Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515 …...b) Create your own exception which handles for age...

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A) COMPUTER NETWORKS (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology) Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Which of the OSI layers handles each of the following: i. Dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames ii. Determining which route through the subnet to use What does ''negotiation'' mean when discussing network protocols? Give an example. 8M b) The president of the Specialty Paint Corporation gets the idea to work together with a local beer brewer for the purpose of producing an invisible beer can (as an anti-litter measure). The president tells her legal department to look into it and they in turn ask engineering for help. As a result, the chief engineer calls his counterpart at the other company to discuss the technical aspects of the project. The engineers then report back to their respective legal departments, which then confer by phone to arrange the legal aspects. Finally, the two corporate presidents discuss the financial side of the deal. Is this an example of a multilayer protocol in the sense of the OSI model? Why or why not? 7M 2. a) What are the five layers in the Internet Protocol Stack? What are the principal responsibilities of each of these layers? 9M b) Suppose two hosts, A and B, are separated by 10,000 kilometers and are connected by a direct link of R=1 Gbps. Suppose the propagation speed over the link is 8 10 5 . 2 meters/sec. Calculate the bandwidth-delay product, prop t R Consider sending a file of 400,000 bits from Host A to Host B. Suppose the file is sent continuously as one big message. What is the maximum number of bits that will be in the link at any given time? 6M Unit II 3. a) Explain the Ethernet Frame Structure in detail. 9M b) Explain Go Back N Protocol. 6M 4. a) Explain slotted ALOHA protocol in detail. 9M b) What’s the difference between error detection and error correction techniques? Explain in detail. 6M Unit III 5. a) Explain IPv6 datagram format with diagram in detail. 12M b) Describe how packet loss can occur at input ports. Describe how packet loss at input ports can be eliminated (without using infinite buffers). 3M 6. a) Explain the concept of Link State Routing. 7M b) NAT violates a number of fundamental assumptions of Layered Network Architecture by using TCP or UDP fields of transport layer header. Enumerate and very briefly discuss those violations. 8M Unit IV 7. a) Explain the UDP Segment Structure in detail with diagram. 9M b) Is it possible from an application to enjoy reliable data transfer even when the application runs over UDP? If so, how? 6M Cont…2

Transcript of Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515 …...b) Create your own exception which handles for age...

Page 1: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515 …...b) Create your own exception which handles for age exception (if less than 18 years) in voting system. 7M 6. a) Write a program which

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

COMPUTER NETWORKS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Which of the OSI layers handles each of the following: i. Dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames ii. Determining which route through the subnet to use What does ''negotiation'' mean when discussing network protocols? Give an example.

8M

b) The president of the Specialty Paint Corporation gets the idea to work together with a local beer brewer for the purpose of producing an invisible beer can (as an anti-litter measure). The president tells her legal department to look into it and they in turn ask engineering for help. As a result, the chief engineer calls his counterpart at the other company to discuss the technical aspects of the project. The engineers then report back to their respective legal departments, which then confer by phone to arrange the legal aspects. Finally, the two corporate presidents discuss the financial side of the deal. Is this an example of a multilayer protocol in the sense of the OSI model? Why or why not?

7M

2. a) What are the five layers in the Internet Protocol Stack? What are the principal responsibilities of each of these layers?

9M

b) Suppose two hosts, A and B, are separated by 10,000 kilometers and are connected by a

direct link of R=1 Gbps. Suppose the propagation speed over the link is 8105.2 meters/sec. Calculate the bandwidth-delay product, proptR

Consider sending a file of 400,000 bits from Host A to Host B. Suppose the file is sent continuously as one big message. What is the maximum number of bits that will be in the link at any given time?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the Ethernet Frame Structure in detail. 9M b) Explain Go Back N Protocol.

6M

4. a) Explain slotted ALOHA protocol in detail. 9M b) What’s the difference between error detection and error correction techniques? Explain in

detail.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain IPv6 datagram format with diagram in detail. 12M b) Describe how packet loss can occur at input ports. Describe how packet loss at input

ports can be eliminated (without using infinite buffers).

3M

6. a) Explain the concept of Link State Routing. 7M b) NAT violates a number of fundamental assumptions of Layered Network Architecture by

using TCP or UDP fields of transport layer header. Enumerate and very briefly discuss those violations.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the UDP Segment Structure in detail with diagram. 9M b) Is it possible from an application to enjoy reliable data transfer even when the

application runs over UDP? If so, how? 6M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

8. a) Discuss briefly TCP connection release. 8M b) Suppose that the clock-driven scheme for generating initial sequence numbers is used

with a 15-bit wide clock counter. The clock ticks once every 100msec, and the maximum packet lifetime is 60sec. How often need resynchronization take place: i. In the worst case? ii. When the data consumes 240 sequence numbers/min

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain in brief that how DNS works. 9M b) Explain how Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) works.

6M

10. a) Explain Simple Network Management Protocol in detail. 9M b) Write short notes on SMTP. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1514

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

UNIX PROGRAMMING

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What would be the effect of the following commands: i. cp ii. mv iii. telnet iv. dir v. who vi. rmdir vii. du viii. pwd ix. mail x. nl

10M

b) Discuss features of UNIX operating System.

5M

2. a) Briefly discuss different design issues of Unix Operating System. 5M b) Explain the functionalities and list the options associated with each of the

following unix commands grep, egrep, awk, tr and tar. 10M

Unit - II 3. a) Write a shell script to print natural numbers from 1 to N. 5M b) i. Write a C program to simulate ln command

ii. Explain briefly dup and dup2 functions along with their prototypes

10M

4. a) What is a shell? List any two types of shell. 3M b) File Management becomes easy if you know the right commands. Sometimes,

commands are also referred as “programs” since whenever you run a command, actually, it’s the corresponding program code, written for the command, which is being executed. If you want to see the list of files on your UNIX or Linux system along with their attributes ‘ls -l’ command is used.

Write a C program to simulate ls - l command.

12M

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Cont…2

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Unit – III

5. Write a C program to do the following: Using fork () create a child process. The Child prints its own process-id and id of its parent and then exits. The parent process waits for its child to finish (by executing the wait ()) and prints its own process-id and the id of its child process and then exits.

15M

6. Shell script to implement terminal locking. It should prompt the user for a password. After accepting the password entered by the user, it must prompt again for password conformation (to retype password). If a match occurs, it must lock the terminal and prompt for the password. If the proper password is entered, the terminal must be unlocked. Note the script must be written to disregard BREAK, Control-D etc. No time limit need be implemented for the lock duration.

15M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain briefly the concept of shared memory with respect to IPC in Unix. Give prototypes for shmat and shmctl.

10M

b) What is a FIFO? What are the two uses for FIFO?

5M

8. Assume that there is a main process P1 and 2 child processes C1 and C2, the main process reads a string and passes it to C1. The child process C1 receive string from P1,find its length and sends the value to P1.C1 also reads an integer array of length equal to the length of the string and sends it to C2.C2 receive integer array from C1,find the sum of the elements and sends the sum to the parent process P1. Use Pipe as Inter process Communication mechanism for implementing the same.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the syntax of socket function. Discuss different Socket communication domains and Socket types.

10M

b) Differentiate between connection oriented and connection less service in computer networking.

5M

10. Explain different interfaces used in client server socket programming with the help of neat diagram.

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1516

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With necessary data structure write and explain pass I algorithm of a 2 pass assembler. 10M b) Discuss expressions handling in assembler.

5M

2. a) Explain basic assembler directives. 6M b) What are control sections? Explain the assembler directives used in control section for

the purpose of linking and give their record format.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain and write an algorithm for pass 1 of a linking loader. 8M b) Discuss the functions of linkage editors with neat diagram.

7M

4. a) Discuss the use of an automatic library search process for handling external references. 7M b) Explain the operating of loading and calling of a subroutine using dynamic linking.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe the uses of data structures that are involved in a macro processor. 6M b) What are keyword macro parameters? Explain the use of keyword parameters in macro

instructions.

9M

6. a) Write a note on Recursive macro expansion with an example. 7M b) Discuss the macro processing features of the ANSI C programming language.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain and write the algorithm for processing an I/O interrupt and I/O request for machine dependent operating system?

10M

b) Draw and explain the overall structure of windows 95.

