IBPS SO Previous Year Question Paper 2017 - General

Awareness

Q.1 India’s biggest water carnival through ‘Jal Mahotsav’ is organized every year in which of the

following Island of the country?

1. Hanuwantiya Island

2. Havelock Island

3. Kadmat Island

4. Munroe Island

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.2 Who among the following is associated as a head with the High-level Task Force on Public Credit

Registry (PCR) formed by the Reserve Bank of India ?

1. S Venkitaraman

2. G. Ambegaokar

3. Yeshwant M. Deosthalee

4. R S Gujral

5. S R Rao

Answer: 3

Q.3 Which of the following authors wrote the novel ‘The Black Hill’ ?

1. Jhumpa Lahiri

2. Amitav Ghosh

3. Ramesh Kuntal

4. Mamang Dai

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.4 According to the report by the Commerce Ministry ‘Logistics Ease Across Different States

(LEADS)’, which of the following state has topped the Logistic Index Chart ?

1. Maharashtra

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Gujarat

4. Karnataka

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.5 Institute for Development & Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) is located in ?

1. Hyderabad

2. Bengaluru

3. Chennai

4. Mumbai

5. New Delhi

Answer: 1

Q.6. The Union Ministry of Human Resource Development has released the ‘All India Survey on Higher

Education (AISHE) Report 2016-17. Which of the following states has topped in terms of Gross

Enrolment Ratio in Higher Education ?

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Rajasthan

4. Maharashtra

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.7 Which of the following bank has launched ‘Project Nishchay’ in partnership with the Boston

Consulting Group (BCG) to accelerate its turnaround program and improve financial performance ?

1. HDFC

2. IDBI

3. HSBC

4. SBI

5. None of these

Answer: 2

Q.8 Currently who is the chairman of State Bank of India ?

1. Rajeev Rishi

2. Arundhati Bhattacharya

3. Usha Ananthasubramanian

4. Mahesh Kumar Jain

5. Rajnish Kumar

Answer: 5

Q.9 Which bank became the third bank by the Reserve Bank of India into Domestic Systemically

Important Banks (D-SIBs) list ?

1. ICICI Bank

2. SBI

3. HDFC Bank

4. Axis Bank

5. Bank of Baroda

Answer: 3

Q.10 Who is the head of the cabinet-level committee concerning the merger of public sector banks?

1. Arun Jaitley

2. Urjit Patel

3. Rajnath Singh

4. Narendra Modi

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.11 Rihand dam is located in which of the following states ?

1. Uttarakhand

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Telangana

4. Arunachal Pradesh

5. Assam

Answer: 2

Q.12 Where is Panna National Park located ?

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Gujarat

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.13 What is the slowdown in the rate of increase of prices of goods & services in National GDP over

time called ?

1. Deflation

2. Disinflation

3. Inflation

4. Reflation

5. None of these

Answer: 2

Q.14 Under which of the following denomination Kisan Vikas Patra is not available ?

1. 5000

2. 50000

3. 10000

4. 1000

5. 500

Answer: 5

Q.15. Which of the following bank has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with POORTI

(Platform for Online Ordering & Rural Transformation of India) Agri Services Pvt. Ltd to enable farmers

to purchase agricultural inputs like fertilizers, pesticides, seeds etc.?

1. State Bank of India

2. Central Bank of India

3. Bank of Baroda

4. Punjab Bank of India

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.16 When an account is declared as Inoperative & Dormant Accounts ?

1. Only after 2 years from the date of the last transaction

2. Only after 3 years from the date of the last transaction

3. Only after 1 years from the date of the last transaction

4. Only after 10 years from the date of the last transaction

5. No account can be declared as & Dormant Accounts

Answer: 1

Q.17 The banks avail long-term loans from Reserve Bank of India (RBI) by putting no collateral

securities. This loan is availed under which of the following lending rates ?

1. Bank rate

2. Repo rate

3. Reserve repo rate

4. Marginal Standing Facility

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.18 Where was Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 2017 summit held ?

1. Singapore

2. Vietnam

3. Australia

4. Japan

5. Malaysia

Answer: 2

Q.19 The economic survey of India is prepared by

1. Department of economic affairs

2. Central statistical office (CSO)

3. National sample survey organization (NSSO)

4. Office of Economic Advisor

5. Parliamentary Committee on Economic affairs.

Answer: 1

Q.20. IEA (International Energy Agency) secretariat is located in

1. Washington

2. Geneva

3. London

4. Paris

5. Berlin

Answer: 4

Q.21 With which of the following fields was Saksham Yadav who passed away due to a road accident

on Delhi-Panipat National Highway-1 associated ?

1. Artist

2. Writer

3. Sports

4. Politician

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.22 Who among the following has been awarded the ‘Children’s Peace Prize-2017’ ?

1. Malala Yousafzai

2. Mohamad Al Baruni

3. Mohamad Al Jounde

4. Both A & B

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.23. The World Braille Day is observed across the world every year on .

1. January 2

2. January 3

3. January 4

4. January 5

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.24 What is an 'ante-dated' cheque ?

1. A cheque issued without drawer's signature

2. A cheque with only signature of the drawer

3. A cheque which has completed three months from its date of issue

4. A cheque which has completed six months from its date of issue

5. A cheque which is written by the drawer and dated at some date in the past but not yet expired.

Answer: 5

Q.25 National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) has been renamed as

1. Bharat Net Project

2. Broadband Connectivity for all

3. Gram Panchayat connectivity scheme

4. Digital India Mission

5. Digigaon

Answer: 1

Q.26 Recently which bank announced to raise Rs 3,000 Crore via Basel III bonds ?

1. ICICI Bank

2. Union Bank of India

3. Allahabad Bank

4. IDBI BANK

5. Bank of Baroda

Answer: 5

Q.27 Which of the following is not allowed to trade in overnight borrowing market ?

A. Scheduled commercial banks

B. Regional rural bank

C. Cooperative banks

D. Primary dealers

1. Only A and B

2. Only B

3. Only A, B, And D

4. Only A And D

5. Only C And D

Answer: 2

Q.28 On the bank of which river is the city of Hyderabad situated ?

1. Krishna

2. Kaveri

3. Musi

4. Coomb

5. Vaigai

Answer: 3

Q.29 Who among the following has been appointed as member in ‘Financial Stability Institute Advisory

Board’ of ‘Bank of International Settlement (BIS)’ ?

1. Arvind Subramanian

2. Amartya Sen

3. Raghuram Rajan

4. Urjit Patel

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.30 Which of the following Cryptocurrency Dealers launched India’s first mobile ‘Bitcoin trading' app

for transacting in virtual currencies ?

1. Ether Delta Exchange

2. BitFin Exchange

3. Venus Exchange

4. Pluto Exchange

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.31 Which of the following film has been awarded the ‘Golden Peacock Award’ for the best film at

International Film Festival of India-2017 (IFFI) held in Goa ?

1. Dark Skull

2. Take Off

3. 120 Beats Per Minute

4. Angels Wear White

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.32. Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 60-megawatt Tuirial Hydroelectric

power project. The project is being constructed in which of the following state ?

1. Sikkim

2. Assam

3. Meghalaya

4. Mizoram

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.33 Which of the following scheme has been launched by the Union Government to supply electricity

to poor households ?

1. INSPIRE Programme

2. Saubhagya

3. Swabhiman

4. Swavalamban

5. None of these

Answer: 2

Q.34 First payments bank in India to integrate the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) on its digital

platform is

1. Paytm Payment Bank

2. Airtel Payment Bank

3. India Post Payment Bank

4. FINO Payment Bank

5. Vodafone M-Pesa

Answer: 2

Q.35. Who among the following has been appointed as the New Chairman of National Anti-Profiteering

Authority (NAAP) under Goods & Services Tax (GST) ?

1. BN Sharma

2. Ansul Gupta

3. Shravan Choudhary

4. NK Sharma

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.36 According to the ‘World Inequality Report 2018’, released by World Inequality Lab based in Paris,

which of the following country has the Highest Income Inequality?

1. Pakistan

2. Bangladesh

3. India

4. China

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.37 What is the Currency of Qatar?

1. Riyal

2. kwanza

3. Nuevo Sol

4. Peso

5. Dinar

Answer: 1

Q.38 Who among the following has won the World Rapid Chess Championship 2017 in Riyadh, Saudi

Arabia?

1. Krishanan Anand

2. Viswanathan Anand

3. Vladimir Fedoseev

4. Veselin Topalov

5. None of these

Answer: 2

Q.39 India has signed the USD 200 million loan agreement with which bank for Assam Agribusiness

and Rural Transformation project?

1. World Bank

2. State Bank of India

3. New Development Bank

4. Asian Development Bank

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.40 Consider the following statements with respect to Bitcoins or 'cryptocurrencies' as they are

commonly known;

I. Bitcoin is a decentralized electronic payment system

II. Only a finite number of bitcoins can be created by miners

III. Bitcoins are indivisible units of currency

IV. Every single bitcoin transaction is recorded in a ledger called the blockchain.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)

2. (i), (iii) and (iv)

3. (i), (ii) and (iv)

4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5. None of the above

Answer: 3

Q.41 Under which of the following Union Ministries has India’s first and fastest multi-petaflops

supercomputer ‘Pratyush’ been designed ?

1. Ministry of Earth Sciences

2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

3. Ministry of Defence

4. Ministry of Space

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.42 Who among the following has been elected as President of Indian Olympic Association for four

year term ?

1. Narendra Rao

2. Nikhil Bhandari

3. Naresh Singh

4. Narinder Batra

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.43. Recently, the 2017 Global Hunger Index is published. What is the position of India in this index ?

1. 97th

2. 98th

3. 100th

4. 102nd

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.44 Which of the following Acts has specially been launched to facilitate banks in recovery of bad

loans?

1. RBI Act

2. Banking Act

3. Companies Act

4. Income Tax Act

5. SARFAESI Act

Answer: 5

Q.45 Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari represent which constituency?

1. Nagpur

2. Kolhapur

3. Pune

4. Satara

5. Mumbai

Answer: 1

Q.46 Which of the following is the official emblem for the Beijing 2022 Paralympic Winter Games?

1. Flying high

2. Winter Dreams

3. Fight

4. Winter Flame

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Q.47. The Wassenaar Arrangement has decided to admit India as its new member. Which of the

following is correct with respect to the Wassenaar Arrangement?

1. It is a non-government organization

2. It is a multilateral export control regime

3. It promotes transparency and greater responsibility in transfer of conventional arms & dual-use

goods & technologies

4. Both B & C

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.48 Which of the following country has won the ‘2017 FIFA Under-17 World Cup’?

1. India

2. Germany

3. England

4. Spain

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.49 Which of the following is the capital of Ethiopia?

1. Yerevan

2. Minsk

3. Phnom Penh

4. Addis Ababa

5. Nicosia

Answer: 4

Q.50 The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) handles cases using

1. National company law tribunal

2. Debt recovery tribunal

3. Securities Appellate Tribunal

3. Only a and b

5. All the above

Answer: 4

IBPS SO Previous Year Question Paper 2017

Logical Reasoning

Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Seven persons A, U, S, T, J, Z and M live on four different floors. The lowermost floor is floor number 1 and the topmost floor is floor number 4. Two persons live on each floor while only one person lives on any of the floors. They go to movies in different months viz. January, February, March and April. They go to movies either on 13th of the month or on 27th of the month. Two persons go on each month while only one person go in any of the months.

A lives neither of floor 1 nor on floor 4. M goes to a movie in a month which has the least number of days but not on 27th. U does not go to the movie on 13th of any month. Only one person lives on floor 3 and he goes to movies in February. J and Z go to movie on 13th of any month. U does not live above M. Only one person go to the movie in February. S and T go to movies in different months. S does not live with U or T. T goes in March along with A. J goes after Z. J and Z can’t be on the first floor. S does not go to movie on 27th of any month. T goes on the 13th of the month.

