HSPE Science Review

Questions 1-60

1. Why do atoms bond to one another?

a. to gain an octet of electrons

b. to become happy atoms

c. to gain kinetic energy

d. to become lower in potential energy

1. Why do atoms bond to one another?

a. to gain an octet of electrons. This only happens in covalent bonding

b. to become happy atoms. It has not been proven that atoms have emotions

c. to gain kinetic energy. A bond is formed because of a very large decrease in the kinetic energy due to the molecular orbital having a significantly decreased

gradient in the bond region. d. to become lower in potential energy. By decreasing its

potential energy an atom creates a more stable arrangement of matter.

2. Which equation is not consistent with

the law of conservation of mass?

a. S + O2 SO2

b. KClO3 KCl + O2

c. CaCO3 CaO + CO2

d. Ca + S CaS

2. Which equation is not consistent with the law of conservation of mass?

a. S + O2 SO2 This has equal numbers of each atom on each side of the equation.b. KClO3 KCl + O2 The number of Oxygen atoms on each side of the equation is different.

c. CaCO3 CaO + CO2 This has equal numbers of each atom on each side of the equation.d. Ca + S CaS This has equal numbers of each atom on each side of the equation.

3. Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions cause

a. atomic nuclei to change.

b. electrons to release large

amounts of energy.

c. protons and electrons to split.

d. neutrons and electrons to

fuse.

3. Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions cause

a. atomic nuclei to change. Fusion is when the nuclei of two small atoms join to form a larger nucleus; Fission is when one large atomic nucleus splits into two or more smaller nuclei.

b. electrons to release large amounts of energy. Both process deal with the nucleus of an atom and not the surround electrons.

c. protons and electrons to split. Electrons cannot be broken down into smaller particles.

d. neutrons and electrons to fuse. Fission is when nuclei break apart so fusion is impossible here.

4. In an isotope for a particular element,

a. the number of neutrons vary.

b. the numbers of electrons vary.

c. the number of protons vary.

d. radioactivity is always emitted.

4. In an isotope for a particular element,

a. the number of neutrons vary. This is TRUE; the different number of neutrons causes isotopes of the same element to have different mass numbers.

b. the numbers of electrons vary. The number of electrons does not affect differences between isotopes of same element.

c. the number of protons vary. A change in the number of protons would change the identity of the element in question.

d. radioactivity is always emitted. Only unstable atoms are capable of giving off radioactive energy. Not all isotopes are unstable.

5. What type of attractive force is found between atoms that are bonded to one another?

a. electrostatic

b. magnetic

c. gravitational

d. nuclear

5. What type of attractive force is found between atoms that are bonded to one another?

a. electrostatic This is the force of attraction between an electron and the nucleus of an atom. When electrons of one atom are more strongly attracted to the nucleus of another atom it cause the two atoms to come together in a chemical bond.

b. magnetic This is a force that is caused by a magnetic field and will be exerted on any nearby charged particle.

c. gravitational This is the force shared between the masses of two bodies.

d. nuclear This is the force of attraction between protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.

6. A student hits ahockey puck which slides across a frozenlake. The force required to keep the puck sliding at a constant velocity across the ice is:

a. zero Newton’s.b. equal to the weight of the puck.c. the weight of the puck divided by

the mass of the puck.d. the mass of the puck multiplied by

the weight of the puck.

6. A student hits a hockey puck which slides across a frozen lake. The force required to keep the puck sliding at a constant velocity across the ice is:

a. zero Newton’s. It is the law of inertia (Newton’s first law) an object in motion stays in motion unless acted on by an outside force and ice is nearly frictionless

b. equal to the weight of the puck. does not need a force to keep in motion

c. the weight of the puck divided by the mass of the puck. Does not follow Newton’s second law.

d. the mass of the puck multiplied by the weight of the puck. Does not follow F=mg

7. A wave is transporting energy from left to right. The particles of the medium are moving back and forth in a leftward and rightward direction. Which type of wave is

this?a. gravitationalb. electromagneticc. transversed. longitudinal

7. A wave is transporting energy from left to right. The particles of the medium are moving back andforth in a leftward and rightward direction. Whichtype of wave is this? a. gravitational This is an example of a transverse

wave. b. electromagnetic A transverse wave that does

not require a medium. c. transverse Particles move up and down as

energy moves to the right. d. longitudinal A longitudinal wave: particles

moves back and forth in a leftward and rightward direction parallel to the direction of the energy

8.Each figure below shows a force measured in Newtons pushing on a block. If there are no other forces pushing on the block, in which case is the acceleration of the block greatest?

a. c.

b. d.

8. Each figure below shows a force measured in Newtons pushing on a block. If there are no other forces pushing on the block, in which case is the acceleration of the block greatest?

This question relates to Newton’s second law of motion.

a. c.

b. d.They are equal, they cancel each other so there would be no movement.

1 Newton is less than 4 kilograms.

They are equal, they cancel each other so there would be no movement.

The net force is greater.