5M

8. a) Write a note on multiprocessor operating systems. 7M b) Describe the functions performed by an operating system in managing and processing

files.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is cloud computing? Explain laas, PaaS, and SaaS in cloud. 10M b) Explain the importance of virtualization in cloud computing.

5M

10. a) Describe Android system architecture. 10M b) Write a note on embedded system software. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1506

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING THROUGH JAVA

(Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 09 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the features of object oriented programming giving its advantages. 8M b) Create a class called student with the data members for storing student number, name,

year and methods for accessing them. Write a driver class with main () method which creates objects of student class and takes user inputs. The program should display the contents of the objects using public method called display () defined in student class.

7M

2. a) What is JVM? Explain the architecture of JVM in detail. 9M b) What is the difference between String and StringBuffer Class?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate the different uses of super keyword with an example program. 10M b) Explain the significance of abstract classes.

5M

4. a) In inheritance what are the three possibilities with respect to superclass method (except its constructors)? Illustrate with suitable example(s).

9M

b) Demonstrate the three uses of final keyword with an example program.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) What is an exception? Differentiate between checked and unchecked exceptions. 8M b) Create your own exception which handles for age exception (if less than 18 years) in

voting system.

7M

6. a) Write a program which demonstrates two threads at different priorities which do not run on a preemptive platform in the same way as they run on a nonpreemptive platform.

9M

b) Write a program to create thread using runnable interface.

6M

Unit – IV

7. Write a program which handles mouse events in java.

15M

8. a) Write short notes on adapter classes. 5M b) Write a program to display the following output using awt components.

10M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Define Swings and Explain the following: i. JButton ii. JToggleButton iii. Checkboxes

7M

b) Develop a java swing application which creates a list of countries using Jlist component and allow user to select the country from the List and display the current selection of country.

8M

10. a) Explain Applet skeleton. 5M b) Develop an applet program that works as a simple calculator. Use a grid layout to

arrange Buttons for the digits and for the + - X % operations. Add a text field to display the result.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1510

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

THEORY OF COMPUTATION (Information Technology)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define FA model and explain. 8M b) Design a NFA that accepts strings of a’s and b’s starting with the string ab.

7M

2. a) Convert the following NFA to its equivalent DFA.

Fig.1

8M

b) What is the need of ɛ-Transitions in FA? How do you eliminate them? Explain with an example.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) State and prove pumping lemma theorem for regular language. 8M b) Prove that regular languages are closed under complementation.

7M

4. a) Where do we use the regular expressions? Explain them briefly. 9M b) Obtain the Regular Expression(RE) for the automata (FA) shown in Fig.2 below:

Fig.2

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Construct CFG for languages given below: L=an bmck| k=n-m L=anbnck|k>=3 L=anwwrbn|wЄ∑*, n>=1-

8M

b) Define leftmost derivation, rightmost derivation, language of a grammar, sentential form, derivation tree, parse tree with example.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Define ambiguous grammar. Also show that the grammar is ambiguous for the string

abababa and the grammar is SSbS|a

7M

b) Convert the following CFG to Chomsky normal form: S0A|1B A0AA|1S|1 B1BB|0S|0

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define DPDA. Construct a PDA for the language L= anbmcmdn | m≥1, n≥1-. 7M b) Determine whether the language is Context free or not L= anbncn | n≥0-.

8M

8. a) Write an algorithm to convert CFG to PDA. 7M b) Design a PDA for the grammar S -> aSa | bSb | c.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write a note on recursively enumerable language. 6M b) Construct a turing machine for the language L= anbncn | n≥1-.

9M

10. a) Write note on Universal Turing machine and Extensions of Turing machine. 8M b) What is linear bound automata? Mention the conditions that satisfy LBA. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1517

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Write a recursive algorithm to find the maximum and minimum element in a set of n element and analyze its worst case time complexity.

7M

b) How Strassen’s matrix multiplication for multiplying two n-by-n matrices is efficient over brute-force multiplication algorithm? Evaluate the asymtotic efficieny of this algorithm.

8M

2. a) Write a recursive algorithm for binary search. 4M b) Write the code for sorting an array of integers using Quick sort technique. Apply

quick sort for the input 26, 58, 29, 46, 109, 87, 49, 60. Analyze the efficiency of Quick sort algorithm.

11M

Unit – II

3. a) Write the greedy method control abstraction, and explain feasible solution, objective function and optimal solution?

7M

b) State knapsack problem? Consider the following instance of the knapsack problem: n = 3, m = 20, (p1, p2, p3) = (25, 24, 15) and (w1, w2, w3) = (18, 15, 10). Obtain all feasible solutions.

8M

4. a) Consider a sample graph for implementation of BFS and DFS with the help of queue and stack respectively and derive their complexities.

8M

b) Define optimal storage of programs on tapes? Consider the snapshot n=3 and (L1, L2, L3) = (5, 10, 3). Find the optimal ordering of these three programs on tape.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Write algorithm for the Optimal Binary Search Tree dynamic programming and discuss its time complexity.

7M

b) Define 0/1 knapsack problem. Apply the algorithm for the 0/1 knapsack instance n=3, (w1, w2, w3) = (2, 3, 4), (p1, p2, p3) = (1, 2, 5) and m = 6. Obtain the optimal solution.

8M

6. a) Discuss the matrix chain multiplication problem using dynamic programming approach.

7M

b) Find the shortest paths from node 1 to every other node in the graph below using the all pair shortest path algorithm.

Fig.1

8M

Unit – IV

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7. a) Explain the travelling salesman problem using the branch and bound technique. 7M b) What is backtracking? Apply backtracking algorithm to solve the following

instance of the subset sub problem S = 5,7,8,10 and d=15.

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

8. a) What is branch and bound? How is it different from backtracking? 6M b) Write the interactive backtracking algorithm and estimate the efficiency of the

backtracking algorithm. 9M

Unit – V

9. a) Draw the comparison tree for sorting four elements that is produced by the binary insertion method.

7M

b) Discuss non-deterministic algorithms.

8M

10. a) Discuss cook’s theorem for NP-Hard and NP-complete problems. 7M b) What is the relationship between NP-Hard and NP-complete problems? Discuss

with an example. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1423

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw and explain memory read cycle timing diagram in minimum mode. 8M b) What is addressing mode? Explain different addressing modes supported by 8086 with

suitable examples.

7M

2. a) Draw the register organization of 8086 and explain typical application of each register. 7M b) Explain the function of the following of 8086:

i. BHE

ii. DT/R iii. ALE iv. INTR

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain Instruction set classification in 8086? Discuss about arithmetic instructions with examples?

8M

b) Write an 8086 assembly language program to Sort numbers in ascending order.

7M

4. a) Differentiate macros and procedure. 7M b) Explain following instructions:

i. PUSH ii. POP iii. IN iv. OUT

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain mode 0 and mode 1 operation of 8255. 8M b) Write an assembly language program to interface Stepper motor to make 5 rotations

clockwise and 5 rotations anti clockwise with 8086.

7M

6. a) Sketch and Explain the Interfacing of 2x16 KB ROM and 2x8 KB RAM with 8086. 8M b) Sketch and explain the interface of 32K x 16 ROMs using a decoder with 8086.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the interrupt structure of 8086. 7M b) Write a program in assembly using 8086 INT 21 function to return the key closed on to the

display. Use suitable functions.

8M

8. a) Draw the pin diagram of 8254. 7M b) With a neat block diagram, explain 8254 software programmable timer.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Compare between asynchronous and synchronous data transfer. 8M b) Draw the interfacing diagram of RS232 with 8086 and explain its operation.

7M

10. a) List the salient features of 80286 microprocessor. 7M b) Differentiate between paging and segmentation, real mode and protected mode. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1414

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the following terms: i. Accuracy ii. Precision iii. Span and range iv. Drift

8M

b) Describe the principle, circuit diagram and operation of a differential voltmeter. Explain the different modes of operation of this voltmeter.

7M

2. a) Explain various errors encountered in measuring systems. 8M b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of successive approximation type

DVM.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) With the aid of a diagram, describe the features of a general purpose CRO. 9M b) Highlight the various types of sweep generated in a CRT.

