IBPS PO Preliminary DNJŀƴŘ ¢Ŝǎǘ

TEST - I: ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Ques : 30 Marks : 30 Time : 20 M)

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In the following question, an incomplete sentence is given which can be completed by substituting the expressionsprovided below each sentence. Choose the most appropriate expression(s) among the five which complete(s) the sentence in accordance tothe correct grammatical structure and make(s) the sentence contextually meaningful.

1. Once the branded generics of this drug (Gefitinib) became available, patients ________________________________________. (I) are dependent on medicines for an extended period of time. (II) were able to access it at a cheaper rate. (III) may avoid complex chemotherapy procedures. (1) Both (II) and (III) (2) only (I) (3) only (II) (4) All (I), (II) and (III) (5) none of these

2. So many marriages are simply dead and couples are leading separate lives, ________________________________________. (I) existing together just for the sake of propriety and convention. (II) and they are happy to continue this for the rest of your life. (III) and all they are doing is a flogging a dead cat. (1) Both (II) and (III) (2) only (I) (3) only (II) (4) All (I), (II) and (III) (5) none of these

3. A recent Indian study on health outcomes of angioplasty, a procedure performed on heart patients, has shown that stenting allblockages in the heart________________________________________. (I) may lead to poor heart function narrowings that reduce blood flow and cause persistent chest pain. (II) is the leading causes of disability in India today (III) can reduce survival and increase chances of death (1) only (II) (2) only (I) (3) Both (I) and (III) (4) All (I), (II) and (III) (5) none of these

4. If India is serious about sustained growth, and a larger global footprint in education, it must _________________________________.(I) build an education system that fosters innovation and encourages analytical thinking.(II) improve teacher training, curricular reform and grant more freedom to educators to experiment(III) think beyond simply enabling graduates to go abroad.(1) only (II) (2) only (I) (3) Both (I) and (III) (4) All (I), (II) and (III)(5) none of these

5. In nearly every country, women and girls face systemic barriers that bar them ________________________________________. (I) empirically grounded or socially constructed. (II) the opportunities to eradicate poverty (III) the extent of biological difference. (1) only (II) (2) only (I) (3) Both (I) and (III) (4) All (I), (II) and (III) (5) none of these

Directions (Qs. 6 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have beenprinted in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Sometimes in life, it is clear that the direct approach isn’t the best one. This is true in many areas, even when it comes topolicymaking. Take, as an example, the area of extreme poverty. It seems logical, at first, that the most effective response should be head-on:giving money and assets to protect people from income shocks. In recent times, microcredit schemes have been presented as a panacea,attracting a lot of money around the world. However, a series of trials have shown that microcredit doesn’t do much good—often not evenincreasing average incomes, and burying the poor in debt. Subsidized crop insurance is another direct approach designed to help generate moreincome for the poorest of farmers by making agriculture less risky. But how useful is this approach? New research by Munshi Sulaiman, researchdirector of Save the Children International, with Michael Murigi of the University of Sydney, analytically weighs the costs and benefits of thisalong with other direct approaches to poverty alleviation.

While protecting farmers from income shocks is an important outcome on its own, the benefit of insurance coverage on farmers’ risk-taking behaviour, investment decisions and impact on productivity are the major economic justifications for subsidizing crop insurance. In thelong run, two-thirds of the benefits come from the payout and one-quarter from higher profits. In total, every rupee spent on the policyachieves societal good worth about Rs1.40 in Andhra Pradesh, and about Rs1.50 in Rajasthan, another state the researchers looked at. In thiscase, the direct approach to alleviating poverty by subsidizing insurance does achieve more than it costs, but it can hardly be said that it hasdramatic returns.

Eliminating extreme poverty depends critically on creating sustainable livelihoods for the economically active ultra-poor householdswhich are landless and primarily rely on casual work for their livelihood. The success of a “graduation approach” in a number of countries hasmade it a critical tool in social protection schemes. More than 40 countries are now implementing different versions of this model, at various

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scales. This approach was forged by the world’s largest non-governmental organization (NGO), the Bangladesh Rural Advancement Committee(Brac), and is implemented at a small scale by various NGOs in West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, and Jharkhand.

This model follows a strict set of targeting criteria to reach the ultra-poor and provides time-bound support that usually lasts between18-24 months. First, food or money is given to the poor to ease the stress of daily survival. Second, beneficiaries are encouraged to start savings.Third, they are provided with livestock or other income-generating assets. Following this, there is training provided in both technical skills andlife skills. Finally, beneficiaries are provided with health support.

Each intervention costs more than Rs25,000, with half of this spent on the asset and food. Reaching 30% of poor households wouldcost Rs1,120 crore in Andhra Pradesh, and Rs1,130 crore in Rajasthan. Based on long-term studies from West Bengal, the increase in annualhousehold consumption, savings and assets will mean every rupee spent will achieve at least Rs3.50 of social benefits and possibly even Rs5—making it two- to three-times as effective as farmer insurance subsidies. The India Consensus is a partnership between Tata Trusts and theCopenhagen Consensus Center, and evidence from research papers in its prioritization projects suggests that less direct, more circuitousapproaches to helping the poor could have a much bigger impact.

Research shows that promoting higher quality seeds, for example, would lead to better crop yields, increased production, and higherincomes, with yield gains of 10%. Each rupee spent could generate benefits to Andhra Pradesh worth around 15 times the costs. Investment innutrition is a cheap way of providing very powerful longer-term assistance: diarrhoea is a major killer of young children, and counselling tomothers to improve breastfeeding, feeding, and hand-washing would cost as little as Rs1,200 per mother reached. This would transform babies’entire lifetimes, meaning each rupee would achieve an astonishing Rs43 of social benefits in Rajasthan, and more than Rs60 in Andhra Pradesh. 6. Why the direct approach is not the solution for alleviation of poverty?