9. A person produces two sound waves with a flute, one immediately after the other. Both sound waves have the same pitch, but the second one is louder. Which of the following properties is greater for the second sound wave?

a. Frequencyb. Amplitudec. Wavelengthd. Speed in air

9. A person produces two sound waves with a flute, one immediately after the other. Both sound waves have the same pitch, but the second one is louder. Which of the following properties is greater for the second sound wave?

a. Frequency Relates to pitch not loudness.b. Amplitude Loudness relates to amplitude of a sound wave.c. Wavelength Relates to the distance between repeating units.d. Speed in air Relates to how much distance a wave travels in a given amount of time.

10. Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by convection. At the equator, air rises; at the poles it sinks. This occurs because

a. the Earth’s ozone layer is thinner at the equator than at the poles.

b. the Earth’s magnetic field is stronger at the poles than at the equator.

c. warm air can hold less water vapor than can cold air.

d. warm air is less dense than cold air.

10. Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by convection. At the equator, air rises; at the poles it sinks. This occurs because

a. the Earth’s ozone layer is thinner at the equator than at the poles.

This statement is falseb. the Earth’s magnetic field is stronger at the poles than at

the equator. Magnetic fields are not related to convection.

c. warm air can hold less water vapor than can cold air. This statement is false

d. warm air is less dense than cold air. The warmer air expands becoming less dense than the

cooler air around it. The cooler air, which now has greater density, moves toward the ground.

11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is forming along the mid-ocean ridge and then movingforming along the mid-ocean ridge and then moving horizontally away from the ridge?horizontally away from the ridge? a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water.a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water. b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrateb. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrate that the orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has that the orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has remained constant.remained constant. c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high elevations.elevations. d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distanced. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distance from the mid-ocean ridge increases. from the mid-ocean ridge increases.

11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is forming 11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is forming along the mid-ocean ridge and then moving horizontally away along the mid-ocean ridge and then moving horizontally away from the ridge?from the ridge?

a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water. a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water. Volcanoes are the results of hot spots in the middle of a tectonic Volcanoes are the results of hot spots in the middle of a tectonic

plate, or where subduction occurs between two tectonic plates. plate, or where subduction occurs between two tectonic plates. b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrate that the b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrate that the

orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has remained constant.orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has remained constant. This statement is false. The magnetic field goes through a cycle.This statement is false. The magnetic field goes through a cycle.c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high elevations.c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high elevations. High elevations would be vertical, the question asks about High elevations would be vertical, the question asks about

horizontalhorizontald. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distance from the d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distance from the

mid-ocean ridge increases.mid-ocean ridge increases. As new rock forms along the ridge, it pushes the older rock out.As new rock forms along the ridge, it pushes the older rock out.

12. Which of the following determines most characteristics and future events of a star’s existence?a. size (diameter)b. temperaturec. colord. mass

12. Which of the following determines most characteristics and future events of a star’s existence?

a. size (diameter) Size does not always relate to mass, could have a large

diameter, but be less dense.

b. temperature Temperature is related to the age of the star.

c. color Color is related to temperature; hot stars are younger and

burn blue; cooler, younger stars burn red.

d. mass Thermonuclear fusion occurs at a faster rate in massive

stars, thus large stars use all of their fuel in a shorter length of time. The mass of a star determines its fate in the life cycle of a star.

13. Which of the following best describes the expansion of the universe?

a. Expansion involves the spreading of matter into infinite and empty space.

b. As space expands, matter spreads out to fill up the empty space.

c. As space expands, the empty space between matter increases.

d. As space expands, matter continually is created to fill that space.

13. Which of the following best describes the expansion of the universe?

a. Expansion involves the spreading of matter into infinite and empty space.

Matter is not spreading out.b. As space expands, matter spreads out to fill

up the empty space.Matter is not spreading out.

c. As space expands, the empty space between matter increases.

The red shift shows us the distant galaxies are moving away from Earth.

d. As space expands, matter continually is created to fill that space.

Not true due to the Law of Conservation of Matter.

14. Which of the following is the best description of the Big Bang Theory?

a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific explanation of how the Sun, Earth and the rest of the solar system were created at the beginning of time.b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing matter was compacted into a hot and dense for and suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.c. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about the universe’s origin, many of which are equally respected by the scientific community.d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about the universe’s origin and is supported by observations of the universe’s expansion.

14. Which of the following is the best description of the Big Bang Theory?a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific explanation of how the Sun, Earth

and the rest of the solar system were created at the beginning of time. The Solar System is believed to have formed according the Nebular Hypothesis.b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing matter was compacted

into a hot and dense for and suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.

Answer D is better because it has supporting observationsc. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about the universe’s origin,

many of which are equally respected by the scientific community. False, the Big Bang Theory is the most widely accepted.d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about the universe’s origin

and is supported by observations of the universe’s expansion. It is the prevailing model, and Edwin Hubble found experimental evidence that

distant galaxies are moving away from Earth as seen with the Red Shift.

15. Earth’s seasons are the result of15. Earth’s seasons are the result ofa. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere

is thicker in the summer and thinner in theis thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter.winter. b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in theb. solar flares, which occur more frequently in the summer than in the winter.summer than in the winter. c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to the Sun in the summer and farther in the winter.the Sun in the summer and farther in the winter. d. earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylightd. earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylight hours to decrease from summer to winter.hours to decrease from summer to winter.

