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3Hellenic American University - Hellenic American Union

CONTENTS

1. Overview of the ALCE p. 4

2. Preparing for the ALCE p. 4

3. Test Specifications p. 5

4. Scoring of the ALCE examination p. 8

5. Scoring of the Writing and Speaking Sections p. 8

6. Examination Results p. 12

7. Security p. 12

8. Test Takers with Disabilities p. 12

9. Administration and Test Centers p. 12

10. Frequently Asked Questions p. 13

11. Description of each section of the ALCE examination p. 14

Listening Section p. 14

Grammar Section p. 17

Vocabulary Section p. 18

Reading Section p. 19

Writing Section p. 22

Speaking Section p. 24

12. Sample Test Items p. 27

13. Answer key p. 41

4 Hellenic American University - Hellenic American Union

OVERVIEW OF THE ALCE

The Advanced Level Certificate in English examination (ALCE) is a standardized examination designed to test candidates who have obtained advanced proficiency in English. The examination has been mapped on the Common European Framework of Reference for Languages (CEF) as reflecting the content and difficulty of C1 level.

The ALCE is developed and scored by the Hellenic American University in cooperation with external bodies both in Europe and the United States. The typical candidate for the examination should be over sixteen years of age, with a sound knowledge of English at an advanced level, and with a broad general knowledge. Candidates who are successful in the ALCE examination obtain a certificate which documents their level of English for educational, occupational, public or personal purposes.

The ALCE is recognized by the Supreme Council for Civil Personnel Selection (Α.Σ.Ε.Π.) at the level of ‘very good knowledge’ (πολύ καλή γνώση), and is therefore recognized as language certification for obtaining employment and promotion in both the public and private sectors in Greece. The ALCE certificate can also be used as proof of language competence when applying to universities and colleges in Europe and further abroad.

The ALCE examination tests communicative competence in all four skills: reading, writing, listening and speaking. It also contains sections which specifically test candidates’ ability in grammar and vocabulary. The examination focuses primarily on the educational and occupational domains appropriate for this level, and this is reflected in its content and tasks.

The ALCE is developed in accordance with the highest international standards of educational measurement and is assessed by highly regarded external institutions. All parts of the examination are written following specific guidelines and test specifications. Items are pre-tested to ensure standardization and validity. The examination is administered by the Hellenic American Union, and care is taken that the tests are fair and accessible to examinees, regardless of the school they attend.

PREPARING FOR THE ALCE

Candidates are advised to have participated in general English courses in order to reach an advanced level appropriate for the ALCE. Examinees are also strongly recommended to familiarize themselves with the format of the examination and to consult the Test Specifications and Sample Test contained in this Manual. Further information can also be obtained by visiting the website of the Hellenic American Union at: www.hau.gr.

In addition, test preparation materials are also produced by a number of publishers, and many language schools offer courses which prepare students specifically for the ALCE examination. Students may consult the Hellenic American Union website for more details.


TEST SPECIFICATIONS FOR THE ALCE EXAMINATION

PART FOCUSNO OF ITEMS

FORMAT CHARACTERISTICS

LISTENING: 40 questions, 40 minutes approximately

PART 1

Listening for gist/specific information in order to identify the significance of a visual stimulus used for reinforcement of context

10

Multiple-choice 3 answer choices

Questions: written in test bookletAnswer choices: based on visualsText: dialogues: 2 speakers, 3 short turns in totalLength of text: 70 words approx.Context: educational, occupationalVisuals: symbols, charts, diagrams, maps, slidesTiming: pause of 12 seconds before each item

PART 2

Understanding colloquial language, understanding implied information 10

Multiple-choice3 answer choices

Questions: written in test bookletAnswer choices: test understanding of implied information and colloquial languageText: dialogues: 2 speakers, 3 short turns in totalLength of text: 60 words approx.Context: occupational, personal, educational, publicTiming: pause of 9 seconds before each item

PART 3

Listening for specific information & opinions

10


Questions: written in test bookletAnswer choices: test understanding of specific information & opinionsText: extended text: interview, 2 speakers, broken into 5 parts, with 2 questions following each partLength of text: 1,000 words approx.Context: interview on a social, academic or scientific issue Timing: pause of 9 seconds before each item

PART 4

Understanding the main points from an academic presentation/lecture

10


Questions: not written in test bookletAnswer choices: test understanding of main points in an extended textText: extended text: monologue, broken into 2 parts, each part followed by 5 questionsLength of text: 900 words approx.Context: educational: factual information Timing: pause of 9 seconds before each item


GRAMMAR, VOCABULARY AND READING: 100 questions, 80 minutes

GRAMMAR: 40 questions

1 PART

Grammar at sentence level

40


Answer choices: test one or more than one aspect of grammar, e.g. tense & aspect, or modal & tenseText: formal written EnglishLength of text: 14 words max.Context: educational, occupational

VOCABULARY: 40 questions

1 PART

Vocabulary at sentence level

40


Answer choices: test items similar in form or meaning, appropriacy, & collocationsText: formal written EnglishLength of text: 14 words max.Context: educational, occupational

PART FOCUSNO OF ITEMS

FORMAT CHARACTERISTICS

READING: 20 questions

PART 1

Reading for detail

6-8


Answer choices: test detailed understanding of text at sentence & discourse level, ability to understand conflicting opinions, as well as inferences & vocabulary in contextLength of text: 550 words approx.Genre: in-depth review

PART 2

Reading for detail

6-8


Answer choices: test detailed understanding of text at sentence & discourse level, ability to understand logical progression, e.g. cause & effect, and vocabulary in context Length of text: 550 words approx.Genre: factual scientific text

PART 3

Reading for detail

6-8


Answer choices: test detailed understanding of text at sentence & discourse level, ability to understand multifaceted arguments, as well as vocabulary in contextLength of text: 550 words approx.Genre: discussion of/report on social issues

WRITING: Candidates choose 1 task; 30 minutes

TASK 1

Academic writing: clear, well-expressed opinion

1

Essay Task: argumentative essay, giving an opinion based on promptsQuestions: introduction to topic, followed by promptsContext: educational/social

TASK 2

Clear, well-expressed formal report in appropriate style

1

Report Task: expository writing: formal reportQuestion: introduction to topic, followed by table of informal information to be included in a formal report. Can be problem-recommendation, expanding information based on tables, etc.Context: educational, occupational


SPEAKING: Candidates are given a range of tasks; 11- 13 minutes approx

TASK 1

Warm-up; expression of personal information

2-3

No prompts Task: non-sensitive personal questionsQuestions: not written on test materialsTiming: 1 minute approx.

TASK 2

Discussion based on visual/written prompt; using language effectively to speculate & give opinion

1

Written prompts

Task: 1 question which follows visual/written prompt. Question: written in test booklet, points related to question also given to provide candidates with prompts which they can developTiming: 2.5 minutes approx.

TASK 3

Wider discussion relating to previous topic; expressing a reasoned opinion in extended speech with effective support

2-4

Written prompts

Task: examiner chooses from range of 6 questions on same topicQuestions: written in test booklet, points related to question also given to provide candidates with prompts which they can developTiming: 4 minutes approx.

TASK 4

Role-play; arguing a case convincingly and supporting this point of view effectively 1

Written prompts

Task: 1 task based on prompts relating to previous topicQuestion: asking for an opinion, written in test booklet, background to issue given, followed by points to assist topic developmentTiming: 3.5 minutes approx.


SCORING OF THE ALCE EXAMINATION

Candidates who score approximately 65 percent or more achieve a passing score in each section of the ALCE. The Listening Section and the Grammar, Vocabulary and Reading Section are computer scored, while the Writing and Speaking Sections are scored according to criteria designed to reflect the C1 level of the CEF. Raw scores are converted to test scores following computer generated statistical analysis based on Item Response Theory.