(1) As it is inaccessible to all. (2) As it immerse the poverty stricken people in debt. (3) As direct approach is often risky to farmers. (4) Direct approach generate the income shocks. (5) All of the above

7. How the insurance policies can be beneficial to farmers? (I)investment decisions get easier (II) make them more tolerant to risks (III) protect farmers from income shocks. (1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) (3) Both (II) and (III) (4) Both (I) and (II) (5) All are correct

8. According to the passage, which of the following is correct about “graduation approach”? (I)shaped by world’s largest non-governmental organization (NGO). (II) method to eliminate extreme poverty. (III) deals with basic necessities of the poor to meet daily survival needs. (IV) deals with the ultra- poor. (1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) and (III) (3) Only (I) and (II) (4) Only (I), (II) and (IV) (5) All

9. Choose the most appropriate title of the passage? (1) The Long- term investment (2) The Crop insurance policies (3) The direct approach isn’t always best. (4) The graduation approach (5) Eliminating Poverty completely

10. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage? (1) Investment in nutrition is a cheap way of providing very powerful longer-term assistance. (2) Microcredit scheme is one of the direct approach designed to help the poor. (3) Health and education is the first thing to be given to the poor to ease the stress of daily survival. (4) Only evasive approach can help the poor in large extent. (5) Many countries are adopting the indirect way to approach the poor.

11. What is/ are the indirect way(s) to approach social sector in Andhra Pradesh? (1) Improving the education system (2) Investment in nutrition (3) Improving the crop yields (4) Both (2) and (3) (5) All of the above

12. Which of the following alternatives among the five options provides the most similar meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used inthe passage? Panacea (I) ludicrous (II) punitive (III) nostrum (IV) remedy (1) Only (III) and (IV) (2) Only (II) and (IV) (3) Only (I), (II) and (III) (4) Only (II), (III) and (IV) (5) All are correct

13. Which of the following alternatives among the five options provides the most similar meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used inthe passage? Forge (I) bizarre (II) simulate (III) bounteous (IV) feign (1) Only (III) and (IV) (2) Only (II) and (IV) (3) Only (I), (II) and (III) (4) Only (II), (III) and (IV) (5) All are correct

14. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most opposite meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in thepassage? Rely (I) suspicion (II) incredulity (III) distrust (IV) dubiety (1) Only (III) and (IV) (2) Only (II) and (IV) (3) Only (I), (II) and (III) (4) Only (II), (III) and (IV) (5) All are correct

15. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most opposite meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in thepassage? head-on

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(I) rife (II) callous (III)execrate (IV)aggravate (1) Only (III) and (IV) (2) Only (II) and (IV) (3) Only (I) (4) Only (II), (III) and (IV) (5) none of them

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) In each of the questions given below a sentence is divided into five parts. You must find the part which contains anerror and then choose accordingly the sequence of correct parts (exclude the part which is grammatically and contextually incorrect). If thereis no error in the sentence OR if all the given sequences contain the part in which there is an error then choose option (5) as your choice.

16. The government is (A)/ holding a series of (B)/ public meeting to (C)/ discuss the state (D)/ of the medical system. (E) (1) ABCD (2) BCDE (3) ACDE (4) ABDE (5) none of these

17. Plastic is being dumped (A)/ into oceans and rivers, (B)/ drains are getting (C)/ choked and animals are (D)/ dying of plastic ingestion.(E) (1) ABCD (2) BCDE (3) ACDE (4) ABDE (5) none of these

18. Hardly had (A)/ they spoken these words (B)/ than the door opened (C)/ and Arion himself (D)/ stood before them. (E) (1) ABCD (2) ACDE (3) BCDE (4) ABDE (5) none of these

19. When we had (A)/ reached the station, (B)/ the train had (C)/ already left almost (D)/ half an hour before. (E) (1) ABCD (2) ACDE (3) BCDE (4) ABDE (5) none of these

20. There is a school of thought (A)/ that is concerned about the (B)/ extremes of capitalism that have (C)/ given rise to morallyreprehensible (D)/ practices by large enterprises. (E) (1) ABCD (2) BCDE (3) ACDE (4) ABDE (5) none of these

Directions (Qs. 21 to 30) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below thepassage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrasein each case.

Hot weather is likely to lower children's academic grades, said Harvard scientists, who have found that (21) temperatures makeit (22) for students to study in lessons in school and concentrate on their homework. The research found that every 0.55-degree (23) above 21degrees Celsius cost a child 1% in their exam scores.

Researchers from Harvard University in the U.S. (24) 10 million children's test scores taken (25) 13 years. The study foundthat (26) weather made it harder to study lessons in school and to concentrate on homework out of school. It (27) air conditioning should beused to keep classrooms cool, the researchers said. Colder days did not damage achievement, however the reduction in learning acceleratedonce temperatures rose above 32 degrees Celsius and even more so above 38 degrees Celsius.