15. Earth’s seasons are the result of15. Earth’s seasons are the result ofa. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere is thicker in the a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere is thicker in the

summer and thinner in the winter.summer and thinner in the winter. This would effect climate all year, not just seasons.This would effect climate all year, not just seasons.

b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in the summer than in the b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in the summer than in the winter.winter.

Solar flares do not effect seasons.Solar flares do not effect seasons.

c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to the Sun in the c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to the Sun in the summer and farther in the winter.summer and farther in the winter.

Earth is actually closer to the sun during winterEarth is actually closer to the sun during winter

d. Earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylight hours to decrease from d. Earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylight hours to decrease from summer to winter.summer to winter.

Because of the tilt, the pole that points towards the sun experiences summer. This Because of the tilt, the pole that points towards the sun experiences summer. This means less sunlight gets scattered before reaching the ground because it has less means less sunlight gets scattered before reaching the ground because it has less distance to travel through the atmosphere. In addition, the high sun angle produces distance to travel through the atmosphere. In addition, the high sun angle produces long days. The pole that points away from the sun experiences winter, which has long days. The pole that points away from the sun experiences winter, which has shorter days.shorter days.

16. Which of the following is (are) important16. Which of the following is (are) important concepts(s) in Darwin’s theory of naturalconcepts(s) in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?selection?

I. Species do not change over time.I. Species do not change over time.II. There is variability of characteristics within aII. There is variability of characteristics within a

population of organisms.population of organisms. III. A single organism can acquire traits over theirIII. A single organism can acquire traits over their lifetimes that are then passed to its offspring.lifetimes that are then passed to its offspring. a. I onlya. I only b. II onlyb. II only c. I and II onlyc. I and II only d. II and III onlyd. II and III only

16. Which of the following is (are) important 16. Which of the following is (are) important concepts (s) in Darwin’s theory of naturalconcepts (s) in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?selection?

I. Species do not change over time. I. Species do not change over time. Species do change over timeSpecies do change over time..

II. There is variability of characteristics within aII. There is variability of characteristics within a population of organisms. population of organisms. TrueTrue III. A single organism can acquire traits over III. A single organism can acquire traits over their lifetimes that are then passed to their lifetimes that are then passed to its offspring. its offspring. TrueTrue a. I only a. I only Not true.Not true. b. II only b. II only True, but so is III.True, but so is III. c. I and II only c. I and II only Statement I is not true.Statement I is not true. d. II and III only d. II and III only Both of these statementsBoth of these statements are trueare true..

17. Which of the following is NOT a structural difference between RNA and DNA?

a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while RNA has one strand.

b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA contains the base uracil.

c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose.

d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the nucleus and RNA cannot.

17. Which of the following is NOT a structural difference between RNA and DNA?a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while RNA has one strand.

True Statement.b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA contains the

base uracil. True Statement.c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose.

True Statement.d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the nucleus and RNA

cannot. Due to its size, DNA cannot leave the nucleus but RNA can.

18. Which organelle is involved in cellular 18. Which organelle is involved in cellular

respiration in both animal AND plant respiration in both animal AND plant

cells?cells?

a. Nucleusa. Nucleus

b. Chloroplastsb. Chloroplasts

c. Mitochondriac. Mitochondria

d. Vacuoled. Vacuole

18. Which organelle is involved in cellular 18. Which organelle is involved in cellular respiration in both animal respiration in both animal ANDAND plant cells? plant cells?

a. Nucleus a. Nucleus Contains DNA and manages theContains DNA and manages the cell’s functions. cell’s functions.

b. Chloroplasts b. Chloroplasts Found in plants only.Found in plants only.c. Mitochondria c. Mitochondria Sight of cellular respiration inSight of cellular respiration in

both animals and plants.both animals and plants.d. Vacuole d. Vacuole Used to store Used to store

nutrients not for respiration.nutrients not for respiration.

19. Which of the following characteristics of rocks can be caused

by the slow cooling of magma?

A large crystals

B colorful grains

C smooth cover

D symmetrical shape

19. Which of the following characteristics of rocks can

be caused by the slow cooling of magma?

A. large crystals - Slow cooling allows the crystals to form more completely before solidifying.

Not B. colorful grains - Many rocks have colorful grains, but the color is a function of the elements included.

Not C. smooth cover - Smoothness is common, but it is a product of weathering and/or crystal shape.

Not D. symmetrical shape - Symmetry, like other traits, is mostly the produce of the type of minerals in the rock.

20. A law is an explanation of scientific phenomenon that is

A. largely accepted by scientists.B. based on observations.C. supported by most scientific data.D. proven and is without exception.

20. A law is an explanation of scientific phenomenon

that is

D. Option D completes the definition of a “law”.

Not A. Laws are completely accepted as fact.

Not C. The option allows for some data that is not supported.

Not B. Laws are based on mathematical proof, not observations.

21. After data is gathered from an experiment, doing which of these will

most help make results more reliable?

A. asking the teacher to check data

B. changing the variables for another experiment

C. repeating the experiment for additional data

D. reporting the information on a table

21. After data is gathered from an experiment, doing

which of these will most help make results more reliable?

C. Reliability is dependant on repeatability.

Not A. The teacher will have nothing to add to the validity to the numbers.

Not D. Presentation of the report does not affect reliability.