Q 1. Who goes to movies in April?

1. Z and J 2. S and U 3. T and A 4. M and S

5. T and M

Answer: 1

Solution 1:

From the above details we get the following final table,

Floor 13th 27th

1 Z - April J- April

2 M- February ——-

3 S - January A - March

4 T - March U - January

Hence we can say that Z and J goes to movies in April.

Q 2. Find the odd man out?

1. Z 2. J 3. M 4. A

5. T

Answer: 3

Solution 2:

From the final table, we can find that M is the odd man out as he is the only person living in a floor, and the only person to watch a movie in a particular month.

Q 3. When does S go to the movie?

1. 27th January 2. 13th April 3. 13th March 4. 27th April 5. 13th January

Answer: 5

Solution 3:

From the above table, we can see that S goes to watch movie on 13th January.

Q 4. How many persons go to movie between J and U?

1. One 2. Three 3. More than three 4. Two

5. None

Answer: 3

Solution 4:

From the final table, we can see that 4 people go to watch the movie J and U; M in February, A and T in the month of March, Z on 13th April.

Q 5. Who goes fourth to watch the movie?

1. M 2. A 3. T 4. U 5. S

Answer: 3

Solution 5:

T is the fourth person to watch the movie on 13th March.

Directions (6-10): Study the following information given carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V & W belongs to six different states viz. Rajasthan, Delhi, Goa, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana and all of them sit on a circular table. Out of the eight persons, three of them are facing towards the centre. Two of the persons belongs to Rajasthan state and another two persons belong to Bihar state.

Both of the persons who belong to Bihar state is an immediate neighbour of S. W, a person from Bihar is an immediate neighbour of the person from Punjab. The person from Punjab is sitting 2nd left of P. There are three persons between P & S. The person from Goa is an immediate neighbour of the person from Delhi and another person from Q from Rajasthan. T, another person from Bihar is an immediate neighbour of Q. P is facing towards the centre. Another person S from Haryana is also facing the centre. V is an immediate neighbour of U and the person from Delhi. Both of the immediate neighbours of V are facing towards the centre.

Q 6. Which of the following persons belong to Goa?

1. U 2. P 3. R 4. V 5. None of these

Answer: 3

Solution 6:

From the above final figure, we can say that R belongs to Goa.

Q 7. Which of the following person belong to Rajasthan?

1. V, Q 2. R, Q 3. P, Q 4. U, Q

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution 7:

From the above figure we can say that V and Q belong to Rajasthan.

Q 8. Who is sitting 3rd left of V?

1. R 2. P 3. S 4. Q

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution 8:

From the above figure, we can say that Q is third to the left of V as V is facing outwards.

Q 9. Which state’s person is sitting 3rd to the right of the person from Punjab?

1. Delhi 2. Rajasthan 3. Bihar 4. Goa 5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution 9:

Person from Punjab is facing towards the centre, hence the person 3rd to the right is R from Goa.

Q 10. Which of the following persons belong to Delhi and Punjab respectively?

1. P, U 2. R, U 3. U, V 4. P, V 5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution 10:

From the above figure we can conclude that P and U belongs to Delhi and Punjab respectively.

Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are staying in a eight-storey building. Lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is numbered 8. They like different colours i.e. red, pink, silver, blue, black, brown, white and yellow, not necessarily in the same order. C likes yellow and is staying in an odd-numbered floor. Three persons are staying between C and B. B lives above C. The number of floors between B and A is same as C and D. A lives above D but below B. Two floors are between B and E who likes Brown. E doesn’t stay on the top floor. G likes white and lives below E. Two floors are between G and the one who likes Pink. One floor is between F and H who likes Red. At least one person is staying between F and A. The one who likes Blue, is staying just above the who likes Black colour. C doesn’t like Silver.

Q 11. Which of the following doesn’t belong to the group?

1. F 2. H 3. E 4. G 5. D

Answer: 5

Solution 11:

8th Floor F Blue

7th Floor B Black

6th Floor H Red

5ht Floor A Pink

4th Floor E Brown

3rd Floor C Yellow

2nd Floor G White

1st Floor D Silver

This can be easily solved if we pay attention to a couple of important sentences, which will help in deducing the rest of the paragraph very easily.

Statement - C stays in an odd-numbered floor implies the probable floors C could stay are 1,3,5,7. Rest of the floors are eliminated.

Statement - 3 floors are between B and C, this gives rise to 2 cases - B is above C or C is above B. Statement, says B is above C which easily eliminates one of the above cases.

From the above, we can find the probable floors of both B and C. C cannot be in 7th floor since it won’t satisfy the criteria of 3 floors in between B and C, as there are only 8 floors. If C is on the 5th floor then B will be in 9th which is not possible. Hence the possibility of C in 5th and 7th is eliminated. Now comes to other 2 floors, if C is on the 1st floor, then B is on the 5th floor; and if C is on the 3rd floor then B is on the 7th floor. Hence we have zeroed the floors of C and B to just 2 possibilities C - 1st floor and B 5th floor; 2nd possibility - C - 3rd floor and B - 7th floor.

Statement A is below B and above D; number of floors in between A and B is the same as between C and D. The above statements will help us in deciding the floors of multiple people; case 1 where C is on 1st floor is eliminated because we won’t be able to satisfy the above statements concerning floors of A and D and the uniform number of floors between B and C; between A and B; and between C and D. Hence the above conditions will be satisfied if C is on 3rd floor. Then D will be on 1st floor; B will on 7th floor and A will be on 5th floor; these satisfy the condition of 1 floor between C and D, 1 floor between A and B; and finally 3 floors between B and C. Once the flooring of B, C, A, D is attained rest of the statements will help in solving the colours and floors of respective people.

From the above explanation provided one can see that D lives on odd-numbered floor and rest of them live on an even-numbered floor.

Q 12. Which of the following combination is correct?

1. B - Blue 2. F - Black 3. C - Yellow 4. D - Yellow 5. A - Black

Answer: 3

Solution 12:

The answer to this question is directly given in the statement, no need to solve anything to answer this question.

Q 13. How many persons are staying between D and A?

1. More than 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 5. 4

Answer: 4

Solution 13:

3 persons are staying between D and A - they are E, C, G.

Q 14. Who among the following likes Silver?

1. D 2. B 3. F 4. A 5. G

Answer: 1

Solution 14:

From the table, we can see that D likes Silver.

Q 15. Which of the following statement is true?

1. F lives on the bottom floor 2. H lives just below A 3. The one who lives on 1st floor likes Yellow 4. One person is staying between A and C

5. B lives below D

Answer: 4

Solution 15:

From the final table, A is on 5th floor, and C is on 3rd floor. E is on 4th floor.

Directions (16 - 19): In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the following conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Q 16. P > Q ≤ R > Z; Y > X > P ≥ U; Q ≥ S < T

Conclusions:

I. P > S II. Z < T

1. None is true 2. Only I is true 3. Only II is true.

4. Either I or II is true 5. Both I and II are true.

Answer: 2

Solution 16:

P > Q and Q ≥ S

When Q > S and P > Q it implies P > S.

When Q = S and P > Q it implies P > Q

Hence conclusion I is true.

From the above statements, we can conclude Conclusion II is false.

Q 17. Y ≤ K < D = S; D < B < O; A ≥ D < Z

Conclusions:

I.A > B

II.Y < Z

Answer: 3

Solution 17:

From the statements,

A ≥ D and D < B

When A = D and D < B implies A < B

When A > D and D < B implies below 3 cases

A > B

A < B

A = B

Hence we can’t conclude A > B

From the statements,

Y ≤ K < D and D < Z

When Y < K and K < D it implies Y < D, as D < Z it implies Y < Z

When Y = K and K < D it implies Y < D, as D < Z it implies Y < Z.

Hence we can conclude Y < Z

Hence conclusion II is true.

Q 18. Statements:

A > C; G > E; G ≤ C; R ≤ I; K ≤ I

Conclusions:

I.A > G II.C > E

Answer: 5

Solution 18:

From the statements,

A > C; G ≤ C

When G = C and A > C it implies A > G

When G < C and A > C it implies A > G

Hence we can say Conclusion I is true.

From the statements,

G > E; G ≤ C

We can rewrite it as C ≥ G > E

When C > G and G > E it implies C > E

When C = G and G > E it implies C > E

Hence we can say conclusion II is also true.

Q 19. Statement:

Z ≤ K < D = S; D < A < O; G ≥ D < R

Conclusions:

I.G > A

II.Z < R

Answer: 3

Solution 19:

G ≥ D and D < A

When, G > D and D < A it gives rise to 3 cases, G > A, G < A and G = A. Hence Conclusion I is not true.

Z ≤ K < D and D < R

When Z < K < D it implies Z < D and if D < R then Z < R

When Z = K < D it implies Z < D and if D < R then Z < R

Hence we can say conclusion II is true.

Q 20. Statements:

C ≤ R ≤ N = M ≥ F; Q ≥ M < O; D ≥ L; C ≥ D ≤ S ≥ Z

Conclusion:

I.R ≤ F II.C < Q

Answer: 1

Solution 20:

R ≤ M ≥ F

When R < M, and M > F

R could be R = F, R < F and R > F

Hence we can’t conclude that R ≤ F

Q ≥ M, C ≤ R ≤ M

Hen Q > M, and C ≤ R ≤ M

C < R < M < Q implies C < Q

C = R < M < Q implies C < Q

C = R = M < Q implies C < Q

When Q = M and C ≤ R ≤ M C < R < M = Q implies C < Q

C = R < M = Q implies C < Q

3rd possibility C = R = M = Q

Hence we can’t conclude C < Q

Directions (21 - 28): In each questions statement are given followed by two conclusions, read all the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusion follow the given statements.

I. Only I follow II. Only II follows III. Either I or II follows IV. Neither I nor II follow

V. Both I and II follow.

Q 21. Statements:

No chair is table.

All chair is bench.

Some chair is box.

Conclusions:

I. No table is box II.Some bench are box.

Answer: 2

Solution 21:

From the above diagram we can conclude that Only Conclusion II is true.

Q 22. Statements:

Some rings are bracelets. All bracelets are earrings. All earrings are necklaces.

Conclusions:

I. All those bracelets which are earrings can never be a ring is a possibility. II.There is a possibility that all rings are necklaces.

Answer: 2

Solution 22:

From the above 2 figures we can conclude that Only II is correct.

Q 23. Statements

Some pages are papers No page is a book All books are pencils

Conclusions:

I. All books can never be papers

II. All pencils are papers is a possibility

Answer: 2

Solution 23:

From the above 2 figures one can conclude that only option II is correct.

Q 24. Statements

All papers are books All pencils are pens No paper is pencil No stationary is book

Conclusions:

I. Some papers are stationary is a possibility. II.Some pens are books as well as papers.

Answer: 4

Solution 24:

From the above figure we can conclude that neither of the two conclusions are true.

Q 25. Statements:

Some roads are not good. Some railways are good. All airways are good. Some roads are bad.

Conclusions:

I. At least some bad are good. II.No bad is good.

Answer: 4

Solution 25:

From the above 2 conclusions we can conclude neither of them follows.

Q 26. Direction: In questions below is given a statement followed by assumptions. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: The mind is the source of all human actions, yet the body is given more importance.

Assumptions:

I. The mind is not given proper importance. II.The body is getting undeserved importance. III.Every action starts from the brain.

1. Only I 2. Only II 3. Only II and III

4. Only III 5. All of them

Answer: 1

Solution 26:

Assumption 3 is ruled out as there is difference between brain and mind; the main subject is the importance of mind and its importance.

Q 27. Direction: The question below, there is a statement followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. Then consider the 2 conclusion together and decide which of them follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: High pressure boilers are hazardous pieces of equipment, which are strictly regulated with special laws.