The data (28) that students were more likely to have lower scores in years with higher temperatures and (29) results in cooler years,'The Telegraph' reported. This applied across the many different types of climate, whether in cooler northern U.S. states or in the southernstates, where temperatures are (30) much higher. 21. (1) primeval (2) current (3) higher (4) precocious (5) evolved 22. (1) inhumane (2) harder (3) obdurate (4) simpler (5) malicious 23. (1) decline (2) augment (3) proliferate (4) increase (5) descent 24. (1) analyzed (2) synthesized (3) dissected (4) amalgamated (5) segmented 25. (1) through (2) beyond (3) after (4) across (5) about 26. (1) boiling (2) freezing (3) arctic (4) moderate (5) hotter 27. (1) judges (2) suggests (3) crosses (4) focuses (5) decides 28. (1) flaunted (2) concealed (3) absolved (4) showed (5) appeared 29. (1) inferior (2) worst (3) lofty (4) subordinate (5) better 30. (1) habitually (2) radically (3) typically (4) voluminously (5) strangely

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TEST - II: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Ques : 35 Marks : 35 Time : 20 M)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and giveanswer

(1) if x > y (2) if x y (3) if x < y (4) if x y (5) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

31. I. - 375 = 0II. - 736 = 032. I. 3x2 + 5x + 2 = 0 II. 12y2 + 11y + 2 = 033. I. 16x + 11y = 154 II. 11x + 16y = 8934. I. 3x2 + 14x – 5 = 0 II. 3y2 – 19y + 6 = 035. I. 7x2 – 11x – 6 = 0 II. 7y2 – 10y + 3 = 036. In class A, the ratio of boys to girls is 2 : 3. In class B, the ratio of boys to girls is 4 : 5. If the ratio of boys to girls in both classes put

together is 3 : 4, then find the ratio of number of girls in class A to number of girls in class B ? (1) 2/5 (2) 3/5 (3) 4/5 (4) 8/11 (5) 3/7

37. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and travels towards B at 60 km/hr. Another trainstarts from B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A at 75 km/hr. At what time do they meet? (1) 10 a.m. (2) 10.30 a.m. (3) 11 a.m. (4) 11.30 a.m. (5) None of these

38. P and Q entered into a partnership invesbarrelg Rs. 9000 and Rs. 6000 respectively. After 6 months,P withdrew Rs. 5000 while Qinvested Rs. 3000 more. After 3 more months, R joins the business with a capital of Rs. 22000. The share of Q in the total profitexceeds that of R by how much if the total profit after one year is Rs. 35,100. (1) Rs. 2300 (2) Rs. 3600 (3) Rs. 3800 (4) Rs. 4200 (5) Rs. 4000

39. Ratio of ages of P, 5 years hence to Q’s age 3 years ago is 5 : 3. Also, the ratio of ages of P, 4 years ago to Q’s age 2 year hence is 4 : 5.Find the age of the elder one. (1) 15yr (2) 18yr (3) 21yr (4) 20yr (5) 24yr

40. There is a circle whose radius is equal to the side of the square having area 3136 sq. cm. Find the area of the rectangle whose sidesare in the ratio of 5 : 3 and its perimeter is equal to the circumference of the circle. (1) 6860 sq. cm (2) 7260 sq. cm (3) 6960 sq. cm (4) 7160 sq. cm (5) 7060 sq. cm

Directions (Qs. 41 to 45) : Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions. Pie chart given below shows distribution ofpassengers at different railway stations in terms of degree of angle. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.

41. What is the difference between the total number of passengers who are at station C and E together and the total number ofpassengers who are at B and D together? (1) 1906 (2) 1904 (3) 1908 (4) 1909 (5) 1914

42. Find the ratio between number of passengers who are at station C to the number of passengers who are at D. (1) 11 : 3 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 13 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 (5) None of the above

43. Number of passengers who are at station ‘A’ and ‘E’ together is what percent of the number of passengers who are at station ‘B’ and‘D’ together? (1) 65% (2) 60% (3) 50% (4) 45% (5) 55%

44. Number of passengers who are at station E and B together are what percent of the total number of passengers? (1) 36% (2) 40% (3) 35% (4) 28% (5) 38%

45. Find the average number of passengers who are at the station ‘B’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ together? (1) 2448 (2) 2558 (3) 2498 (4) 2518 (5) 2508

46. Find number of ways to arrange the letters of the word ‘ASSUMPTION’ such that both ‘S’ are always together and all vowels are alwaystogether? (1) 4! × 4! (2) 5! × 3! (3) 4! × 2! (4) 6! × 4! (5) 6! × 2!

47. Veer and Ayush entered into a partnership. Veer invested 1/4 th of the total capital for 15 months and Ayush received 2/3 rd of thetotal profit share. Find the time period for which Ayush invested his Money? (1) 12 months (2) 9 months (3) 10 months (4) 8 months (5) 18 months

48. Test tube P and Q contains an equal quantity of ethanol and pure water respectively. 20g of ethanol is poured from P to Q and thentwo third of the so formed solution in test tube Q is poured again into Test tube P. If final quantity of solution in P is 4 times of thefinal quantity in Q, then find the final quantity of solution in Q?

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(1) 40l (2) 50 l (3) 45 l (4) 60 l (5) 30 l

49. Three pipes P, Q and R can fill 7/12 th part of cistern in 1 hr. P can fill 1/2 th part of cistern in 1 hr and Q can fill 1/3 rd part of cistern in1 hr while R can empty the cistern in certain time. Find the time required by R to empty the cistern? (1) 3 hr (2) 2.5 hr (3) 2 hr (4) 4 hr (5) 5 hr

Directions (Qs. 50 to 54) : The following graph shows the quantity of refined oil produced in lakh of tins and value in crores of rupees.