6M

4. a) With a neat figure, explain the functional aspects of a dual beam CRO. 8M b) Explain the functioning of a time base generator in a CRO.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe in detail the construction and working of an analog type storage oscilloscope. 8M b) Explain how Schering bridge is used for the measurement of unknown capacitance.

7M

6. a) Explain how the phase and frequency of an unknown signal can be determined from Lissajous patterns.

8M

b) The AC bridge is in balance with the following constants, arm AB, R=450Ω, arm BC, R=300Ω in series with C=0.265 µF arm CD unknown, arm DA, R=200Ω in series with L=15.9mH. the oscillator frequency is 1 KHz. Find the constants of arm CD.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the construction and principle of working of LVDT. What are its advantages and disadvantages?

8M

b) Explain the principle, construction and characteristics of thermistors and also mention its advantages and disadvantages.

7M

8. a) Explain the principle of straingauge and derive the expression for gauge factor in terms of Poisson’s ratio.

8M

b) Explain the working principle of piezoelectric transducer.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the principle of operation of a PLC. 7M b) Highlight the industrial applications of PLCs.

8M

10. a) What is the basic principle behind measuring vibration explain in detail? 7M b) With a neat diagram, explain the working of a PC based data acquisition system. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1415

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)

INTEGRATED CIRCUITS APPLICATIONS

(Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define and Explain the following: i. Total output offset voltage ii. Thermal Drift

8M

b) Define and explain the following: i. Input offset voltage ii. PSRR iii. Slew rate

7M

2. a) With the help of neat block diagram sketch and explain the different stages of an Op-Amp.

8M

b) Design a capacitor coupled voltage follower using a 741 operational amplifier. The lower cutoff frequency for the circuit is to be 50Hz and the load resistance is RL=3.9KΩ. Sketch the circuit with designed values.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the operation of INV Schmitt trigger with circuit diagram and necessary waveforms.

9M

b) For an Astable multivibrator, show that frequency of output waveform is f=1/2RC for a symmetric output square wave.

6M

4. a) Explain how the Op-Amp is used as current to voltage converter [Transresistance Amplifier] with suitable circuit diagram.

6M

b) An INV Schmitt trigger circuit is to have UTP = 1V and LTP = 0V. Design a suitable circuit using a Bi-polar Op-Amp and ±15V supply.

9M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages of active filters over passive filters? 6M b) Design a second order low pass filter circuit to have a cut-off frequency of 1KHz.

[IB(MAX) =500nA for 741 Op-Amp] 9M

6. a) Briefly explain the Analog Phase Detector for PLL and draw the input and output waveforms of phase detector for: Ф = 00 Ф = 900 Ф = 1800

8M

b) With the help of neat circuit diagram explain the working Astable multivibrator using Op-Amp.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Design a voltage regulator using IC 723 to get a voltage output of 3V. [Given: Vref =7V, R1=10KΩ]

8M

b) List and Briefly explain the characteristics of three-terminal IC regulators what are the limitations of these regulators?

7M

Cont…2

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8. a) With a neat sketch, Explain the working of R-2R ladder DAC. 8M b) If the conversion time of a 8-bit flash ADC is 10uSec, find the maximum frequency of a

sinusoidal voltage that can be digitised.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Realize NAND and NOR function using CMOS gates. 7M b) Construct 1 of 32 decoder using 74154 ICs.

8M

10. a) Briefly describe the purpose of the following IC’s. i. IC 74151 ii. IC 7447

7M

b) With the help of timing diagram explain various modes of operations in 74194 IC. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1416

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

DIGITAL DESIGN THROUGH VERILOG HDL

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the Top-Down and Bottom-Up design methodology by taking 4-bit ripple carry counter as an example.

8M

b) Write the output for the following code and explain each operators mentioned in this program. module exp(a, b,out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7); input [3:0] a, b; output [3:0]out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7; initial begin a = 4'b0100; b = 4'b0101; end assign out1 = a && b; assign out2= (a || b); assign out3= (a & b); assign out4= (a | b); assign out5= ,a*0+, b*1+, 2’b01-; assign out6= (a == b); assign out7= &a; endmodule

7M

2. a) Briefly explain the typical design flow for designing VLSI IC circuit. 7M b) Define the following in Verilog:

i. Define three buses: busA, busB, and busC of 32-bit width each ii. Define a real variable called data iii. Define Array of 32 one-bit boolean register variables iv. Give the syntax for display statement in verilog

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the AND/OR and BUF/NOT pre defined primitives to model gate level description with example.

7M

b) Define Instance. Design 2×2 bit array multiplier using Half adders and suitable gates with structural verilog module and plot the simulated waveform.

8M

4. a) Implement 4 to 16 line decoder using 2 to 4 line decoders and write the structural verilog module.

8M

b) Write the gate level modeling for 4 to 1 line Multiplexer with stimulus block.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate blocking and non blocking assignments with suitable example. State the application of non-blocking statement with example.

8M

b) Write the behavioral verilog module for 4 to 2 line priority encoder with valid bit (LSB bit is having the highest priority) and plot the simulated waveform.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Describe the different types of loop statements used in verilog HDL with example. 7M b) Write behavioral verilog module for BCD up counter with stimulus block.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the different ways of specifying delays in continuous assignment statement? Give examples.

6M

b) Write the verilog code for negative edge triggered D FlipFlop with dataflow statements. 9M 8. a) Design verilog module for a CMOS switch connected parallel a pair of NMOS and PMOS

switches and write the test bench for the same. 7M

b) Write verilog code for 4:1 Multiplexer using conditional operators in dataflow modeling style and write the test bench for the same.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the verilog full adder module using half adder task. 7M b) List out the difference between combinational and sequential UDPs in verilog. Write the

verilog module for D-Latch using UDP.

8M

10. a) Explain the differences between tasks and functions used in verilog and also write the syntax for each.

10M

b) Briefly explain the sequential UDP by taking edge-triggered T-Flip-Flop with clear. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1418

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Starting from effective length of antenna, derive expression of maximum effective length of antenna with relevant diagram.

5M

b) With proper diagram and illustration, Explain Friis Transmission formula. A directional antenna carrying a current of 100A and having a radiation resistance of 200Ω. If gain of antenna is 10. Solve the power received by the antenna of gain 20 placed at a distance of 2kms from source.

10M

2. a) Derive expression for Beam area of an antenna with relevant diagram. 5M b) Derive the radiation resistance of short dipole antenna. Justify that maximum effective

aperture of a /2 dipole is 0.132.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Solve field pattern for linear antenna of n isotropic source with the case of end-fire array with increased directivity.

8M

b) Derive an expression for array factor for 2 Isotropic point source with identical amplitude

and phase constant and spaced one half 2

wavelength apart calculate the maxima,

minima, half power points, null points and show that in radiation pattern.

7M

4. a) Evaluate an expression for array factor of an array of N-isotropic sources. 5M

b) Show that the radiation resistance of circular loop is

2

280z

R

and also for

short dipole

2

220z

R

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the linear polarization property with a monofilar axial mode helical antenna. 7M b) Explain Resonant antenna? And list the different types.

8M

6. a) Explain broad band antenna and give example. 7M b) What is travelling wave wire antenna? Explain travelling wave long wire antenna with

neat diagram.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is aperture antenna? Give example. 7M b) Describe feed Antenna for Reflectors. 8M 8. a) Explain the working of Microstrip antenna. 7M b) Explain the working on Lens antenna. Also discuss on the non-metallic dielectric lens

antenna.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain skip distance and derive the expression for skip distance for flat earth surface. 6M b) With a neat diagram, explain the atmospheric structure.

A radio wave of 1GHz frequency is making an angle of 60 in ionosphere of electron concentration 2x1020e/m3. Estimate critical frequency and MUF.

9M

10. a) A transmitting antenna at a height of ht above smooth perfectly conducting flat-earth surfaces ends a signal to a receiving antenna of height hr (ht>hr) with ground range between them equal to ‘d’. Estimate the path difference between the direct and reflected signals reaching the receiving antenna.

5M

b) Justify that FMUF is always greater than Fc. Derive the expression. Solve electron density in ionosphere with f= 50MHz and refractive index of 0.9.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1419

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

SIGNAL ANALYSIS AND TRANSFORM TECHNIQUES (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) A continuous time signal is as shown in Fig.1. Sketch and label the following signals:

i. 2x t

ii. 2x t

iii. / 2x t

Fig.1

6M

b) Find the complex Fourier coefficients of 7 cos6 5 sin5 3x t t t

9M

2. a) Determine the DTFS coefficients to evaluate DTFS representation of the following x(n). x(n)= Cos* 6πn/13 +π/6 +.

