ibps rrb scale 1 officer mains - key

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http://www.eenadupratibha.net TEST - I: REASONING Directions (Q. Nos. 1 – 3) Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below. (i) Five students Sujit, Randhir, Neena, Mihir and Vinay have total five books on subjects Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and English written by authors Gupta, Khanna, Harish, D’Souza and Edwin. Each student has only one book on one of the five subjects. (II) Gupta is the author of Physics book which is not owned by Vinay orSujit. (III) Mihir owns the book written by Edwin, (IV) Neena owns Maths book. Vinay has English book which is not written by Khanna. Biology Book written by D’Spuza 1. Which of the following is the correct combination of subject – student and author? (1) Maths – Neena – Harish (2) Physics – Mihir–Gupta (3) English – Vinay - Edwin (4) Biology – Sujit – D’Souza (5) None of these. 2. Who is the author of Chemistry book ? (1) Only Harish (2) Only Edwin (3) Khanna or Harish (4) Edwin or Khanna (5) None of these. 3. Who is the owner of book written by Harish (1) Vinay (2) Sujit (3) Randhir (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these. 4. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three 5. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in that code? (1) MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3) MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None of these. 6. How many meaningful English words can be made th the letters IDET using each letter only once in each word? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group (1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group (1) Tomato (2)Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5) Gourd Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13): In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An Assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of then assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer (1) If only assumption I is implicit (2) If only assumption II is implicit (3) If either assumption I or assumption II is implicit (4) If neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit (5) If both assumption I and assumption II are implicit 9. Statement: ‘ You are expected to be frank and objective while writing your self appraisal report’. An instruction for 1

Transcript of ibps rrb scale 1 officer mains - key

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tTEST - I: REASONING

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 – 3) Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.(i) Five students Sujit, Randhir, Neena, Mihir and Vinay have total five books on subjects Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and English written by authors Gupta, Khanna, Harish, D’Souza and Edwin. Each student has only one book on one of the five subjects.(II) Gupta is the author of Physics book which is not owned by Vinay orSujit.(III) Mihir owns the book written by Edwin,(IV) Neena owns Maths book. Vinay has English book which is not written by Khanna. Biology Book written

by D’Spuza1. Which of the following is the correct combination of subject – student and author?

(1) Maths – Neena – Harish (2) Physics – Mihir–Gupta(3) English – Vinay - Edwin (4) Biology – Sujit – D’Souza(5) None of these.

2. Who is the author of Chemistry book ?(1) Only Harish (2) Only Edwin(3) Khanna or Harish (4) Edwin or Khanna(5) None of these.

3. Who is the owner of book written by Harish(1) Vinay (2) Sujit(3) Randhir (4) Data Inadequate(5) None of these.

4. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three

5. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in that code?(1) MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3) MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None of these.

6. How many meaningful English words can be made th the letters IDET using each letter only once in each word?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not

belong to that group(1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group(1) Tomato (2)Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5) Gourd

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13): In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An Assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of then assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

(1) If only assumption I is implicit(2) If only assumption II is implicit (3) If either assumption I or assumption II is implicit(4) If neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit(5) If both assumption I and assumption II are implicit

9. Statement: ‘ You are expected to be frank and objective while writing your self appraisal report’. An instruction for

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writing self- appraisal report.Assumptions: I. Unless cautioned, people may tend to be little shy and less objective while writing their self- appraisal report.

II. Every self-appraisal report helps the person in his further development.

10. Statement: The higher echelon of any organization are expected to be models of observational learning and should not

be considered as merely sources of reward and punishments Assumptions: I. Employees are likely to be sensitive enough to learn by observing the behavior of their

bosses. II. Normally bosses are considered as sources of reward and punishment

11. Statement: ‘But, out of A,B,C and D products, you but ‘B’ which alone is based on the international technology. ‘A shopkeeper tells a customer’.Assumptions: I. The Customers normally accepts the recommendation of the shopkeeper

II. Use of international technology is supposed to ensure better quality standards.12. Statement: The organization should promote employees on the basis of merit alone and not on the basis of length of

service or seniority.Assumptions: I. Length of service or seniority does not alone reflect merit of an employee

II. It is possible to determine and measure merit of an employee13. Statement: Highly brilliant and industrious students do not always excel in the written examination

Assumptions: I. The written examination is good mainly for mediocre students.II. The brilliant and industrious students cannot always write good answers in the exam.

Directions (Q. Nos. 14 – 18) In each of the questions below is given a statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follws beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer

(1) If only conclusion I follows(2) If only conclusion II follows(3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is follows(4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II isfollows(5) If both conclusion I and conclusion II are follows

14. Statement: The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class Mastersdegree. However, the

candidates who have appeared for the final year examination of masters degree can also apply.Conclusions: I. All candidates who have yet to get their master’s degree will be there in the list of selected

candidates. II. All candidates having obtained second class Master’s degree will be there in the list of selected

candidates.15. Statement: The government run company had asked it’s employees to declare their income and assets but

it has been strongly resisted by employees union and no employee is going to declare his income.

Conclusions: I. The employees of this company do not seem to have any additional undisclosed income besides their

salary II. The employee’s union wants all senior officers to declare their income first.

16. Statement: The official Secrets Act (O.S.A) enacted by the XYZ government during the war seems to be the source of

much corruption in the county ‘P’.

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Conclusions: I. The official Secrets Act has to be abolished immediately to stop corruption in country ‘P’. II. The XYZ government wanted to encourage corruption in the government offices.

17. Statement: After collision of two vessels in the sea all the crewmen and passengers are declared as missing. ‘A new

report’.Conclusions: I. No one from the two vessels has survived after the collision.

II. A few persons from the two vessels may have survived and are missing.18. Statement: Good health is a luxury in country ‘P’ where rate of death is very high compared to other

nations of that region.

Conclusions: I. People in country ‘P’ cannot afford to have many luxuries of life. II. Good health is a gift of the nature.

Directions (Q. Nos. 19 - 21): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements.Give answer

(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question. While the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. While the data in statement I alone

are not sufficient to answer the question.(3) If the data in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.(5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.Caution Do not mark your answers unless you consider both the statements carefully.

19. Who among T, R and S is (are) to the East of P? I. R, who is to the West of P, is not as near to S as P is, S is in the farthest East.II. P is not as far away from S as T is.

20. Who amongst A,B,C,D and E was the first to reach the function? I. B, who reached earlier than E, A and C was not the first to reach.II. A, who reached earlier than E and C could not reach earlier than D, who was at the function before D.

21. How many students did secure 1st Class in a class of 48 students? I. Double the number of 1st Class students secured IInd Class and all the remaining failed.II. Number of students failed was the thrice the number of 1st Class students in the class.