50. In which year the value oil produced per barrel was minimum (among the options given below) ? (1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1994 (5) both (1) and (3)

51. What is the difference between the average number of oil barrels produced in all years and the number of oil barrel produced in1994? (1) 65,00,000 (2) 7,50,000 (3) 55,00,000 (4) 4,50,000 (5) 6,50,000

52. If 20% of oil produced in year 1992 is of bad quality and remaining is of good quality then, good quality oil produced in 1992 is whatpercent more or less than oil produced in year 1990 (1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 18% (4) 14% (5) 12%

53. What was the percentage increase in value of oil produced per barrel from1990 to 1991 ?

(1) 33 (2) 40% (3) 30% (4) 66 (5) 20% 54. If in 1993, oil was produced at the same rate per tin as of in 1992, then what would be the value of whole oil produced in 1993

(1) 16000/3 (2) 15000/3 (3) 13000/3 (4) 19000/3 (5) 140000/355. In a 120 L of mixture of alcohol and water, percentage of alcohol is 65% only. 30 L of the mixture is taken out and some quantity of

pure alcohol is added to the remaining mixture. As a result, the respective ratio of alcohol and water in the new mixture became 2 : 1.Find the quantity of pure alcohol added in mixture? (1) 5 liter (2) 4.5 liter (3) 4 liter (4) 6 liter (5) 5.5 liter

56. Geeta started a business by investing Rs. 3500. After ’x’ months, Rama joined her with a capital of Rs. 5200. At the end of the year, theratio between Geeta’s profit to Rama’s profit is 21 : 13. Find the value of x. (1) 5 months (2) 7 months (3) 8 months (4) 6 months (5) 9 months

57. P and Q can complete a work together in 20 days. P is 1/3 rd as efficient as Q. If 2/5 th of the work is done by P and Q together andthe remaining work is done by R, the work gets completed in 26 days. Find in how many days R will complete the whole work byworking alone. (1) 25 days (2) 22.5 days (3) 20 days (4) 35 days (5) 30 days

58. Cost price of a pen is 60% less than cost price of a notebook. A pen was sold at 40% profit and a notebook was sold at 15% loss. If thedifference between their selling price is Rs. 43.5 then find the cost price of a pen. (1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs. 60 (3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 40 (5) Rs. 100

59. In a company there are 96,800 employees. If 87% of number of males is equal to 94.5% of number of females then find the number offemale employees in the company. (1) 44,500 (2) 45,800 (3) 46,200 (4) 46,500 (5) 46,400

Directions (Qs. 60 to 65) : What approximate value should come in the place of question (?) mark :

60.(1) 18 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 8 (5) 15

61.(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 12 (5) 20

62.(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 7 (5) 18

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63.(1) 11 (2) 17 (3) 13 (4) 15 (5) 19

64.(1) 12 (2) 3 (3) 8 (4) 15 (5) 18

65.(1) 22 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 26 (5) 24

TEST - III: REASONING ABILITY (Ques : 35 Marks : 35 Time : 20 M)

Directions (Qs. 66 to 70) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the givenconclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

66. Statements: Some eraser are pen All eraser are pencil Some pencil are scale Conclusions: I. Some scale are eraser. II. Some pen is pencil is a possibility (1) Both I and II (2) Only I (3) Neither I nor II (4) Only II (5) Either I or II

67. Statements: Some sprite are not dew. Some dew are not pepsi All pepsi are limca.Conclusions: I. Some pepsi is not sprite. II. Some dew is not limca is a possibility.(1) Both I and II (2) Only I (3) Neither I nor II (4) Only II (5) Either I or II

68. Statements: Some ganga is Yamuna. Some Yamuna is Satluj. Some Satluj is Ravi.Conclusions: I. Some Yamuna is ravi . II. Some Satluj being ganga is a possibility.(1) Both I and II (2) Only I (3) Neither I nor II (4) Only II (5) Either I or II

69. Statements: Some mat is rat. Some rat is bat. No bat is cat. Conclusions: I. Some rat can never be cat. II. All mat can be cat. (1) Both I and II (2) Only I (3) Neither I nor II (4) Only II (5) Either I or II

70. Statements: Some pink is blue All pink is orange. Some blue is black. Conclusions: I. some pink is black. II. Some blue being orange is a possibility. (1) Both I and II (2) Only I (3) Neither I nor II (4) Only II (5) Either I or II

Directions (Qs. 71 to 73) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration ofinput and rearrangement.

Input: view mailing reference layout design insert home file Step I: design mailing reference layout insert home file view Step II: file design mailing layout insert home view reference Step III: home file design layout insert view reference mailing Step IV: insert home file design view reference mailing layout Step IV is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the

appropriate steps for the given input. Input for the questions. Input: normal space title heading replace select find painter

71. In which of the following step will the words “replace painter title” will be found in the exact order? (1) I (2) III (3) IV (4) II (5) no such step

72. What will the position of the word “select” in step II? (1) 4th from the left (2) 5th from the right (3) 4th from the right (4) 2nd from the left (5) None of these

73. If in a certain way in step IV “painter” is related to “heading”, similarly “space” is related to “replace”, then “find” is related to which of thefollowing? (1) heading (2) title (3) select (4) space (5) replace

Directions (Qs. 74 to 78) : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Seven villages A, B, C, D, E, F and G get power cut for one hour each on different days of the week starting from Monday and on differentshifts between 8am to 4pm.There is a break of one hour between the power cuts. Village B gets power cut just after the break. Not more than fourvillages gets power cut after Village B. Village A gets power cut in the 2nd shift and Village D gets the cut in the last shift. Village C gets power cut on thelast day of the week. The village which got power cut in the 2nd last shift gets it on 2nd day of the week. Village G, which gets power cut on Thursdayand in the shift which is before the shift in which Village C and E gets power cut. Village A gets power cut, on Monday and in the shift which is beforeVillage G’s shift. The Village which has power cut on Friday gets it before the village which has on Wednesday but not in the first shift. The village whichgot power cut between 1-2pm did not get it on Friday and just after the village which got Thursday. Village B did not get power cut in the shift 2-3pm. 74. Which of the following village got power cut between 10-11am?

