop, it has,

in effect, fallen through a potential difference equal to the induced emf, namely = dt

d

. Its energy after n trips around the loop will be q (n)

Q.13 Working of betatron is not based upon which of the following theories(A) changing magnetic flux induces electric field(B) charged particles at rest can be accelerated only by electric fields(C) magnetic fields can apply a force on moving charges which is perpendicular to both magnetic field and motion of the particle(D) beta particles are emitted in radioactive decay process.

Q.14 Variable magnetic flux(A) can change sinusoidally(B) should either increase or decrease all the time(C) must becomes zero when induced field is maximum(D) none of these

Q.15 Magnetic field which keeps the particles in circular path must(A) remain a constant every where(B) increase gradually which is proportional to K.E. of the particle (C) increase gradually which is proportional to speed of the particle (D) none of these

P16–18: Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

Two discs A and B are mounted coaxially on a vertical axle. The discs have moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about the common axis. Disc A is imparted an initial angular velocity 2 using the entire potential energy of a spring compressed by a distance x1. Disc B is imparted an angular velocity by a spring having the same spring constant and compressed by a distance x2. Both the discs rotate in the clockwise direction.

16. The radio x1/x2 is

(A) 2 (B)

(C) (D) .

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17. When disc B is brought in contact with disc A, they acquire a common angular velocity in time t. The average frictional torque on one disc by the other during this period is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) .

18. The loss of kinetic energy during the above process is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) .

Matrix-Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to bematched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeledp, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) inColumn II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened asillustrated in the following example:If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbleswill look like the following.

Q.19 A homogeneous magnetic field B is perpendicular to a sufficiently long track of width l

which is horizontal. A frictionless conducting resistanceless rod of mass m straddles the two rail of the track as shown in the figure. Entire arrangement lies in horizontal plane. For the situation suggested in column-II match the appropriate entries in column-I. The rails are also resistancesless.

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Column-I Column-II

(A) A is a battery of emf V and internal (P) Energyis dissipated during the motion.

resistance R. The rod is initially at rest.

(B) A is a charged capacitor. The system has (Q) The rod moves with a constant no resistance. The rod is initiallyat rest. velocity after a long time.

(C) A is an inductor with initial current i0. It (R) After a certain time interval rod is having no resistance. Will change its direction of

motion.

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(D) A is a resistance. The rod is projected to (S) If a constant force is applied on the rod to the right, it can move with a constant velocity.

the right with a velocity V0

(T) The rod stops after some time in absence of an external force.

20.Two horizontal conducting rails are connected by a box. A conducting rod is given a velocity v

0 on the rails as shown. There exists a vertically downward

magnetic field everywhere. The rails and rod are frictionless and of negligible

resistance. The rails are very long.

Match the content of box in Column-I to the possible type of motion in Column-II.Column-I Column-II

(A) Box contains resistor (p) rod performs SHM (B) Box contains capacitor (q) rod moves with decreasing speed

and finally stops(C) Box contains inductor (r) rod moves with constant velocity(D) Box contains a resistor and a capacitor (s) energy of system made of rod and

in parallel box remains conserved

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Box v 0

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

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PART I: CHEMISTRY SECTION – ISingle Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. The species having bond order different from that in CO is

(A) NO– (B) NO+

(C) CN– (D) N2

22. Among the following the paramagnetic compound is

(A) Na2O2 (B) O3

(C) N2O (D) KO2

23. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by

(A) electrolytic reduction

(B) roasting followed by reduction with carbon

(C) roasting followed by reduction with another metal

(D) roasting followed by self-reduction

24. In the following reaction,

the structure of the major product ‘X’ is

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(A) (B)

(C) (D)

25. The reagent(s) for the following conversion,

is/are

(A) alcoholic KOH (B) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2

(C) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 (D) Zn/CH3OH

26. The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 5 (D) 6

27. The percentage of p-character in the orbital forming P – P bond in P4 is

(A) 25 (B) 33

(C) 50 (D) 75

Q.28 The hybridization of the complex [CrCl2(NO2)2 (NH3)2]– is

A) sp3d2 (B) d2sp3 (C) sp3d (D) Can't be predicated

SECTION – IIMultiple Correct Choice Type

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This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONE OR MORE is /are correct.

Q.29 Above conversion can be achieved by(A) O3/H2O2 (B) NaIO4/KMnO4(cold)

(C) O3/Zn(H2O) (D) LiAlH4

Q.30 Which one of the following statement(s) is/are false?(A) Weak ligands like F—, Cl— and OH— usually form low spin complexes.