Directions (Q. Nos. 22 - 26): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given belowSeven friends A,B,C,D,E,Fnd G applied for three Banks P,Q, and R. Out of these at least two have applied for each bank. There is only one girl who had applied only for one Bank. Out of the seven friends three wereselect one for one Bank, Out of these was only one girl., B is sister of G and both have applied for the same Bank but not for Q. A applied for the Bank R only with E who is girl. F applied for the Bank P but he was not selected. C who is wife of D, has been selected

22. Which of the following combination represents girls?(1) B, C, and E (2) B, C, and G (3) C, E, and G(4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

23. For which bank, three persons applied?(1) R (2) P or Q (3) Q ro R (4) P (5) Can’t be determined

24. Which of the following combination of boys and Bank is correct?(1) G – Q (2) C – Q (3) D – R (4) E – R (5) A – R

25. Which of the following combination of friends, represents for the Bank P?(1) B and F (2) F and G (3) B, F and G (4) B, F and C (5) None of these

26. Finally which of the following were selected?(1) A, C and F (2) A, C and G (3) B, C and F (4) B, C and G (5) None of these

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Directions (Q.Nos. 27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are travelling to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad in three differentvehicles – Hond City, Swift D’zire and Ford Ikon. There are three females among them one in each car. There are atleast two persons in each car. R is not travelling with Q and W. T a male, is travelling with only Zand they are not travelling to Chennai. P is travelling in Honda City to Hyderabad. S is sister of P and travelsby Ford Ikon. V and R travel together. W does not travel to Chennai.

27. Members in which car are travelling to Chennai?(1) Honda City (2) Swift D’zire (3) Ford Ikon(4) Either Swift D’zire or Ford Ikon (5) None of these

28. In which car are four member travelling?(1) None (2) Honda City (3) Swift D’zire (4) Ford Ikon (5) Honda City or

Ford Ikon29. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?

(1) QSZ (2) WSZ (3) PSZ (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these30. Who is travelling with W?

(1) Only Q (2) Only P (3) P and Q (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these31. Members in which of the following combinations are travelling in Honda City?

(1) PRS (2) PQW (3) PWS (4) Date inadequate (5) None of theseDirections (Q.Nos. 32-35): Each of the questions below consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question that follows.32. How many daughters does P have?

I. B and D are sisters of MII. M’s father T is husband of P.III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.(1) I and III (2) All I, II and III are required to answer the question (3) II and III(4) Question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III (5) I and II

33. who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest? I. B is taller than A but shorter than EII. Only two of them are shorter than C.III. D is taller than only F. (1) I and II (2) I and III (3) II and III(4) All I,II and III are required to answer the question (5) All I,II and III are not sufficient to

answer the question34. Towards which direction is village J from Village w?

I. Village R is to the West of Village W and to the North of Village T.II. Village Z is to the East of Village J and to the South of Village T.III. Village M is to the North- East of Village J and North of Village Z.

(1) Only III (2) II and III (3) All I,II and III are required to answer the question

(4) Question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III (5) None of these35. On Which day of the week starting from Monday did Manoj visit Chennai?

I. Manoj took leave on WednesdayII. Manoj visited Chennai the day after his mother’s visit to his house.III. Manoj’s mother visited Manoj’s house neither on Monday nor on Thursday. (1) II and II (2) I and II (3) I and III(4) All I,II and III are required to answer the question (5) Question can’t be answered even with

all I, II and III36. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the

expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall.Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation?

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(1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.(2) Government may announce ex – gratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas(3) Government may declare these areas as drought affected areas(4) people may blame the Government and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.(5) None of these

37. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts about the railway’s capability of providing safety to travelers.Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statements?(1) Indian Railway has come to be known to provide best passenger comfort in the recent years..(2) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances.(3) The railway tracks at many places have been found to stressed due to wear an tear in the recent times.(4) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such

disasters.(5) None of these

38. A few travelers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as the villagers found the movement of the travelers suspicious. The District authority has sent a police team to nabthe culprits.Which of the following inference can be drawn from the above statements?(An inference is something which is not directly started but can be inferred from the given facts)(1) The villagers dislike presence of strangers in their vicinity(2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature(3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside(4) The Government generally provides protection to travelers across the country..(5) None of these

39. There has been a considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when compared to the number of four wheelers sold during this period last year.Which of the following can be the probable cause of the above phenomenon?I. The Government has imposed higher excise duty on four wheelers at the beginning of this year.II. The petrol prices have risen considerable during the past eight months.III. The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months.(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) Only II (5) All I , II and III

40. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ration against women in India during the past decade and situationmay get out of hand if adequate steps are not taken to stop female foeticide.Which of the following can be an effective step to reverse the trend?I. The Government should immediately completely ban use of scanners / sonography on expectant mothersat all health centres. II. The Government should announce a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have atleast one girl childIII. The Government should launce a nationalwide campaign to create awareness against female foeticide.(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) All the these (5) All I, II and III

TEST - II: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions ( Q.No.s 41 – 46 ) Read the following passages to answer the given questions based on it. Some words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Passage IRationalism has been defined as the mental attitude which unreservedly accepts the supremacy of reason and aims at establishing a system of philosophy and ethic verifiable by experience and independent if all arbitrary assumptions or authority. This definition of rationalism was framed at the inauguration of the Rationalist press Association ( RPA) in London in year 1899.

41. This paragraph best supports the statement that (1) Ethics does not constitute a part of Philosophy.(2) One has to accept certain beliefs to find the final truth.

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(3) Rationalism is not a set of beliefs which is devoid of verification.(4) Mental attitude is independent of all assumptions.(5) Only RPA can establish philosophy of Rationalism

42. Which of the following words is most nearly the same , in meaning as the word unreservedly used in the paragraph?

(1)Conditionally (2) Fully (3) Partially (4) Collectively(5) UnilaterallyPassage IIIn today’s world where teachers have a busy schedule , it is noticed that only a few teachers have time for the student’ learning experiences. One thing which is lacking in almost all classrooms is teachers motivating students to do better. What happens is that teachers would like to give attention to the students who have high intelligence and who are academically good. A larger portion of the students population is neglected .Teachers blame them for not trying do their best.

43. The author would like the teachers to (1) motivate bright students to enhance their academic achievements.(2) improve their own academic standards to motivate students(3) keep their schedule busy by carrying out various duties(4) encourage and give planned learning experiences to all students(5) encourage good students to help poor students.

44. According to the author, why are teachers not in a position to perform their expected role? (1) Majority of the students neglect classroom teaching

(2) The students are very busy and have less time to learn(3) Intelligent students are after teacher, secking their help in studies(4) They are forced to spend more time in motivating good students(5) None of the abovePassage IIIDue to the development of individualism, and permissiveness, social norms have become slack and parents and teachers are unable to play their traditional role of shaping the character of their children and peoples. The growing complexity of society due to technological development and the slackness of social norms as a results of the growth of individualism and permissiveness are the two causes of the moral crises of our time.