Conclusions:

I. If not regulated, high pressure boilers will be easily available in the market. II.High pressure boilers are rare.

1. Only Conclusion I follows 2. Only Conclusion II follows 3. Both Conclusion I and II follows 4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5. Either Conclusion I or II follows

Answer: 4

Solution 27:

Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

Q 28. In the question given below a statement is given followed by three courses of action. A course of action is taken for improvement, follow up, etc. Read the statement carefully and give your answer accordingly.

Statement: The appearance of China made globes that show Jammu and Kashmir not a part of India has alarmed the Indian diaspora in Canada.

Courses of Action:

I. The Indian diaspora should lodge a complaint against manufacturers for giving out inaccurate information. II. The Chinese Government should issue an official apology to the Indians. III.The Canadian people should altogether stop buying Chinese made products.

1. Only course of action I follows. 2. Only course of action II follows. 3. Both I and II follow 4. Both II and III follow 5. None of them follow.

Answer: 1

Solution 28:

The Chinese Government and Candian people are not the stakeholders in the issue. Hence only 1st Course of action is to be followed.

Q 29. A statement is given followed by 3 inferences numbered I, II and III. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Japan will open up its doors to about 2 lakh IT professionals from India, and issue green cards to settle down in Japan and support the country’s rapidly expanding IT infrastructure, said Shigeki Maeda, Executive Vice President at Japan External Trade Organisation (JETRO), a government body.

Inferences:

I. There is a dearth of IT professionals in Japan. II. IT professionals from India are way more talented and hardworking than professionals from other countries. III. Japan’s IT industry is growing by leaps and bounds every year.

1. Both I and II follows 2. Both I and III follows 3. Both II and III follows 4. Only III follows

5. All of them follow

Answer: 2

Solution 29:

Inference 3 is obvious as per the sentence. And to meet the demands there is a supply gap of professionals hence inference 1 also follows, but no where in the sentence do they compare the capabilities and hard work of Indians with professionals from other countries.

Q 30. The Government is set to launch the most ambitious bets to ward off cybercrime in its Rs 1000 crore National Cyber Coordination Centre project slated to begin operations by the end of this month. According to government officials, the Centre is meant to monitor the Cyber Traffic in the country and prevent possible large scale cyber attack by analyzing the traffic. It will begin with tracking the networks of a handful of Internet Service Providers (ISPs) and data centres.

Which of the following statements strongly supports the argument?

1. The government seems to be fast tracking its efforts to strengthen cyber security especially after

the unprecedented rise in the digital transactions in the country since demonetization. 2. In the wake of large scale cyber attacks in the country recently, the Government has taken

several measures to contain the spread of cyber crime. 3. The centre will monitor the flow of traffic and analyze the upcoming attacks and take action in

real time. 4. None of these 5. Either option 1 or 2

Answer: 2

Solution 30:

All the statements strongly supports the arguments. Nevertheless 2nd option is the strongest.

Q 31. Study the following information and answer the given question.

P = Q means Q is the father of P.

P * Q means P is the sister of Q

P ? Q means Q is the mother of P

P $ Q means P is the brother of Q

P @ Q means Q is the son P

P # Q means P is the daughter of Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

1. R # S ? T means R is granddaughter of T 2. P = Q ? R means R is grandmother of P 3. L $ M * O means L is the brother of O. 4. M * O @ P = Q means Q and O are husband and wife

5. All are correct.

Answer: 5

Solution 31:

R # S means R is the daughter of S and S ? T means T is the mother of S, hence R is the granddaughter of T.

P = Q means Q is the father of P and Q ? R means R is the mother of Q, hence Q is the grandmother of P.

L $ M means L is the brother of M and M * O means M is the sister of O. Hence L is the brother of O.

M * O means M is the sister of O, and O @ P means P is the son of O, P = Q means Q is the father of P. It means Q and O is the father and mother of P respectively so they are husband and wife.

From the above explanations we can see that all options are correct.

32. In a certain code language, ‘ Siberia is a cold place’ is written as ‘a cold is place Siberia’ in the same code, ‘ water freezes to ice here’ is coded as ‘freezes here ice to water.’ How will ‘covers ten percent of earth’ be written in the same code?

1. Covers earth percent ten of 2. Earth of covers percent ten 3. Covers earth percent of ten 4. Covers earth of percent ten 5. Covers earth ten of percent.

Answer: 4

Solution 32:

From the given code we can notice that given sentences has been rephrased in alphabetical order.

Covers ten percent of earth, the alphabetical order will be c - covers, e - earth, o - of, p - percent, t - ten.

Hence the answer is covers earth of percent ten.

Q 33. In a certain code language ‘ it is dark outside’ is written as ‘ha no ti ju’, ‘is it still raining’ is written as ‘pa ha da no’, ‘go and play outside’ is written as ‘su ju ye la’. How is ‘dark’ written in that code language?

1. Ha 2. Ti 3. Su 4. Ye 5. No

Answer: 2

Solution 33:

When we consider ‘it is dark outside’ is written as ‘ha no ti ju’ and ‘go and play outside’ is written as ‘su ju ye la’; we can find that the common word in the 2 sentences is outside and the common code is ju. Hence outside is written as ju.

When we consider ‘it is dark outside’ is written as ‘ha no ti ju’ and ‘is it still raining’ is written as ‘pa ha da no’ the common words are ‘it’ and ‘is’; and the common codes are ‘pa’ and ‘ho’. Hence in the sentence ‘it is dark outside’ the only remaining word is ‘dark’ and in the code for the same sentence ‘ha no ti ju’ only ‘ti’ is remaining to be decoded.

Hence we can conclude that ‘dark’ is coded as ‘ti’

Q 34. Direction: In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in 3 statements. You have to decide the information given in which of the statements is necessary and sufficient to answer the questions.

A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a circle. Are all of them facing the centre?

I. A is sitting second to the right of D; C is facing the centre and is not an immediate neighbour of D. II. B, who is sitting between C and D, is second to the right of E, who is not an immediate neighbour of

C. B and A are facing each other III.D is sitting on the immediate left of B, who is sitting on the immediate left of A. E is the immediate

right of D.

1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III 3. Either I, II or III 4. Any two of the three

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution 34:

From Statement I and II we can conclude that not all of them are facing the centre. Even from Statement I and III we can conclude that not all of them are facing the centre. Hence Any two of three option is the right answer.

Q 35. Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and give the answer.

There are six letters E, I, P, G, N and O is PIGEON the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?

I. O is placed fourth to the right of P. G is not placed immediately next to either P or O. II.N is placed immediately next (either left or right) to O. E is placed immediately next to (either left or right) to G.

III. Both I and E are placed immediately next to G. The word does not begin with N. P is not placed immediately next to E.

1. If the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement

III alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2. If the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3. If the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 4. If the data either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to

answer the question. 5. If the data in Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: 1

Solution 35:

From the above statements we can conclude that Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, whereas Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Q 36. In each of the following question, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which statement(s) is necessary and sufficient to answer the question.

In a family of seven members how is P related to Q?

I. M and N are children of O, who is the wife of P. II. A, the cousin of B, is the niece of M

III. Q is the only brother-in-law of B.

1. Only I 2. Only I and II 3. Only II and III 4. All of them

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution 36:

From the above statements we can conclude that all statements are needed to establish relation between P and Q.

Q 37. Direction: The question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given. You have to decide the data provided in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Choose your answer from the options based on this.

How is M related to R?

I. T the only son of M has two sisters. II. M’s son is the brother of the only sister of R. III.R and T are children of M.

1. Only I and III 2. Only II 3. Either I or II 4. Only II and III

5. None of these

Answer: 5

Solution 37:

From the above statements we can't find the gender of M, hence option 5 is the answer.

Directions (38 - 39): Study the following information and answer the questions.

Point A is 8 m to the west of Point B. Point C is 4m to the South of Point B. Point D is 4m to the South of Point B. Point D is 4m to the East of Point C. Point F is 6m to the North of Point D. Point E is 8m to the west of Point F. Point G is 2 m to the South of Point E.

Q 38. How far and in which direction is Point G from Point A?

1. 4m to the East 2. 8m to the West 3. 4m to the West 4. 8m to the East 5. 6m to the South.

Answer: 1

Solution 38:

From the above figure we can conclude that option 1 is the answer.

Q 39. If point G is 4m to the North of Point H, then what is the difference between H and D?

1. 11m 2. 8m 3. 6m 4. 4m 5. None of these

Answer: 2

Solution 39:

From the above figure we can conclude that the distance is 8m

Directions (40 - 43): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

P, Q, R, S, T, V, and W are seven different boxes of different colours i.e. black, silver, red, pink, yellow, white and green but not necessarily in the same order. Box S is immediately above yellow colour box. More than 3 boxes are there between pink and silver colour box. There are 2 boxes between box Q and box T. There is only one box between box T and box W. There are 3 boxes between box W and box P, which is of black colour. There are only 2 boxes between box P and box R, which is of white colour. The silver colour box is immediately above the box W. More than 3 boxes are there between yellow and pink colour box. T is of red colour box.

Q 40. How many boxes are there between green colour box and silver colour box?

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. None

Answer: 3

Solution 40:

From the above given details we can get the final table given below

Colour Box

Silver S

Yellow W

White R

Red T

Green V

Black P

Pink Q

From the above table we can see that only 3 boxes are between Silver and Green, they are yellow, white, red coloured boxes.

Q 41. Box Q is of which colour?

1. Silver 2. Green 3. Yellow 4. Black 5. Pink

Answer: 5

Solution 41:

From the above table we can find that Q is of Pink colour.

Q 42. Which box is placed immediately above red colour box?

1. P 2. S 3. R 4. T 5. W

Answer: 3

Solution 42:

From the above table we can find that box R is immediately above red coloured box T.

Q 43. How many boxes are there between box W and box Q?

1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four

Answer: 5

Solution 43:

There are four boxes between box W and box Q. White, Red, Green, Black boxes are between the above 2 boxes.

Direction: Read the following information and carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Seven persons Tina, Vini, Yasir, Rishi, Sanya, Pankaj and Urmila live on separate floors of a 7 - floor building. Ground floor is number one; second floor is number two and so on. Each of them goes to city viz. Paris, Istanbul, Shanghai, Durban, London, Madrid, and Dubai but not necessarily in the same order.

Only three people live above the floor in which Sanya lives. Only one person lives between Sanya and the one who goes to Paris. Vini lives just below the person who goes to Madrid. Only three people live between the one who goes to Paris and London. The person who goes to Mardrid lives on an even numbered floor. Urmila lives just above Rishi. Urmila does not go to London. Only two persons live between Pankaj and the one who goes to Durban. Pankaj lives above the person who goes to Durban. Yasir does not go to Istanbul. Tina does not live just above or just below Sanya. The one who goes to Shanghai does not live just above or just below Pankaj.

Q 44. Who among the following lives on floor number 7?

1. Tina 2. Yasir 3. Pankaj 4. Urmila 5. Vini

Answer: 1

Solution 44:

From the above table, we can get the following conclusion.

Floor No Person City

7 Tina Istanbul

6 Pankaj London

5 Yasir Dubai

4 Sanya Madrid

3 Vini Durban

2 Urmila Paris

1 Rishi Shanghai

Hence Tina lives on 7th floor.

Direction (45 - 49): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

8 friends A, I, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North and South direction. Among them four are facing South, while four are facing North. They play different games: Swimming, Cricket, Kabaddi, Hockey, Tennis, Volleyball, Basketball and Chess. The following information is given about them.