Not B. Changing variables compromises the data.

22. Light is best refracted by

A. mirrorsB. woodC. glassD. metal

22. Light is best refracted by

C. Glass is a medium with a different density than air. Glass is translucent enough to have light pass through.

Not A. Mirrors typically reflect, not refract, light.

Not D. Metal is opaque; therefore, it cannot refract light.

Not B. Wood is opaque; therefore, it cannot refract light.

23. Chemical reaction rates can most effectively be increased by

A. decreasing reactant particle sizeB. increasing volume of the container C. decreasing temperature D. increasing the number of reactants

23. Chemical reaction rates can most effectively be

increase by

A. Decreasing particle size increases the surface area expose for reaction.

Not C. Decreasing temperature reduces the rate of particle collision.

Not D. Adding reactants may cause competitive inhibition of reaction, decreasing the reaction rate.

Not B. Increasing volume may cause reactants to collide less frequently and slow rate of reaction.

24. Which of these items can be best used as in inclined plane?

A. wheelbarrowB. tennis racquet C. door knobD. staircase

24. Which of these items can be best used as in inclined

plane?

D. The staircase can be used to move objects vertically.

Not C. The doorknob has a wheel and axle element with the locking mechanism. The knob itself acts as a lever.

Not A. The handles work as a lever and the wheel and axle helps with movement.

Not B. The tennis racquet adds mechanical advantage because of increased centripetal force. It is impractical to use a racquet as an inclined plane.

25. A mutation in which of these types of cells will affect offspring

characteristics?

A. skinB. lung C. glandD. gamete

25. A mutation in which of these types of cells will affect

offspring characteristics?

D. Since gametes are the cells that unite to form zygotes, changes to them will affect gene expression in offspring.

Not C. Mutation to glands will affect hormonal and overall chemical balance, but it will not affect offspring.

Not A. Mutation to skin cells may cause discoloration or cancer, but it will not affect fertility or offspring characteristics.

Not B. Mutation in lung cells may cause cancer or other dysfunction of the lung, but it will not affect offspring.

26. Which of these molecules is most important for the production of ATP?

A. glucoseB. salt C. lipidD. peroxide

26. Which of these molecules is most important for the production of ATP?

A. Before ATP can be made during the Krebs Cycle, glucose is converted pyruvate.

Not C. Lipid molecules can be converted into usable energy forms, but all materials need to be converted to glucose before glycolysis can occur.

Not B. Salt is important for water balance in cells, but it is not involved in ATP production.

Not D. Peroxide is not involved in ATP production.

27. Bone is to chicken as cartilage is to

A. sharkB. wolfC. clamD. worm

27. Bone is to chicken as cartilage is to

A. The analogy has to do with skeletal system in the animal. Chickens have bones and sharks have a cartilaginous skeleton. Even though this item is relatively simple, it requires the student to recognize the relationship in the analogy and how to properly complete it.

Not C. Clams have an exoskeleton.

Not B. Wolves, like chickens, also have a bony skeleton.

Not D. Worms do not have a skeletal system.

28. The forces that form folded mountains are considered to be

constructive because of the forces caused

A. irregular shaping of a landform. B. other landforms to move closer together. C. a new landform. D. a climate change because of the land form.

28. The forces that form folded mountains are

considered to be constructive because of the

forces caused

C. The stem and option C paraphrase the definition of a “constructive force”.

Not A. Irregular shaping is caused by weathering and erosion.

Not D. Lithosphere activity may cause changes to area climate, but it is not part of the definition of “constructive forces”.

Not B. Landforms do not move closer to each other as a result of constructive forces.

29. The best method for determining how long

ago organisms lived is

A. calculate the fossil’s density. B. compare fossil appearance to modern

organisms. C. measure how deep fossils are buried. D. use radiocarbon dating on fossils..

29. The best method for determining how long ago

organisms lived is

D. Radiocarbon dating will give a measurement based on decomposition of carbon atoms. This is the most accurate method used.

Not C. Measuring depth can give insight to relative age, but it is not a quantifiable measurement. Depth is also dependent on Earth’s movements.

Not A. Calculating density will provide a number, but give no information regarding age.

Not B. Comparing appearance can give evolutionary clues, but it will not provide quantity of years. Many surviving animals look very “pre-historic.”

30. Radium, a radioactive element, decays over time. How much would remain of 20 grams of radium after two half-lives have passed?

a. 0 grams

b. 5 grams

c. 7 grams

d. 10 grams

Half-life decay =Period of time a radioactive

substance decays …

½ is gone each half-life

B.B. 5 grams is correct 5 grams is correct SO……..one half-life leaves 10 grams SO……..one half-life leaves 10 grams ……a second half-life leaves 5 gramsa second half-life leaves 5 grams

NOT A. A small amount of radioactivity would still be left after 10 half-lives

NOT C. 7 grams would be left between one and two half-lives

NOT D. 10 grams would be left after one half-life

31. Emily and Sarah observed that the goldfish in their classroom breathed more frequently when the room was warm. What equipment would the girls need to conduct an experiment that would verify their observations?