7M

b) Determine the trigonometric Fourier series representation for full wave rectified signal

Fig.1

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Find the Fourier transform of the following: i. x(t)= eat u(-t) ii. x(t)=e –a|t| iii. x(t)= e-a|t|sgn(t)

7M

b) Determine Fourier transform of: i. x(n)= an u(n) for -1 < a< 1 ii. x(n)=u(n) iii. x(n)=-an u(-n-1)

8M

4. a) Define DFT, state and prove any two properties of DFT. 7M b) Explain linear convolution of sequence using DFT.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Check whether the following systems are time invariant or time variant: i. y(t)= sin x(t) ii. y(t)= t x(t) iii. y(t)= x(t) cos 200πt

6M

b) The impulse response and the input to the system is given as x(t)=u(t+1), h(t)=u(t-2) determine the output of the system.

9M

Cont…2

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6. a) For the system represented by following functions determine whether system is:

i. stable ii. causual iii. Linear iv. Shift invariant

T[x(n)] =ex(n) T[x(n)] ax(n)+b

7M

b) Find the auto correlation of the sequence: i. x(n) =1 2 3 4 ii. x(n)= 5 6 0 0

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Find the Laplace transform of the following: i. x(t)=2t3+4t2+3t+8 ii. x(t)=5t2+10sin5t-15cos8t

7M

b) Find the Laplace of the following: i. x(t)=e-5t sin3t

ii. x(t)=e3t cos5t

8M

8. a) An absolutely integrable signal x t is known to have a pole at 2.s Answer the

following question with justification: i. Could x(t) be a finite duration ii. Could x(t) be left sided iii. Could x(t) be right sided iv. Could x(t) be two sided

8M

b) Determine the time domain signal for the given Laplace transform:

i. 2

1Re 0

9

sX s s

s

ii. 2Re 0

9

sX s s

s

7M

Unit – V

9. a) State sampling theorem. Explain reconstruction of signal from its samples. 7M b) What is aliasing? Illustrate with example.

8M

10. a) Determine Z transform of the following: i. x(n)= (2/3)n u(n+2) ii. x(n)= n (5/8)n u(n)

7M

b) Find the inverse Z-transform of 2

1

3 4 1

zX z

z z

using partial fraction expansion

method.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1417

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain with circuit diagram, the generation of AM wave using switching modulator with analysis and spectrum.

8M

b) Consider the message signal m(t)=20Cos2πt Volts and the carrier wave c(t)=50Cos(100πt) volts. Give the time time-domain expression for the resulting conventional AM wave for 75% modulation. Find the power developed across a load of 100Ω due to this AM wave.

7M

2. a) Explain the generation of DSBC wave using: i. Balanced Modulator ii. Ring Modulator

8M

b) A 360W carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sets of message signals with modulation percentages of 55 and 65 respectively. What is the total sideband power radiated?

7M

Unit – II 3. a) Describe with the help of block diagram, schemes for generating:

i. FM wave using PM ii. PM wave using FM

8M

b) Given an angle modulated signal, S(t) represented by the equation S(t)= 12cos(12πx10 8t+200cos (2πx10 3t)). Find its bandwidth.

7M

4. a) Explain VSB demodulation using coherent detection. 6M b) Consider a 2 stage SSB modulator with a BPF after each modulator, where the input

signal consists of voice signal occupies the frequency band of 0.3 to 0.34KHz.The oscillaors have frequency values f1=100kHz and f2=10MHz. Specify the following: i. Side bands of modulated waves appearing at two product modulator output ii. Side bands appearing at the output of BPF iii. Pass bands of two band pass filters

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive the time domain equation for single tone FM wave. Define modulation index and frequency deviation.

6M

b) Describe with necessary diagram generation of NBFM. Compare the WBFM and NBFM.

9M

6. a) Explain the two methods of generating FM waves. 10M b) Explain the FM demodulation using Zero cross detector.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Derive expression for figure of merit for conventional AM and hence find the figure of merit when the depth of modulation is 50% and 30%.

8M

b) Explain De-emphasis and pre-emphasis in FM.

7M

8. a) Obtain the expression for figure of merit of an SSB receiver using a coherent detector. 8M b) Explain the generation of pulse amplitude modulated signal. 7M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain different methods of tracking which will overcome the tracking error. 8M b) Explain automatic gain control which prevents the signal overloading in super

heterodyne receiver.

7M

10. a) Explain FM stereo broadcast transmitter. 7M b) Find the image frequency range for a receiver which tunes 40 to 10MHz with an IF of

1.8MHz. Do any of the image frequencies fall in the receivers passband. If IF circuits have a combined Q of 50 at the top end of the band, find the image rejection ratio in decibels at that frequency.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1319

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the effect of boiler pressure on the performance of Rankine cycle. 4M b) In a simple Rankine cycle, dry saturated steam at 20bar expands to a pressure of 1

atmosphere. Determine: i. The pump work ii. Turbine work iii. Network output iv. Thermal efficiency v. Quality of steam entering the condenser vi. Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh What would be the Network output, Cycle efficiency, Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh and Quality of steam entering the condenser if the condenser pressure is reduced to 0.06 bar and compare the performance of the two cycles.

11M

2. a) Explain the working of ideal regenerative cycle. 6M b) Compare the performance of simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of

20 bar and dry saturated with that of another simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of 30 bar and dry saturated in terms of: i. Net work output ii. Heat supply iii. Thermal efficiency iv. Steam rate v. Quality of steam entering the condenser Assume the condenser pressure to be 0.06bar for both the cycles.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Differentiate between fire tube and water tube boilers. 8M b) Explain the working principle of super critical boilers

7M

4. a) What are the effects of friction on the flow through a steam nozzle? Explain with the help of h-s diagram.

7M

b) Dry saturated steam at 2.8bar is expanded through a convergent nozzle to 1.7bar. The exit area is 3cm2. Estimate the exit velocity and the mass flow rate, assuming: i. Isentropic expansion ii. Assuming super saturated flow exists

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a condenser? What are the requirements of steam condenser? 8M b) List the classification of condenser. Explain any one.

7M

6. a) What is the fundamental difference between the operation of impulse and reaction turbines? Explain the same with neat sketches.

8M

b) In a single stage impulse turbine the blade angles are equal and the nozzle angle is 200. The velocity coefficient for the blade is 0.83. Find the maximum blade efficiency possible. If the actual blade efficiency is 90% of maximum blade efficiency, find the possible ratio of blade speed to steam speed.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Prove that maximum diagram efficiency of a stage of a reaction steam turbine is given by the expression φ= 2 cos2α1/(1+ cos2α1).

7M

b) A 50% reaction turbine (with symmetrical velocity triangle) running at 400rpm has the exit angle of the blades as 200 and the velocity of steam relative to the blades at the exit is 1.35 times the mean blade speed. The steam flow rate is 8.33kg/s and at a particular stage the specific value is 1.381m3/kg. Calculate for this stage: i. A suitable blade height assuming the rotor mean diameter 12 times the blade height ii. The diagram work

8M

8. a) Describe with neat sketches the working of a simple constant pressure open cycle gas turbine. How does the actual cycle differ from the theoretical cycle?

6M

b) Air enters at 1 bar and 150C into the compressor of a constant pressure open cycle gas turbine plant and leaves the compressor at 6 bar. Using the following data: Temperature of the gases entering the turbine= 7000C, Pressure loss in the combustion chamber=0.1bar, ηc=80% and ηt=80% ηc(combustion)=90%.Take γ=1.4 Cp=1kj/kgK for air and gases. Find: i. The quantity of air circulation in the system if the plant develops 940KW ii. Heat supplied per kg of air circulation

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the working difference between propeller jet, turbo-jet and turbo-prop. 7M b) Differentiate between solid propellant and liquid propellant.

8M

10. a) What are the fundamental difference between the jet propulsion and rocket propulsion?