(B) Strong ligand like CN— and –2NO , generally form high spin complexes.

(C) [FeF6]3– is high spin complex.

(D) [Ni(CO)4] is high spin complex

Q.31 Select the correct statement(s): (A) In general G, H, S all have negative values in physical adsorption

(B) When a nuclide undergoes electron capture the mass number remains unchanged and the atomic number increases by one(C) Gas A diffuses twice as fast as another gas B. If the vapour density of the gas A is 4, then the gram molecular mass of the gas B is 32(D) Shortest distance between cation & anion in antifluorite structure (A2B type) is

2

3a

;where a = edge length of cube

Q.32 Which statement is correct(A) Higher is the polarisation, higher will be relative solubility in non-polar solvent(B) Higher is the polarisation, higher will be the intensity of colour(C) Diamagnetic substances some times become coloured due to HOMO-LUMO transition

(D) Higher is the polarisation in metal oxide, higher will be the basic character

SECTION –IIIComprehension TypeThis section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Eachquestion has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

C33-35: Paragraph for Questions Nos. 33 to 35

The noble gases have closed-shell electronic configuration and are monoatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling points of the lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms and the absence of other interatomic interactions.

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The direct reaction of xenon with fluorine leads to a series of compounds with oxidation numbers +2, +4 and +6. XeF4 reacts violently with water to give XeO3. The compounds of xenon exhibit rich stereochemistry and their geometries can be deduced considering the total number of electron pairs in the valence shell.

33. Argon is used in arc welding because of its

(A) low reactivity with metal

(B) ability to lower the melting point of metal

(C) flammability

(D) high calorific value

34. The structure of XeO3 is

(A) linear (B) planar

(C) pyramidal (D) T-shaped

35. XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be

(A) oxidizing (B) reducing

(C) unreactive (D) strongly basic

C36-38 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 36 to 38

Chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules. A large number of atoms/molecules (approximately 6.023 1023) are present in a few grams of any chemical compound varying with their atomic/molecular masses. To handle such large numbers conveniently, the mole concept was introduced. This concept has implications in diverse areas such as analytical chemistry, biochemistry, electrochemistry and radiochemistry. The following example illustrates a typical case, involving chemical/electrochemical reaction, which requires a clear understanding of the mole concept.

A 4.0 molar aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and 500 mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes (atomic mass: Na = 23, Hg = 200; 1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs).

36. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0

(C) 2.0 (D) 3.0

37. If the cathode is a Hg electrode, the maximum weight (g) of amalgam formed from this solution is

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(A) 200 (B) 225

(C) 400 (D) 446

38. The total charge (coulombs) required for complete electrolysis is

(A) 24125 (B) 48250

(C) 96500 (D) 193000

Matrix-Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to bematched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeledp, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) inColumn II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened asillustrated in the following example:If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbleswill look like the following.

39. Match the complexes in Column I with their properties listed in Column II. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.

Column I Column II

(A) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl2 (p) geometrical isomers

(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (q) paramagnetic

(C) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl (r) diamagnetic

(D) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (s) metal ion with +2 oxidation state

(r) Ferromagnetic

40 .Match the column. Column I Column II (Conversion processes) (Involves which of the following operation/s)

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(A)

Auriferrous rock Au (P) Roasting (separately)

(B) Haemetite containing siderite (Q) Smelting and magnetite Fe

(C) Bauxite Al (R) Leaching

(D)

Galena Pb (S) Electrolytic reduction

(by self reduction) (T) Froth floatation

PART III: MATHEMATICS SECTION – ISingle Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. Let , be the roots of the equation x2 – px + r = 0 and be the roots of the equation x2 – qx + r = 0. Then the values of r is

(A) (p – q) (2q – p) (B) (q – p) (2p – q)

(C) (q – 2p ) (2q – p) (D) (2p – q) (2q – p)

42. Let f(x) be differentiable on the interval (0, ) such that f(1) = 1, and for each x > 0. Then f(x) is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

43. One Indian and four American men and their wives are to be seated randomly around a circular table. Then the conditional probability that the Indian man is seated adjacent to his wife given that each American man is seated adjacent to his wife is

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(A) (B)

(C) (D)

44. The tangent to the curve y = ex drawn at the point (c, ec) intersects the line joining the points (c – 1, ec-1) and (c + 1, ec+1)

(A) on the left of x = c (B) on the right of x = c

(C) at no point (D) at all points

45. equals

(A) (B)

(C) (D) 4f(2)

46. If |z| = 1 and z ±1, then all the value of lie on

(a) a line not passing through the origin (b)

(c) the x-axis (d) the y-axis

47. The differential equation determines a family of circles with

(a) variable radii and fixed centre at (0, 1)(b) variable radii and a fixed centre at (0, 1)

(c) fixed radius 1 and variable centres along the x-axis

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(d) fixed radius 1 and variable centres along the y-axis

48. Let be unit vectors such that . Which one of the following is correct?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) are mutually perpendicular

SECTION – IIMultiple Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,out of which ONE OR MORE is /are correct.