A. balance, beakers, thermometersB. thermometers, stopwatch, notebookC. stopwatch, thermometer, balanceD. balance, stopwatch, notebook

31. Emily and Sarah observed that the goldfish in their classroom breathed more frequently when the room was warm. What equipment would the girls need to conduct an experiment that would verify their observations?

A. balance, beakers, thermometersIncorrect. This experiment does not need a balance. Balances measure mass and that is not required for this experiment.

B. thermometers, stopwatch, notebook Correct. The students need a thermometer to measure the water temperature, a stopwatch to time the breathing frequency, and a notebook to record their data.

C. stopwatch, thermometer, balance Incorrect. Do not need a balance.

D. balance, stopwatch, notebook Incorrect. Do not need a balance.

32. One characteristic of all living things is that they

A. have eyes.

B. have legs.

C. inhale and exhale.

D. eliminate waste products.

32. One characteristic of all living things is that theyA. have eyes.

Incorrect. Not all living organisms have eyes for example bacteria and fungi

B. have legs. Incorrect. Not all living organisms have legs for example protists and plants

C. inhale and exhale. Incorrect. Not all living organisms have the ability to inhale and exhale like fish with gills or bacteria

D. eliminate waste products. Correct. All living organisms must eliminate waste to avoid toxicity

33. Earth has seasons because of

A. Earth’s tilt on its axis.

B. Earth’s distance from the sun.

C. the moon’s gravitational pull.

D. the sun’s temperature changes.

33. Earth has seasons because ofA. Earth’s tilt on its axis.

Correct.B. Earth’s distance from the sun.

Partially correct. The Earth’s distance from the sun effects the earth’s climate. Answer A is the best choice.

C. the moon’s gravitational pull. Incorrect. Affects the rise and fall of the ocean tides.

D. the sun’s temperature changes. Incorrect. The sun’s temperature is fairly constant.

34. The producer in the food web shown above is the

A. grass.

B. mouse.

C. mountain lion.

D. owl.

34. The producer in the food web shown above is theA. grass.

Correct. Autotrophic organism, such as a plant, capture light energy to make organic molecules.

B. mouse. Incorrect. Consumer, heterotrophic organism that must consume other organisms to gain nutrients.

C. mountain lion. Incorrect. Consumer

D. owl. Incorrect. Consumer

35. The long necks of a giraffe may best be explained by

A. giraffes constantly stretching their necks over time.

B. short-necked giraffes were less able to compete for food.

C. the theory of the use and disuse of organs.

D. the extinction of other long-necked animals due to climate change.

35. The long necks of a giraffe may best be explained byA. giraffes constantly stretching their necks over time.

Incorrect. This would not affect the giraffe’s DNA, therefore could not be passed on to the offspring. (Lamarck’s theory that was disproved)

B. short-necked giraffes were less able to compete for food. Correct. Short necked giraffes died off and long necked giraffes survived and left more offspring.

C. the theory of the use and disuse of organs. Incorrect. Lamarck’s Theory that was disproved.

D. the extinction of other long-necked animals due to climate change. Might be possible if the other animals competed for the same food but B is a better explanation

36. Which BEST explains why a lake is frozen on the surface but not below the surface?A. Ice floats.

B. Water freezes at 0 °C.

C. Ice lets light through the water.

D. Water is clear.

36. Which BEST explains why a lake is frozen on the surface but not below the surface?A. Ice floats. Correct. As the air temperature cools the water it freezes. Ice is

less dense than water if it is frozen.B. Water freezes at 0 °C. Incorrect. Water does freeze at this temperature, but it doesn’t

explain why it is frozen on the surface and not below.C. Ice lets light through the water. Incorrect. Ice can let light through, but it doesn’t explain why it is

frozen on the surface and not below.D. Water is clear. Incorrect. Water is clear, but that has no effect on water freezing.

37. How does the heat inside Earth’s core affect what happens on Earth’s surface?A. The heat warms Earth’s crust in the world’s

desert and tropical regions.B. The heat causes convection currents in

Earth’s mantle which move the tectonic plates.C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns

in Earth’s lower atmosphere.D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found

around the North and South Poles of Earth.

37. How does the heat inside Earth’s core affect what happens on Earth’s surface?

A. The heat warms Earth’s crust in the world’s desert and tropical regions. Incorrect. The amount of sunlight and local conditions create deserts and tropical regions.

B. The heat causes convection currents in Earth’s mantle which move the tectonic plates. Correct. Heat from the core melts the material in the mantle causing it to flow like a liquid and creating convection currents. The tectonic plates float on top of the mantle and are therefore moved by the motion of the mantle below.

C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns in Earth’s lower atmosphere. Incorrect. The amount of sunlight, local conditions, and the Coriollis affect, create wind patterns in Earth’s lower atmosphere

D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found around the North and South Poles of Earth. Incorrect. The atmospheric temperature changes affect the formation and melting of glaciers.

38. What process is represented by the bracketed section B shown above?A. cell duplication

B. asexual reproduction

C. sex cell formation

D. egg fertilization

38. What process is represented by the bracketed section B shown above

A. cell duplication Incorrect. Each cell is different than the originating cell.

B. asexual reproduction Incorrect. The final cell represents a union of two cell’s genetic material, not a division of cells.

C. sex cell formation Incorrect. Only the first step in section B represents gamete formation, but the second step represents fusion of two of these gametes.