(1) G (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) none of these 75. Which among the following is the correct sequence of power cut according to the days of the week?

(1) A > B > C > D > E > F > G (2) G > A > C > D > B > E > F (3) F > C > A > G > B > E > D (4) A > E > D > G > B > F > C (5) none of these

76. How many villages got power cut between D and C(according to shifts)?

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(1) none (2) one (3) two (4) three (5) more than three

77. Which of the following combination is correct? (1) C- Thursday –(3-4) (2) F- Monday –(8-9) (3) B – Friday-(12-1) (4) E-Tuesday -(9-10) (5) none of these

78. What is the timing of the break between the power cuts? (1) 3-4 (2) 8-9 (3) 12-1 (4) 9-10 (5) none of these

Directions (Qs. 79 to 83) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions-

There are seven students i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G who all live in a multi storey building such that ground floor of the building is numbered 1and above it is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor which is numbered 7. They all belong to different cities i.e. Jaipur, Chennai, Mumbai,Lucknow, Delhi, Pune and Ahmedabad but not necessarily in the same order. G lives immediately below the one who belongs to Mumbai. The one whobelongs to Mumbai lives on an odd numbered floor. F does not belong to Mumbai. There are three between D and C, who lives immediately below theone who belongs to Delhi. Both D and C does not live on the lower most floor of the building. The one who belongs to Pune lives immediately above theone who belongs to Ahmedabad. The one who belongs to Lucknow lives one of the floor below the one who belongs to Jaipur and does not lives on theodd number floor. Only two floors are between the one who belongs to Delhi and the one who belongs to Chennai. Only two person lives between E,who does not live on the 1st floor and the one who belongs to Chennai. There three floors are between B, who does not belong to Pune and E. 79. Who among the following lives on the third floor of the building?

(1) D (2) A (3) E (4) B (5) None of these 80. Who among the following belongs to Ahmedabad?

(1) G (2) C (3) A (4) F (5) None of these 81. A belongs to which of the following cities?

(1) Chennai (2) Lucknow (3) Jaipur (4) Delhi (5) None of these 82. How many persons live between D and the one who belongs to Ahmedabad?

(1) Four (2) One (3) Three (4) Two (5) None of these 83. G lives on which of the following floors?

(1) 6th Floor (2) 4th Floor (3) 2nd Floor (4) 1st Floor (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 84 to 88) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A certain number of seats are presents in a row consisting of four vacant seats named V1, V2, V3, V4 but not necessarily in the same order.The persons occupying the seats are facing north. No two vacant seats are placed adjacent to each other. No two persons sit adjacent to each otheraccording to the English alphabet (i.e. A does not sit adjacent to B, B does not sit adjacent to A and C and so on). No other member mentioned abovecan sits in the row.

V1 is the only vacant seat adjacent to F. L is 4th to the right to the V1. I is one of the person. Two seats are between L and V2. Six seats arebetween F and Q, which is left but not immediate left to E. V4 is immediate left to M. B is immediate left to D, who sits at one of the ends. E, N, G sit inthe exact manner from left to right between two vacant seats. H, is immediate left to P, none of them sits next to the vacant seats. Seven persons sitbetween A and O, who sits on the immediate right of J. Only 3 seats are present to the left of Q and only 2 seats are present to right of V2. Threepersons sit between B and C. K is an immediate neighbour of I 84. How many persons are sitting in the row?

(1) twelve (2) fourteen (3) twenty (4) twenty-two (5) none of these 85. Who among the following sits on the seat which is 7th to the left of I?

(1) G (2) F (3) N (4) E (5) none of these 86. How many persons are sitting between V4 and V2?

(1) twelve (2) fourteen (3) ten (4) eight (5) none of these 87. Which of the following represents the pair of persons sitting at the extreme end?

(1) A, B (2) H, D (3) N, K (4) E, O (5) none of these 88. Four of the five form a certain group, who among the following does not belongs to that group?

(1) F (2) G (3) P (4) Q (5) K

Directions (Qs. 89 to 91) : In each of the following below is given a group of letters/digits followed by four combinations of letters/symbols numbered(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding systemand mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5), i.e.‘None of these’, as the answer-

Conditions: (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, then both the letters will be coded as the code for vowel. (ii) If only one vowel is in the word, then code of the vowel will be same as the first letter. (iii) If II and IV letters are vowels in the group, then code of both the vowels will be same as the second letter.

*More than one condition can be applied on a group of letters. 89. HANIE

(1) £!2## (2) £!2¥8 (3) £#2## (4) £82¥! (5) None of these 90. TOLKF

(1) @%β&* (2) @# β&* (3) @@β&* (4) @%β*& (5) None of these 91. WTEPU

(1) µ8©%! (2) ##©## (3) µ8!%© (4) µ@8©µ (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 92 to 96) : In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed bytwo conclusions. Give answer

(1) if only conclusion II is true. (2) if only conclusion I is true. (3) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. (4) if either conclusion I or II is true. (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

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92. Statements : A ≥ B > C ≥ D = E; G ≥ C ≥ F Conclusions : I. A > F II. G ≥ E93. Statements : M < A ≥ G; N ≥ K > F; M > N Conclusions : I. G > K II. A ≥ N94. Statements : C > M < B; M = J ≥ K; F < A ≤ M Conclusions : I. B > F II. K < C95. Statements : L > C; N > B ≥ K; K ≥ M; J = C = K. Conclusions : I. L > B II. B ≤ L96. Statements : A ≥ M > B; O ≤ J > K; M ≤ N ≥ J Conclusions : I. A ≥ J II. K < B

Directions (Qs. 97 to 99) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, 'house sparrow extinct' is written as ”^%@”, 'sparrow important beautiful' is written as '' %?$ ” and 'housebeautiful fly high' is written as “^$#! ”.97. What is the code for 'fly '?