The ALCE examination is scored using aggregate scoring. This means that students who do not achieve a passing score in ONE of the sections of the examination may be able to compensate by having a high score in other sections and thereby pass the examination as a whole. Candidates who fail more than one section of the examination CANNOT pass the ALCE examination.

SCORING OF THE SPEAKING AND WRITING SECTIONS

The Writing and Speaking Sections are scored according to the criteria in the tables below.

The Writing Section is scored using three criteria: Topic Development, Range of Language, and Accuracy. For Range of Language and Accuracy, candidates receive a score of 1, 2 or 3. A score of 2 is awarded to candidates whose performance is considered to be appropriate at ALCE level. Candidates receive a score of 3 if their performance is considered to be above that expected for a candidate at this level. Score 1 is a failing score and is awarded to candidates whose performance is considered to be below this level. More weighting, however, is given to Topic Development. Candidates receive a score of 2, 4 or 6. Scoring of this criterion takes into consideration effective elaboration of the prompts provided. For this criterion, a score of 4 is awarded to candidates whose performance is considered to be appropriate for the level. Candidates need to achieve a total combined score of 8 or above in order to pass this section of the examination.

The Speaking Section is scored using five criteria: Range of Language, Fluency, Accuracy, Interaction, and Coherence. A score of 1, 2 or 3 is awarded, with 2 being that of a candidate at ALCE level. A score of 3 is awarded for a performance higher than that expected at this level, while 1 is a failing score for those whose performance is below that of the expected level. Candidates need to achieve a total combined score of 9 or above in order to pass this section of the examination. However, candidates receiving more than one score of 1 for the criteria cannot pass the Speaking Section.


THE ADVANCED LEVEL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION IN ENGLISH:

WRITING SECTION

DESCRIPTORS OF SALIENT FEATURES

Criterion Topic Development Range of Language Accuracy

Des

crip

tio

n

3 (Above level)

Can produce clear, smoothly flowing, complex texts in an appropriate style.

Can fully develop the topic by building on all the prompts provided so as to fully support and expand each point.

Can produce coherent and cohesive texts consistently using a wide range of organizational patterns and cohesive devices in an appropriate manner.

Shows great flexibility in formulating ideas by using a wide range of linguistic forms to convey appropriate style.

Maintains consistent and highly accurate grammatical control, including complex language forms. Errors are rare and concern rarely used forms.

2 (At

level)

Can produce clear, well-structured texts.

Can support and expand the prompts at some length.

Use of organizational patterns and linking devices is mostly controlled.

Can provide a relevant introduction and round off with an appropriate conclusion.

Can express him/herself clearly in an appropriate style, displaying a good command of a broad range of language to accomplish the task at hand, but flexibility in style and tone is somewhat limited.

Consistently maintain a high degree of grammatical accuracy. Occasional errors may occur in complex structures, but do not impede communication.

1 (Below level)

The prompts are not fully elaborated on and some points may be missing.

Can produce a clear well-structured text using a limited number of cohesive devices to link sentences. Ideas may not be connected in longer contributions.

Can express him/herself simply, but uses a limited range of language for the task at hand. Can produce some complex sentence forms.

Shows some degree of grammatical and lexical control. Errors do occur in both simple and complex structures, but do not impede communication.


THE ADVANCED LEVEL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION IN ENGLISH

SPEAKING SECTION

DESCRIPTORS OF SALIENT FEATURES

Range of Language Fluency Accuracy Interaction Coherence

Des

crip

tio

n

3(Above level)

Can address any complex topic. Can convey finer shades of meaning, give emphasis, and eliminate ambiguity.

Can use a variety of idiomatic and colloquial expressions.

Can express him/ herself naturally on any topic and at length.

Maintains consistent grammatical control of complex language.

Errors are rare.

Can contribute to the development of complex topics easily & effortlessly.

Can understand the interlocutor perfectly.

Can use a variety of organizational patterns to produce coherent and cohesive discourse.

Can use a wide range of connectors and other cohesive devices appropriately.

2(At

level)

Has a broad range of language to express him/herself clearly on both familiar and complex topics, using appropriate style.

Can select appropriate words and expressions to accomplish the task at hand.

Can express him/herself with ease using both short and longer utterances spontaneously. Only a conceptually challenging topic can hinder a natural, smooth flow of language.

Consistently maintains a high degree of grammatical accuracy.

Some errors may occur in complex structures, but do not impede communication.

Takes the initiative and contributes to the development of complex topics.

Can understand the interlocutor, though may seek occasional clarification.

Can produce smooth flowing, well-structured speech with logical sequencing of ideas, through a controlled use of organizational patterns, connectors and cohesive devices.

1(Below level)

Has a sufficient range of language to produce clear descriptions and express opinions on familiar topics.

Obvious word searching on complex topics.

Can produce both short and longer utterances almost effortlessly on familiar topics, but encounters difficulty when dealing with complex topics.

Shows relatively high degree of grammatical control.

Errors do occur in both simple and complex structures, but do not impede communication

Takes the initiative and contributes to the development of familiar topics, but has difficulty developing abstract topics.

Can follow speech on familiar topics, but has difficulty following interlocutor on unfamiliar & complex topics.

Can produce clear, coherent discourse by using simple cohesive devices, though there may be some “jumpiness” in a long contribution.


ADVANCED LEVEL CERTIFICATE IN ENGLISHSPEAKING TEST

________________________ ____________________ ____________________ Last Name Father’s Name First Name

Phone: ________________

Address: __________________________________________________________________

Birthdate: _________________

Candidate’s Code: ____________

I certify that the name typed above is correct in all respects Candidate’s signature: ________________and exactly as I wish it to appear on the certificate. I give my permission to the Hellenic American University and the Hellenic American Union to use my test papers and to record my speaking test on any media for research and training purposes. I understand that my name will

not be revealed. Candidate’s signature: ________________

TO BE COMPLETED BY THE ORAL EXAMINER

Rating: Blacken one of the scores for each descriptor.Range of Language

Fluency Accuracy Interaction Coherence

3 = above level2 = at level1 = below level

①②③ ①②③ ①②③ ①②③ ①②③

A score of “9” and above is considered a pass for this section.

Candidates receiving a score of “1” for more than one descriptor cannot receive a passing grade for the speaking test.

Prompt A B C D E F G H I J Rater Code:__________

Comments on irregularities:

_____________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

Examiner: Date of Speaking Test:

Examination Center:

Testing Division: Center for Applied Linguistics and Language Studies, Hellenic American Union


EXAMINATION RESULTS

Examination results are issued within three months of the examination date. These results are sent directly to language schools or individuals according to preference. Results are also posted on the Hellenic American Union website at www.hau.gr and can be accessed using the candidate’s registration number.

Candidates receive a pass/fail grade on their overall performance, as well as individual pass/fail grades for each section of the examination. Numerical grades are not given. Successful candidates are awarded a certificate which is sent after the results are announced.

SECURITY

Every precaution is taken to ensure the security of the ALCE examination.

Candidates’ scores may be invalidated under the following circumstances:

- where the candidate’s appearance or signature does not match that on their identification- where there is evidence of misconduct on the part of the candidate during the administration

of the ALCE examination. This includes, but is not limited to, copying answers from other candidates, talking to other candidates, referring to previously prepared notes or materials, unauthorized removal of examination material from the examination center, or creating a disturbance.

TEST TAKERS WITH DISABILITIES

The ALCE examination is fully accessible to candidates with disabilities. To this end, special accommodations can be requested by such candidates in order to facilitate fair and equitable test taking conditions.

Documentation from a licensed or certified professional in the relevant field concerning a candidate’s special needs should be submitted to the examination administration during the registration process.

ADMINISTRATION & TEST CENTERS

The ALCE examination is administered twice a year, in January and June. Registration dates are announced to schools and the public, and registration takes place up to two months before the examination date. Under exceptional circumstances, late applications for registration may be accepted.