D. egg fertilization Correct. Section B is showing the fusion of gametes to form a zygote with twice the genetic material of the originating cells.

39. The graphic above shows the phase of water at any given temperature and pressure. If the pressure of a sample of water is at a temperature T and is raised from pressure P1 to P2, the water will change from

A.Gas to liquid

B.Liquid to gas

C.Solid to liquid

D.Liquid to solid

39. The graphic above shows the phase of water at any given temperature and pressure. If the pressure of a sample of water is at a temperature T and is raised from pressure P1 to P2, the water will change from

A. Gas to liquid is the correct answer because at temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas when you move to pressure P2 it changes to liquid.

B. Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.

C. Solid to liquid is incorrect because at temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas not a solid.

D. Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.

40. Why does the moon only have 1/6 of Earth’s gravity?

A.It is very far away from Earth

B.It has no atmosphere.

C.It has less mass than Earth.

D.It is made of basalt.

40. Why does the moon only have 1/6 of Earth’s gravity?A.Incorrect. The moon is actually the closest

astronomical object to our planet.

B.Incorrect. The moon has no atmosphere so there is no weather but that doesn’t affect gravity.

C.Correct. The moon has less mass therefore is also has less gravity.

D.Incorrect. The moon is made of basalt but that doesn’t affect the gravity.

41. The graphic below shows a test tube containing sodium carbonate resting in a flask containing vinegar (acetic acid in water). The flask is sealed with a balloon and weighed. The flask is then tipped so that the sodium carbonate in the test tube reacts with the vinegar. The flask is weighed a second time. Which statement best expresses the relationship between the two weights?

A. The first weight will be greater.

B. The second weight will be greater.

C. The two weights will be the same.

D. The relationship between the weights is not predictable.

41. Which statement best expresses the relationship between the two weights?

A. The first weight will be greater. Incorrect. Does not follow the Law of Conservation of Mass.

B. The second weight will be greater. Incorrect. Does not follow the Law of Conservation of Mass.

C. The two weights will be the same. Correct. The mass of a closed system will remain constant, regardless of the processes acting inside the system. In addition, matter cannot be created or destroyed, although it may be rearranged.

D. The relationship between the weights is not predictable. Incorrect. Does not follow the Law of Conservation of mass.

42. A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This tells you how long it takes

A. Jupiter to orbit the sun.

B. Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis.

C. the sun to orbit Jupiter.

D. Earth to orbit Jupiter.

42. A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This tells you how long it takes

A. Jupiter to orbit the sun. Correct

B. Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis. Incorrect. This would be 1 day.

C.The sun to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect. Jupiter orbits the sun; the sun does not orbit Jupiter.

D.Earth to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect. The Earth does not Orbit Jupiter.

43. All stars, including our sun, give off heat and light. Which is the best explanation for why we do not feel the heat from other stars?

A. The other stars are smaller than the sun.

B. The other stars are much farther away than the sun.

C.The other stars are not as bright as the sun.

D.The other stars are not as hot as the sun.

43. All stars, including our sun, give off heat and light. Which is the best explanation for why we do not feel the heat from other stars?

A. The other stars are smaller than the sun. Incorrect. Other stars can be bigger or smaller than the sun.

B. The other stars are much farther away than the sun. Correct.

C. The other stars are not as bright as the sun. Incorrect. Other stars brightness can be lesser or greater than the sun.

D. The other stars are not as hot as the sun.Incorrect. Other stars can have a temperature that is lesser or greater than the sun.

44. The graph on the next slide shows the relationship between an island’s size (in hectares) and the number of plant and animal species on the island. What can be concluded from this graph?

A. There is no relationship between an island’s size and its biodiversityB. Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and animal species than

Blue Island.C. Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant and animal species

because it is protected by the two larger islands.D. As an island’s size increases, the numbers of plant and animal

species on the island increase.

Graph 44Return to Question See Answer

44. What can be concluded from this graph?

A. There is no relationship between an island’s size and its biodiversity. Incorrect. There would be a horizontal line or no pattern at all. As the size increases so does the number of species.

B. Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and animal species than Blue Island. Incorrect. Blue island is higher on the graph, therefore has more species.

C. Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant and animal species because it is protected by the two larger islands. Incorrect. It has the fewest number of species and a map would be needed to determine if there were larger islands surrounding it.

D. As an island’s size increases, the numbers of plant and animal species on the island increase. Correct

45. When you use the brakes on your bike to stop, the energy of the bike’s motion is converted into

A. heat energy.B. electromagnetic energy.C. potential energy.D. kinetic energy.

45. When you use the brakes on your bike to stop, the energy of the bike’s motion is converted into

A. heat energy. Correct. The friction that occurs produces heat.

B. electromagnetic energy. Incorrect. This involves wave energy, not mechanical energy.

C.potential energy.Incorrect. The potential energy is building, but the kinetic energy is not converting to potential energy.

D.kinetic energy. Incorrect. Kinetic energy is being lost as the bike slows down.

46. Green plants can reduce greenhouse gases by

A. producing oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis. B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during

the process of photosynthesis.

C. absorbing sunlight in the plants’ chlorophyll molecules.

D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air in the lower part of the atmosphere.