5M

b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of liquid propellant rocket. 10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1320

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the factors to be considered in machine Design? 7M b) A beam of uniform cross section is fixed at one end and carries an electric motor weighing

400N at a distance of 300mm from the fixed end. The maximum bending stress in the beam is 40MPa. Find the width and depth of the beam if the depth is twice that of the width.

8M

2. a) Explain Maximum principal stress theory stating its limitations. 7M b) A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 10kN and transverse shear force of 5kN. The yield

strength of the bolt material is 300MPa. Considering the factor of safety of 2. Determine the diameter of the shaft using: i. Maximum shear stress theory ii. Distortion energy theory

8M

Unit – II

3. a) List the Factors Considered While Designing Against Fatigue. 3M b) A circular bar is subjected to a completely reversed axial load of 150kN. Determine the

size of the bar for infinite life, if it is made of plain carbon steel having ultimate tensile strength of 800N/mm2 and yield point in tension of 600N/mm2. Assuming the surface finish factor as 0.80, size factor 0.85, reliability as 90% and modifying factor for the stress concentration as 0.9.

12M

4. A shaft is subjected to a bending moment varying from 200Nm to 500Nm and a twisting moment varying from 50Nm to 175Nm. The material 30C8 steel has Su=600MPa, Se=300 MPa, Ka=0.76, Kb=0.85, Kc=0.897, Kd=1.85 and q=0.95. Find the diameter of the shaft using Von Mises Hencky theory. Factor of safety = 1.5.

15M

Unit – III

5. A welded connection, as shown in Fig.1, is subjected to an eccentric force of 60kN in the plane of the welds. Determine the size of the welds, if the permissible shear stress for the weld is 100N/mm2. Assume static conditions.

Fig.1

15M

Cont…2

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6. a) Differentiate between cold riveting and hot riveting. 5M b) A brake band attached to the hinge by means of a riveted joint is shown in Fig.2.

Determine the size of the rivets needed for the load of 10kN. Also determine the width of the band. The permissible stresses for the band and rivets in tension, shear and compression are 80, 60 and 120N/mm2 respectively. Assume: i. Margin(m) = 1.5d ii. Transverse pitch (pi) = p iii. Find the pitch of the rivets

Fig.2

10M

Unit – IV

7. A 15kW, 960r.p.m. motor has a mild steel shaft of 40mm diameter and the extension being 75mm. The permissible shear and crushing stresses for the mild steel key are 56MPa and 112 MPa. Design the keyway in the motor shaft extension. Check the shear strength of the key against the normal strength of the shaft.

15M

8. a) What is Knuckle joint? 3M b) Design a knuckle joint to transmit tension 150kN. The design stresses may be taken as 75

MPa in tension 60MPa in shear and 150MPa in compression.

12M

Unit – V

9. Two 35 mm shafts are connected by a flanged coupling. The flanges are fitted with 6 bolts on 125mm bolt circle. The shafts transmit a torque of 800N-m at 350r.p.m. For the safe stresses mentioned below Calculate: i. diameter of bolts ii. thickness of flanges iii. key dimensions iv. hub length v. power transmitted Safe shear stress for shaft material = 63MPa Safe stress for bolt material = 56MPa Safe stress for cast iron coupling = 10MPa Safe stress for key material = 46MPa

15M

10. a) Explain the phenomenon of ‘nipping’ in leaf springs. 5M b) A railway wagon weighing 50kN moving with a speed of 8km/hour is brought to rest by

four buffer springs in which the maximum compression allowed is 220mm. Find force and the number of coils in each spring having a mean diameter of 150mm. The diameter of the spring wire can be taken as 25mm. Take G = 84GPa.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1321

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

METROLOGY AND SURFACE ENGINEERING (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the following terms: i. Bilateral Tolerance ii. Hole basis system iii. Allowance

9M

b) What is the importance of interchangeability with respect to an engineering assembly such as a motorcycle?

6M

2. a) Describe Hole basis system and Shaft basis system. What benefits are attributed to each? 9M b) Write short notes on the British Standard System.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Distinguish clearly between line standard and end standard. 8M b) Write a brief note on the manufacture of slip gauges.

7M

4. a) Sketch and explain sine bar highlighting its applications. 7M b) What are GO and NO GO gauges? How Taylor principle is used to design them?

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the principle operation of optical flat and mention its applications. 7M b) Explain with neat sketch principle of Auto collimator.

8M

6. a) Define precisely the following terms with respect to screw threads: i. Axis of thread ii. Pitch iii. Lead

6M

b) Derive an expression for best wire size for 2 wire/3 wire method of screw thread measurement.

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define the following terms: i. Average peak to valley height ii. Lay iii. Center line of profile iv. Spacing of irregularities v. Effective Profile

5M

b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the construction and working of a mechanical comparator.

10M

8. a) Explain any four alignment tests on a lathe. 8M b) Write short notes on preparation of acceptance charts.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on the applications of CMM. 7M b) Explain how thermal modification of surfaces is performed and their advantages.

8M

10. a) Define the term wear. Explain the different methods of measurement of wear. 10M b) Write short notes on lubricants and its selection for reducing wear. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1711

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

AEROSPACE PROPULSION-I

(Aeronautical Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Demonstrate the fundamental concepts involved in operations of a turbojet engine with a neat schematic diagram.

15M

2. a) Classify the gas turbine engines and discuss their characteristics. 10M b) Discus the following:

i. Afterburner ii. Water alcohol injection

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Give an account of internal flow and stall in subsonic inlets. 8M b) Write a note on vortex generator (VG).

7M

4. Explain internal flow and stall in subsonic inlets.

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the role of operating variables on the performance of combustion chambers. 10M b) Describe flame tube cooling method.

5M

6. a) Write a note on combustion chamber performance. 10M b) Explain the flow pattern in the primary zone with the help of neat sketch.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Give the classifications of gas turbine engine nozzle, and briefly explain each one of them. 8M b) Write a note on thrust reversing methods.

7M

8. a) Explain in detail about after burners with context to enhancing the performance characteristics of a gas turbine engine.

8M

b) Elaborate about various thrust reversing methods and its physical relevance.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain Surging and stalling encountered in a centrifugal compressor. 8M b) Give an account of diffuser vane design considerations for a centrifugal compressor.

7M

10. a) Elucidate the elementary theory of axial flow compressors with suitable rationale behind it.

8M

b) Explain in detail about the concepts of compressor blade design and subsequent empirical equations.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1710

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

AIR TRANSPORTATION SYSTEMS (Aeronautical Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Write notes on history of aero space industry.

15M

2. Explain briefly air transportation industry. 15M

Unit – II

3. Discuss the earth as a habitat and physical issues affecting.

15M

4. Explain the economical aspects of regulation. What is the role of ICAO and IATA in the industry?

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Write brief note on service properties. 6M b) Write a note on safety regulations.

9M

6. Explain the following: i. State-of-art ATC ii. Separation in air iii. Role of radar at the airport

15M

Unit – IV

7. Explain the following in brief: i. Marketing the seat and airline scheduling ii. Evaluating success financial viability

15M

8. Explain briefly the process of setting up airport and airport demand.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) What is range? Explain balancing efficiency and effectiveness of pay load and range. 5M b) Explain effect of cabin dimensions and flight deck.

10M

10. a) Mention modern airline objectives. 7M b) Write a note on financial viability regulatory and compliance. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1714

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

AEROSPACE VEHICLE STRUCTURES-II

(Aeronautical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is meant by complete tension field beam? 7M b) Explain semi-monocoque and monocoque structures.

8M

2. a) Explain briefly about complete and incomplete diagonal tension beams. 8M b) Explain the importance of Wagner’s theory of beams?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive an equation for Bending moment in a symmetrical section beam. 8M

b) The cross section of a beam has the dimensional as shown in Fig.1. If the beam

is subjected to a negative bending moment of 100KN applied in a virtual plane,

determine the distribution of direct stress through the depth of the section.

Fig.1

7M

4. The central cell of a wing has the idealized section shown in Fig.2 if the lift and drag loads on the wing produce bending moments of −120000Nm and −30000Nm, respectively, at the section shown, calculate the direct stresses in the booms. Neglect axial constraint effects and assume that the lift and drag vectors are in vertical and horizontal planes. Boom areas : B1 = B4 = B5 = B8 = 1000mm2 B2 = B3 = B6 = B7 = 600mm2

Fig.2

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain effective skin width concept in skin stringer construction. 7M

b) Briefly discuss about stability of stiffened Panel.