New centers are added according to demand. Current centers in Greece are as follows:Agrinio, Alexandroupoli, Arta, Athina, Drama, Edessa, Grevena, Halkida, Hania, Hios, Ioannina, Iraklio, Kalambaka, Kalamata, Karditsa, Kastoria, Kavala, Kerkira, Korinthos, Kosazi, Lamia, Larissa, Nafplio, Patra, Ptolemaiida, Rodos, Serres, Sparti, Thessaloniki, Tripoli, Veria, Volos.


FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

How often can I take the ALCE?You can take the ALCE each time it is offered. The examination is offered twice a year in January and June.

Should I use a pen or pencil during the examination?You should use a pencil ONLY during the Listening and GVR sections of the examination. A pencil or pen can be used for the Writing section, according to preference.

Can I use a dictionary during the examination?No, no aids of any sort may be used during the examination.

Can I write in the test booklet?You can make notes and underline key part of the texts in order to help you answer the questions. However, you should NOT record your answers in the test booklet. All answers must be written on the Answer Sheet ONLY.

If I don’t know the answer to a question, should I leave it blank?No, you will not lose marks for any incorrect answers. If you are not sure of your answer, you should try to make your best guess.

What happens if I mark more than one answer on the Answer Sheet?Your answer will be automatically marked wrong, even if one of the choices was correct.

Do I have to use American English for the examination?No, English is a global language, used by native speakers and non-native speakers alike. All forms of Standard English are acceptable, but candidates are expected to be consistent in the use of their preferred form.

How long does it take to receive the results?Results are issued within three months of the test administration. These are sent by post, as well as being available through the website of the Hellenic American Union www.hau.gr using your registration number.

How does the ALCE relate to the Common European Framework?The content and difficulty of the ALCE relates to the C1 level of the CEF.

Where can I get more information about the ALCE?Information is available on the website of the Hellenic American Union at www.hau.gr including updates on examination dates and content.


DESCRIPTION OF EACH SECTION OF THE ALCE EXAMINATION

LISTENING SECTION

The listening section of the examination is designed to test the candidates’ ability to comprehend spoken English at the C1 level of the Common European Framework for Languages. In total, the listening test comprises forty items and is divided into four parts, each with a different focus. The items test the candidates’ familiarity with the sub-skills of listening appropriate for this level, such as listening for specific information, drawing inferences and being able to extract salient points from a presentation on an unfamiliar topic. Candidates are expected to have considerable vocabulary resources and knowledge of discourse features in order to be able to follow spoken text in both formal and semi-formal contexts.

In the test, male and female speakers are used as their voices have different inflectional and tonal qualities. Pauses between each item have been carefully timed to allow candidates to reflect on their choice of answer to a previous item and then study the answer choices for the next item. For the first three parts of the test, the questions are written in the candidates’ test booklet in order to grade the difficulty of the task and to guide the candidates’ listening. In the fourth part, the questions are not written, as the task is to identify the main points of an extended text. For each item of the listening test, three possible answer choices are provided. Fewer would increase the possibility of guesswork playing a role in scoring, while more would place too great a processing burden on the candidate while listening. There is only one possible correct answer for each item.

The Listening Section of the ALCE relates to the following ‘can do’ statements of the Common European Framework:

• Can recognize a wide range of idiomatic expressions and colloquialisms, appreciating register shifts.

• Can follow most lectures, discussions and debates with relative ease.• Can understand a wide range of recorded and broadcast audio material and identify finer points

of detail including implicit attitudes.• Can easily understand interactions between third parties in group discussions and debate, even

on abstract, complex unfamiliar topics.

PART 1

Aim: this section tests the candidates’ ability to use their understanding of the gist and specific information from a spoken text in order to identify the significance of a visual stimulus intended for reinforcement or clarification.

Format: the candidates listen to short extracts from ten conversations between two speakers taken from an educational or occupational domain and hear a question about what was said immediately after each extract. The question is also written in the test booklet. They choose the appropriate answer choice from three possible pictured answer choices. The visuals may comprise charts, diagrams, maps, slides from a presentation, or symbols. A pause of twelve seconds is allowed between each item.


Example:

The following is from a presentation given by two people.

Woman: Global population has doubled to 6 billion people since 1960 and global food produc-tion has kept up with this increase. The proportion of malnourished people has fallen in the last three decades from 37% to 18%.

Man: But we may not be able to go on at this rate. For a start, much of the world’s best cro-pland is already in use, and soil deterioration has already reduced global agricultural productivity by 13% in the last half-century.

Woman: This means that governments need to take action immediately.

Question: Which slide are they showing?

Rationale: the use of short exchanges provides candidates with sufficient context in order to identify the appropriate visual. The task reflects authentic listening situations, such as viewing a current affairs program on television or attending a presentation, whereby a visual shown for reinforcement or clarification is accompanied by a voice-over. In these contexts, the listener is expected to understand what is heard in relation to the visual used. Candidates at C1 level are expected to have some familiarity with the interpretation of common graphs and diagrams, such as bar charts or pie charts, since these play a frequent role in both the educational and occupational domains. As appropriate for a C1 level examination, the language used is formal or academic, or may be semi-formal containing some high-level colloquial use of language.

PART 2

Aim: this section tests the candidates’ ability to understand stated or implied information in a semi-formal spoken text which contains high-level colloquialisms.

Format: the candidates listen to short extracts from ten conversations between two speakers from educational, occupational and public domains and hear a question about what was stated or implied immediately after each extract. The question is also written in their test booklet. The answer choices comprise short phrases or sentences. A pause of nine seconds is allowed between each item.

FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT

AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTIVITY

FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT


FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT



Example:

The following is a conversation between two journalists.

Man: These new measures for installing speed cameras along the highway will really reduce the fatality rate.

Woman: I’m sure they were crunching numbers and realized that steep fines will generate more revenue.

Man: You’ve seen the figures. These contributions will just be a drop in the ocean. They need much more to handle the deficit.

Question: What does the woman imply about the new traffic measures?

A. The fines are too heavy.B. The government will make money. C. There will be fewer accidents.

Rationale: the use of short exchanges provides sufficient context for the candidates to choose the appropriate answer choice. In authentic semi-formal and even formal contexts, high-level colloquial language is frequently used by international and native speakers of English. This part of the test is designed to test candidates on their understanding of language they are likely to meet in the occupational domain, such as a meeting, the educational domain, such as a presentation, and the public domain, such as understanding a political speech. The understanding of spoken colloquial language is included in the specifications of the CEF at C1 level.

PART 3

Aim: this section tests the candidates’ ability to use their understanding of specific information and recognition of the opinions of the speakers in order to choose the correct answer choice.

Format: the candidates listen to an extended extract from a dialogue between two speakers in the form of an interview on a social, academic or scientific issue. The extract is broken up into five parts, each of which is followed by two questions relating to specific information included in the extract, giving ten questions in all. The questions are also written in their test booklet.

Example:

W: Thank you, Professor. Well, for our next guest, I’d like to welcome Mr. James Martin, a consumer analyst. Good morning Mr. Martin, it’s a pleasure having you with us on our program.

M: Yes, good morning Ms. Wilson, and good morning to all the listeners. I’d like to thank your station for inviting me here. You know, it’s not often that people like you, I mean, television or radio stations, invite speakers like me to talk on consumerism, for fear of upsetting advertisers.

Example: Who does the man say may be offended by a talk on consumerism?