(1) # (2) % (3) ! (4) Either (1) or (3) (5) None of these 98. What does '%' stand for?

(1) house (2) high (3) beautiful (4) fly (5) None of these 99. Which of the following is the code for 'extinct home important '?

(1) #@? (2) %^@ (3) >?& (4) ?@& (5) None of these 100. If it is possible to make any meaningful word with the fourth, the sixth, the seventh and the eight letters of the word “FRIENDSHIP”, which of

the following will be the second letter of the word ? If no such word can be made, give 'M' as the answer and if more than one such word canbe made, give 'Y' as the answer.(1) E (2) H (3) S (4) M (5) Y

ANSWER KEY

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (1) The given part of the sentence is mentioning about theforthcoming of the branded generic drug (Gefitinib).Therefore, the latter part of the sentence must describeabout the effects after its availability to the patients.Therefore, expressions (II) and (III) are perfectly satisfyingthis criterion. However, expression (I) stands incoherent

to the context of the sentence. Hence, option (a)becomes the most viable answer choice.

2. (2) The given part of the sentence is describing about theunsuccessful marriages of the couples. Only expression(I) fits appropriately forming a grammatically correct andcontextually meaningful sentence. However, expression(II) and (III) contain grammatical errors. In expression (II),since the third person pronoun ‘they’ is used, thepossessive determiner associated to it should also inthird person. Therefore, usage of second personpossessive determiner ‘your’ is incorrect. Moreover,expression (III) contains an idiomatic error. The correctidiom is ‘flogging a dead horse’ means to continue aparticular endeavour is a waste of time as the outcome isalready decided. Since, only expression (I) makes thesentence contextually meaningful, it becomes the mostsuitable answer choice.

3. (3) The given part of the sentence is describing theoutcomes of a report on angioplasty. It mentions aboutstenting (placing a temporarily duct inside a bloodvessel) of heart blockages. Thus, the latter part of thesentence must describe effects of this action. Bothexpression (I) and (III) are satisfying this criterion,forming a comprehensive and grammatically correctsentence. However, expression (II) fails to fit in thesentence as it contains grammatical error. Since, thesentence mentions a single activity “stenting allblockages in the heart”, the usage of the plural noun‘causes’ stands incorrect. Therefore, option (c) becomesthe most viable answer choice.

4.(4) Among the given expressions, all three of them fit in thesentence appropriately forming a grammatically correctand contextually meaningful sentence. Hence, option (d)becomes the most feasible answer choice.

5. (5) None of the given expressions complete the sentence inan appropriate context and grammatical syntax. Since,none of the expressions fit in the sentence, option (e)becomes the most viable answer choice.

6. (2) As mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage thatmicrocredit scheme is a direct approach that has failed indoing any good to people by not increasing the averageincomes of poor people and burying them in debt.

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Hence, we can infer that option (b) is the mostappropriate choice. All the other options are irrelevant. Refer the lines “In recent times, microcredit schemeshave been presented as a panacea, attracting a lot ofmoney around the world. However, a series of trials haveshown that microcredit doesn’t do much good—oftennot even increasing average incomes, and burying thepoor in debt.”

7. (5) Refer the second paragraph of the passage “Whileprotecting farmers from income shocks is an importantoutcome on its own, the benefit of insurance coverageon farmers’ risk-taking behaviour, investment decisionsand impact on productivity are the major economicjustifications for subsidizing crop insurance.” Hence option (e) is the correct choice.

8. (5) Third paragraph describes the approach called“graduation approach”. All the given statements are correct with respect to thepassage. Hence option (e) is the most suitable choice.

9. (3) “The direct approach isn’t always best” is theappropriate title of the passage.

10. (3) Sentence (c) cannot be inferred from the passage. Referto the third paragraph of the passage. “food or money isgiven to the poor to ease the stress of daily survival.” Hence option (c) is the correct choice.

11. (4) Refer to the last paragraph of the passage. It is indicatedthat investment in nutrition and improvement in cropyields can help in generating social benefits and higherincomes respectively.

12. (1) Panacea means a solution or remedy for all difficulties ordiseases. Hence, it has same meaning as nostrum andremedy. Ludicrous means so foolish, unreasonable, or out ofplace as to be amusing. Punitive means inflicting or intended as punishment.

13. (2) Forge means imitation of (a document, signature,banknote, or work of art). Hence, it has same meaning assimulate and feign. Bounteous means generously given or giving; bountiful. Bizarre means very strange or unusual.

14. (5) Rely means depend on (someone or something) with fulltrust or confidence. Hence, all the words are opposite inmeaning to it.

15. (5) Head-on means with or involving direct confrontation.Hence, none of them are opposite in meaning to it. Rife means (especially of something undesirable) ofcommon occurrence; widespread. Callous means showing or having an insensitive and crueldisregard for others. Execrate means feel or express great loathing for. Aggravate means make (a problem, injury, or offence)worse or more serious.