8M

6. a) Derive an expression for share flow in open section. 8M

b) Give a brief note about unsymmetrical beams and mention its assumptions. 7M

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Cont…2

::2::

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the phenomenon of Primary and secondary warping and also give their expressions.

7M

b) Assume at an equation for generalized torsion bending in an open section subjected to torsion and also axially constrained.

8M

8. a) Explain the phenomenon of combined bending and torsion loading in open section of beams.

7M

b) Derive an equation for torsion bending constant.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain in brief the effect of axial constraint on an open section beams subjected to torsion.

7M

b) Derive an equation for torsion in thin walled open section beams.

8M

10. Calculate the shear flows in the web panels and direct load in the flanges and

stiffeners of the beam shown in Fig.3. If the web panels resist shear stresses only.

Fig.3

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1115

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I

(Civil Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive a relation between water content, degree of saturation, void ratio and specific gravity of solids.

7M

b) A sample of soil weighing 30.5 kg had a volume of 0.0190 m3. When dried out in an oven its weight was reduced to 26.90 kg. The specific gravity of solids was found to be 2.70. Determine the bulk density, dry density, water content, saturated density, percentage of air voids, void ratio and degree of saturation.

8M

2. a) What is a particle size distribution curve? How it is obtained in the laboratory for a given soil.

8M

b) A sample of clay has a natural water content of 50 %. Its liquid limit is 60 % and the plastic limit 32 %. Determine the plasticity index and liquidity index. How will you classify the soil as per the Indian Standard Classification system?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Permeability depends on properties of the soil as well as properties of pore fluid. Explain briefly.

7M

b) Calculate the coefficient of permeability of a soil sample, 6cm in height and 50cm2 in cross-sectional area, if quantity of water equal to 430ml passed down in 10 minutes, under an head of 40cm. On oven drying, the test specimen has mass of 498gm.Taking the specific gravity of soil solids as 2.65; calculate the seepage velocity of water during the test.

8M

4. a) Discuss the quick sand condition and characteristics of flow net. 7M b) At a construction site, a 3 m thick clay layer is followed by a 4m thick gravel layer, which is

resting on an impervious rock. A surcharge load of 25kN/m2 is applied suddenly at the surface. The saturated unit weights are 19kN/m3 and 20kN/m3, for the clay and the gravel layers, respectively. The water table is at the surface. Draw a diagram showing the variation of total, neutral and effective stress with depth.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain spring analogy concept of one-dimensional consolidation, with neat sketches. 8M b) In a consolidation test, the void ratio of soil sample decreases from 1.20 to 1.10 when the

pressure is increased from 200 to 400kN/m2. Calculate the compression index, coefficient of volume change and the coefficient of consolidation if the coefficient of permeability is 8.0 x 10 – 7mm/sec.

7M

6. a) Discuss the factors affecting the compaction of a soil sample? 7M b) The undisturbed soil at a pit has a water content of 15%, void ratio 0.60 and specific

gravity of 2.70. The soil from the pit is to be used to construct a roll fill having a finished volume of 35000m3. The soil is to be transported from the pit to the construction site by trucks having a net carrying capacity of 6tons. After completion, the fill soil has a water content of 18% and dry density of 1.90g/cm3. Calculate the total number of trips the truck will have to make to construct the rolled fill.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the construction of a Newmark’s chart. 8M b) i. A long strip footing of width 2m transmits a pressure of 200kPa to the underlying

soil. Compute the value of the vertical stress at a depth of 5m below the center of gravity of the footing

ii. A line load of 100kN/m run extends to a long distance. Determine the intensity of vertical stress at a point 2m below the surface at a distance of 2m perpendicular to the line load. Use Boussinesq's theory

7M

8. a) Describe the procedure to determine the vertical stress below the corner of a rectangular footing.

8M

b) A ring foundation of 10m external diameter and 9m internal diameter carries a uniformly distributed load of 150kPa. Determine the vertical stress due to the load at a depth of 6m below the centre of the foundation.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the merits and demerits of triaxial shear test over the direct shear test. 7M b) Two samples of soil are tested in a triaxial shear test. The all-round pressure maintained

for the sample is 200kN/m2 and failure occurred at an additional axial stress of 770kN/m2. For the second sample, these values are 500kN/m2 and 1370kN/m2 respectively. Find the shear parameters for the soil.

8M

10. a) Explain the classification of shear tests based on drainage conditions prevailing during testing.

7M

b) The following results were obtained from undrained shear box tests on samples of silty clay:

Normal pressure (kN/m2) 55 105 145

Shear stress (kN/m2) 30 36 41

Determine the cohesion and angle of shearing resistance.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1116

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define hydrology. Briefly describe hydrologic cycle with the help of a neat sketch. 8M b) Illustrate Simon’s raingauge. Distinguish between AET and PET.

7M

2. a) Briefly describe the following: i. Evapotranspiration ii. Infiltrometers iii. Basin yield iv. Direct runoff due to a storm

8M

b) The shape of a catchment approximately resembles a square of side 12km. With reference to an x-y coordinate frame, The location of the four corners of the catchment are (0,0), (12,0), (12,12) and (0,12). There are four raingauges A, B, C and D whose positions are (3,3), (9,3), (9,9) and (3,9) respectively. The rainfall record over these raingauges during a storm is 75, 110, 80 and 98 mm respectively. Compare the average depths of rainfall estimated using Arithmetic mean method and Thiessen polygon method. Also calculate the volume of runoff generated at the outlet and comment on it.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is a Unit Hydrograph? State the assumptions of Unit Hydrograph Theory. 7M b) Find the ordinates of a storm hydrograph resulting from a 3 hour storm with rainfall of 2,

6.75 and 3.75 cm during subsequent 3 hours intervals. The ordinates of unit hydrograph are given in the table. Assume an initial loss of 5mm, infiltration index of 2.5mm/hour and base flow of 10 cumecs.

Time (h) 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24

UH ordinates 0 110 365 500 390 310 250 235 175 130 95 65 40 22 10 0

8M

4. a) Explain the different methods of baseflow separation in a hydrograph. 7M b) The ordinates of a 6hr UH for a particular basin are given below. Obtain the ordinates of a

9h UH for the basin using S–curve Technique.

Time (hr) 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 27 30 33 36 39 42 45

6 hr UGO (cumec)

0 9 20 35 49 43 35 28 22 17 12 9 6 3 0 0

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly discuss about the following with example: i. Aquiclude ii. Aquifuge iii. Aquitard iv. Aquifer

8M

b) A well of 0.3m diameter penetrates fully into a confined aquifer of thickness 15m and hydraulic conductivity 8X10-4m/s. The radius of influence is 220m and the drawdown in the well is not to exceed 3m. Sketch the given aquifer parameter. Also determine the transmissivity of the aquifer and maximum yield expected from the well.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Arrive at the equation for radial flow to unconfined aquifer. 8M b) With the help of neat sketch discuss the occurrence of groundwater.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define flood frequency, Recurrence interval, Return period, probability of occurrence. 8M b) Calculate the 5- and 50-year return period annual maximum discharges of a river, using

the lognormal distribution. Given ymean = 4.2743, sy = 0.4027, Cs = -0.0696.

7M

8. a) Describe the stepwise procedure of finding design discharge, using log pearson type III distribution.

8M

b) From the data of annual flood peaks of a stream for a period of 35yr, the 50 and 100yr flood have been estimated to be 660 and 740m3/s respectively using Gumbel’s method. Estimate 200yr flood for the stream. Given: ymean= 0.5403, SD = 1.1285.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With the help of a neat sketch describe the vertical distribution of soil moisture. 8M b) The following data pertains to the healthy growth of a crop. Field capacity of soil=30%,

Permanent wilting point=11%, Density of soil=1300kg/m3, Effective depth of root zone is 700mm, Daily consumptive use of water for the given crop=12mm. For healthy growth, the water content must not fall below 25% of the water holding capacity between field capacity and permanent wilting point. Determine the watering interval in days.

7M

10. a) Define duty and delta and write their relationship. What are the ways by which duty can be improved?