A. advertisersB. TV and Radio stationsC. the radio presenter


Rationale: an extended extract provides the candidates with sufficient context to choose the appropriate answer choice. The task is designed to reflect an authentic purpose in listening, which is to extract specific information from a spoken text. Since the text is based on an interview situation, the speakers are less able to predict what they will hear. As would be common in a live interview, the text candidates hear may include features of conversational spoken English, such as hesitations, repetitions, self-corrections, reformulations, stumbling over words, etc. The text is also more disjointed as a clear agenda for what will be said by the interviewee would not have been worked out in advance in an authentic situation. This contrasts with the more fluid speech of a well rehearsed presentation (see Part 4). Candidates must be able to comprehend key information despite these difficulties, as expected at C1 level.

PART 4

Aim: this section tests the candidates’ ability to use their understanding of the salient points of an extended text in order to choose the correct answer choice.

Format: the candidates listen to an extended talk of a factual nature in two parts and hear five questions about what was said after each part, giving a total of ten questions.

Example:

Good morning and welcome. It’s a great pleasure to be speaking here today and I’m very pleased that so many people are taking an interest in environmental issues. My particular area of interest is natural gas, otherwise known as methane or CH4. I’m sure that all of you are aware of the adverse effects of methane on the environment, but I’d like to tell you about how, in fact, natural gas could be the solution to our environmental problems.

What will the man speak about?

A. the dangers of natural gasB. the benefits of methaneC. the problems concerning CH4

Rationale: the use of longer stretches of spoken text tests the candidates’ ability to extract important information with relative ease from a presentation or speech on an abstract and unfamiliar topic, as appropriate for C1 level. This task reflects authentic listening, as listening to a presentation and noting down key points is commonplace in the educational domain. Because a presentation or speech is usually based on written prompts and is often pre-rehearsed, the delivery is likely to be smooth and form a coherent and cohesive spoken text.

GRAMMAR SECTION

This section tests the candidates’ grammatical competence by requiring them to recognize and choose the grammatical structure that best completes sentences of different register and genre. Many of the correct answer choices are context specific in terms of form, meaning, and function.

The Grammar Section of the ALCE relates to the following ‘can do’ statement of the Common European Framework:

• Consistently maintains a high degree of grammatical accuracy; errors are rare and difficult to spot.


Aim: the Grammar Section assesses the knowledge of and ability of the candidates to use the grammatical resources of the English language.

Format: this section consists of 40 multiple-choice items with four answer choices each. Candidates are required to choose the answer that best completes the sentence.

Examples:

Thousands of lives could be saved Our projects are funded through theif the Government introduced tighter Private Finance Initiative, the costscontrols ________ diesel fuel. ________ spread over ten years.

A. by using A. areB. on the use of B. beingC. to use C. have beenD. using D. will be

Rationale: the grammar of a language may be seen as the set of principles governing the assembly of elements into meaningful sentences. Candidates at C1 level should be able to consistently maintain a high degree of grammatical accuracy. They should also be able to understand and express meaning by not only producing but also recognizing well-formed phrases and sentences in accordance with these principles. Thus, the assessment of their grammatical competence can be successfully achieved through a number of discrete multiple-choice items that come from a variety of domains (occupational, and educational). Multiple-choice testing provides for objectivity, since there is only one correct answer, high reliability, and the opportunity to test on more topic areas than can be achieved otherwise.

VOCABULARY SECTION

The vocabulary section consists of 40 multiple-choice questions testing advanced vocabulary.

The Vocabulary Section of the ALCE relates to the following statements of the Pilot Manual for the Common European Framework:

• Has a good command of a broad lexical repertoire.• Can recognize a wide range of idiomatic expressions and colloquialisms, appreciating register

shifts.

Aim: the vocabulary section assesses the candidates’ knowledge of advanced vocabulary, ranging from collocations, idiomatic expressions, metaphors, word grammar, compound words, etc., to topic-related vocabulary and context specific vocabulary of the English language in order to formulate well-formed and meaningful messages.

Format: this section consists of 40 multiple-choice questions with four answer choices testing advanced vocabulary. Candidates are required to choose the answer that best completes the sentence.


Examples:

Patients taking medication over a long Courage is the ability to ________period are advised to consult their fear in the face of danger.physician at frequent _____.

A. interludes A. arouseB. intersections B. confrontC. intervals C. instillD. intermissions D. suffer

Rationale: C1 level candidates should not only have a good command of a broad lexical repertoire but also demonstrate their degree of lexical competence – knowledge of, and ability to use, the vocabulary of a language. Although the vocabulary of a language can be tested through reading or listening, it is important that it is also tested discretely, since the assessment of the candidates’ lexical competence can be achieved through a number of items that cover a variety of domains (occupational, and educational) and also cater for register shifts. Tests made up of multiple-choice questions can provide a better coverage of content than essay-type questions, thus broadening the scope of the test. Assessing candidates through multiple-choice questions can be both accurate and objective, since there is only one correct answer. In multiple-choice question testing, there are no opportunities for the candidate to avoid complexities and concentrate on the superficial aspects of the topic, as is often encountered in essay-type questions. Such testing is also ideal for second-language learners as the misreading of a question stem or an alternative may result in the loss of a few marks only; conversely, the misreading of an essay-type question can cause the student to lose an inordinate number of marks.

READING SECTION

The purpose of the reading section is to assess whether the candidate can understand lengthy, complex texts in detail. The genres of these texts vary for the three parts, comprising an in-depth review, a factual scientific text, and a discussion or report on a social issue. The candidates read the three different texts and answer 20 multiple-choice questions, consisting of a range of different item types, in order to provide evidence of the extent of their reading skills. The candidates should have the necessary linguistic knowledge to understand complex texts and be able to use context, vocabulary, grammar and syntax to infer meanings that are unstated but implied, be able to understand attitude, tone and intentions.

The Reading Section of the ALCE relates to the following ‘can do’ statement of the Common European Framework:

• Can understand in detail a wide range of lengthy, complex texts likely to be encountered in social, professional or academic life, identifying finer points of detail including attitudes and implied as well as stated opinions.

PART 1

Aim: this section tests detailed understanding of a text at sentence and discourse level, and ability to understand conflicting opinions, as well as inferences and vocabulary in context.

Format: 1 text of approximately 550 words, comprising a review of a book, play, etc, followed by 6-8 multiple-choice questions.


Example:

Like the trail of the Black Death itself, Kelly’s prose moves with lightening speed, leaping around the medieval map, painting the chain of outbreaks of the disease with a penetrating, modern eye for the stupidities and cruelties of the time. The book is often as stimulating as a first-class TV drama-documentary. Yet the urbane, science-thriller-ish style persists in keeping us focused - restlessly, emotionally - on the foreground. Although the detail of what happened is authoritative and explained with clarity, we don’t go much beyond this to the question which hangs over the subject and which should pull its many aspects into a more profound coherence: what imprint did the disaster leave on the human mind?

What is the reviewer’s opinion of the book?A. It is very perceptive.B. It is too shallow.C. It is not scientific enough.D. It has not been well written.

Rationale: in reading an authentic text for detail, the candidates are tested on a variety of reading sub-skills. Ascertaining the main idea of the text is tested through questions related, for example, to the purpose of the text or to its title. Candidates are expected to be able to scan in order to find relevant information related to the question efficiently, and be able to discern conflicting opinions, as well as tone and attitude. Questions on the text are also designed to test advanced-level vocabulary skills and the ability to determine meaning from context, as well as make inferences.

PART 2

Aim: this section tests detailed understanding of text at sentence and discourse level, and ability to understand logical progression, e.g. cause & effect, as well as vocabulary in context.

Format: 1 text of approximately 550 words, comprising a factual, scientific text, followed by 6-8 multiple-choice questions.

Example:

Contrary to received opinion, preliminary studies in the US are revealing that women are not overwhelmed by the antics of dare-devil men. In surveys, men state their conviction that the opposite sex would be attracted by hazardous activities, such as bungee jumping and fast driving. They appear to expect that such activities underline their vitality and indeed their virility. Yet the survey found that women view these antics unfavorably, claiming they preferred more sedentary partners.