46. Green plants can reduce greenhouse gases by

A. producing oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis. Incorrect. Oxygen is not a greenhouse causing gas.

B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during

the process of photosynthesis. Correct

C. absorbing sunlight in the plants’ chlorophyll molecules. Incorrect. This does not reduce greenhouse gas.

D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air in the lower part of the atmosphere. Incorrect. This does not reduce greenhouse gas.

A. size of soil particles.

B. percent of soil moisture.

C. rate of algae growth.

D. pH of lake water.

47. A biotic factor that might be studied in an ecosystem is the

A. size of soil particles. Incorrect. Soil is abiotic (was never living). Incorrect. Soil is abiotic (was never living).

B. percent of soil moisture. Incorrect. Soil is abiotic (was never living). Incorrect. Soil is abiotic (was never living).

C. rate of algae growth. Correct. A biotic factor is something that is alive or was once alive. Correct. A biotic factor is something that is alive or was once alive.

D. pH of lake water. Incorrect. Water is abiotic (was never living). Incorrect. Water is abiotic (was never living).

47. A biotic factor that might be studied in an ecosystem is the

48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products. In a nuclear reaction,

the total mass of the reactants does not equal the total mass of the products. What is the MOST likely explanation

for the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?

A. The mass was measured inaccurately.

B. Some energy is converted into mass.

C. Some mass is converted into energy.

D. There was no increase in mass.

48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products. In a nuclear reaction,

the total mass of the reactants does not equal the total mass of the products. What is the MOST likely explanation

for the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?

A. The mass was measured inaccurately. Incorrect. The question states that mass should be lost.

B. Some energy is converted into mass. Incorrect. In nuclear reactions energy is a product.

C. Some mass is converted into energy. Correct

D. There was no increase in mass. Incorrect. The question states that the mass changes.

49. Which are three examples physical changes?

D. gasoline burning, an egg rotting, fireworks exploding.

A. water freezing, gasoline, evaporating, a nail rusting.

B. water boiling, a balloon bursting, a candle melting.

C. wood burning, a marshmallow melting, a paper tearing.

49. Which are three examples physical changes?

D. gasoline burning, an egg rotting, fireworks exploding Incorrect. Chemical change.

A. water freezing, gasoline, evaporating, a nail rusting Incorrect. Chemical change.

B. water boiling, a balloon bursting, a candle melting Correct. Physical change.

C. wood burning, a marshmallow melting, a paper tearing Incorrect. Chemical change.

50. A farmer observes that a crop of his strawberries produces different types of fruit. One variety is small but very juicy. Another variety is very large but lacks of flavor and juice. You have been asked to give the

farmer advice about growing large, juicy strawberries. Which would be best advice?

A. He should continue to grow his strawberries the same way because his crop has a good variety of fruit.

B. He should select the large plants only because consumers like the large fruit.

C. He should select several of each plant and cross them to see if he can produce strawberries that are both juicy and large.

D. Selective breeding causes strawberries to get more diseases, so he should buy new plants.

50. Which would be best advice?

A. He should continue to grow his strawberries the same way because his crop has a good variety of fruit. Incorrect. He will continue to get the same crop.

B. He should select the large plants only because consumers like the large fruit. Incorrect. This will not produce juicy fruit.

C. He should select several of each plant and cross them to see if he can produce strawberries that are both juicy and large. Correct

D. Selective breeding causes strawberries to get more diseases, so he should buy new plants. Incorrect. Breeding diverse plants should cause less disease.

51. A tree grows from a tiny seed into a huge, 200-foot tall redwood. Most of the redwood tree’s structural mass came from

A.minerals in the soil.

B.carbon dioxide in the air.

C.oxygen in the air.

D.nitrogen in the soil.

51. A tree grows from a tiny seed into a huge, 200-foot tall redwood. Most of the redwood tree’s structural mass came from

A.minerals in the soil. Incorrect. Minerals are trace elements and contribute to the maintaining the plants health.B.carbon dioxide in the air. Correct. Carbon dioxide is needed for photosynthesis; the method the plants create nutrients.C.oxygen in the air. Incorrect. Oxygen is given off by plants.D.nitrogen in the soil. Incorrect. Nitrogen is used to make proteins.

52. The graphic above represents change in a population over time. The capacity (K) is the number of individuals that can be supported in the system. Point A indicates that this population has exceeded K. What negative impact may be anticipated?

A.depletion or degradation of resourcesB.underutilization of alternative resourcesC.increased rate of mutationsD.increased population growth

52. What negative impact may be anticipated?

A. depletion or degradation of resources Correct. All the food is consumed before more can be made.

B. underutilization of alternative resources Incorrect. This is not a negative impact; alternative resources would be a part of K.

C. increased rate of mutations Incorrect. Mutations could be positive; a large population should have an increase in mutations.