8M

b) The left branch canal carrying a discharge of 20cumecs has culturable command area of 20,000hectares. The intensity of Rabi crop is 80%, and the base period is 120 days. The right branch carrying discharge of 8cumecs has culturable command area of 12,000 hectares, intensity of irrigation of Rabi crop is 50% and the base period is 120 days. Compare the efficiencies of the two canals.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1117

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate between two hinged and three hinged arches. 3M b) A three hinged parabolic arch hinged at the supports and at the crown has a span of 24m

and central rise of4m. It carries concentrated loads of 75KN at 18m from left support and a uniformly distributed load of 45 KN/m over the left half of the portion. Determine the moment, normal thrust and radial shear at a section 6m from left support.

12M

2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span ‘l’ and rise ‘r’ carries a udl of w/metre run over the left hand half of the span. The moment of inertia of the arch rib varies as the secant of the slope of the rib axis. i. Obtain the expression for the horizontal thrust H ii. Calculate the horizontal thrust and bending moment at quarter span point on the right

half of the span if l=20m, r= 4m and w=20kN/m

15M

Unit – II

3. Analyze the continuous beam for three span by Kani’s method. Draw BMD.

Fig.1

15M

4. Analyze the rigid frame shown in Fig.2 by Kani’s method.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – III

5. Analyze the portal frame by slope deflection method and draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.3

15M

Cont…2

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6. Analyze the portal frame by moment distribution method.

Fig.4

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.5 by using flexibility method. Draw bending moment diagram.

Fig.5

15M

8. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.6 by flexibility matrix method. EI is constant throughout.

Fig.6

15M

Unit – V

9. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.7 by stiffness matrix method.

Fig.7

15M

10. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.8 by stiffness matrix method.

15M

Fig.8

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2510

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a block diagram explain the Von-Neuman architecture in detail. 8M b) A Program contains 1000 instructions out of that 25% instructions requires 4 clock cycles,

40% instructions requires 5 clock cycles and remaining require 3 clock cycles for execution. Find the total time required to execute the program running in a 1 GHz machine.

7M

2. a) With a suitable diagram, explain the construction of a bus system with three-state buffers.

6M

b) Design an arithmetic circuit with one selection variable S and two n-bit data inputs A and B. The circuit generates the following four arithmetic operations in conjunction with the input carry cin Draw the logic diagram for the first two stages:

S cin = 0 cin = 1

0 D = A+B (add) D = A+1 (Increment)

1 D = A-1 (Decrement) D = A+B’+1 (Subtract)

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the operation of timing and control unit during the execution of an instruction. 7M b) Explain how is the processor stack structure useful in handling subroutines or nesting of

the program?

8M

4. a) Explain various instruction formats with necessary examples. 8M b) Explain with example the various addressing modes used in computer architecture.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain micro program and micro instructions with help of a branching instruction. 8M b) Using Booth algorithm perform the multiplication of the signed numbers 010111 and

110110. Verify the answer in decimal.

7M

6. a) Represent -12.5 in hexadecimal systems according to IEEE single precision format. 8M b) Explain micro programmed control.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain a read and write operation for a dynamic RAM memory. 7M b) A Block Set-Associative cache consists of 64 blocks divided into 4 block sets. The main

memory contains 4096 blocks, each consists of 128 words of 16 bits length: i. How many bits are there in main memory ii. How many bits are there in each of the TAG, SET and WORD fields

8M

8. a) With a block diagram explain the virtual memory organization. 7M b) What are the factors on which the performance of a memory system depends? And

explain the Hit Rate and Miss Penalty with suitable equations. 8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain the system bus structure and multiport memory organization for the multiprocessor.

8M

b) Briefly explain the parallel bus arbitration technique with a diagram.

7M

10. a) Explain the scheme used to solve the cache coherence problem in shared memory multiprocessors.

8M

b) Construct a diagram for a 4X4 omega switching network. Show the switch setting required to connect input 3 to output1.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2517

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPILER DESIGN

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss two issues identified during Lexical Analysis. 8M b) Prove that the following grammar is ambiguous:

S --> A A --> A + A | <id> <id> --> a | b | c

7M

2. a) What are the three distinct terms identified during lexical analysis? Give Example for each.

7M

b) Check whether the given grammar is LL(1) or not.

S Sa | a

S aS | a

S aR |

R S |

S aRa

R S |

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Every SLR grammar is unambiguous, but not every unambiguous grammar is SLR. Prove this with example.

7M

b) Write the Yacc desk calculator program with the error production. lines : error ‘\n’

8M

4. a) Explain about error recovery in parsing. 8M b) Explain the schematic form of an LR parser with the help of block diagram.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain Syntax-directed definition for constructing a syntax tree for an expression and construct a syntax-tree for a-4+t.

8M

b) What is Three-Address Code in intermediate code generation and explain different forms of representing three-address code.

7M

6. a) Briefly discuss different methods for evaluating semantic rules. 8M b) Explain the Syntax-directed definition to produce syntax trees for assignment

statements.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain about activation record. 7M b) What is symbol table? Explain the different organization of symbol table.

8M

8. a) Account on overloading of functions and operators. 7M b) Discuss storage allocation for block structured languages.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain the following : i. Target machine ii. Input to the code generator iii. Register allocation

8M

b) What is machine dependent optimization? Explain how peephole techniques work in this.

7M

10. a) Illustrate the advantage of copy propagation in code optimization by taking an example. 7M b) Generate code for the following three-address sequence assuming that p and q are in

memory locations: y = *q q = q + 4 *p = y p = p + 4

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2518

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

PRINCIPLES OF PROGRAMMING LANGUAGES (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain in detail about language evaluation criteria. 8M b) Explain about lexical analysis.

7M

2. a) What are attribute grammars? Give an attribute grammar for simple assignment statements.

8M

b) List the different aspects of cost of a programming language.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the built in primitive data types. 10M b) Explain different ranges of subscript binding of Array.

5M

4. a) What are the basic operations on disjoint-union values? Give examples. 6M b) Mention the two recursive types. Explain each type with suitable examples.

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain about stack and dynamic variables. 8M b) Explain about generic methods.

7M

6. a) Write short notes on overloaded operators. 8M b) Explain about parameter passing methods.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain about Encapsulation. 8M b) What are the language design requirements for a language that support ADT?

7M

8. a) Write short notes on Java Threads. 8M b) Explain about semaphores.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain exception handling in Ada and Java. 8M b) Explain the Basic elements of Prolog.

7M

10. a) Explain the applications of Logic programming. 8M b) Compare functional languages and Imperative languages. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2508

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING THROUGH JAVA

(Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 09 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the features of object oriented programming giving its advantages. 8M b) Create a class called student with the data members for storing student number, name,

year and methods for accessing them. Write a driver class with main () method which creates objects of student class and takes user inputs. The program should display the contents of the objects using public method called display () defined in student class.

7M

2. a) What is JVM? Explain the architecture of JVM in detail. 9M b) What is the difference between String and StringBuffer Class?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate the different uses of super keyword with an example program. 10M b) Explain the significance of abstract classes.

5M

4. a) In inheritance what are the three possibilities with respect to superclass method (except its constructors)? Illustrate with suitable example(s).

9M

b) Bring out the significance of CLASSPATH environment variable.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) What is an exception? Differentiate between checked and unchecked exceptions. 8M b) Create your own exception which handles for age exception (if less than 18 years) in

voting system.

7M

6. a) Write a program which demonstrates two threads at different priorities which do not run on a preemptive platform in the same way as they run on a nonpreemptive platform.

9M

b) Write a program to create thread using runnable interface.

6M

Unit – IV

7. Write a program which handles mouse events in java.

15M

8. a) Write short notes on adapter classes. 5M b) Write a program to display the following output using awt components.

10M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Define Swings and Explain the following: i. JButton ii. JToggleButton iii. Checkboxes

7M

b) Develop a java swing application which creates a list of countries using Jlist component and allow user to select the country from the List and display the current selection of country.

8M

10. a) Explain Applet skeleton. 5M b) Develop an applet program that works as a simple calculator. Use a grid layout to

arrange Buttons for the digits and for the + - X % operations. Add a text field to display the result.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2602

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER NETWORKS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Which of the OSI layers handles each of the following: i. Dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames ii. Determining which route through the subnet to use What does ''negotiation'' mean when discussing network protocols? Give an example.