16. (4) The error lies in part (C) of the sentence. It is to be notedthat the phrases like ‘a series of’, ‘a body of’, ‘a crowd of’,‘a bunch of’ are always associated with a plural noun.However, the verb is singular, since it depicts a singularseries. Therefore, to make the sentence grammaticallycorrect, replace ‘meeting’ with ‘meetings’. Moreover, allthe other parts of the sentence are correct, option (d)reflects the precise sequence of the correct parts. Thus,it becomes the most suitable answer choice.

17. (5) All the parts of sentence are grammatically correct andcontextually meaningful and therefore, it does notrequire any correction. Hence, option (e) becomes the

most viable answer choice. 18. (4) The error lies in part (C) of the sentence. To make the

sentence grammatically correct replace “than” with“when”. It is to be noted that with ‘Hardly’ or ‘scarcely’,the conjunction ‘when’ or ‘before’ is used. Moreover,‘than’ is used with ‘no sooner’. Ex.1. Hardly had I left the home, when it began to rain. Ex.2. No sooner had I left the home than it began to rain.Since, all the other parts of the sentence aregrammatically correct, the option that depicts thesequence of correct parts is option (d).

19. (3) The error lies in part (a) of the sentence. It is to be notedthat in cases where two incidents of past are mentioned,then generally the main clause is in the past perfecttense, while the clauses beginning with words like‘when’, ‘before’ etc., are in simple past tense. Therefore,to make the sentence grammatically correct replace,“when we had” with “when we”. Moreover, since all theother parts of the sentence are grammatically correct,the option that depicts the sequence of correct parts isoption (c).

20. (5) All the parts of sentence are grammatically correct andcontextually meaningful and therefore, it does notrequire any correction. Hence, option (e) becomes themost viable answer choice.

21. (3) Option (c) is the correct choice. As mentioned in theprevious statement that hot weather lowers children’sgrades. So, the word “ Higher” fits best in the context ofthe paragraph. Primeval means of the earliest time in history. Precocious means (of behaviour or ability) havingdeveloped at an earlier age than is usual or expected. Evolved means develop gradually.

22. (2) Option (b) is the correct choice. As mentioned in theprevious statement that hot weather lowers children’sgrades and we know that grades are lowered whenstudents find it hard to study lessons in classroom andconcentrate on their homework. So, the word“ Harder” fits best in the context of the paragraph. Inhumane means without compassion for misery orsuffering; cruel. Obdurate means stubbornly refusing to change one'sopinion or course of action. Malicious means characterized by malice; intending orintended to do harm.

23. (4) Option (d) is the correct choice. As mentioned in theprevious statement that hot weather lowers children’sgrades. So, here the same is displayed with somestatistics. The word “Increase” fits best in the context ofthe paragraph as certain amount of increase in thetemperature above 21 degrees Celsius is costing 1% inthe exam scores of students. Augment means make (something) greater by adding toit. Proliferate means increase rapidly in number; multiply.

24. (1) Option (a) is the correct choice. “ Analyzed” is the wordthat fits the best in context of the paragraph asresearchers analyze data to reach to a conclusion. Synthesized means combine (many things) into acoherent whole. Dissected means having been cut up for anatomicalstudy. Amalgamated means combine or unite to form oneorganization or structure. Segmented means consisting of or divided intosegments.

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25. (4) Option (d) is the correct choice. Here a span of time is

mentioned during which the experiment was conducted.So, “ Across” is the word the fits the best here. Beyond means at or to the further side of.

26. (5) Option (e) is the correct choice. As the central idea of thepassage revolves around decrease in marks of thestudents with increase in temperature, so, the word“ Hotter” fits the best in context of the passage, ashotter weather will make it hard for the students tostudy lessons in school and to concentrate on homeworkout of school. Arctic means (of weather conditions) very cold.

27. (2) Option (b) is the correct choice. “ Suggests” is the wordthat fits the best in context of the paragraph, as thestudy conducted will suggest measures that should betaken to eradicate the issue mentioned in the passage.

28. (4) Option (d) is the correct choice. “ Showed” is the wordthat fits the best in context of the paragraph, as the dataof the study conducted will show some results. Flaunted means display (something) ostentatiously,especially to provoke envy or admiration or to showdefiance. Concealed means kept secret; hidden. Absolved means declare (someone) free from guilt,obligation, or punishment.

29. (5) Option (e) is the correct choice. “ Better” is the wordthat fits the best in context of the paragraph, as theresults which are lowering in higher temperatures willget better in colder years. Inferior means lower in rank, status, or quality. Lofty means of imposing height. Subordinate means of less or secondary importance.

30. (3) Option (c) is the correct choice. “ Typically” is the wordthat fits the best in context of the paragraph. Typically means in most cases; usually. Habitually means by way of habit; customarily. Radically means in a thorough or fundamental way;completely. Strangely means in an unusual or surprising way.

31. (3)

32. (4)

33. (1)

34. (4)

35. (5)

36. (2) 37. (3) Suppose they meet x hrs after 8 a.m. then,

(distance moved by first train in x hrs) + [Distance movedby second train in (x – 1) hrs] = 330

38. (2)

39. (4) 10

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40. (2)

41. (2)

42. (1)

43. (5)

44. (5)

45.(1)

46. (4) 47. (3) Let total capital invested be 4x

Amount invested by Veer and Ayush = x and 3xrespectively Let total profit received be 3y. Profit received by Veer and Ayush =y and 2y respectively Let Ayush invested his money for ‘T’ months

48. (1)

49. (4)

50. (5)

51. (3)

52. (2)

53. (1)

54. (5)

55. (2)

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56. (2)

57. (5)

58. (2)

59. (5)

60. (2)

61. (4)

62. (4)

63. (2)

64. (2)

65. (5)

66. (3) For I- Since there is no direct relation between theelements scale and eraser Therefore, we cannotconclude that some scale are eraser. For II- From the venn diagram, it is clear that some penwhich is eraser is definitely pencil and definitely followscase along with possibility is always wrong. Hence, theconclusion does not follows.