A. I who plays chess sits exactly between D and the person who plays Kabaddi.

B. The person who plays Tennis faces North and is to the immediate right of the person who plays Swimming. C. C and D are not the immediate neighbours of G. They do not sit at the extreme ends of the row. D. The person who plays Hockey sits at one of the ends and is second to the right of G who faces South. A does not like to play Cricket. E. The person who plays cricket is third to the left of the person who plays Volleyball. F. Also, C does not play Kabaddi. E faces South. G. H is second to the right of the person who plays basketball. H. A is to the immediate right of the person who faces North. I. Exactly one person sits between D and C. C faces South.

Q 45. The person to the immediate left of C plays which of the following games?

1. Swimming 2. Cricket 3. Tennis 4. Basketball

5. Kabaddi

Answer: 4

Solution 45:

From the above details we can come to the final arrangement.

1 stands for left extreme position of the straight line and 8 stands to the right extreme of the straight line.

1 F Hockey Facing North

2 A Volleyball Facing South

3 G Kabaddi Facing South

4 I Chess Facing North

5 D Cricket Facing North

6 H Tennis Facing North

7 C Swimming Facing South

8 E Basketball Facing South

As C is facing South in a straight line, the person to his immediate left is E, the one who plays Basketball.

Q 46. Who sits exactly between I and the person who plays Volleyball?

1. G 2. D 3. H 4. F 5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution 46:

From the table we can see that G sits between I and the person who plays Volleyball.

Q 47. Who sits exactly between I and the person who plays Volleyball?

1. G 2. D 3. H 4. F

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution 47:

From the table we can see that G sits between I and the person who plays Volleyball.

Q 48. Which of the following statements is true?

1. The person second to the left of D faces North. 2. Exactly one person sits between I and C. 3. The person to the immediate right of A plays Hockey 4. F faces South.

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Solution 48:

From the above table we can see that F plays Hockey.

Q 49. Four of the five are alike and hence form a group. Which of the following five does not belong to the group?

1. FA 2. DH 3. CE 4. IG

5. AD

Answer: 5

Solution 49:

In rest of the options; FA, DH, CE, IG all are seated next to each other. In case of AD they are not seated next to each other.

Q 50. A question and 2 statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

A six storey building consisting of an unoccupied ground floor and above ground floor is floor no. 1, so on and topmost floor is no.5. Different people lives in building viz I, J, K L and M. Who lives on the third floor?

I. K lives on an even numbered floor. I lives immediately above L. J lives immediately above I. M does

not live on topmost floor. II. L lives on an odd numbered floor. I and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Similarly K and

M are immediate neighbours of each other. K does not live on an odd numbered floor.

1. The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement

II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2. The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement

I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. The data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. The data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. 5. The data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: 1

Solution 50:

5 J

4 I

3 L

2 K

1 M

Ground Floor

From the above details we can see that Data from Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

IBPS SO Previous Year Question Paper 2017

Quantitative Aptitude (Questions and Solutions)

Q. (1) Three vessels contain alcoholic solutions with the concentrations of alcohol as 0.25, 0.5 and 0.75

respectively. 4 litres from the first, 6 litres from the second and 8 litres from the third are mixed. What is

the ratio of alcohol and water in the resultant mixture?

1. 1:2

2. 1:3

3. 1:1

4. 5:9

5. 5:4

Answer: 4

Solution: The concentration of alcohol in the resulting mixture

= (4 x 0.25) + (6 x 0.5) + (8 x 0.75)

= 1 + 3 + 6

= 10

Therefore, the ratio of alcohol and water in the resultant mixture = 10 / (4 + 6 + 8)

= 10 / 18

= 5/9

Q. (2) 10 years ago, a father was twice of his elder son and the difference of their present ages is 15

years. If the younger son is 3 years smaller than the elder one then the present age of the younger son

is:

1. 22

2. 38

3. 35

4. 36

5. 25

Answer: 1

Solution: Let the present age of the father be X years and that of the elder son be Y years.

Therefore, according to the question,

X -10 = 2(Y - 10)

⇒ X = 2Y - 20 + 10

⇒ X = 2Y - 10 (1)

Also, X - Y = 15

⇒ X = 15 + Y (2)

Solving equation (1) and (2), we get,

2Y - 10 = 15 + Y

⇒ Y = 25 years

X = 15 + 25 = 40 years

Hence, the present age of the younger son = 25 - 3 = 22 years.

Q. (3) A grocer has a sale of Rs.3250, Rs.2955, Rs.3682 and Rs.4943 respectively from January to

April. He has a sale for further next three months to get an average sale of Rs.3096. If he has the sale

in ratio 1: 2: 1 for the next three months, what will be the difference between the sales in the month of

March and July?

1. 989

2. 1060

3. 1971.5

4. 1220

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Solution: As per the given ratio 1: 2: 1, let the sale in the months of May, June and July be y, 2y and y

respectively.

Given, Sale on January = Rs.3250

Sale on February = Rs.2955

Sale on March = Rs.3682

Sale on April = Rs.4943

Therefore, according to the question,

3096 x 7 = 3250 + 2955 + 3682 + 4943 + y + 2y + y

⇒ 4y = 21672 - 14830

⇒ y = 6842 / 4 = 1710.5

Hence, the difference between sale on March and July = 3682 – 1710.5 = Rs.1971.5

Q. (4) The average weight of a group of 10 boys is 50.8 kg. The individual weight of six of them is

equal. The seventh boy has a weight equal to 98% of the individual weight of first six boys and 8th, 9th

and 10th boy has a weight 4%, 6% and 8% more than the individual weight of first six boys. Find the

average weight of the group when two new boys of weights 54 kg and 56 kg respectively join the group

and six boys having equal weights leave the group.

1. 54 kg

2. 53.5 kg

3. 53 kg

4. 52.5 kg

5. None of these

Answer:

Solution: Let x be the individual weight of the first six boys.

Total weight of six boys = 6x

Weight of 7th boy = 98x/100

Weight of 8th boy = 104x/100

Weight of 9th boy = 106x/100

Weight of 10th boy = 108x/100

Therefore, according to the question,

50.8 x 10 = 6x + 98x/100 + 104x/100 + 106x/100 + 108x/100

⇒ 508 = 10.16x

⇒ x = 50 kg

Now, weight of 7th boy = (98 x 50) /100 = 49 kg

Weight of 8th boy = (104 x 50) /100 kg = 52

Weight of 9th boy = (106 x 50) /100 = 53 kg

Weight of 10th boy = (108 x 50) /100 = 54 kg

Hence, the average weight of the group when two new boys of weights 54 kg and 56 kg respectively

join the group and six boys having equal weights leave the group

= (49 + 52 + 53 + 54 + 54 + 56) / 6

= 53 kg

Q. (5) Mixture X and Mixture Y contain 35 litres and 50 litres respectively of mixtures of liquids A and B

in different proportions. Quantity of liquid A in mixture X is 15 litres less than the quantity of liquid A in

mixture Y. The total quantity of liquid B in both the mixtures is 30 litres. If 20% of the liquid is taken from

mixture X and put into mixture Y, then what will be the ratio of liquid A to liquid B in mixture Y?

1. 6: 13

2. 1: 2

3. 7: 3

4. 13: 6

5. Cannot be determined

Answer: 4

Solution:

Given, total quantity of liquid B in both mixtures = 30 litres

Let the quantity of liquid A in mixture X = x litres

Therefore, the quantity of liquid A in mixture Y = x + 15 litres

Hence, x + (x + 15) + 30 = 50 + 35

⇒ 2x = 40

⇒ x = 20 litres

Therefore, quantity of liquid A in mixture X = 20 litres

Quantity of liquid A in mixture Y = 20 + 15 = 35 litres

Now, quantity of liquid B in mixture X = 35 – 20 = 15 litres

Quantity of liquid B in mixture Y = 15 litres

Thus, required ratio = (35 + 20% of 20): (15 + 20% of 15)

= (35 + 4): (15 + 3) = 39: 18 = 13: 6

Q. (6) A shopkeeper sold an article of marked price Rs. 2200 after giving two successive discounts of

x% and y%. If the shopkeeper sold the article at Rs. 1881 and the second discount percentage is twice

the first discount percentage, then find the value of x.

1. 8%

2. 7.25%

3. 6.33%

4. 5%

5. None of these

Answer:

Solution:

Marked price of the article = Rs. 2200

Selling price of the article = Rs. 1881

Overall discount = 2200 – 1881

= Rs. 319

Therefore, overall discount percent = (319/2200) x 100%

= 14.5%

Since the successive discounts are x% and y%

Therefore, the overall discount = (x + y) - xy/100

⇒ 14.5 = (x + 2x) - (x.2x / 100)

⇒ 14.5 = 3x - (2x2/100)

⇒ 1450 = 300x - 2x2

⇒ x2 - 150x + 725 = 0

⇒ x2 - 5x - 145x + 725 = 0

⇒ x (x - 5) - 145 (x - 5) = 0

⇒ (x - 5) (x - 145) = 0

So, x = 5 or x = 145

Since, x = 145% discount is not possible

Hence, x = 5%

Direction Q. (7 - 11): In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve

both the equations and mark the answer:

Q. (7)

I. 10x2 + 37x + 30 = 0

II. y2 + 21y + 80 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x = y or no relation is obtained

4. x ≥ y

5. x ≤ y

Answer: 1

Solution:

I ⇒ 10x2 + 37x + 30 = 0

⇒ 10x2 + 12x + 25x + 30 = 0

⇒ 2x (5x + 6) + 5(5x + 6) = 0

⇒ (2x + 5) (5x + 6) = 0

⇒ x = -5/2, -6/5

II ⇒ y2 + 21y + 80 = 0

⇒ y2 + 16y + 5y + 80 = 0

⇒ y(y + 16) + 5(y + 16) = 0

⇒ (y + 16) (y + 5) = 0

⇒ y = -16, -5

Hence, x > y

Q. (8)

I. x2 - 11x + 10 = 0

II. y2 + 6y - 7 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x = y or no relation is obtained

4. x ≥ y

5. x ≤ y

Answer: 1

Solution:

I ⇒ x2 - 11x + 10 = 0

⇒ x2 - 10x - x + 10 = 0

⇒ x(x - 10) - 1(x - 10) = 0

⇒ (x - 10) (x - 1) = 0

⇒ x = 10, 1

II ⇒ y2 + 6y - 7 = 0

⇒ y2 - 7y + y - 7 = 0

⇒ y(y - 7) + (y - 7) = 0

⇒ (y - 7) (y + 1) = 0

⇒ y = 7, -1

Hence, x > y

Q. (9)

I. x2 + 22x + 72 = 0

II. 15y2 + 77y + 90 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x = y or no relation is obtained

4. x ≥ y

5. x ≤ y

Answer: 2

Solution:

I ⇒ x2 + 22x + 72 = 0

⇒ x2 + 18x + 4x + 72 = 0

⇒ x(x + 18) + 4(x + 18) = 0

⇒ (x + 18) (x + 4) = 0

⇒ x = -18, -4

II ⇒ 15y2 + 77y + 90 = 0

⇒ 15y2 + 50y + 27y + 90 = 0

⇒ 5y(3y + 10) + 9(3y + 10) = 0

⇒ (5y + 9) (3y + 10) = 0

⇒ y = -9/5, -10/3

Hence, x < y

Q. (10)

I. x2 + 31x + 234 = 0

II. y2 - 9y - 22 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x = y or no relation is obtained

4. x ≥ y

5. x ≤ y

Answer: 2

Solution:

I ⇒ x2 + 31x + 234 = 0

⇒ x2 + 18x + 13x + 234 = 0

⇒ x (x + 18) + 13 (x + 18) = 0

⇒ (x + 18) (x + 13) = 0

⇒ x = -18, -13

II ⇒ y2 - 9y - 22 = 0

⇒ y2 - 11y + 2y - 22 = 0

⇒ y (y - 11) + 2 (y - 11) = 0

⇒ (y - 11) (y + 2) = 0

⇒ y = 11, -2

Hence, x < y

Q. (11)

I. x2 + 17x - 168 = 0

II. y2 - 32y + 255 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x = y or no relation is obtained

4. x ≥ y

5. x ≤ y

Answer: 2

Solution:

I ⇒ x2 + 17x - 168 = 0

⇒ x2 -7x + 24x - 168 = 0

⇒ x(x - 7) + 24(x - 7) = 0

⇒ (x + 24) (x - 7) = 0

⇒ x = -24, 7

II ⇒ y2 - 32y + 255 = 0

⇒ y2 - 17y - 15y + 255 = 0

⇒ y(y - 17) - 15(y - 17) = 0

⇒ (y - 15) (y - 17) = 0

⇒ y = 15, 17

Hence, x < y

Q. (12) A basketball team of 5 players is to be selected from a group of 10 men and 8 women players.

A volleyball team of 6 players is to be selected from a group of 8 men and 7 women players. Find the

difference in the number of ways in which both the teams are selected, given that each team has only 2

female players.