45. According to the author, which of the following is one of the outcome of the present crises of our time? (1) Inability of parents and teachers to develop value base of children(2) More than expected growth of science and technology.(3) Increasing social cohesiveness in spite of violence and disturbances(4) Emergence of new social norms which obstruct growth of individualism.(5) None of these

46. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word slackness as used in the passage? (1) Rigidity

(2) Vigorous(3) Sluggishness(4) Business(5) Tightness

Directions (Q.Nos. 47-51): In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (A), (B), ( C ), ( D), 9E) and (F), By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the only one having the correct order of words.47. A. others B. her C. she D. mistakes E. for F. blames

(1) CFAEBD (2) ACFEBD (3) BDACFE (4) CFDABE (5) BDAFCE48. A. finalise B. we C. details D. later E. the F. will

(1) BFEACD (2) BDCFEA (3) BDCAEF (4) ECFDBA (5) BFAECD49. A. uv- Rays B. absorbs C. the D. layer E. harmful F. ozone

(1) ACBEFD (2) CFDBEA (3) ACBFED (4) CFBDAE (5) CBEAFD50. A. practising B. speech C. spent D. his E. he F. hours

(1) DBCFEA (2) DBFCAE (3) EDCDAF (4) FACBED (5) ECFADB51. A. to B. around C. see D. they E. him F. hated

(1) DFAECB (2) DBFAEC (3) DFCAEB (4) DFACEB (5) CEBFADDirections (Q.Nos. 52-56): Rearrange the following sentences to convert them into a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions given below them.

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A. Mohit and Rushali had gone on a holiday tour in their own car.B. One day their car was passing by a small village.C. Rushali was driving the car on that day.D. Some boys playing on the road saw her driving and got frightened.E. But one boy saw Mohit sitting next to her and assured others not to worry.

52. Which will be the THIRDsentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

53. Which will be the FIFTH(LAST)sentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

54. Which will be the FIRSTsentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

55. Which will be the SECOND sentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

56. Which will be the FOURTH sentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Directions (Q. Nos.57-70): In the following passage there are blanks, each of the which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits theblank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

This happened thousands of years ago. Life was had as people had to do all the work by themselves. A large number of people were (57) they would travel from one place to another in search of food and shelter. While travelling one day, a man arrived at the (58) of a desert. He was walking on the sand, when suddenly, he came across a (59) creature it had extremely long, thin legs a giant hump and a long neck. It was this neck that he extended towards the man, who (60) out of his (61)ran away from the spot. The following day, he met the creature again. It was standing near a lake(62) water. This time, the man was fascinated at what he saw the creature putting its long neck into the lake and drinking water continuously. Then, (63) aware it was being watched. The giant creature looked up and stared straight into the eyes of the man standing across. But this time, an(64) of water separated the two and the man did not run away. He stood and watched the animal, which made no effort to come closer. In the following weeks, the man saw more such creatures, again and again. It seemed they were all over the desert, aimlessly walking about for miles on (65). The man began to observe the creatures very closely. He saw that they were vegetarian. Moreover, despite their huge size, they were remarkably meek and (66) . And the stamina the creatures had was (67). They could walk the entire length of the desert without being exhausted. Observing them the man thought, “What if I (68) this was dozing the man went upto it and put a bridle in its mount. Then, he rode around on it, after placing an (69) amount of load on its back. With that, the taming of the camel was completed (for that was who the creature was). And ever since that day, the camel has faithfully (70)upto its title of ‘Ship of the Desert’.

57. (1) masons (2) cobblers (3) farmers (4) nomads (5) potters58. (1) edge (2) base (3) banks (4) shore (5) line59. (1) frightened (2) beware (3) frightening (4) cowarded (5) None of these60. (1) scared (2) putting (3) creature (4) extended (5) continuously61. (1) humour (2) mind (3) wits (4) life (5) face62. (1) flowing (2) drinking (3) eating (4) watching (5) listening63. (1) beware (2) suddenly (3) nomads (4) creatures (5) continuously64. (1) expanse (2) stretch (3) wedge (4) pond (5) element65. (1) Kilometres (2) metres (3) star (4) end (5) miles66. (1) scary (2) gentle (3) ferocious (4) foolish (5) aimless67. (1) Unarguable (2) unbelievable(3) unforgivable (4) unbearable (5) unavailable68. (1) tame (2) support (3) kill (4) eat (5) call69. (1) enormous (2) share (3) stretch (4) element (5) support70. (1) been (2) ran (3) seen (4) lived (5) stoodDirections (Q. Nos.71-80) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Organized retail has fuelled new growth categories-like liquid hand wash, breakfast cereals and pet foods inthe consumer goods industry, accounting for almost 50% of their sales, said data from market search firmNielsen. The figures showed some of these new categories got more than 40% of their business frommodern retail outlets. The data also suggests how products in these categories reach theneighbourhoodKirana stores after they have established themselves in modern trade.While grocers continue to be an important channel, for the new and evolving categories we saw anincreased presence of high end products in modern trade. For example, premium products in laundrydetergents, dishwashing, car air fresheners and surface care increased in availability through this format as

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these products are aimed at affluentconsumers who are more likely to shop in supermarket/ hypermarketoutlets and who are willing to pay more for specialized products.Some other categories that have grown exceptionally and now account for bulk of the sales from modernretain are frozen and ready-to-eat foods, pet food, diapers, pre and post-wash products, hair conditionersand high-end shaving products, besides others. “With the evolution of modern trade, our growth in thischannel has been healthy as it is for several other categories. Modern retain is an important part of ourbusiness” said managing director, Kellogg India.What modern retail offers to companies experimenting with new categories is the chance to educatecustomers which was not the case with a general trade store. “Category creation and market developmentstarts with modern trade but as more consumers start consuming this category, they penetrate into otherchannels”, said President, food and FMCG category, Future group the country’s largest retailer whichoperates stores like Big Bazaar.But a point to note here is that modern retailers themselves push their own private brands in these verycategories and can emerge as a big threat for the consumers goods and foods companies. For instance, BigBazaar’s private label Clean Mate is hugely popular and sells more than a brand like Harpic in its ownstores. “So there is a certain amount of conflict and competition that will play out over the next few yearswhich the FMCG companies will have to watch out for”, said KPMG’s executive director (retail).In the past, there have been instances of retailers boycotting products from big FMCG players on the issueof margins, but as modern retail becomes increasingly significant for pushing new categories, experts saywe could see more partnerships being forged between retailers and FMCG companies.“Market development for new categories takes time so brand wars for leadership and consumer franchisewill be fought on the modern retail platform. A new brand can overnight compete with establishedcompanies by tying up with few retailers in these categories”, President of Future Group added.