However, the team of researchers discovered that those who take risks for the thrill of it are likely to be held in high regard by their peers. This has a distinct impact, since the same studies reveal that women are attracted to men with high status. If risk-taking means a man is highly acclaimed by his friends, he could then become appealing to potential partners.

What does the research suggest can make men attractive to women?A. engaging in extreme sportsB. the opinion of other menC. men’s virilityD. the attitude of other women


Rationale: candidates are tested on a variety of reading skills, including understanding the text as a whole and reading for detail. In a scientific text which examines a number of arguments and counter arguments, each backed by supporting evidence, candidates are required to be able to follow the logical progression of such arguments, such as cause and effect. The ability to determine the meaning of unknown lexical items from context is also tested. This type of text is usually found in scientific journals or newspapers.

PART 3

Aim: this section tests detailed understanding of a text at sentence and discourse level, and the ability to understand multifaceted arguments, as well as vocabulary in context.

Format: 1 text comprising an opinionated article from a newspaper or periodical of approximately 550 words, followed by 6-8 multiple-choice questions.

Example:

Gone are the days when toddlers stayed at home to hang around with mum. Now they have a busy schedule to attend to. Strapped to the back seat of a car, babies as young as 12 months are whizzed through traffic and dragged in and out of classes that claim they can do anything: from “instilling in children a healthy lifestyle” to “boosting their confidence”. Affluent parents are flocking to these ‘educational’ classes, all designed to get their children ready for the outside world by the age of three. The life of the average toddler with parents who have disposable income is quite packed.

According to the article, which parents enroll their children in toddlers’ classes? Parents who are…

A. wealthy.B. competitive.C. busy.D. educated.

Of course, any parent who enrolls his or her child in this new breed of schools will tell you that this point of view is ludicrous beyond belief. These parents say that, on the contrary, they do not regard their children as an empty vessel to be filled with information designed to make them more effective competitors. Their greatest ambition for their toddlers is for them to have fun. They claim that the classes enhance the children’s social and cognitive development and that the children enjoy them.

What do parents say about the reasons they take their children to toddlers’ schools? They want them to be…

A. good professionals in later life.B. prepared to survive in a very competitive world.C. more intelligent.D. entertained.

Rationale: The candidates are tested on their ability to discern opinion whether stated or implied. They must be able to make logical inferences and recognize attitude, purpose and style. In order to answer inference questions, the candidates may have to put together information that is mentioned in


different parts of the text, or not explicitly stated. Evaluation questions demand advanced skills, since candidates are asked to analyze the presumed intentions of the writer. In a text on social issues, there are often many sides to an issue. Candidates are tested on their ability to separate the various opinions forwarded, as well as being able to establish the meaning of unknown lexical items from context.

WRITING SECTION

The Writing Section of the ALCE relates to the following ‘can do’ statement of the Common European Framework:

• Can write clear, well-structured expositions of complex subjects, underlining the relevant salient issues. Can expand and support points of view at some length with subsidiary points, reasons and relevant examples.

Aim: the writing section of the ALCE tests candidates on the production of highly advanced and sophisticated writing. Candidates should produce texts which are not only well organized and fully developed, but which also demonstrate a solid grasp of complex sentence structure and the ability to employ a wide range of topic-related vocabulary appropriately and effectively. The candidates are expected to have developed a high level of fluency and accuracy at this level.

Format: candidates chose one from a choice of two possible tasks. The first task is an argumentative essay, in which the candidate argues a case based on prompts provided. The second is a formal report, whereby the information to be included by the candidates is given in the form of informal notes. The candidates have thirty minutes to complete their chosen task and should write approximately 250 words.

Examples:

TASK A: ESSAY

Many parents in several European countries, the United States, and Canada send their children to boarding schools, many of which are single-sex, where they receive their elementary and/or high school education while living in residence halls on the school premises during the academic year. What is your opinion of this type of schooling?

Elaborate on the following points:

PROS

• opportunity to study - distractions • save time – no commuting • children – more independent • children – socialize with peers

CONS

• family – homesickness• attitude – snobbishness, arrogance• limited contact – opposite sex, adults• alienation – family life, local community


TASK B: REPORT

You are the manager of a large hotel which often hosts important international conferences, generating substantial revenue. However, you are aware that there have been a number of complaints recently and you have compiled these into a short list and then added some ideas for what you might recommend.

Write a formal report for your company outlining the shortcomings of the existing facilities and propose recommendations for future improvements, based on your personal notes below:

COMPLAINTS RECEIVED RECOMMENDATIONS

• conference rooms: small• equipment : need projectors,

laptops, Internet access, photocopying facilities

• restaurant & cafeteria: limited menu, impolite staff, needs redecorating

• local information for guests: nothing available

• building annex – possible but real expensive. Maybe not too big. Will need to compromise on something else

• new equipment – within reason• new buffet lounge – no, can’t do everything. Do

something about impoliteness – maybe seminars • information point for tourists – why not? Decide

where to put it• price of rooms – don’t increase, think of competition • price of conferences – higher, as we’re spending a lot

of money

Rationale: the time limit of thirty minutes which is allowed for the writing task is designed to test the candidates’ writing fluency when producing a coherent and cohesive text at a high level. The provision of prompts grades the task for the level, focusing on ability in writing, rather than the ability to form ideas. The wording of the prompts is designed to prevent candidates from copying them in their entirety, as examinees are expected to expand on the information and to use their own phrasing. The task also tests the candidates’ use of appropriate register and style, particularly Task B, the report, where the information from informal notes needs to be incorporated into a formal text.

The topics set in the ALCE require complex abstract thinking, as is appropriate for C1 level. In their writing, candidates are expected to show appropriate sentence structure and advanced-level grammar consistent with formal writing, such as subordinate clauses, passive forms, inverted forms, and cleft structures, as well as lexical items appropriate to academic or formal writing.

In the first task, the topic prompts aim to relate the discussion of a social issue to one particular case or example. This tests the candidates’ ability to argue a case in formal written English, including their ability to produce a cohesive and coherent text which is well organized.

In the second task, the candidates are presented with a series of problems and possible recommendations from which to prepare a report. The candidates are tested on their ability to express themselves in a concise manner, showing good control of organization and appreciation of appropriate register and style. The latter is particularly important, as the prompts are presented in an informal register and need to be reworked in order to be expressed in a format suitable for a formal report.


SPEAKING SECTION

The ALCE Speaking Test comprises a one-on-one interview based on questions supported by prompts. Candidates are tested on their oral expression in the personal, educational, professional, or public domains. Because the candidates come from different age groups and educational backgrounds, particular care is taken to avoid test bias. This is provided for by selecting speaking topics that are sophisticated enough for advanced level candidates, but which do not require expertise in the field.

The Speaking Section of the ALCE relates to the following ‘can do’ statements of the Common European Framework:

• Can give clear, detailed descriptions of complex subjects.• Can qualify opinions and statements precisely in relation to degrees of, for example, certainty/

uncertainty, belief/doubt, likelihood, etc.• Can argue a formal position convincingly, responding to questions and comments and answering

complex lines of counter arguments, spontaneously and appropriately.

Aim: the candidates are tested on their ability to interact orally with fluency, accuracy and coherence, demonstrating a range of language resources appropriate for the context.

Format: the ALCE Speaking Test lasts approximately 11-13 minutes and is divided into four parts. Part 1 is a warm up, while Parts 2, 3 and 4 focus on different aspects of the same topic. Prompts in the form of short phrases are provided for the questions in Parts 2, 3 and 4. All the questions, prompts and the text providing background to the topic are written on the test material that the candidates receive.

The first part of the Speaking Test lasts approximately 1 minute. The candidates are asked several non-sensitive personal questions about their studies, work and hobbies.