67. (4)For I- Since there is no direct relation between theelements pepsi and sprite. Therefore, we cannotconclude that some pepsi are not sprite.For II- Since, it is given that some dew are not pepsi andall pepsi is limca .Hence, some dew is not limca is a can’tdetermined case and can’t determined follows alongwith possibility is always correct. Hence, the conclusion IIfollows.

68. (4) For I- Since there is no direct relation between the

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elements Yamuna and Ravi. Therefore, we cannotconclude that some Yamuna is Ravi .For II- Since there is no direct relation between theelements Satluj and Ganga. Hence, possibility case holdstrue. Therefore, the conclusion follows.

69. (1) For I- Since, there is no relation between rat and cat andcan never is a definite case and it holds true. Hence, theconclusion I follows. For II- Since, there is no relation between mat and catand possibility can hold true. Hence, the conclusion IIfollows.

70. (3) For I- Since there is no direct relation between theelements pink and black. Therefore, we cannot concludethat some pink is black. For II-Since all pink is orange and some pink is blue,therefore, definite case with possibility case will notholds true. Hence, we cannot conclude that some bluebeing orange is a possibility.

71-73 Logic: - The words here are arranged according to theirorder in alphabetical series. Two words are arrangedsimultaneously in one step from both left and right endin such a way that the word having least place valueaccording to the alphabetical series is arranged from theleft and the highest place value word is arranged on theright end in step I. Then the word which has 2nd lowestplace value is arranged at the left end and the wordwhich has 2nd highest place value is arranged at the rightend and the process continues till all the words arearranged. Input: normal space title heading replace select findpainter Step I: find normal space heading replace select paintertitle Step II: heading find normal replace select painter titlespace Step III: normal heading find replace painter title spaceselect Step IV: painter normal heading find title space selectreplace

71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (4)74-78. Village B gets power cut just after the break. Not more

than four villages gets power cut after Village B. Village Agets power cut in the 2nd shift and Village D gets the cutin the last shift. Village C gets power cut on the last dayof the week, so C gets power cut on Sunday. Village B didnot get power cut in the shift 2-3pm. We get threepossibilities:

Village G, which gets power cut on Thursday and in theshift which is before the shift in which Village C and Egets power cut. Village A gets power cut on Monday andin the shift which is before Village G’s shift. The villagewhich got power cut in the 2nd last shift gets it on 2ndday of the week., Since, C cannot get power cut in 2ndlast shift because it gets power cut on Sunday.

The Village which has power cut on Friday gets it beforethe village which has on Wednesday but not in the firstshift, so B gets power cut on Friday and D onWednesday.

The village which got power cut between 1-2pm did notget it on Friday and just after the village which gotThursday, so case 1 and 3 gets eliminated. The finalarrangement is:

74. (1) 75. (4)76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (5)79-83. There are three between D and C, who lives immediately

below the one who belongs to Delhi. Both D and C doesnot live on the lower most floor of the building. Only twofloors between the one who belongs to Delhi and theone who belongs to Chennai. So, there will be fourpossible case;

Only two person lives between E, who does not live onthe 1st floor and the one who belongs to Chennai. Therethree floors between B, who does not belong to Puneand E. So, case 1 and 4 is eliminated.

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Now, it is given that G lives immediately below the onewho belongs to Mumbai. The one who belongs toMumbai lives on an odd numbered floor. F does notbelong to Mumbai.

The one who belongs to Pune lives immediately abovethe one who belongs to Ahmedabad. The one whobelongs to Lucknow lives one of the floor below the onewho belongs to Jaipur and does not lives on the oddnumber floor. So, case 3 is eliminated. Therefore, thefinal arrangement is:

79. (3) 80. (4)81. (5) 82. (1) 83. (2)84-88. V1 is the only vacant seat adjacent to F. L is 4th to the

right to the V1. Two seats are between L and V2. Sixseats are between F and Q. Only 3 seats are present tothe left of Q and only 2 seats are present to right of V2.We get two possibilities:

B is immediate left to D, who sits at one of the ends, Soin both the cases D sits at the right end. Three persons sitbetween B and C, so C is immediate left to L. E, N, G sit inthe exact manner as given from left to right such that noone sits between them and they sits exactly betweentwo vacant seats. V4 is immediate left to M. The placefor M and V4 is not fixed in the case 2 so it is not placedin case 2.

Seven persons sit between A and O, who sits on theimmediate right of J. H, is immediate left to P, none ofthem sits next to the vacant seats. So, case 2 will beeliminated as there is no place for H and P after placingM and V4(as it is given that V4 is immediate left to M.).

I is one of the member and K is an immediate neighbourof I, since K cannot sit next to L so I sits immediate rightto L. The final arrangement is:

84. (5) 85. (5)86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (3)89. (5) By using condition (i) and (iii), the code will be 8!2!8 . 90. (3) By using condition (ii), the code will be @@β&*. 91. (4) By using condition (i) , The code will be µ@8©µ.

92. (5)

93. (3)

94. (5)

95. (3)

96. (3)

97-99.97. (4) 98. (5) 99. (4)100. (2) Only one meaningful word is formed from the 4th, 6th,

7th, 8th, letter of the word i.e. E, D, S, H---"SHED”. So,2nd letter of the so formed word is “H”.

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