71. Which of the following is being referred to as new growth category? (1) Soap cake (2) Fresh fruits (3) Fresh vegetables (4) Liquid hand wash (5) Usual groceries

72. Which of the following is being referred to as modern retail outlet?(1)Kirana Store (2) Online store (3) Door – to –door Selling(4) Road-side Hawkers (5) Supermarket

73. Which of the following best conveys the meaning of the phrase, “watch out for” as used in the passage?(1) Demand justice (2) Avoid conflict (3) Be on the alert(4) Passively accept (5) Open for competition

74. Which of the following is being referred to as ‘certain amount of conflict’?(1) Retailers selling their own products with products of companies(2) Retailers selling similar products of different consumer companies(3) offering differential rate of margin for different products (4) New products killing the old products(5) Different retailers selling same category of products

75. The new growth category products(1) reach first the neighborhood Kirana store and then the modern retail outlets.(2) account for less than 20% of sales in organized retail (3) reach all the outlets almost at the same time (4) first become popular in modern trade outlets before reaching Kirana stores(5) are aimed at the poor section of the society

76. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?(1) Clean Mate is a product of an organized retailers(2) Some retailers don’t keep some products if the profit margin is not good.(3) A new brand can never quickly displace an established brand.(4) Kirana stores still remains an important channel.(5) In future, there will be more partnerships between retailers and FMGC Companies.

77. Which of the following categories has become ver popular through sales from modern retail outlets?(1) Frozen foods (2) Computers (3) Cell phones (4) Fresh fruits(5) Soft drinks

78. Which class / section of people are more likely to shop in Hypermarket outlets?(1) Senior citizens (2) Younger generation (3) Rich consumers (4) Poor section(5) Women

79. Which of the following advantages do modern retail outlets provide for new categories of products as compared to general trade stores?(1) Higher profit margins (2) Experimenting with new products (3) Competition with similar produ

(4) Better packing of the product (5) Products at much lower price.

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80. “………penetrate into other Channels.” Which of the following of the following is being referred to as Channels?

(1) Products (2) Companies (3) New products (4) Existing products (5) None of these

TEST - III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (Q.Nos. 81-85): in each of the following questions a number series is given which has only one wrong number. You have to find out the wrong number.81.

(1) 357.5 (2) 87.5 (3) 157.5 (4) 7.5 (5) 47.582. 13, 16, 21, 27, 39, 52, 69

(1) 21 (2)39 (3) 27 (4) 52 (5) 1683. 1500, 1581, 1664, 1749, 1833, 1925, 2016

(1) 1581 (2) 1664 (3) 1833 (4) 1925 (5) 174984. 06, 91, 120, 153, 190, 233, 276

(1) 120 (2) 233 (3) 153 (4) 276 (5) 19085. 1331, 2197, 3375, 4914, 6859, 9261, 12167

(1) 4914 (2) 6859 (3) 9261 (4) 2197 (5) 1216786. The simple interest on an amount of Rs. 40000 at the end of three years is Rs. 12000. What would be the

compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period?(1) Rs. 18765 (2) Rs. 15350 (3) Rs. 21555 (4) Rs. 13240 (5) None of these

87. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 100%. The resultantfraction is . What was the original fraction?(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these

88. 42 women can do a piece of work in 18 days. How many women would be required to do the same work in 21 days?

(1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 30 (4) 44 (5) None of these89. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio of 9 : 8 respectively. After 5yr the ratio of their ages will be

10 : 9. What is the difference in years between their ages?(1) 4 yr (2) 5 yr (3) 6 yr (4) 7 yr (5) None of these

90. Vishakha spent Rs. 68357 on the renovation for her home, Rs.25675 on buying music system and the remaining 28% of the total amount she had as cash with her. What was the total amount?(1) Rs. 94032 (2) Rs. 36568 (3) Rs. 130600(4) Rs. Can’t be determined (5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 91-95): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions.Number of Units (in millions) manufactured by six companies and Percentage of Units Sold over the Years

Company Years

1999 2000 2001 2002 20032004

M % M % M % M % M % M %

A18

92

20

85

22

79

30

78

28

79

23 9

4B

28

86

12

86

16

68

24

80

25

90

28 6

8C

16

75

16

93

24

84

26

82

26

80

30 8

2D

12

78

14

90

24

82

20

84

27

75

32 7

7E

14

90

18

81

16

91

22

96

18

75

30 7

6F

13

88

17

91

20

86

26

92

19

84

25 8

5M – Number of units manufactured in millions% - percentage of units sold

91. What is the approximate percentage increase in the number of units sold by Company F in the year 2000 from the previous year?(1) 7 (2) 35 (3) 42 (4) 24 (5) 3

92. Which company has manufactured the least number of units over all the years together?

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(1) E (2) B (3) F (4) D (5) None of these93. What is the number of units sold by Company D in the year 2003?

(1) 2025000 (2) 202500000 (3) 20250000 (4) 202500 (5) None of these94. What is the number of units not sold by Company B in the years 1999, 2002 and 2004 together?

(1) 176800000 (2) 1768000 (3) 176800 (4) 17680000 (5) None of these95. Which Company has sold the maximum number of units in the year 2001?

(1) E (2) F (3) D (4) C (5) None of these96. The length of rectangular floor is twice its breadth. If Rs. 256 is required to paint the floor at the rate Rs. 2

per sq m, then what would be the length of floor?(1) 16m (2) 8m (3) 12m (4) 32 m (5) 20

97. Angle ‘A’ of the quadrilateral ABCD is less than angel B. Angle B is twice angle C and angle C is more thanthe angle D. What would be the measure of angle ‘A’?(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

98. A number when subtracted by of itself gives the same value as the sum of all the angles of a triangle. Whatis the number?(1) 224 (2) 210 (3) 140 (4) 350 (5) 187

99. A man walked at a speed of 4 km/h from point A to B and come back from point B to A at the speed of 6 km/h. What would be the ratio between the time taken by man in walking from point A to B point B to A respectively?(1) 5 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 (5) 3 : 2

100. In every 30 min the time of a watch increases by 3 min. After setting the correct time at 5 am. What time willthe watch show after 6 h?(1) 10: 54am (2) 11:30am (3) 11.36am (4) 11.42am (5) 11:38am

101. Twelve men complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can eight men complete the same piece of work?

(1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 48 (4) 52 (5) None of these102. Rahul spends 50% of his monthly income on household items, 20% of his monthly income on buying

clothes, 5 % of his monthly income on medicines and the remaining amount of Rs. 11250 he saves. What is Rahul’s monthly income?(1) Rs. 38200 (2) Rs. 34000 (3) Rs. 41600 (4) Rs. 45000 (5) None of these

103. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two digit number is lesser than the original numberby 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is the original number?(1) 28 (2) 39 (3) 82 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of above

104. At present, Meena is eight times her daughter’s age. Eight years from now, the ratio of the ages of Meena and her daughter will be 10 : 3 respectively. What is Meena’s present age?(1) 32yr (2) 40yr (3) 36yr (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of above

105. In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3girls be arranged in a row such that all boys stand together andall the girls stand together?(1) 75 (2) 576 (3) 288 (4) 24 (5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 106-110): Study the graph carefully to answer the following questionsNumber of people Contributing Towards Helping Tsunami Victims from different Cities