D. increased population growth Incorrect. Population cannot increase because the resources would be used up quicker.

53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to all of the following EXCEPT

A. global warming

B. acid rain.

C. the Coriolis effect

D. pollution.

53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to all of the following EXCEPT

A. global warming. Incorrect. It produces greenhouse gas which contributes to global warming.

B. acid rain. Incorrect. Sulfur dioxide is produced by fossil fuel burning and can cause acid rain.

C. the Coriolis effect Correct. This is caused by the velocity of a moving object, not fossil fuels.

D. pollution. Incorrect. It causes several types of pollution.

54. Which equation is not consistent with the law of conservation of mass?

A. S + O2 SO2

B. KClO3 KCl + O2

C.CaCO3 CaO + CO2

D.Ca + S CaS

54. Which equation is not consistent with the law of conservation of mass?

A. S + O2 SO2 Incorrect. This is a

balanced equation.B. KClO3 KCl + O2 Correct. This

equation does not have the same amount of elements on each side. The equation is not balanced.

C.CaCO3 CaO + CO2 Incorrect.

This is a balanced equation.D.Ca + S CaS Incorrect. This is a

balanced equation.

55. The extinction of a species

a. is a natural event experienced by most species.

b. will never happen in a saltwater environment.

c. cannot occur if a very small gene pool is present.

d. is almost always caused by human activity.

55. The extinction of a species

a. is a natural event experienced by most species. Correctb. will never happen in a saltwater environment. Incorrect. There are ocean organisms that have gone extinct.c. cannot occur if a very small gene pool is present. Incorrect. More likely to occur in a small gene pool, due to lack of diversity.d. is almost always caused by human activity. Incorrect. Organisms have gone extinct before human activity.

56. A student has written the following hypothesis:

As more salt is added to a container of ice, the temperature of the mixture will become lower.

What are two factors that need to be kept constant to test this hypothesis?

A. amount of salt and amount of iceB. type of salt and amount of iceC. size of container and amount of timeD. air temperature and amount of time

56. What are two factors that need to be kept constant to test this hypothesis?

A. amount of salt and amount of ice Incorrect. Salt needs to be added during the experiment, therefore the amount will increase.

B. type of salt and amount of ice CorrectC. size of container and amount of time Incorrect. Time is

not a factor because the experiment is not measuring the rate of time, just temperature differences.

D. air temperature and amount of timeIncorrect. Time is not a factor because the experiment is not measuring the rate of time, just temperature differences.

57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere on Earth. What is the relationship of the person’s mass and weight on the top of the mountain versus at sea level?

A. Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at sea level, and weight is slightly less on the mountaintop.

B. Weight is the same at both locations and mass is slightly less on the mountain top.

C. Weight and mass are the same on top of the mountain and at sea level.

D. Mass is the same at both locations, and weight is slightly higher on the mountaintop.

57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere on Earth. What is the relationship of the person’s mass and weight on the top of the mountain versus at sea level?

A. Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at sea level, and weight is slightly less on the mountaintop. CorrectB. Weight is the same at both locations and mass is slightly less on the mountain top. Incorrect. The mass does not change.C. Weight and mass are the same on top of the mountain and at sea level. Incorrect. Weight and mass are not the same measurement.D. Mass is the same at both locations, and weight is slightly higher on the mountaintop. Incorrect. Gravity decreases farther from the core, therefore weight would be less on the mountain top.

58. Fossils of the Glossopteris, an extinct plant that lived 250 million years ago, have been found in South Africa, Australia, India, and Antarctica. The seeds of the Glossopteris were too large to be carried by wind and too fragile to have been carried by water; therefore, the seeds could not have naturally crossed the water that separates the continents today. How do scientists today explain the occurrence of Glossopteris fossils on all four continents?

A. Land bridges once connected all the continents.

B. Man carried the seeds in boats from continent to continent.

C. he continents were once all part of the same land mass.

D. A tsunami carried the seeds to new locations.

58. How do scientists today explain the occurrence of Glossopteris fossils on all four continents?

A. Land bridges once connected all the continents. Incorrect. Seeds cannot walk across a land bridge.

B. Man carried the seeds in boats from continent to continent. Incorrect. Man was not around 250 million years ago.

C. The continents were once all part of the same land mass. Correct

D. A tsunami carried the seeds to new locations. Incorrect. Tsunami is water and the seeds are to fragile to have been carried by water.

59. A rollerblader is blading along the sidewalk. Which forms of measurement would be the BEST to use to determine the rollerblader’s speed?

A.time and distance

B.volume and time

C.density and mass

D.mass and distance

59. A rollerblader is blading along the sidewalk. Which forms of measurement would be the BEST to use to determine the rollerblader’s speed?

A.time and distance Correct. Speed is a measurement of time and distance.

B.volume and time Incorrect. Volume measures space.

C.density and mass Incorrect. Density and mass measure volume.

D.mass and distance Incorrect. Mass is not needed to determine speed.

60. If you get the mumps when you are young, you are not likely to get the disease again. One reason for this is that

A. the mumps virus cannot enter your body a second time.

B. the medicine you took for mumps is stored in your body.

C. the mumps virus is not as harmful when you are older.

D.your body has formed antibodies against the mumps virus.

60. If you get the mumps when you are young, you are not likely to get the disease again. One reason for this is that

A. the mumps virus cannot enter your body a second time. Incorrect. It can enter your body more than once.

B. the medicine you took for mumps is stored in your body. Incorrect. There is not medicine for the mumps, it’s a virus.

C. the mumps virus is not as harmful when you are older. Incorrect. It is harmful to adults as well as children.

D.your body has formed antibodies against the mumps virus. Correct