Part 2 lasts approximately 2.5 minutes, and the task is based on a picture and a text related to it. The candidates look at the picture, read the text, consider the prompts provided and prepare a response to one question. Part 3 of the Speaking Test lasts approximately four minutes. The examiner chooses from a range of six questions that focus on different aspects of the topic introduced in Part 2. For each question there are prompts which the candidates can develop. Part 4 of the Speaking Test lasts approximately 3.5 minutes, and it is a role play. The candidates are given time to read both sides of a controversial issue and to look at the two sets of prompts provided, each supporting a different point of view. Then, they prepare a convincing argument in support of one of the points of view.

Example:

TASK 2

“Today belongs to all of you who are graduating. And I would like to ask you to remember that the degree you’ve just received represents more than academic attainment. It signifies that you are a persistent person, and that you can achieve whatever goals you set for yourself for the rest of your life.”


Can academic achievement and persistence ensure professional success?

Consider the following points.• how qualifications relate to employment prospects• what expectations an employee/employer has• what professional success means

TASK 3

1. What factors affect career choices?Needs of the labor marketEarning potential and job securityPersonality

2. How have technological innovations changed the job market?Need for more skillsNew employment opportunitiesGreater access to information/training

TASK 4

Issue: high technology has not only had an impact on career choices, but it has also brought about telecommuting, a new way of conducting business from home. Some people approve of this work arrangement and focus on its presumed benefits, while others are skeptical and argue that despite some drawbacks the traditional work environment is preferable.

FOR:Telecommuting

• Flexibility of hours• More autonomy• Convenience of home• Fairer to mothers & people with disabilities

FOR:Traditional work environments

• Easier to concentrate on work• Better interaction with colleagues/employer• Separation of home/work life• Better resources/equipment

Rationale: the examinees are tested on their ability to use language effectively in order to provide reasons and relevant examples to support a point of view related to an issue of public interest. At C1 level, candidates are expected to be able to produce longer turns in spoken interaction. This enables them to demonstrate their ability to express themselves in a coherent and cohesive manner, for example in order to argue a case convincingly or to give an opinion. Longer turns also allow for better assessment of the candidates’ language resources, as they are more challenging. Although short turns are expected in Part 1, as this is a warm-up aimed at alleviating the examinees’ anxiety rather than at assessing their linguistic ability, the remaining three parts are designed to encourage the candidates to speak at greater length. The use of prompts in these parts assists the candidates by providing points suitable for interaction at C1 level on which the candidates can elaborate. The provision of written questions for the candidates also ensures uniformity of questioning in order to maintain the highest level of standardization possible.


In Part 2, the picture and the text provided activate the candidates’ schemata, while the question and prompts help the candidates to speculate about one aspect of the topic. Part 3 examines further aspects of the same topic, again with written questions and prompts, but in this section, the candidates are expected to interact more spontaneously and to respond within the time constraints of real-life interaction. Part 4 is designed to require minimum input on the part of the examiner, as the candidates use the prompts to support their chosen point of view, as well as the opposing prompts to refute the opposing view or to strengthen their own argument.


SAMPLE TEST ITEMS


LISTENING TAPESCRIPT

The listening section of the test (items 1-40) is divided into four parts. Instructions and examples are provided at the beginning of each part. All conversations and questions will be heard only once.

LISTENING - PART 1:

In this part of the test (items 1-10), you will hear ten conversations between a man and a woman. At the end of each conversation, a third person will ask a question about what was said. The question is written in your test booklet. For each question, there are three answer choices A, B, or C in the form of visuals. Study the visuals carefully before listening to each listening item. Then choose the visual which answers best the question asked. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle.

Example: You hear:


Woman: Global population has doubled to 6 billion people since 1960 and global food production has kept up with this increase. The proportion of malnourished people has fallen in the last three decades from 37% to 18%.

Man: But we may not be able to go on at this rate. For a start, much of the world’s best cropland is already in use, and soil deterioration has already reduced global agricultural productivity by 13% in the last half-century.

Woman: This means that governments need to take action immediately.Question: Which slide are they showing?

The correct answer to the question is Picture B.

Are there any questions before we begin? Now we will start Part 1 of the Listening Test.

Number 1. The following conversation takes place in an office.

Woman: Let me show you the graph with this quarter’s sales figures.Man: Which one? Ah, this one. It seems sales rose drastically the first month. That’s good. But

I can see they fluctuated in the last one, having leveled out during the second. Now it looks like they’re standing at 100,000 units.

Woman: Yes. We’ll need to call a meeting with the other directors.Question: Which graph shows this quarter’s sales figures?

Number 2. The following is a conversation between two managers.

Man: Have you looked at the designs for the company logo from the graphics department? I like the one with the concentric circles. It seems to say we aim for a target.

Woman: I’m not so sure. I’m all for the one that looks like wheels. It means we’re going somewhere. Man: I suppose it’s alright. I’m not keen on this one, though. It looks like we’re carrying

weights. Question: Which design does the man prefer?


Number 3. The following is an interview between an official of the World Food Foundation and a journalist.

Man: Well, the WFF started providing food to schools in 1999 and the free meals have attracted children who previously had had to go out to work. Since then enrollment in schools across the nation has doubled.

Woman: So how has this affected standards?Man: Well, the influx of students has also been accompanied by a rise in the students’ Grade

Point Average. You know, their GPA.Question: Which one of the following graphs best describes the schools?

LISTENING – PART 2

In this part of the listening test (items 11 – 20), you will hear 10 conversations between a man and a woman. After each conversation, you will hear a question about what was stated or implied in each conversation. The questions are written in your test booklet. For each question there are three answer choices A, B, or C. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle.

Now listen to an example:

You hear:

The following is a conversation between two colleagues.

Man: Oh come on! Is this why you aren’t on speaking terms anymore? Woman: I could’ve put up with anything else, but when he pulled strings and got the position I

had applied for and– well, that was the last straw. Man: No way! He couldn’t have done that! Question: Why is the woman upset?

The correct answer to the question is C.


Number 11. The following is a conversation between two journalists.

Man: Yeah, installing speed cameras along the highway will REALLY reduce the fatality rate. Woman: I’m sure they were crunching numbers and realized that steep fines will generate more

revenue.Man: Oh…come off it! These contributions will just be a drop in the ocean. They need much

more to handle the deficit.Question: What does the woman imply about the new traffic measures?

Number 12. The following is a conversation between a salesperson and a client.

Woman: Oh…I don’t know…. It’s not a lot of money but everything is so expensive these days. Man: Listen. The subscription to this magazine is expensive, but you don’t have to give all the


money up front. It’s really too good an opportunity to miss. Woman: Yeah, I know, but I’d rather sleep on it. Question: Why doesn’t the woman subscribe to the magazine?

LISTENING - PART 3:

In this part of the listening test (items 21 – 30), you will hear a radio interview about how you can protect yourself from the various strategies used in the field of advertising. The interview is broken up into five parts. Each part is followed by two multiple-choice questions, which are also written in your test booklet. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle A, B, or C.

Now listen to the beginning of the interview followed by an example.

W: Thank you, Professor. Well, for our next guest, I’d like to welcome Mr. James Martin, a consumer analyst. Good morning Mr. Martin, it’s a pleasure having you with us on our program.

M: Yes, good morning Ms. Wilson, and good morning to all the listeners. I’d like to thank your station for inviting me here. You know, it’s not often that people like you, I mean, television or radio stations, invite speakers like me to talk on consumerism, for fear of upsetting advertisers.


The correct answer to the question is A.

Now we will continue the interview. Are there any questions before we begin?

Now, let’s continue. Listen carefully to the interview.

W: Upsetting advertisers? Could you explain that to us? M: Of course. Well, advertising is one of the factors behind the spread of consumerism. For example,

it focuses on creating fears, such as having body odor, and then promotes products to solve such problems. Consumers, however, rarely stop and think about this advertising strategy, whereby a need for a product is artificially created. We constantly need to inform the public about the dangers of manipulation and consequently help consumers become much more alert to what is going on.