Q.49 Suppose I1 =dx)xsincos(

2/

0

2

; I2 =

dx)xsin2cos(2/

0

2

and I3 =

dx)xsincos(2/

0

, then

(A) I1 = 0 (B) I2 + I3 = 0 (C) I1 + I2 + I3 = 0 (D) I2 = I3

Q.50 Suppose that the function f has a continuous second derivative for all x and that f (0) = 2, f '(0) = – 3 and f ''(0) = 0. Let g be a function such that g'(x) = e–2x (3 f (x) + 2 f ' (x) ) for all x and g(0) = 4. Which of the following is/are correct?(A) Equation of the line tangent to the graph of g at the point where x = 0 is y = 4.(B) The function g has a local maxima at x = 0(C) The function g has local minima at x = 0(D) The function g has an inflection point at x = 0

Q.51 Let Z1 and Z2 are two non zero complex numbers such that | Z1 + Z2 | = | Z1 | = | Z2 |

then 2

1

Z

Z

can be equal to(A) 1 + (B) 1 + 2 (C) (D) 2

where is the non real cubs root of unity.

Q.52 A pair of fair dice having six faces numbered from 1 to 6 are thrown once. Suppose two events E and F are defined as

E : At least one of the dice shows up the face one.F : Product of the two numbers appearing is divisible by 5.

Then the events E and F are(A) mutually exclusive (B) such that P(E / F) = P(F / E)(C) neither independent nor mutually exclusive (D) are equiprobable

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SECTION –IIIComprehension TypeThis section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Eachquestion has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

M61-63 : Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

If a continuous function f defined on the real line R, assumes positive and negative values in R then the equation f(x) = 0 has a root in R. For example, if it is known that a continuous function f on R is positive at some point and its minimum value is negative then the equation f(x) = 0 has a root in R.

Consider f(x) = kex – x for all real x where k is a real constant.

53. The line y = x meets y = kex for k 0 at

(A) no point (B) one point

(C) two points (D) more than two points

54. The positive value of k for which kex – x = 0 has only one root is

(A) (B) 1

(C) e (D) loge2

55. For k > 0, the set of all values of k for which kex – x = 0 has two distinct roots is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (0, 1)

M61-63 : Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

Consider the circle x2 + y2 = 9 and the parabola y2 = 8x. They intersect at P and Q in the first and the fourth quadrants, respectively. Tangents to the circle at P and Q intersect the x-axis at R and tangents to the parabola at P and Q intersect the x-axis at S.

56. The ratio of the areas of the triangles PQS and PQR is

(A) (B) 1 : 2

(C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 8

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Page 18: IIT-JEE 2010 Model Test Sample Question Paper

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57. The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle PRS is

(A) 5 (B) 3

(C) 3 (D) 2

58. The radius of the incircle of the triangle PQR is

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) (D) 2

Matrix-Match TypeThis section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to bematched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeledp, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) inColumn II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened asillustrated in the following example:If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbleswill look like the following.

59. In the following [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x.

Match the functions in Column I with the properties in Column II and indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given the QRS.

Column I Column II

(A) x |x| (p) continuous in (-1, 1)

(B) (q) differentiable in (-1, 1)

(C) x + [x] (r) strictly increasing in (-1, 1)

(D) |x – 1| + |x + 1| (s) not differentiable at least at one point in (-1, 1)

(t) strictly decreasing in (-1, 1)

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Page 19: IIT-JEE 2010 Model Test Sample Question Paper

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60. Match the integrals in Column I with the values in Column II and indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given the QRS.

Column I Column II

(A) (p)

(B) (q)

(C) (r)

(D) (s)

(t) 1

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GLS, P-9, 2nd Floor, Pandav Nagar, Mayur Vihar, Phase-I, Delhi – 110091 Ph: 011-22750201www.iitconnection.com