1. 1890

2. 1920

3. 1950

4. 1990

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution: Number of ways in which the basketball team is selected = 10C3 x 8C2

= [(10 x 9 x 8) / (3 x 2 x 1)] x [(8 x 7) / (2 x 1)]

= 120 x 28

= 3360

Number of ways in which the volleyball team is selected = 8C4 x 7C2

= [(8 x 7 x 6 x 5) / (4 x 3 x 2 x 1)] x [(7 x 6) / (2 x 1)]

= 70 x 21

= 1470

Required difference = 3360 - 1470

= 1890

Direction Q. (13 - 17): In the following number series, only one number is missing. Find out the missing

number.

Q. (13) 1, 2, 15, 100, 749, ?

1. 7017

2. 6671

3. 6627

4. 6893

5. 6822

Answer: 5

Solution: The pattern of the given series is:

• (1 x 1) + 12 = 2

• (2 x 3) + 32 = 15

• (15 x 5) + 52 = 100

• (100 x 7) + 72 = 749

• (749 x 9) + 92 = 6822

Q. (14) 17, 35, 107, 538, 3770, ?

1. 41475

2. 41321

3. 41608

4. 41640

5. 41617

Answer: 1

Solution:

The pattern of the given series is:

• 17 x 2 + 1 = 35

• 35 x 3 + 2 = 107

• 107 x 5 + 3 = 538

• 538 x 7 + 4 = 3770

• 3770 x 11 + 5 = 41475

Q. (15) 24, 95, 616, 5463, 59972, ?

1. 779406

2. 779522

3. 779602

4. 779637

5. 779467

Answer: 5

Solution: The pattern of the series is as follows:

• (24 - 5) x 5 = 95

• (95 - 7) x 7 = 616

• (616 - 9) x 9 = 5463

• (5463 - 11) x 11 = 59972

• (59972 - 13) x 13 = 779467

Q. (16) 30155, 25243, 21149, 17777, 15037, ?

1. 12845

2. 12780

3. 12692

4. 13035

5. 12787

Answer: 1

Solution: The pattern of the series is as follows:

• 30155 - 173 + 1= 25243

• 25243 - 163 + 2 = 21149

• 21149 - 153 + 3 = 17777

• 17777 - 143 + 4 = 15037

• 15037 - 133 + 5 = 12845

Q. (17) 90, 154, 254, 398, 594, ?

1. 973

2. 850

3. 721

4. 943

5. 670

Answer: 2

Solution: The series follows the following pattern:

• 90 + 82 = 154

• 154 + 102.= 254

• 254 + 122 = 398

• 398 + 142 = 594

• 594 + 162 = 850

Direction Q. (18 - 22): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of bikes sold by five different

companies in a year. All companies sell only two variants of bikes namely ‘Standard’ and ‘Cruiser’.

The total number of bikes sold by these companies in a year = 36000

The above pie chart shows the percentage distribution of bikes of different bikes.

Q. (18) Ratio of the number of Standard Bikes sold to the number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Bajaj is 11:7;

respectively while the ratio of the number of Standard Bikes sold to the number of Cruiser Bikes sold by

Hero is 11: 16, respectively. Find the ratio between Cruiser bikes sold by Bajaj and Cruiser Bikes sold

by Hero.

1. 20: 19

2. 63: 128

3. 22: 15

4. 18: 7

5. 23: 18

Answer: 2

Solution: Total number of bikes sold by Bajaj = 0.18 x 36000 = 6480

Total number of bikes sold by Hero = 0.24 x 36000 = 8640

Therefore, number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Bajaj = [7/ (11 + 7)] x 6480 = 7 x 360 = 2520

Number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Hero = [16 / (11 + 16)] x 8640 = 16 x 320 = 5120

Therefore, required ratio = 2520 / 5120 = 63 / 128

Q. (19) The ratio of the number of Standard Bikes sold by Bajaj to the number of Standard Bikes sold

by Honda is 4:7; respectively. If the number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Bajaj is equal to the number of

Cruiser Bikes sold by Honda, then find the difference between the total number of Standard bikes sold

by Honda and Cruiser bikes sold by Bajaj.

1. 2400

2. 2520

3. 2760

4. 3120

5. 648

Answer: 3

Solution:

Total number of bikes sold by Bajaj = 0.18 x 36000 = 6480

Total number of bikes sold by Hero = 0.24 x 36000 = 8640

Let the number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Bajaj and the number of Cruiser Bikes sold by Honda be x

each.

So, (6480 - x) / (9000 - x) = 4/7

⇒ 45360 – 7x = 36000 – 4x

⇒ x = 3120

Number of Standard bikes sold by Honda = 9000 – 3120 = 5880

Therefore, required difference = 5880 – 3120 = 2760

Q. (20) Find the average of the total number of bikes sold by Yamaha, Honda and Ducati.

1. 9630

2. 6090

3. 3690

4. 6960

5. 9360

Answer: 4

Solution:

Total number of bikes sold by Honda = 0.25 x 36000 = 9000

Total number of bikes sold by Yamaha = 0.15 x 36000 = 5400

Total number of bikes sold by Ducati = 0.18 x 36000 = 6480

Therefore, required average = (9000 + 5400 + 6480) / 3 = 6960

Q. (21) The ratio of Standard Bikes to Cruiser Bikes sold by Ducati is 4: 5 respectively and the ratio of

selling price of the Standard Bikes to Cruiser Bikes of Ducati is 1: 4 respectively. The amount earned by

Ducati on selling all Cruiser bikes is Rs. 450 Cr. Find the price of one Ducati Standard Bike.

1. Rs. 12.5 Lakhs

2. Rs. 3.125 Lakhs

3. Rs. 1.5 Lakhs

4. Rs. 2.5 Lakhs

5. Rs. 4.25 Lakhs

Answer: 2

Solution: Total number of bikes sold by Ducati = 0.18 x 36000 = 6480

Number of Cruiser bikes sold by Ducati = [5 / (4 + 5)] x 6480 = 3600

Price of one Ducati Cruiser Bike = 450 / 3600 = Rs. 12.5 lakhs

Therefore, the price of one Standard Bike = Rs. 12.5/4 = Rs. 3.125 lakhs

Q. (22) Find the central angle subtended by Ducati and Yamaha together?

1. 110

2. 115

3. 105

4. 117

5. 119

Answer: 5

Solution:

Percentage share of Ducati Bike = 18%

Percentage share of Yamaha Bike = 15%

Therefore, total percentage share = 18% + 15% = 33%

Total share = 100%

Also, we know that 100% = 360 degree

So, 33% = (360 / 100) x 33 = 118.8 ≅ 119

Q. (23) A fruit seller has three different varieties of fruits viz. apples, oranges and grapes. He has total

2840 kg fruits in which 25% are grapes, 20% of remaining are oranges. If he sells apples, oranges and

grapes per kg in the ratio 5 : 3 : 4 and the cost of 1kg of grapes is Rs.100, then find the total cost of all

the apples.

1. 225465

2. 213000

3. 267500

4. 213445

5. None of these

Answer:

Solution:

Total quantity of grapes = 25/100 x 2840 = 710 kg

Total quantity of oranges = 20/100 x (2840 - 710) = 426 kg

Therefore, total quantity of apples = 2840 – (710 + 426) = 1704

Cost of one apple = 5/4 x 100 = 125

Therefore, the total cost of all apples = 125 x 1704 = 213000

Q. (24) A alone can do a work in 20 days. B is 125% more efficient than A. A and B started working and

worked for 4 days. If C alone completed the remaining job in 22 days. How many days C alone takes to

complete the entire job?

1. 30

2. 35

3. 40

4. 42

5. 45

Answer: 3

Solution: A alone can do a work in 20 days.

Efficiency ratio of A & B= 4 : 5

Ratio of the time required = 5:4

Hence, B alone can do a work in 16 days.

Assume work size = 80 units

1 day work of A = 4 units

1 day work of B = 5 units

Work done by both in 4 days = 4 x (5 + 4) = 36 units

Work left = 80 - 36 = 44 units

Now, C takes 22 days to complete 44 units.

Hence time taken by C alone to complete the work = 40 days

Q. (25) A pump can be used for filling as well as for emptying a tank. The capacity of the tank is

3000m3. The emptying capacity of tank is 15m3 per minute higher than its filling capacity and the pump

needs 10 minutes lesser to empty the tank than it need to fill it. What is the emptying capacity of the

tank?

1. 80

2. 40

3. 50

4. 75

5. 55

Answer: 4

Solution: Let the filling capacity of the tank = x m3 and the emptying capacity = (x + 15) m3

Therefore, 3000/x – 3000/(x + 15) = 10

⇒ 3000x + 45000 – 3000x = 10x(x + 15)

⇒ 45000 = 10x2 + 150x

⇒ x2 + 15x – 4500 = 0

⇒ x = 60, -75

x = -75 is not possible

Hence, emptying capacity = x + 15 = 75 m3

Q. (26) Ramu divided some marbles among his two sons such that his elder son got more marbles than

his younger son. The sum of the cubes the number of marbles with his sons was 21 times the product

of the difference of the squares of the number of marbles and the difference of the number of marbles

with them. Find the ratio of the number of marbles with his elder and younger sons

1. 6:5

2. 5:3

3. 3:2

4. 5:4

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution: Let the number of marbles received by Ramu's elder son be x and that by the younger sons

be y.

Given, x > y

Therefore, according to the question,

x3 + y3 = 21 (x2 – y2) (x - y)

Dividing by x + y, we get,

x2 - xy + y2 = 21x2 – 42xy + 21y2

⇒ 20x2 – 41xy + 20y2 = 0

⇒ (5x – 4y)(4x – 5y) = 0

Since, x > y, hence, x/y = 5/4

Q. (27) Two trains of length 200 m and 250 m respectively are running in opposite directions on parallel

tracks. if their speed be 45 km per hour and 50 km per hour respectively, in what time will they cross

each other?

1. 20 sec

2. 30 sec

3. 14 sec

4. 15 sec

5. Can’t be determined

Answer: 3

Solution:

Length of 1st train = 200m

Speed of 1st train = 45 km/h

= 45 × 5/18 = 12.5 m/s

Length of 2nd train=250 m

Speed of 2nd train = 50km/h = 13.88 m/s = 14 m/s

Then total Length = 200 + 250 = 450 m

Total speed =12.5 + 14 = 26.5 m/s

Time = Length/speed

Time = 450/26.5

Time = 13.98 seconds = 14 seconds (approx.)

Direction Q. (28 - 32): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:

Percentage net profit of two companies over the years.

Q. (28) If the total income in 2007 for company laxmipati Pvt Ltd was Rs. 140 crores, what was the

expenditure in that year?

1. 100 crores

2. 110 crores

3. 98 crores

4. 111 crores

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution: Percentage of profit = (income - expenditure) / expenditure

⇒ 40 = (140 – E) x 100 / E

⇒ 140 – E = 40E / 100

⇒ 700 = 7E

⇒ E = 100 crores

Q. (29) If the total expenditure of company keshri Pvt. Ltd. in 2005 was Rs. 150 crores, what was the

total income?