W: Yes, but what about consumerism in the past? I mean it’s likely to be a more recent development.

M: Only aristocrats in earlier societies would have had the economic power to adopt such behavior, consumerist, if you like. Most people in the past would only barter goods according to their needs. So when people had a surplus of one product, they would barter it with someone else’s. This is especially true in societies without widely-circulated coinage, such as those of the Native Americans.

Number 21. According to the speaker, what should consumers be aware of?

Number 22. What do we learn about consumerism in past societies?


W: But let’s come back to our modern society; how is it all that different from that of the past?M: First of all, we no longer barter goods; we buy them. Our society has found ways to make

consumers buy things, even when they don’t have the money. W: How does that work?M: Well, consumerism thrives on the idea that deficit behavior is deeply rooted in people. For

example, we eat much more than we should, in case we get hungry later. This behavior is repeated again and again. That’s one of the reasons why the number of unhealthily overweight people has increased, nowadays. What’s more, in terms of consumerism, luxuries have become needs and the goods we possess no longer satisfy us.

W: I see. I was reading your article the other day on Reactive and Proactive Consumerism. Would you care to explain these terms to our listeners?

M: I am glad you brought this up. Well, Reactive Consumerism waits for public demand for a product to be released into the market, no matter how absurd this demand is. While Proactive Consumerism uses advertising to create a need, and therefore, a market, as in the case of the body odor mentioned earlier. For that reason, Proactive Consumerism exists in times of surplus only. In both cases, however, marketing plays a major role in the promotion of commodities.

Number 23 How does deficit behavior relate to consumerism, according to the speaker?

Number 24 Why is the example of body odor mentioned?

LISTENING – PART 4:

In this part of the listening test (items 31-40), you will hear a talk in two parts on “Natural Gas and its Uses” at an environmental information day event. Each part is followed by five questions. The questions are not written in your test booklet. For each question there are three answer choices A, B, or C. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle. If you wish, you may take notes in the space provided below.

Now listen to the beginning of the talk followed by an example.

Example: You hear:

Good morning and welcome. It’s a great pleasure to be speaking here in Athens today and I’m very pleased that so many people are taking an interest in environmental issues. My particular area of interest is natural gas, otherwise known as methane or CH4. I’m sure that all of you are aware of the adverse effects of methane on the environment, but I’d like to tell you about how, in fact, natural gas could be the solution to our environmental problems.

What will the man speak about?

The correct answer to the question is B.

Now we will continue the talk. Are there any questions before we begin? Now, let’s continue. Listen carefully to the talk. You may take notes.

Natural gas is usually found together with oil deposits. Once it’s been brought to the surface, it’s refined to remove impurities like water, other gases, sand, and other compounds. After it’s been refined, the


clean natural gas is pumped through a network of thousands of miles of pipelines. From these pipelines, it is then delivered to its point of use.

Now, natural gas in itself is colorless and odorless in its pure form. It is combustible, and when burned, it gives off a great deal of energy, making it one of the cleanest and most useful of all energy sources. And above all, despite the numerous scare stories about it, it is actually one of the safest fuels. Because of this, natural gas is a vital component of the world’s supply of energy.

The word ‘gas’ itself implies that a substance can have a variety of different uses, and meanings. For example, when we fuel our car, we put ‘gas’ in it, but that gasoline is very different from natural gas, although it is still a fossil fuel. The ‘gas’ in the common barbecue is actually propane, and not a natural gas at all. So, although natural gas is a gas commonly grouped in with other fossil fuels and sources of energy, it actually has many characteristics that distinguish it from the others, making it in fact unique.

Natural gas has been used for hundreds of years. The Chinese discovered a very long time ago that they could use its energy to heat water. In the early days of its use in the West, it was mainly used to light streetlamps. However, these days, natural gas is being used in ways never thought possible before. In fact, there are so many different applications for this fossil fuel that it is hard to provide an exhaustive list of everything it is used for. And, there’s no doubt, that new uses are being discovered as I speak.

It’s no coincidence that in the United States 24 percent of the total energy consumed is provided by natural gas. The industrial sector accounts for the greatest proportion of natural gas use, with the residential sector accounting for the second. Methane is one of the cheapest forms of energy available to the residential consumer. For example, it costs you 30 percent less to heat up your houses than if you use electricity or oil. Have you ever thought of how much you spend on heating up water? Well, a natural gas water heater could heat two bathtubs full of water for the same cost as it’d take an electric water heater to heat only one.

Number 31. According to the speaker, what is natural gas in its original state?

Number 32. Why is natural gas an important energy resource?

Number 33. What does the speaker say the word ‘gas’ is used for?

Number 34. What does the speaker suggest about the use of natural gas today?

Number 35. What is natural gas most used for in the United States?


Test Booklet - Sample items

LISTENING

The listening section of the test (items 1-40) is divided into four parts. Instructions and examples are provided at the beginning of each part. All conversations and questions will be heard only once.

LISTENING - PART 1:

In this part of the test (items 1-10), you will hear ten conversations between a man and a woman. At the end of each conversation, a third person will ask a question about what was said. The question is written in your test booklet. For each question, there are three answer choices A, B, or C in the form of visuals. Study the visuals carefully before listening to each listening item. Then choose the visual which answers best the question asked. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle.

Example: You hear:


Question: Which slide are they showing?

The correct answer to the question is Picture B.


1. The following conversation takes place in an office.

Question: Which graph shows this quarter’s sales figures?

FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT


FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT


FOOD

MALNOURISHEMENT



2. The following is a conversation between two managers.

Question: Which design does the man prefer?

3. The following is an interview between an official of the World Food Foundation and a journal-ist.

Question: Which one of the following graphs best describes the schools?

LISTENING – PART 2:

In this part of the listening test (items 11 – 20), you will hear 10 conversations between a man and a woman. After each conversation, you will hear a question about what was stated or implied in each conversation. The questions are written in your test booklet. For each question there are three answer choices A, B, or C. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle. Now listen to an example:

You hear:

The following is a conversation between two colleagues.

Question: Why is the woman upset?

A. Her friend refused the job.B. Her friend used her to get the job.C. Her friend used his connections to get the job.

The correct answer to the question is C.Are there any questions before we begin? Now we will start Part 2 of the Listening Test.


11. The following is a conversation between two journalists.

Question: What does the woman imply about the new traffic measures?

A. The fines are too heavy.B. The government will make money. C. There will be fewer accidents.

12. The following is a conversation between a salesperson and a client.

Question: Why doesn’t the woman subscribe to the magazine?

A. She doesn’t like it.B. She doesn’t have time to buy it.C. She wants to think about it.

LISTENING - PART 3:

In this part of the listening test (items 21 – 30), you will hear a radio interview about how you can protect yourself from the various strategies used in the field of advertising. The interview is broken up in five parts. Each part is followed by two multiple-choice questions, which are also written in your test booklet. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle A, B, or C.

Now listen to the beginning of the interview followed by an example.


A. advertisersB. TV and Radio stationsC. the radio presenter

The correct answer to the question is A.

Now we will continue the interview. Are there any questions before we begin? Now, let’s continue. Listen carefully to the interview.

21. According to the speaker, what should consumers be aware of?

A. buying artificial productsB. their potential needsC. manipulation of their fears

22. What do we learn about consumerism in past societies?

A. Native Americans adopted it.B. It was not a common practice.C. Aristocrats encouraged it.


23. How does deficit behavior relate to consumerism, according to the speaker?

A. Consumers buy too much food.B. Consumers experience health problems.C. Consumers buy more goods than they need.

24. Why is the example of body odor mentioned?

A. to show how Reactive Consumerism worksB. to demonstrate how Proactive Consumerism worksC. to illustrate how absurd public demand can be

LISTENING – PART4:

In this part of the listening test (items 31-40), you will hear a talk in two parts on “Natural Gas and its Uses” at an environmental information day event. Each part is followed by five questions. The questions are not written on your test booklet. For each question there are three answer choices A, B, or C. On the separate answer sheet, darken the appropriate circle. If you wish, you may take notes in the space provided below.