106. How many more people from City S would have made the ratio 11 : 9 between the number of people contributing from Cities S and T respectively?(1) 1500 (2) 2000 (3) 5500 (4) 3500 (5) None

of these107. Number of people contribution from cities Q and U together from what per cent of the total number of people

contributing from all cities ?(1) 30 (2) 36 (3) 32 (4) 38 (5) None of these

108. Number of people contributing from how many cities from less than 18% of the total number of people contributing from all cities together?(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) None of these

109. Approximately by the what per cent number of people contributing from City T are more in comparison to thepeople contributing from City S?(1) 38 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 29 (5) 34

110. What is the respective ratio between number of people contributing from City P to those from City R?(1) 5 : 4 (2) 4 : 7 (3) 7 : 4 (4) 5 : 9 (5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 111 -115): Study the following graph to answer the given questions.Percent Rise in Production over the Years

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111. For how many years is the per cent rise more than 100?(1) One (2) Two (3) Five (4) Three (5) None of these

112. What is the average of the per cent rise over the given years?(1) 110 (2) 105 (3) 100.5 (4) 92.5 (5) None of these

113. For how many years is the per cent rise lower than the average of the per cent rise over the given years?(1) Two (2) One (3) Five (4) Three (5) None of these

114. For which of the given years is the per cent rise (previous year) in the per cent rise the least?(Years 2001 and 2003 not to be considered)(1) 2000 (2) 2004 (3) 2006 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None

of these115. If the production in 1998 was 10000 units how much is the production in 2002?

(1) 35280 Units (2) 64680 Units (3) 46200 Units (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of theseDirections (Q. Nos. 116-120): Study the following table to answer these questions.

Number of Officers in Various Departments of an Organization in Different Scales

Scale

DeptPersonnel Operations System

Accounts Maintenance

Public relations

I 225 725 750 300 325 175

II 120 426 576 288 240 150

III 75 250 320 120 85 100

IV 40 126 144 60 30 50

V 25 65 70 35 20 35

VI 4 20 28 15 8 5

116. What is the ratio between the total number of employees in Scale III and Scale IV respectively?(1) 19 : 9 (2) 9 : 19 (3) 17 : 9 (4) 9 : 17 (5) None

of these117. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of employees in Scale I ?

(1) 2.8 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.6 (4) 3.2 (5) None of these118. In Public Relations department the number of employees in Scale II is less than that in Scale I by what per

cent? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 14.67 (2) 16.67 (3) 14.29 (4) 16.27 (5) None of these119. Out of the total number of employees in ‘Personnel’ department, approximately what per cent of employees

are in Scale II?(1) 30 (2) 28 (3) 22 (4) 20 (5) 25

120. What percentage of Scale IV officers are deployed in ‘Operations’ department? (1) 26.5 (2) 28 (3) 28.5 (4) 27 (5) None of these

TEST – IV: GENERAL AWARENESS121. Banks that fail to fulfill the minimum requirements will

(1) have to face the inplications of foreign banks refusing to honour letter of credits issued by them.(2) not be able to attract funds from the PSUs as the Department of Public Enterprises has for bidden them

to place funds in banks that do not achieve the prudential norms. (3) Either (1) or (2) (4) (1) and (2) (5) None of these

122. The main objectives of a General Insurance Company are(1) to provide financial security to all segments of the security (2) by offering insurance products

and services(3) at affordable cost (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

123. The State Co-operative Banks (1) Assume the key position in the co-operative credit structure(2) undertake both mobilization of resources as well as proper development among various sectors(3) carry out the role of intermediaries between the money market and Central Co-operative Banks(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

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124. During December 1995 RBI modified its branch licensing policy by putting following new conditions (1) Banks should have a three year profitability record

(2) NPA level should be below 15%(3) Its capital adequacy ratio should not be less than 8% with a minimum owned funds requirement of ₹ 100

crore(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

125. CBS stands for (1) Core Banking Solution (2) Centralized Banking system (3) Computer Based System(4) All of the above (5) None of the above

126. The various channels for delivery of retail banking are (1) through branch banking (2) through internet banking (3) through mobile banking

(4) All of the above (5) None of the above127. The Land Development Banks grant medium term loan for Land Development, etc. against the mortgage o f

lands. In some states these banks are known as (1) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (2) State Cooperative Banks

(3) Urban Cooperative Banks (4) Land Mortgage Banks(5) None of the above

128. The following institutions are eligible for refinance facilities from IDBI(1) State Financial Corporations and State Industrial Development Corporations(2) Commercial Banks(3) Region Rural Banks(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

129. Pick the correct statement about credit cards.(1) Credit cards are used in those establishments only which have agreed to accept them for which the card issuing bank/institution enters into agreement with them.(2) Some banks provide the facility of cash withdrawal thorough credit cards from any of their branches and/or ARMs subject to a certain monetary ceiling per transaction per month.(3) Credit cards are allowed to be used by the card holder only.(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

130. Banks are permitted to set up first venture companies for undertaking insurance business with risk participation, subject to

(1) their net worth should be atleast Rs. 500 crore(2) net profit for last three continuous years(3) CRAR should not be less than 10%(4) (1) and (2) (5) All of the above

131. In India, the computerization program of banks are regulated and monitored by(1) SBI (2) RBI (3) ET and T (4) Intel UNV (5) None of these

132. RRBs have been making contribution in the area of rural credit since reception still they suffer from the following weaknesses(1) poor capital structure(2) Increasing overheads and decreasing profits(3) Lack of effective coordination between Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks and RRBs in the area of their operation(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

133. The banks, globally are embrasing technology in the areas of

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(1) textiles (2) consumable products(3) financial products (4) financial and customer services(5) (3) and (4)

134. A working group on cheque truncation and E-cheques was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India under the chairmanship of Dr. RB Barman and major recommendations of group include.(1) the physical cheque will be truncated within the presenting bank(2) Settlement will be generate on the basis of current MICR code line data (3) electronic images will be used for payment processing(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

135. With the repeal of UTI Act, 1963 with effect from 01.02.2003, Unit Trust of India has been reorganized into (1) UTI-I which comprises of US-64 and all other assured return schemes(2) UTI – Mutual Fund (UTIMF) which comprises of all the net asset value based schemes of UTI(3) Both of the above(4) Either (1) of (2)(5) None of the above

136. The technological powers of the banks are likely to determine the future of how money and financial information will be transmitted for ……………………… of customer needs(1) dissatisfaction (2) satisfaction (3) harassment(4) diversification (5) None of these

137. Banknet and SWIFT for transmission of messages were commissioned in India in the year(1) 1951 (2) 1991 (3) 1961 (4) 1971 (5) 1981

138. Social control on banks was introduced in(1) Feb, 1961 (2) Feb, 1969 (3) July, 1969(4) Feb, 1980 (5) None of these

139. Which of the following are the suppliers of funds in capital market?(1) Individual savers (2) Corporate savings (3) Banks(4) Insurance companies (5) All of the above

140. Machine , within or outside the bank premises that enables customers to conduct cash withdrawals and other specific banking transactions without the help of bank staff, is called(1) Automated Teller Machine (ATM) (2) PC (3) Internet (4) Intranet (5) Servers