1. 281 crores

2. 271 crores

3. 217.5 crores

4. 218 crores

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution: Income = expenditure (100 + profit %) /100

= 150(100 + 45%) / 100 crores

= 217.5 crores ≅ 218 crores

Q. (30) By what percent keshri Pvt. Ltd income of 2009 is more than that of expenditure of laxmi Pvt.

Ltd. of 2008 if profit of keshri Pvt Ltd IN 2009 is equal to 110 crores and profit of laxmi Pvt. Ltd. in 2008

is equal to 120 crores.

1. 55 %

2. 65 %

3. 45 %

4. 75 %

5. None of these

Answer: 1

Solution:

Income of Keshri Pvt. Ltd in 2009 = (155/55) x 110 = 2 x 155

Expenditure of Laxmi Pvt. Ltd. in 2008 =(120/60) x 100 = 2 x 100

Hence, required percentage = [{(2 x 155) - (2 x 100)} / (2 x 100)] x 100 = 55%

Q. (31) Find the approximate profit of laxmipati Pvt. Ltd. of 2005, if profit of keshri Pvt. Ltd. of 2008 is

236 crores and income of keshri pvt Ltd. in 2008 is equal to expenditure of laxmipati pvt ltd in 2005.

1. 374 crores

2. 347 crores

3. 312 crores

4. 311 crores

5. 340 crores

Answer: 2

Solution:

Income of keshri pvt Ltd. in 2008 = 140% of Expenditure

Given 40% of expenditure = 236 crore

Therefore, 140% of expenditure = (236 x 140) / 40 = 826 crore

As, income of keshri pvt Ltd. in 2008 = expenditure of laxmipati pvt ltd in 2005

Therefore, profit of laxmipati Pvt. Ltd. in 2005 = 42% of 826 = 347 crores (approx.)

Q. (32) By what approximate percent keshri Pvt. Ltd profit of 2009 is more than that of 2008.

1. 27%

2. 38%

3. 29%

4. 30%

5. None of these

Answer: 2

Solution: Required percent = [(55 – 40) / 40] x 100%

= 37.5% ≅ 38%

Direction Q. (33 - 37): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

The first line graph represents the average number of female customers and male customers per

organisation who live in building of five different headquarters.

The second line graph represents the total number of female customers and male customers in five

different headquarters.

• There are a total of 12 organisations in each headquarters.

• Total number of customers in headquarters = Number of customers who live in building +

number of part timers.

Q. (33) What is the difference between the number of part timers’ male customers and the number of

part timers’ female customers in VBS?

1. 42

2. 48

3. 45

4. 37

5. 51

Answer: 2

[The number of part timers male customers in VBS = 420

The number of part timers female customers in VBS = 468

Required difference = 468 – 420 = 48]

Q. (34) What is the average number of customers per organisation who are part timers’ in RPS?

1. 58

2. 71

3. 74

4. 62

5. 67

Answer: 4

[The number of female customers who are part timers in RPS = 384 The number of male customers

who are part timers in RPS = 360

Required average = (384 + 360) / 12 = 62]

Q. (35) What is the ratio of the number of male customers who are part timers in DPS to the number of

male customers who are part timers in HPS?

1. 3: 4

2. 2: 3

3. 4: 5

4. 3: 1

5. None of these

Answer: 1

[The number of male customers who are part timers in DPS = 360

The number of male customers who are part timers in HPS = 480

Required ratio = 360/480 = 3/4]

Q. (36) Find the percentage of the number of female customers who are part timers in MS with respect

to the number of male customers who are part timers in the same headquarters.

1. 102.2%

2. 84.3%

3. 89.2%

4. 95.7%

5. 92.6%

Answer: 5

[The number of female customers who are part timers in MS = 300

The number of male customers who are part timers in MS = 324

Required percentage = 300 / 324 x 100% = 92.6%]

Q. (37) Find the difference between the total number of female customers who live in building in all the

five headquarters together and the total number of male customers who live in building in all the five

headquarters together.

1. 16

2. 19

3. 12

4. 7

5. 26

6.

Answer: 3

[The number of female customers who live in building = 276 + 384 + 456 + 228 + 312

=1656

The number of male customers who live in building = 336 + 372 + 396 + 288 + 276

=1668

Required difference = 1668 - 1656 = 12]

Solution Q. (33 - 37):

Direction Q. (38 - 42): Study the following information to answer the questions.

In TATA group there are 5200 employees in five different subsidiary companies – TATA Retail, TATA

Life, TATA Logistic, TATA Solar and TATA Steel. Out of the total number of female employees in the

organization, 27% work in TATA Retail, 22% work in TATA Logistic, 16% work in TATA Life and the

remaining 840 female employees in TATA Solar. Out of the total male employees in the group, 14% work

in TATA Retail, 30% work in TATA Logistic, 25% work in TATA Life, 11% work in the TATA Solar and the

remaining employees work in TATA Steel.

Q. (38) Find the total number of male employees in these three subsidiaries is TATA Retail, TATA Life

and TATA Logistic?

1. 1032

2. 1932

3. 1664

4. 1200

5. 1654

Answer: 2

[The total number of male employees in these three subsidiaries = 392 + 700 + 840 = 1932]

Q. (39) The total number of male employees working in TATA Life and TATA Logistic together is what

% of the total number of employees working in these two firms?

1. 52.47%

2. 62.8%

3. 68.8%

4. 50.8%

5. 64.6%

Answer: 2

[Total number of male employees working in TATA Life and TATA Logistic = 1540

The total number of employees working in these two firms = 2452

Hence, required % = (1540 / 2452) x 100 = 62.8% ]

Q. (40) What is the approx. average number of employees (male and female) who work in TATA

Logistic, TATA Solar and TATA Steel together?

1. 1044

2. 1120

3. 1025

4. 986

5. 1004

Answer: 3

[The approx. average number of employees (male and female) who work in TATA Logistic, TATA Solar

and TATA Steel together = (560 + 840 + 528 + 308 + 840) / 3

= 3076 / 3 = 1025]

Q. (41) If 10 % male of TATA Steel leave the job and exact number of females join the TATA Life in

place of those male employees who left the job. What is the total number of female employees in TATA

Life?

1. 440

2. 520

3. 480

4. 580

5. None of these

Answer: 1

[10 % male of TATA Steel = 560*10/100 = 56

The total number of female employees in TATA Life = 56 + 384 = 440]

Q. (42) What percentage of male employees is more or less than female employees?

1. 18.46

2. 19.66

3. 20.23

4. 14.56

5. 16.66

Answer: 5

[Required % = [(2800 - 2400) / 2400] x 100 = 16.66%

Solution Q. (38 - 42):

Company Male Female

Tata Retail 392 648

Tata Life 700 384

Tata Logistic 840 528

Tata Solar 308 840

Tata Steel 560 0

TOTAL 2800 2400

Number of female employees in TATA Solar = 840

Percentage of female employees in TATA Solar = 100 x (27 + 22 + 16) = 35%

35% = 840

100% = 2400

Therefore, total female employees = 2400

And total male employees = 5200 - 2400 = 2800

Q. (43) When boatman A travels from point X to Y then the river has no speed of stream. He covers

half the distance at a speed of 21 km/hr and the rest with a speed of ‘x’ km/hr which took him an overall

time of 2 hours and 24 minutes. When boatman B travels from point X to Y with the speed of boat as 21

km/hr then the river has a speed of stream of 3 km/hr and he has to travel the entire distance at

upstream. If boatman B took 2 hours and 20 minutes to cover the distance then find the value of ‘x’.

1. 12 km/hr

2. 14 km/hr

3. 15 km/hr

4. 16 km/hr

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Solution:

Let, the distance between point X and point Y be‘d’ km

For boatman A,

(0.5d/21) + (0.5d/x) = 2.4

For boatman B, Upstream speed = 21 – 3 = 18 km/hr

So, d/18 = 2 + (20/30)

⇒ d/18 = 7/3

⇒ d = 42 km

Now, putting the value of d, we get,

[(0.5 x 42) / 21] + [(0.5 x 42) / x] = 2.4

⇒ 21/21 + 21/x = 2.4

⇒ 1 + 21/x = 2.4

⇒ x = 1.4/21

⇒ x = 15 km/hour

Q. (44) 12 men can complete a work in 10 days. 20 women can complete the same work in twelve

days. 8 men and 4 women started working together and after 6 days, 11 more women joined them.

What are the total numbers of days required to complete the whole work?

1. 10 27/31 days

2. 11 2732 days

3. 9 12/13 days

4. 9 27/31 days

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Solution: 12 men can complete a work in 10 days.

Hence, the amount of work done by 1 man = 1/120

Similarly, work done by one woman = 1/240

Total work done by 8 men and 4 women in 6 days

6 x (8/120 + 4/240)

= ½

From 7th day, the amount of work done on one day = 8/120 + 15/240 = 31/240

Hence, the time taken to complete the work = ½ ÷ 31/240

= 240/62

= 3 27/31 days

Hence, the total time taken = 6 + (3 27/31) = 9 27/31 days

Q. (45) A man spends 20% of his monthly income on rent. Out of the remaining monthly income, he

spends 25% on food, Rs. ‘a’ on transportation and the remaining money is deposited in the savings

account which is 48% of the total monthly salary. If the amount is deposited for 5 years in the savings

account he gets a simple interest of Rs. 8294.4 at the rate of 7.2% per annum, then find the value of

‘a’.

1. Rs. 6240

2. Rs. 7280

3. Rs. 5760

4. Rs. 6860

5. None of these

Answer:

Solution:

Let, the total monthly income be Rs. ‘y’

Amount spent on rent = Rs. 0.2y

Remaining monthly income = Rs. 0.8y

Amount spent on food = 0.25 x 0.8y = 0.2y

Amount deposited on savings account = Rs. 0.48y

So, 0.2y + 0.2y + a + 0.48y = y

⇒ a = 0.12y

⇒ a = 12% of x

Now, 8294.4 = (0.48y x 7.2 x 5) / 100

⇒ 829440 = 17.28y

⇒ y = Rs. 48000

So, a = 12% of x = Rs. 5760

Directions Q. (46 - 50): What value should come in place of the question marks (?) in the following

questions?

Q. (46) 729 + ? = 4 ⅖ of 125

1. 531

2. 503

3. 511

4. 523

5. 513

Answer: 4

Solution:

729 + ? = 4 ⅖ of 125

⇒ 27 + ? = 22/5 x 125

⇒ ? = (22 x 25) - 27

⇒ ? = 523

Q. (47) 21/30 of 55% of 4200 = ? x 700

1. 3.81

2. 1.11

3. 2.46

4. 2.31

5. 1.26

Answer: 4

Solution: 21/30 x (55/100 x 4200) = ? x 700

⇒ 21/30 x 11 x 5/100 x 4200 = ? x 700

⇒ ? = 21 x 11/100

⇒ ? = 2.31

Q. (48) ∛9261 - ∛125 + ∛5832 = ?

1. 34

2. 37

3. 39

4. 31

5. 38

Answer: 1

Solution: ∛9261 - ∛125 + ∛5832 = ?

⇒ 21 - 5 + 18 = ?

⇒ ? = 34

Q. (49) 55 x 53 - 20 x 23 + 6671 = ?2 x 6

1. 45

2. 39

3. 33

4. 35

5. 41

Answer:

Solution: 55 x 53 - 20 x 23 + 6671 = ?2 x 6

⇒ 2915 - 460 + 6671 = ?2 x 6

⇒ ?2 x 6 = 9126

⇒ ?2 = 1521

⇒ ? = 39

Q. (50) 95% of 14400 + 50% of 162 = ? + 214

1. 33.0

2. 28.0

3. 24.0

4. 21.0

5. 31.0

Answer:

Solution: 95% of 14400 + 50% of 162 = ? + 214

⇒ 95/100 x 120 + 50/100 x 256 = ? + 214

⇒ 19 x 6 + 128 - 214 = ?