Now listen to the beginning of the talk followed by an example.

Example: You hear:

A. the dangers of natural gasB. the benefits of methaneC. the problems concerning CH4

The correct answer to the question is B.

Now we will continue the talk. Are there any questions before we begin? Now, let’s continue. Listen carefully to the talk. You may take notes.

31. A. a product of oil deposits 34. A. It has many uses. B. a mixture which needs to be processed B. It has limited use. C. a pure gas C. It is difficult to use.

32. A. It can be delivered anywhere. 35. A. for industry B. It is extremely safe. B. for housing C. It is widely trusted. C. for heating water

33. A. for natural gas only B. for gases other than natural gas C. for many different kinds of gas, including natural gas


GRAMMAR: Complete the following statements, choosing from A, B, C or D.

41. Our projects are funded through the Private Finance Initiative, the costs _____ spread over ten years.

A. areB. beingC. have beenD. will be

42. Only when more stringent traffic laws are passed _____ on the national highway decrease.

A. is the number of accidentsB. the number of accidents isC. the number of accidents will D. will the number of accidents

43. China _____ localized market growth, but also nation-wide market integration.

A. has experience not only B. has not only experienced C. only has not experiencedD. not only has the experience

44. The policy on private roads requires that problems _____ over to the appropriate administration.

A. be handed B. is handedC. to be handedD. will be handed

45. Thousands of lives could be saved if the Government introduced tighter controls _____ diesel fuel.

A. by using B. on the use of C. to use D. using

46. Nowhere _____ evident than in the United States.

A. this is moreB. more is thisC. is this moreD. more this is

47. The suspect is reported _____ to hide the evidence when the police arrived.

A. to attemptB. being attemptedC. attemptingD. to have been attempting

48. The Chairperson stated that only a company that tries, _____.

A. succeedsB. to succeedC. it succeedsD. succeeding

49. _____ strict rules apply, zoning restrictions are frequently circumvented.

A. DespiteB. SinceC. AlthoughD. Not only

50. What better investment _____ which accumulates value without requiring expert knowledge?

A. than oneB. forC. that isD. is one


VOCABULARY: Complete the following statements, choosing from A, B, C or D.

91. Courage is the ability to _____ fear in the face of danger.

A. arouseB. confrontC. instillD. suffer

92. Politicians need to _____ any fears of speaking in public.

A. conquerB. overwhelmC. prevailD. triumph

93. Setting up a company can mean a _____ of legislation and guidelines.

A. caseB. debateC. minefieldD. dispute

94. Fair skin is too sensitive to be exposed to _____ sunlight.

A. possessiveB. excessiveC. regressiveD. intensive

95. A budget is essential to _____ a clear plan for company expenditure.

A. assembleB. manufactureC. containD. form

96. Patients taking this medication are advised to consult their physician at frequent _____.

A. interludesB. intersectionsC. intervalsD. intermissions

97. The order has been completed and _____ for shipping.

A. disembarkedB. disabledC. disowned D. dispatched

98. During purification, drinking water is _____ cleaned to remove contaminants.

A. utterlyB. principallyC. highlyD. painstakingly

99. Each insurance claim must be documented with photographs from the _____ of the car.

A. debrisB. remnantC. wreckageD. rubble

100. Some misconceptions still _____ concerning genetic research.

A. persistB. insistC. resistD. subsist


READING

PARTS ONE & TWO

These parts resemble Part Three below in terms of length and level of difficulty. The genre for Part 1 is a review, while the genre for Part 2 is a scientific text. An example is given here only of Part 3. See the Examination Specifications in this publication for more details of these sections.

PART THREE

For items 135 – 140, choose the best answer based on the information given in the passage.

The following text is about educating very young children.

Recent research has shown that the brain has the capacity to grow and change after birth, and that the environment is the spark that stimulates many of the brain’s connections. By the age of three, an intricate circuitry that will later allow adults to process and store information has already been formed. These findings have made some parents overambitious for their children and have given rise to special classes and crazes that encourage babies to do more than ever, earlier than ever.

Gone are the days when toddlers stayed at home to hang around with mum. Now they have a busy schedule to attend to. Strapped to the back seat of a car, babies as young as 12 months are whizzed through traffic and dragged in and out of classes that claim they can do anything: from “instilling in children a healthy lifestyle” to “boosting their confidence”. Affluent parents are flocking to these ‘educa-tional’ classes, all designed to get their children ready for the outside world by the age of three. The life of the average toddler with parents who have disposable income is quite packed.

But why do parents succumb to enrolling their babies in these classes? Obviously, there has been a sea change in the past few years. Articles about parenthood in the popular press with all their “psy-chobabble” have made parents today more psychologically aware and, especially those on the ‘societal escalator’, uneasy. They are concerned that there may be something out there that their child needs that they themselves cannot provide. It is, after all, a competitive world. Some experts caution against this attitude and talk about the danger of the ‘de-skilling of parenthood’, the belief that if children are not taught by an expert, they are not properly educated.

Views on the impact of these classes on children vary. Critics maintain that instead of nurturing their children, affluent parents are hot-housing them to a damaging degree. Children are asked to perform certain tasks, regardless of their varying interests, aptitudes, abilities, and readiness to do so. With so much parental pressure, the unfortunate babies are not allowed to flourish as human beings in their own right. It is felt that this can be detrimental to the children’s mental and emotional balance.

Of course, any parent who enrolls his or her child in this new breed of schools will tell you that this point of view is ludicrous beyond belief. These parents say that, on the contrary, they do not regard their children as an empty vessel to be filled with information designed to make them more effective com-petitors. Their greatest ambition for their toddlers is for them to have fun. They claim that the classes enhance the children’s social and cognitive development and that the children enjoy them.

We have not yet seen the long term effects of these classes. One would expect that with the value of early experience recognized, the trend would be for parents to shift their priorities and spend more time with their children. Instead, they enroll their children in these early-learning schools. What they seem to forget is that parents are a child’s first and most important teachers.


135. What has led to the growth in classes for toddlers? A. changes in the environmentB. improvements in educationC. greater awareness of child developmentD. a change in lifestyle

136. According to the article, which parents enrol their children in toddlers’ classes? Parents who are…A. wealthyB. competitiveC. busyD. educated

137. Why are some experts critical of parents? They think parents are…A. too influenced by what they readB. becoming less skilled as parentsC. not educating their children sufficientlyD. forcing their children to develop too quickly

138. What does “this point of view” in the first line of paragraph 5 refer to?A. Parents cause harm to their childrenB. These schools boost children’s intelligenceC. Children may have no free timeD. Parents care for their children’s best interests

139. What do parents say about the reasons they take their children to toddlers’ schools? They want them to be…A. good professionals in later lifeB. prepared to survive in a very competitive worldC. more intelligentD. entertained

140. The author’s view on toddlers’ classes can be characterized as… A. skepticalB. balancedC. supportiveD. arrogant


ALCE SAMPLE TEST ITEMS – KEY

LISTENING

Part 1

1. B2. A3. C

Part 2

11. B12. C

Part 3

21. C22. B23. C24. B

Part 4

31. B32. B33. C34. A35. A

GRAMMAR

41. B42. D43. B44. A45. B46. C47. D48. A49. C50. A

VOCABULARY

91. B92. A93. C94. B95. D96. C97. D98. D99. C100. A

READING

135. C136. A137. A138. A139. D140. A

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