141. Name the veteran journalist who has been chosen for the ‘Raja Ram Mohan Roy Award’ for his outstanding contribution to journalism.(1) Krishna Murali (2) Pandurang Purushottam Shirodhkar (3) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala(4) S Nihal Singh (5) Raghav Jayal

142. Which state government has launched the RS 200 – crore Yamuna river front project?(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Uttar Khand(4) Delhi (5) Himachal Pradesh

143. Name the law regarding black money which came into effect on November 1st.(1) Black money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2016(2) The Taxation Laws (amendment) Bill, 2016(3) The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Amendment) Bill, 2016(4) The prevention of Money laundering (Amendment) Bill, 2016(5) The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016

144. The RBI has opened its second office of the Banking ombudsman in which city?(1) Jaipur (2) Mumbai (3) New Delhi (4) Hyderabad (5) Pune

145. How much will the government provide to promote Indian at the Oscars?(1) 1.5 crore (2) 2.5 crore (3) 3 crore (4) 1 crore (5) 2 crore

146. In which country has the ‘Yes Campaign’ won referendum on a new constitution?(1) Angola (2) Equatorial Guinea (3) Ivory Coast (4) Mali (5) Senegal

147. Who has been appointed as the new Prime Minister of South Korea?(1 ) Park Geun – hye (2) Kim Byong – Joon (3) Hwang Kyo – ahn

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(4) Yimjong – jong (5) Yoo ll – ho148. Name the telescope built by NASA which has been described as the largest space telescope.

(1) ISS – CREAM (2) Extreme Universe space observatory onboard Japanese Experiment Module

(3) Spektr – RG (4) James web space Telescope (5) CHEOPS149. Name the person who has become the first Sikh to be appointed to the Canadian senate.

(1) Jassa Singh Ahluwalia (2) Manjit Bawa (3) Ajay Mittal(4) Sarabjit Singh Marwah (5) Vinod Mehra

150. The 3 – day Asian Ministerial conference for Disaster Risk Reduction was held in which city?(1) Mumbai (2) New Delhi (3) Hyderabad(4) Chennai (5) Jaipur

151. Which company has bagged a Rs. 334 crore order from SBI to Install over 7,000 cash vending machines?(1) kodenshi AUK Group (2) CA Technologies (3) NCR Corporation(4) Genpact (5) Satoshi Citadel Industries

152. Which company has signed a MOU with the HRD Ministry to create job opportunities for Indian students?(1) Apple (2) Linkedin (3) Deloitte (4) Oracle (5) Face book

153. What is the Maximum charge of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)? (1) 29% (2) 30% (3) 32% (4) 28% (5) 33%

154. Name the climate change agreement which has come onto effect on November 4th.(1) Marrakech Accords (2) Kyoto Protocol (3) Ramsar Agreement(4) Paris Agreement (5) Sydney Declaration

155. On November 3 Indian Air force landed its largest military transport aircraft C – 17 Globe master in which town of Arunachal Pradesh?(1) Walong (2) Dakshin Dinajpur (3) Dibang(4) Pips rang (5) Mechuka

156. President Pranab Mukherjee received the honorary degree of Doctor of Letters (DLitt) from which University? (1) Lumbini Buddhist University (2) Mid Western University (3) Kathmandu University

(4) Siddhartha Vanasthali Institute (5) Purbanchal University 157. The Indian Railways has set a target to achieve 100% de – carbonization, with ……….% electrification in next five years. (1) 80 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 90 (5) 70158. USA has banned which country from opening its financial center in the country?

(1) Pakistan (2) Iran (3) North Korea (4) Russia (5) Venezuela159. Which industry trade group has launched ‘Startup Mentorship Circle’ to mentor startups?

(1) ASSOCHAM (2) EEPC (3) NASSCOM (4) CII (5) IBEF160. Pm Modi inaugurated the 1st International Agro Biodiversity Congress 2016 in ………. .

(1) Mumbai (2) Chennai (3) Bangaloru (4) New Delhi (5) Jaipur

TEST – V: COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE161. Which of the following is not the major function of a computer?

(1) Processing data into information (2) Storing data or information(3) Modifying data (4) Analyzing data or information(5) None of these

162. In DOS, which of the following command is used to delete all the files as well as sub-directories of a directory?

(1) Delete (2) Del (3) Debtor (4) Move (5) None of these163. SMTP., FTP and DNA are applications of the ……………… layer

(1) data link (2) network (3) transport (4) application (5) None of these164. Which of the following is not a type of computer software which can be bought?

(1) Off- the – shelf (2) Tailor – made (3) Custom – developed (4) Off – the shelf with alterations (5) All of the above

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165. A technique in which a number of similar items or transactions to be processed are grouped and processed in a designated sequences during a machine run(1) Real time processing (2) Online processing (3) Batch processing(4) All of the above (5) None of these

166. In which grouping the formatting to text is done in word?(1) Tables, paragraphs and indexes (2) Paragraphs. Indexes and sections(3) Characters, sections and paragraphs (4) Indexes, characters and tables(5) None of these

167. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called(1) multitasking (2) object oriented programming (3) multi-user computing(4) time sharing (5) None of these

168. The ……………………. Folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send

(1) Drafts (2) Outbox (3) Address Book (4) Sent Items (5) InBox169. Macromedia is the name of the company related with

(1) software (2) hardware (3) peripherals (4) songs player (5) None of these170. Which menu keeps the fill command?

(1) Insert (2) Edit (3) format (4) Data (5) None of these171. When you move the mouse pointer towards the left side of the window, it changes from an I – Beam to a

right pointing arrow. This Pointing area is referred to as(1) Selection bar (2) selection pointer (3) selection beam (4) Any of these (5) None

of these172. In PowerPoint , the header and footer button can be found on the insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group (2) Object group (3) Text group (4) Tables group(5) None of these

173. Regarding a VDU, which statement is more correct?(1) It is an output device (2) It is an input device (3) It is a peripheral device(4) It is a hardware item (5) None of these

174. A host on the Internet finds another host by its(1) Postal address (2) electronic address (3) IP address (4) name (5) None of these

175. What is Internet 2 ?(1) A new type of cabling system for wide area networks(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access(3) A new standard for internet browsers(4) An association to develop advanced internet technology(5) None of these

176. 4 GL ( 4th Generation Language) is a(1) structural language (2) non- procedural language (3) procedural language(4) All of the above (5) None of these

177. This part of the operating system manages the essential peripherals such as the keyboard, screen, disk drives and parallel and serial ports(1) basic input / out put system (2) secondary input / output system(3) peripherals input / output system (4) marginal input / output system(5) None of these

178. Firewalls are used to protect against(1) unauthorized attacks (2) virus attacks (3) data driven attacks(4) fire attacks (5) None of these

179. The function of CPU is(1) to provide external storage of text(2) to communicate with operator(3) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction(4) to provide a hard copy

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(5) None of these180. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is