⇒ ? = 242 - 214 = 28

IBPS SO Previous Year Question Paper 2017 - Verbal

Ability

Direction (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain

words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.

An influential new recruit has joined the chorus of bitcoin skeptics.

The chief investment officer of UBS Plc, the world’s biggest wealth manager, says it’s too risky to be

added to the firm’s portfolios—and his assessment is relatively mild. Others have called it “the very

definition of a bubble” and even “a fraud”. Those stronger terms are justified, especially after the latest

spell of wild price volatility. But the idea underlying bitcoin—blockchain, or distributed-ledger

technology—could be transformative.

The problem with bitcoin and other so-called digital currencies is that they’re a misuse of this

technology. As either a new form of money or an investment, bitcoin has fatal disadvantages. Tokens

that are privately created—“mined,” if you insist—can succeed in a limited way as a means of exchange

and be used to execute certain kinds of transactions. (Cigarettes in prison are a kind of currency.) But

as a reliable store of value, bitcoin is much less useful, because its volatility is so extreme.

The value of ordinary currencies is underwritten by governments and stabilized by central banks acting

as trusted monopoly producers. Bitcoin and its rivals leave those vital roles vacant. Moreover, bitcoin

has no fundamental value as an asset—no stream of future income, no ultimate assurance of liquidity

or security, and (unlike gold, say) no alternative use. Its scarcity (hence some floor on its value) is

purportedly guaranteed by the underlying technology, but most of its buyers simply take that on trust.

Should they come to doubt that guarantee, its price will collapse. In the meantime, bitcoin’s utility as a

means of exchange depends on official tolerance—a point rightly emphasized by UBS’s Mark Haefele.

That tolerance cannot be taken for granted, especially as bitcoin’s appeal rests so much on the

anonymity of its users. At the moment, its comparative advantage is its usefulness for illicit purposes.

All this said, the blockchain technology that underlies bitcoin is potentially very powerful.

By reducing the need for central intermediaries, it holds out the promise of processing transactions of

various kinds more efficiently than today. Many banks and exchanges are exploring these applications.

Blockchain technology might also be used one day to produce new kinds of central bank money.

Central bank digital currency could start to replace the electronic payment systems that financial

institutions use with each other. A more radical idea is to use digital currency, issued and supervised by

the central bank, at the retail level to replace physical cash. All these ideas are worth study now. And

they’ll still be worth pursuing after the bitcoin bubble bursts.

Q.1 Why is blockchain technology perceived to have a promising future for financial transactions ?

1. Because it is very secure and reliable

2. Because it provides anonymity to its users

3. Because it is cost effective and transparent

4. Because it does not require any intermediary

5. None of these

Answer: 4

Q.2 How can financial institutions benefit from the blockchain technology ?

(i) It can be used as an alternative to digital transactions for inter-financial markets

(ii) Digital transactions can become more efficient with the use of blockchain technology

(iii) It can help banks in cost saving as it is a cheaper alternative to physical cash

1. Only (i)

2. Only (ii)

3. Only (iii)

4. Both (i) and (ii)

5. Both (i) and (iii)

Answer: 1

Q.3 Which of the following statements can be concluded about cryptocurrency ?

(i) It has an unending supply

(ii) It is not backed by the government

(iii) There is no guarantee of its liquidity

1. Both (i) and (ii)

2. Both (i) and (iii)

3. Both (ii) and (iii)

4. All of these

5. None of these

Answer: 3

Q.4 Why does the author feel that calling “bitcoin” as “the very definition of a bubble” and even

“a fraud” is justified ?

1. Because it is a misuse of a transformative technology like blockchain

2. Because it is not backed by any security

3. Because of bitcoin’s volatility

4. Because bitcoin has the potential to be used as a means for illicit purposes

5. Because the bitcoin bubble may burst any moment crippling the financial system

Answer: 3

Q.5 Which of the following statements is definitely FALSE in the context of the given passage ?

1. Bitcoin cannot be used as a reliable store of value

2. The technology used for bitcoin has a huge potential for future usage

3. Bitcoin lacks stability and is highly volatile

4. Bitcoin can have only limited usage as a means of exchange

5. None of these

Answer: 5

Q.6 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage ?

(i) Many banks are supportive of bitcoin due to its underlying technology that enables

efficiency in certain types of transactions

(ii) The role of central intermediaries also has an adverse effect on the execution of certain transactions

to some extent

(iii) The digital currency may soon replace physical cash in the near future

1. Only (ii)

2. Only (i)

3. Only (iii)

4. Both (i) and (ii)

5. Both (i) and (iii)

Answer: 1

Q.7 Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold

as used in the passage.

Purportedly

1. Purposedly

2. Seemingly

3. Supposedly

4. Authentically

5. Implicitly

Answer: 3

Q.8 Choose the word which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used

in the passage.

Radical

1. Exceptional

2. Revolutionary

3. Complex

4. Fundamental

5. Conservative

Answer: 5

Q.9 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the sentence. Choose

the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the sentence. In case the given

sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction Required.

There is little room for free and open inquiry, and fundamental values and cultural norms remain

largely unquestioned.

I. There is a little room for free and open inquiry

II. There is the little room for free and open inquiry

III. There is lessening room for free and open

Inquiry

1. Only I

2. Only II

3. Only III

4. Both I and III

5. No correction required

Answer: 5

Q.10 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the sentence.

Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the

sentence. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction required.

Historians believe that much of Jesus’ story can be reconstructed, without the help of Bible, and with

just the views of historians who lived during his time.

I. without the help of Bible, and by just the views

II. without the help from Bible, and with just the views

III. without the help of the Bible, and with just the views

1. Only I

2. Only II

3. Only III

4. Both I and III

5. No correction required

Answer: 3

Q11. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence,

three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the sentence.

Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the sentence. In case the

given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction required.

At first glance, it seems implausible that such an intricately engineered bio system such

as our could have come about merely as a result of random modifications.

i. such an intricately engineered bio system as ours

ii. such intricately engineered bio system such as our

iii. such intricately engineered bio system such as ours

1. Only I

2. Only ii

3. Only iii

4. Both ii and iii

5. No correction required

Answer: 1

Q.12 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence,

three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the sentence.

Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the sentence. In case the

given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction required.

Monu and Sonu attempted to make light of their difficulties, but it was obvious that things were

going badly for them.

i. attempted to make their difficulties light

ii. has attempted to make light their difficulties

iii. attempted to make light of their difficulties

1. Only I

2. Only ii

3. Only iii

4. Both ii and iii

5. No correction required

Answer: 3

Q.13 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the sentence. Choose

the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the sentence. In case the given

sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction required.

The only bright spot so far this year for Apple is with its iPhone 8 Plus, which at 0.4% market share,

topped early performance for the iPhone 7 Plus and iPhone 6 Plus, which attracted 0.2% and 0.3%

market share, respectively.

i. Topped in early performance

ii. Topped to perform early

iii. Topped in earlier performing

1. Only i

2. Only ii

3. Only iii

4. Both i and iii

5. No correction required

Answer: 5

Q.14 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the

sentence. Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the

sentence. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction

Required.

They hurried up the booth’s back and waited for the malformed youth to disperse.

i. to the booth’s back

ii. for towards the booth’s back

iii. for the booth’s backing

1. Only i

2. Only ii

3. Only iii

4. Both i and ii

5. No correction required

Answer: 1

Q.15 Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the

sentence. Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the

sentence. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction required.

Although I don’t have any special bond with the rank and folder of the Labour Union, I know some

top engineers.

(i) in the rank and folders of the Labour Union

(ii) with the rank and portfolio of the Labour Union

(iii) with the rank and file of the Labour Union

1. Only (i)

2. Only (ii)

3. Only (iii)

4. (i) and (ii)

5. No correction required

Answer: 3

Q16. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the

sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the

sentence. Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the

sentence. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. No correction

required.

Living in the heart of New York City is certainly a far cry from living in the rural countryside.

(i) heart of New York City is certainly a far cry

from

(ii) heart of New York city is a far cry than

(iii) heart of the New York city is certainly

ruing

1. Only (i)

2. Only (ii)

3. Only (iii)

4. Both (ii) and (iii)

5. No correction required

Answer: 1

Q.17 Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the five given

choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping (i) as the first statement.

(i) The new year, 2018, is here! Nothing seems to have changed, despite the Firecrackers.

1) Of course, in many parts of the world the firecrackers might have been confused with, or replaced

by, bombs, and millions in those and other regions find firecrackers (let alone

bombs) an unimaginable luxury as they struggle to obtain food or shelter.

2) I am aware that a group of increasingly loud fellow nationals might accuse me of celebrating ‘foreign

festivals’.

3) That too was widely celebrated, as it should be, though in a world where the

homeless, children, refugees and foreignness are often abused.

4) New Year’s Eve came, as it does, close on the heels of Christmas, which commemorates

the birth of a homeless child to poor refugees in a foreign place.

1. 2431

2. 4312

3. 1432

4. 3412

5. 3124

Answer: 3

Q18. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the five given

choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping (i) as the first statement.

i) In Hindu mythology, when Shiva opens his third eye, it is considered a terrible warning for the

cosmos.

1) In somewhat similar fashion, in 2017, women across the world seemed to declare war — on

harassment, abuse, rape, inequality and every form of injustice.

2) Anger, however, is only one facet of the fight for empowerment. Concomitantly, the year saw women

stack up achievements on an unprecedented scale.

3) It means he is angry enough to incinerate anything that comes in his way.

4) Across the world, there was a furious outpouring of rage against men in power, men on the street,

men at home, and in families.

1. 1234

2. 3241

3. 4213

4. 4132

5. 3142

Answer: 5

Q.19 Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the five given

choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping (i) as the first statement.

(i) On one online forum, the sysadmins were enjoying some gallows humour.

1) They were discussing a pair of recently announced security flaws, known as Meltdown and Spectre

that between them affect any computer powered by processors designed by Intel, AMD, ARM and

others.

2) Another wrote, with tongue only half in cheek, that “computers were a mistake”.

3) One simply posted a picture of a fire raging in a skip.

4) That’s most of them, in other words, from smartphones and desktop PCs to games consoles and the

racks of machines that run cloud-computing services from Microsoft, Amazon and the like.

1. 3214

2. 1423

3. 2341

4. 3142

5. 4231

Answer: 1

Q20. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each

sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the five given

choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping (i) as the first statement.

(i) You’d think the Indian economy had returned to rosy health.

1) Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s decision just over a year ago to withdraw 86 per cent

of the currency in circulation, and the poorly planned rollout in the middle of 2017 of a new

goods-and-services tax.

2) The Purchasing Managers’ Index expanded the fastest it has in five years. At least one

international rating agency has upgraded India’s credit rating.

3) It seems to have recovered from two enormous disruptions.

4) Exports are no longer declining, as they had for several quarters; indeed, for the last

month that data is available, they rose 30 per cent.

1. 1243

2. 1324

3. 3142

4. 2341

5. 4231

Answer: 3

Q21. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the

sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping (i)

as the first statement.

(i) For first-time Indian travellers, stepping out of the airport in Singapore or Japan is a

momentous, potentially mindset-changing experience.

1) But walk in a cramped gully in Delhi or even on the main road and everything that is

not desirable inside, finds its way outside.

2) Public littering is a social issue that results in massive aesthetic, financial and health related costs for

India. It’s not as if we don’t value cleanliness. Our homes are the textbook

definition of clean.

3) How does that compare with our paan stained buses filled with peanut shells?

4) How can bustling cities packed with people be so spotless? As far as the eye can go,

there is not a single piece of stray paper on the road or in public transport.

1. 2314

2. 4321

3. 4231

4. 1423

5. 1324

Answer: 2

Direction (22-26): In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with four words.

Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with various combinations of these

words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that fits into the blank.

Q.22 Due to the complexity of American water laws, water issues in the united states are not

very nor easily fixable.

a) Amenable

b) Controversial

c) Irrelevant

d) Compliant

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. c-d

5. a-d

Answer: 5

Q.23. Chronic drought and food insecurity plague Sahel, which is already one of the poorest in

the world moreover the climate and geography of the region regional communities to relative

isolation.

a) Alleviates

b) Relegates

c) Downgrades

d) Transgresses

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. c-d

5. A-d

Answer: 2

Q.24 The global transition to clean energy will most likely slow due to the Trump Administration’s

policies, but it will not halt or reverse which indicates under the Trump Administration clean energy will

remain .

a) Compatible

b) Unscathed

c) Contentious

d) Debatable

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. c-d

5. a-d

Answer: 4

Q.25 Current transportation systems cannot meet the growing demand without increasing both

congestion and pollution but the technological innovation spurred by the Fourth Industrial Revolution

may offer opportunities to improve the system such as vehicles, biometrics, and ultralight

materials.

a) Autonomous

b) Self-sufficient

c) Irresistible

d) Customized

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. c-d

5. a-d

Answer: 1

Q.26 The national power grid is woefully inefficient and the country is often crippled by power

shortages and blackouts like the one in 2012 where three of India’s five grids failed, leaving 20 of its 28

states and 700 million people without electricity for hours, which forced public services and private

enterprises to shut down as citizens rioted in the

Streets.

a) Unbridled

b) Contented

c) Disgruntled

d) Amicable

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. a-c

5. a-d

Answer: 4

Q.27 Direction: In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with

four words. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with various combinations

of these words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that fits into

the blank.

After Chinese immigrants began arriving in to work on the Central Pacific Railroad during

the California Gold Rush, racial tensions between white laborers and Chinese newcomers began to

emerge.

a) Waves

b) Perverse

c) Swarms

d) Diverge

1. a-b

2. b-c

3. b-d

4. c-a

5. a-d

Answer: 4

Q.28 Direction: In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with

four words. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with various

combinations of these words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that fits into

the blank. The second hour after sunset usually bought a night breeze that gave a little welcome respite

from the heat of the desert, where everyone was feeling weak, dehydrated and

Undernourished.

a) Taciturn

b) Oppressive

c) Prosaic

d) Torrid

1. b-c

2. b-d

3. c-d

4. a-d

5. a-b

Answer: 2

Direction (29-33): A sentence divided into four parts (A, (B). (C) and (D) is given. The

errors are in two parts of the sentence. Determine the parts which require correction

and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as No error.

Q.29. They applauded almost (A)/ his tricks and at the end of the (B)/ perform begged him

earnestly not (C)/ to go away again and leave them. (D)

1. A-B

2. C-D

3. B-C

4. A-C

5. No error

Answer: 4

Q.30 He looked small in the middle (A)/ of the foyer, and he worn an insincere (B)/ smile like

he might any other (C)/ piece of easily removed clothing. (D)

1. A-C

2. B-D

3. B-C

4. C-D

5. No error

Answer: 2

Q.31 The expanse from the young population (A)/ makes it importance for India to (B)/

understand the needs, desires and (C)/ aspirations of its youth. (D)

1. A-B

2. B-C

3. C-D

4. B-D

5. No error

Answer: 1

Q.32 First, it is important to realize (A)/ that in the video game industry, (B)/ much like in the

film industry, an (C)/ idea is a miniscule part of the whole package. (D)

1. A-C

2. B-C

3. B-D

4. A-B

5. No error

Answer: 5

Q.33 The new agreements by Japan reflects efforts (A)/ to counter growing uncertainty in global

markets, (B)/ largely due to unilateral actions by the Trump administration (C)/ and the

trade war between the US and China. (D)

Q.35 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 2 ?

1. A-B

2. A-D

3. B-C

4. B-D

5. No error

Answer: 2

Direction (34-43): Given below is a passage in which each line is numbered (1) - (10). Four

words in each sentence are highlighted. Find out which word is not grammatically/contextually suitable

in each of the numbered sentences. (1) When thinking about retail in the futuristic, there are several

areas to consider. (2) For instance, as VR improved, and the technology approaches real-world

replication, many of the experiences once thought belonging to the brick-and-mortar world can be

translated into the digital world. (3) The ability to visualise how pieces of clothes would look on you,

to walk through a digital store, and to interact virtually with other people may take a lot away from the

beauty of physical shops.

(4) As we become more and more connected to the digital world, and as our ability to make use of

data increase, purchasing may become much more “natural” online. (5) Although far from perfect, we

should assume that this will continue to improve significant.

(6) As this happens, the ability to predict our needs and wants might become just too compelling to

ignore, and slowly chip beyond at the benefits of brick-and-mortar. (7) Another factor contributing to

the rise of online retailers is fast delivery. (8) If you order something online a few years ago, it would

take at least a few days to arrive. (9) Today, with drone technology, and with online consumers

developing their own delivery chains, the norm has become 2-day delivery, and customer

expectations have adapted. (10) Accordingly to Lin Grosman, we’re not too far from two-hour

delivery, and Amazon has even talked about 30-minute delivery.

Q.34 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 1 ?

1. Thinking

2. Futuristic

3. Several

4. Consider

5. All correct

Answer: 2

Q.39 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 6 ?

1. Improved

2. Thought

3. Mortar

4. Digital

5. All correct

Answer: 1

Q.36. Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 3 ?

1. Visualise

2. Would

3. Virtually

4. Away

5. All correct

Answer: 5

Q.37 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 4 ?

1. Connected

2. Increase

3. Much

4. Natural

5. All correct

Answer: 2

Q.38 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 5 ?

1. Although

2. Assume

3. Continue

4. Significant

5. All correct.

Answer: 4

1. Happens

2. Predict

3. Compelling

4. Beyond

5. All correct

Answer: 4

Q.40. Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 7 ?

1. Another

2. Rise

3. Retailers

4. Delivery

5. All correct

Answer: 5

Q.41 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 8 ?

1. Order

2. Online

3. Take

4. Arrive

5. All correct

Answer: 1

Q.42 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 9 ?

1. Drone

2. Consumers

3. Norm

4. Expectation

5. All correct

Answer: 2

Q.43 Which of the following words is not appropriate in Sentence 10 ?

1. Accordingly

2. From

3. Has

4. About

5. All correct

Answer: 1

Q.44 Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that

follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.

Britain is pushing ahead with tests of self-driving cars on public roads despite mounting public concern

over safety after a pedestrian was killed by one in the US. The country’s biggest carmaker, Jaguar

Land Rover, has been experimenting with autonomous cars on roads in the Midlands and is set to

demonstrate more of the cars’ features, including an emergency braking

warning system, on urban streets this week.

Government-backed trials using small autonomous vehicles in south London are due to end on Friday,

with organisers reporting widespread public unease about the implications for road safety and

cybersecurity.

A self-driving Uber car killed a woman inTempe, Arizona on Sunday night – the first

time a self-driving vehicle has killed someone that was not its occupant. Elaine Herzberg,

49, was wheeling her bicycle when she was struck by the Volvo, and later died of her

injuries in hospital. The US government safety investigators were sent to examine the crash site and

Uber has suspended its test fleets of self-driving cars across the US and Canada.

Police in Arizona said initial video footage suggested Herzberg walked out suddenly. One previous

death involving autonomous cars, a Tesla Model S owner killed in Florida in 2016 when his car crashed

on autopilot, was blamed on the driver’s inattention, but investigators highlighted design flaws in the

vehicle.

Many in the motor and insurance industries expect safety benefits from autonomous cars since more

than 90% of accidents involve human error. In 2016, the latest full year for which data is available, 448

pedestrians were killed by vehicles on UK roads, and more than 6,000 in the US. But fears remain over

how driverless cars will interact with humans on the roads.

Christian Wolmar, the author of Driverless Cars: A Road to Nowhere, said the Arizona accident would

have a big impact: “We don’t know precisely what happened, but it is clear Uber are worried by

withdrawing all their cars. Driverless cars will not be accepted if there is

a perception that they are not 100% safe.

Of course, new technology has blips, but this one, that no one has particularly asked for, is being sold

on the basis that it’s so much safer.” Noel Sharkey, emeritus professor of artificial intelligence at the

University of Sheffield, said: “Autonomous vehicles present us with a great future opportunity to make

our roads safer. But the technology is just not ready yet and needs to mature before it goes on the

road.

Too many mistakes and the public may turn its back on the technology.” In London, members of the

public have been using low-speed autonomous pods on cycle paths and walkways around the

Greenwich peninsula as the culmination of a three-year Gateway study into people’s responses to

driverless technology. Gateway said that under half of 1,300 public

responses were positive about the new technology, with those uncertain or opposed citing

cybersecurity and road safety fears.

A spokesman said: “The lesson is you absolutely have to build in security and road safety from the

get-go.” The pods have had one reported collision, hitting a barrier with the roads minister, Jesse

Norman, onboard.

He has nonetheless pledged to keep the UK in the vanguard of developing autonomous technology,

recently confirming an overhaul of road laws to include self-driving cars. Greenwich is expected to allow

Ford and Jaguar Land Rover autonomous cars on its streets in the next phase of testing. Gatwick

announced it would be testing autonomous vehicles to shuttle staff across the airfield, which it said

could lead to “an Uber-like service” for ground staff to hail.

Q.44. How would the insurance agencies benefit from some driven cars?

1. Auto-mode being unsafe, would cause more accidents. So, people would take

insurance from insurance agencies.

2. With the advent of autonomous vehicles, there will be an increase in vehicle density

which would lead to more accidents.

3. 90% of accidents are due to human error.

4. It won’t benefit.

5. Data Inadequate

Answer: 5

Q.45 What is the following is the most similar to “blip” ?

A. Characteristics

B. Specifications

C. Interruptions

D. Elements

E. Trace

Answer: 3

Q.46 As per the author of the book “Driverless cars: A road to nowhere”, driverless cars would not be

accepted until;

1. The year 2030. It will take that much time to legalize autonomous vehicles.

2. The next generation becomes active drivers. The current one being too scared to trust computer

programmed cars.

3. People start selling their private cars and start using public transports or share cab or

Taxi.

4. They will never be accepted by the public.

5. They’re not perceived to be 100% safe

Answer: 5

Q.47 What is the irony in the case of 'driverless cars' ?

1. They were supposed to be cheaper but are way costlier.

2. Driver is getting blamed for accidents involving autonomous vehicles.

3. They were supposed to be safe but had killed people.

4. The fuel costs more than the driver’s salary.

5. A driver always sits in the driver's seat, despite the car being driverless.

Answer: 3

Q.48. Which of the following words are similar in meaning to ‘vanguard’ ?

1. Bodyguard, Protective shield

2. Followers, disciples

3. Cutting edge, forefront

4. Bodyguard, forefront

5. Followers, forefront

Answer: 3

Q.49 As per the passage, why did the government back trials in south London ?

1. Public grew uneasy about implications on road and cyber security.

2. Increasing accidents due to autonomous vehicles.

3. The parameters of testing had failed.

4. It was getting far too expensive to continue testing.

5. Public grew uneasy because of the risks involved in testing self-driven vehicles.

Answer: 1

Q.50. What were the main reasons behind the Uber accident ?

A. A glitch in the technology

B. No sensors were installed in the front

C. Braking system failed due to inefficient usage

D. The woman suddenly came in front, car couldn’t break in so little time.

E. A bug in the system's software, which made its reaction time too slow.

Answer: 4