(1) copy and paste (2) Copy, cut and paste (3) cut, copy and paste(4) cut and paste (5) None of these

181. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called(1) multitasking (2) object-oriented programming(3) multi-user computing (4) time-sharing (5) None of these

182. Example of non-numeric data is(1) Employee address (2) Examination score (3) Bank balance (4) All of the above (5) none of these

183. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called(1) Entry codes (2) Passwords (3) Security commands(4) Code words (5) None of these

184. What characteristic of read only memory (ROM) makes it useful?(1) ROM information can be easily updated(2) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power(3) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage(4) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers(5) None of these

185. What is the name for the process that is used to convert a series of instructions, or program, written in a high-level language into instructions (or a program) that can be run on a computer?(1) Assembling (2) Compiling (3) Translating (4) Uploading (5) None of these

186. ____ represents raw facts, whereas ___ is data made meaningful(1) Information, reporting (2) Data, information (3) Information, bits (4) Records, bytes (5) Bits, bytes

187. Which of the following peripheral devices displays information to a user?(1) Monitor (2) Keyboard (3) Secondary storage devices(4) Secondary storage media (5) None of these

188. When we move any row or column, the text of moved cells (1) moves with the cell(2) remains at its place but formatting moves(3) moves with cells and formatting is lost (4) moves with cells and some formatting are changed(5) None of these

189. Which type of resource does have greater probability to become shared resource in a computer network?(1) Printers (2) Speakers (3) Floppy Disc Drives (4) Keyboards (5) None of these

190. Which of the following terms is used to describe the movement of an item with the help of mouse to a new position on screen?(1) Click (2) double click (3) drag and drop (4) point (5) right click

191. Which of the following displays the contents of active cell?(1) Toolbar (2) Menu bar (3) Name box (4) Formula bar (5) none of these

192. .bas, .doc, and .htm are examples of (1) Database (2) Extension (3) Domain (4) Protocol (5) None of these

193. Saving is the process(1) To copy document from memory to storage medium(2) To change the content of any document(3) To change the display or entire document(4) To develop document by entering text using keyboard(5) None of these

194. ____ is the process of implementing command (1) Fetching (2) Storing (3) Decoding (4) Executing (5) None of these

195. _____, a printed information, exists in real sense and is more permanent from of output than the output existing on display device.

(1) Soft copy (2) Carbon copy (3) Hard copy (4) Desk copy (5) None of these

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196. Excel stores its document in form of files which is called(1) Worksheets (2) Workbooks (3) Notebooks(4) Excel sheets (5) None of these

197. To change hardware components into more powerful or rectified version is called (1) Expansion (2) Plug and Play (3) Upgrading(4) Upsizing (5) None of these

198. To combine two or more cells into a single cell is called(1) Merging (2) Joining (3) Sharing (4) Splitting (5) None of these

199. Which of the following views is present in power point?(1) Document view (2) Slide sorter view (3) Slide changer view(4) Play side view (5) None of these

200. In order to move from one worksheet to another in excel workbook, one should click (1) Active cell (2) Scroll bar (3) Sheet tab (4) Tab button (5) None of these

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tIBPS RRB SCALE 1 OFFICER MAINS - KEY

1 (4) 2 (2) 3 (1) 4 (3) 5 (2) 6 (4) 7 (1) 8 (4) 9 (1) 10 (5)11 (5) 12 (2) 13 (2) 14 (4) 15 (4) 16 (2) 17 (2) 18 (4) 19 (1) 20 (3)21 (5) 22 (1) 23 (4) 24 (5) 25(3) 26 (2) 27 (3) 28 (1) 29 (4) 30 (3)31 (2) 32 (2) 33 (4) 34 (5) 35 (4) 36 (3) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39 (5) 40 (4)41 (3) 42 (2) 43 (4) 44 (5) 45 (1) 46 (1) 47 (1) 48 (5) 49 (2) 50 (5)51 (4) 52 (3) 53 (5) 54 (1) 55 (2) 56 (4) 57 (1) 58 (1) 59 (1) 60 (1)61 (3) 62 (2) 63 (2) 64 (1) 65 (5) 66 (2) 67 (2) 68 (1) 69 (1) 70 (4)71 (4) 72 (5) 73 (3) 74 (1) 75 (4) 76 (3) 77 (1) 78 (3) 79 (2) 80 (4)81 (5) 82 (3) 83 (3) 84 (2) 85 (1) 86 (4) 87 (1) 88(1) 89 (2) 90 (3)91 (5) 92 (1) 93 (3) 94 (4) 95 (4) 96 (1) 97 (5) 98(2) 99 (5) 100 (3)101 (2) 102 (4) 103 (5) 104 (1) 105 (3) 106 (2) 107 (3) 108 (1) 109 (4) 110 (5)111 (5) 112 (4) 113 (4) 114 (3) 115 (5) 116 (1) 117 (4) 118 (3) 119 (5) 120 (2)121 (3) 122 (4) 123 (4) 124 (4) 125(1) 126 (4) 127 (4) 128 (4) 129 (4) 130 (4)131 (2) 132 (4) 133 (5) 134 (4) 135 (4) 136 (2) 137 (2) 138 (2) 139 (5) 140 (1)141 (4) 142 (4) 143 (5) 144 (3) 145 (4) 146 (3) 147 (2) 148 (4) 149 (4) 150 (2)151 (3) 152 (2) 153 (4) 154 (4) 155 (5) 156 (3) 157 (4) 158 (3) 159 (4) 160 (4)161 (4) 162 (1) 163 (4) 164 (2) 165 (3) 166 (1) 167 (1) 168 (1) 169 (2) 170 (2)171 (1) 172 (3) 173 (3) 174 (4) 175 (4) 176 (3) 177 (3) 178 (1) 179 (3) 180 (4)181 (1) 182 (1) 183 (2) 184 (2) 185 (2) 186 (2) 187 (1) 188 (1) 189 (1) 190 (3)191 (4) 192 (2) 193 (1) 194 (5) 195 (3) 196 (2) 197 (3) 198 (1) 199 (2) 200 (3)

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tSOLUTIONS

(Q Nos 1-3) On the basis of given information and conclusions and sub -conclusions drawn fromthem we can draw the following table

Student Book Author

Sujit Biology D'Souza

Randhir Physics Gupta

Neena Maths Khanna

Mihir Chemistry Edwin

Vinay English Harish

1. The combination Biology-Sujit – D’Souza is correct2. Edwin is the author of the Chemistry book.3. Vinay is the owner of the book written by Harish4.

5. As Similar

6. Meaningful wordsTIDE, EDIT,DIET,DITE and TIED

7.

8. Only radish grows underground.9. Only assumption I is implicit in the statement. The instruction was issued assuming that people tend to be

little shy and less objective while writing their self-appraisal report if not so instructed. Assumption II is not properly related with the statement.

10. Both assumptions I and II are implicit in the statement. If employees do not learn by observing the behaviourof their bosses the statement would not have made. Again, it has been highlighted that bosses should not beconsidered as merely sources of reward and punishments. It implies that bosses are generally considered as sources of reward and punishment. Hence, assumption II is implicit

11. Both assumptions I and II are implicit in the statement. If customers do not accept or follow the suggestion ofthe shopkeeper, the latter has not made such a statement. Again, the shopkeeper rendered his view assuming that customer question. will consider his view. Therefore, assumptions I is implicit. The statement clearly indicates that international technology ensures better quality.

12. Both assumptions I and II are implicit in the statement. The statement implies clearly that length of service orseniority does not alone reflect merit of an employee. Notice the use of word alone in the assumption. If it is not possible to measure the merit of an employee why such statement has been made.

13. Only assumption his implicit in the statement. Notice, the use of word always in the statement and assumption II. The statement does not imply that the written examination is good mainly for mediocre students. The statement implies that sometimes highly brilliant and Industrious student also do not perform well in the written examination for one reason or another

14. Neither of the conclusions logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt. It is said that the candidates whohave appeared for the final year examination of Mastersdegree can also apply, but their selection is subject to the certain condition.Therefore, conclusion I is not valid. The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class Mastersdegree. This does not imply that all candidates who have obtained second class will beselected. Second class Mastersdegree is the minimum required criterion

15. Neither of the conclusions follows from the information given in the statement.16. No government wants or intends to encourage corruption in the government offices.

Therefore,conclusion II is not valid. If the Official Secrets Act which was enacted during the war is the sourceof corruption, it should be abolished after the wa

17. Only conclusion II follows. If it was declared that all the crewmen and passengers are missing there is possibility that some of them are alive.

18. Neither of the conclusions follows from the information given in the statement.19. From I it is clear that S, is in the East of P.

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20. From each statement answer is obtained21. if x students secured I class in the class of 48 students, then From II.

Number of students who failed = 3xand From I,x+ 2x + 3x = 48

∴x = 8 Hence, I and II together are necessary to answer the question.(Q Nos22-26)

Persons Bank Sex

A R Male

B P Female

C Q Female

D Q Male

E R Female

F P Male

G P MaleSelection in Banks

P G

Q C

R A

22. B,C and E are girls23. For bank P three persons applied24. A- R combination is correct25. B,F and G represent bank P.26. A,C and G were finally selected

(Q Nos27-31)

Persons Sex Vehicles Destination

P Male Honda City Hyderabad

Q M/F Honda City Hyderabad

R Male Ford Ikon Chennai

S Female Ford Ikon Chennai

T Male Swift D'zire Delhi

V Male Ford Ikon Chennai

W M/F Honda City Hyderabad

Z Female Swift D'zire Delhi

27. R, S and V are travelling to Chennai in Car Ford Ikon.28. Four members are travelling in no car.29. S and Z are female members, The third female member is either P, Q or W30. P and Q are travelling with W31. P,Q and W are travelling in Honda City.32. All I , II and III are required to answer the question .

P is the mother of B, D and MB and D are daughters of P.

33. Statement I,E > B > A

Statement II,

From Statements I and II,

From all the three statements,E > B > A > C > D > F

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Hence, E is the tallest among them

34. Statement I,

Statement II,

From Statements I and II,

J is to the South – West of W35. From all the three statements Manoj’s mother visited his house on Tuesday and Manojdidi visit Chennai on Wednesday.

36. Option ( 3) may be a possible fallout of the given situation37. Option ( 3) may be a possible fallout of the given situation.38. The district authority sent a police team to nab the culprits, It shows that the Government is committed to

provide protection to travelers across the country.39. All the three statements are probable causes of drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months.40. All the three statements can be effective steps to reverse the trend.81.

Right Number = 37.5Wrong Number = 47.5

82.

Right Number = 21 + 7 = 28Wrong Number = 27

83.

Right number =

84. Right Number = 190 + 41 = 231 Wrong Number = 233

85.

Right Number = = 4913Wrong Number = 4914

86.

== Rs. 13240

87. Suppose the fraction is

88. Days Women18 4221 x

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21 : 18 : : 42 : xx = = 36 women

89. Suppose the age of Sulekha and Arunima is 9x yr and 8x yr.

81x + 45 = 80x + 5081x – 80x = 50 – 45

X = 5Difference =

= 45 – 40 = 5 yr90. Suppose total amount was ₹. x.

x - 68357 - 25675 =

X = Rs. 13060091. Percentage of units sold in 1999 = 88%

Percentage of units sold in 2000 = 91%Percentage increase = 91 – 88 = 3%

92. E (We can conclude this from table)93. Number of units manufactured by company D in 2003 = 27 millions

Number of units sold = = 20.25 millions =

94. Number of units not sold by company B in the years 1999, 2002 and 2004 = 1768000095. C (from table)96. Rate of the painting = Rs. 2 per sq.m

Area of rectangular floor = Suppose the breadth of rectangular floor is x m.Length = 2x mArea of rectangular floor = l b

128 = 2x x128 = = = 64x = 8m

So, the length of the floor = 2x = 2 8 = 16m

97. Suppose

D =

3x = 318

So, the 98. Suppose the number x.

X = 21099. From point A to B, speed = 4 km/h

From point B to A, speed = 6 km/hRation of required time 6 : 4 or 3 : 2

100. In every 30 min the time of a watch increased by 3 min

So, the time after 6 h = 5 am + 6 h + 36min= 11:36am

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101. Male Days12 248 x12 : 8 : : x : 24

102. Suppose monthly income is x.

X = Rs. 45000Shortcut Method

103. Suppose required number = 10x +yWhere x > yAccording to the question,

(10x + y) – (10y + x) = 549x – 9y = 549(x – y) = 54 x – y = 6 …….(i)

And x + y = 12 …….(ii)From Eqs. (i) and (ii),

x – y = 6

x = 9Value of x = 9 put in Eq. (ii),

9 + y = 12Y = 12 - 9Y = 3Number =

104. Suppose the age of daughter = x yrAge of Meena = 8x yr

After 8 yr.

14x = 56X = 4

So, the age of Meena = 105. Total number of ways to stand boys and girls together

Sol. (Q.Nos. 106-110) by analyzing the graph carefully we can conclude the answer.106. 2000107. 32108. 3109. 29110. None of these111. The relevant years are 2002, 2004, 2005 and 2006.112. Required average

=

113. The relevant years are 1999, 2000 and 2001.114. Percent rise from the previous year in

115. Required answer

116. Number of employees in scale III

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= 75 + 250 + 320 + 120 +85 +100 = 950Number of employees in scale IV

= 19 : 9117. Total number of employees in Scale I

Total number of employees in scale VI

Required percentage

118. Number of employees in public relations department in Scale I = 175Scale II = 150

Difference = 175-150 = 25 Required percentage

119. Number of employees in personnel department

Number of employees in scale II = 120 Required percentage =

= 24 = 25%120. Total number of Scale IV employees

= 40+126+144+60+30+50 =450 Required percentage =

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Prepared by
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RACE Institute, Hyderabad
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