8M

b) The president of the Specialty Paint Corporation gets the idea to work together with a local beer brewer for the purpose of producing an invisible beer can (as an anti-litter measure). The president tells her legal department to look into it and they in turn ask engineering for help. As a result, the chief engineer calls his counterpart at the other company to discuss the technical aspects of the project. The engineers then report back to their respective legal departments, which then confer by phone to arrange the legal aspects. Finally, the two corporate presidents discuss the financial side of the deal. Is this an example of a multilayer protocol in the sense of the OSI model? Why or why not?

7M

2. a) What are the five layers in the Internet Protocol Stack? What are the principal responsibilities of each of these layers?

9M

b) Suppose two hosts, A and B, are separated by 10,000 kilometers and are connected by a

direct link of R=1 Gbps. Suppose the propagation speed over the link is 8105.2 meters/sec. Calculate the bandwidth-delay product, proptR

Consider sending a file of 400,000 bits from Host A to Host B. Suppose the file is sent continuously as one big message. What is the maximum number of bits that will be in the link at any given time?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the Ethernet Frame Structure in detail. 9M b) Explain Go Back N Protocol.

6M

4. a) Explain slotted ALOHA protocol in detail. 9M b) What’s the difference between error detection and error correction techniques? Explain in

detail.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain IPv6 datagram format with diagram in detail. 12M b) Describe how packet loss can occur at input ports. Describe how packet loss at input

ports can be eliminated (without using infinite buffers).

3M

6. a) Explain the concept of Link State Routing. 7M b) NAT violates a number of fundamental assumptions of Layered Network Architecture by

using TCP or UDP fields of transport layer header. Enumerate and very briefly discuss those violations.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the UDP Segment Structure in detail with diagram. 9M b) Is it possible from an application to enjoy reliable data transfer even when the

application runs over UDP? If so, how? 6M

Cont…2

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8. a) Discuss briefly TCP connection release. 8M b) Suppose that the clock-driven scheme for generating initial sequence numbers is used

with a 15-bit wide clock counter. The clock ticks once every 100msec, and the maximum packet lifetime is 60sec. How often need resynchronization take place: i. In the worst case? ii. When the data consumes 240 sequence numbers/min

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain in brief that how DNS works. 9M b) Explain how Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) works.

6M

10. a) Explain Simple Network Management Protocol in detail. 9M b) Write short notes on SMTP. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2603

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the different types of web pages with suitable examples. 8M b) Build a java script program to check whether the given number is palindrome or not.

7M

2. a) Explain the different ways in which CSS can be used in a Web page with suitable examples.

8M

b) Build a web application to illustrate nesting of tables.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the steps required to create a new database using JDBC application with suitable example.

8M

b) Name the groups of classes based on functionality in java.sql package and explain the same with suitable examples.

7M

4. a) Define the following XML schema, XSL, XSLT and XML parser. 8M b) Give an example to parse a text string into an XML DOM object and extract the info from

it with JavaScript.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain how the methods of DriverManger Class and Connection Interface are useful in establishing database connectivity in java.

8M

b) Write a servlet program to set and read the cookies on any web browser.

7M

6. a) What is Bean Development Kit? Develop a simple bean using the BDK. 8M b) Explain the methods of a generic servlet with a simple example.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) How to access Java Beans from JSP? Explain. 5M b) What are JSP implicit objects? Name five implicit objects that JSP supports and explain

them briefly.

10M

8. a) Write a program to show MVC in JSP, use the following hints: i. index.jsp a page that gets input from the user ii. ControllerServlet.java a servlet that acts as a controller iii. login-success.jsp and login-error.jsp files acts as view components iv. web.xml file for mapping the servlet

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain programming loops in php. 8M b) Using Ajax, how do you send a request to a server? Explain.

7M

10. a) How do you define constants in php, give example. Also list all the datatypes in php, with brief explanation.

8M

b) What is AJAX? With a simple program explain the working of AJAX. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2605

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WIRELESS AND MOBILE COMPUTING (Information Technology)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the System Architecture of IEEE 802.11 with neat diagram. 9M b) How do IEEE 802.11, HIPERLAN2 and BLUETOOTH respectively solve the hidden terminal

problem?

6M

2. a) Discuss about MAC Management in detail. 9M b) Explain frame format of IEEE 802.11 physical layer using DSSS.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the limitations of mobile computing? 7M b) With neat diagram explain subscriber authentication process.

8M

4. a) Describe protocol architecture for signaling. 8M b) Explain with neat diagram data encryption in GSM over the air interface.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With the help of diagram, explain how IP packets are transferred from fixed node to mobile node.

7M

b) List out the characteristics and limitations of MANETs.

8M

6. a) How DHCP is used for mobility and support of mobile IP? 9M b) Compare Pro-active and Reactive Protocols.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain two tier client server architecture. 9M b) Explain structural contexts and implicit and explicit contexts.

6M

8. a) Explain interleaved – Push – Pull (IPP) mechanism. 9M b) Explain Hash – based method tuning.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Show the Architecture for synchronization of devices in a WPAN and its connection to internet.

8M

b) Explain the functions of radio, baseband and link manager in Bluetooth.

7M

10. a) Discuss about the J2ME Architecture in detail. 10M b) What is Radio Transmission and explain limitations of radio transmission. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is Andriod? Discuss the features of Android. 5M b) With a neat block diagram explain the architecture of Android.

10M

2. a) Describe mobile ecosystem with its various layers. 10M b) Explain the history of Android Development.

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the Anatomy of on Android Application. 7M b) How to install and use Eclipse with ADT plug-in?

8M

4. a) Describe the procedure to create virtual machine for Android Jelly bean. 7M b) Create a simple Hello world program using Android.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is layout? Briefly explain different layouts used in android. 8M b) Explain the events defined in the ACTIVITY class.

7M

6. a) What is an intent? Explain the different kinds of intent. 8M b) Explain the difference between flexible layouts and alternative layouts.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the life cycle of a fragment. 8M b) What is Telephony manager? Write the code to get the SIM details.

7M

8. a) Explain eight functions that help manipulate media player in android. 8M b) What are fragments? Explain the main characteristics of fragments.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the procedure for connecting with database. 8M b) Write about session management.

7M

10. a) Differentiate between sqlite database and other databases. 7M b) Create a phone book application with contact name, mobile number and email-id uses a

database to store and retrieve the contacts. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2407

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Sketch the waveforms for the following signals:

i. 3 2 1 2 1 3x t u t u t u t u t

ii. 2 – 1 1 2x t r t r t r t r t

7M

b) Consider the rectangular function x(t) defined by

0

2

A for tx t

A for t

Approximate x(t) by a waveform sin(t) over the interval 0,2 such that mean square

value of error is minimized.

8M

2. a) Let x(n) = 2[u(n+1) – u(n-4)], sketch x(n) and also sketch the following signals:

i. 1y n x n

ii. 4y n x n

iii. 2y n x n

iv. 3y n x n

8M

b) State the Dirichlet’s conditions for existence of Fourier series on a periodic signal x(t). Also derive the relationship among the trigonometric Fourier series and complex exponential Fourier series.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Using properties of Fourier Transforms, find the Fourier Transform of the following signal.

2

1; 0

4x t a

a jt

8M

b) Find the Fourier Transform of the periodic signal given by 3 2cos 10x t t . 7M

4. a) State and prove the following properties of Fourier transform: i. Frequency domain convolution property ii. Differentiation in frequency domain

8M

b) Explain the significance of Hilbert Transforms in filter applications. Find the Hilbert transform of a Sinωt.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Find the Impulse response of the system filter shown in Fig.1.

Fig.1

7M

b) Consider a LTI system with input ( ) cosx n n u(n) and unit impulse response

1( )

2

n

h n

u(n) compute the signal y(n) = x(n) * h(n).

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Obtain the conditions for distortionless transmission through a system. 5M b) Find the convolution of following signals by graphical method 3( ) ( )tx t e u t ,

( ) ( 3).h t u t

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) Find the Laplace transform of following signals using properties of Laplace transform

i. )(2sin)( 2 ttutetx t

ii. t

etx

t

1)(

8M

b) Find the convolution of the signals )()( 2

1 tuetx t and )()( 4

2 tuetx t using the

property of Laplace transform.

7M

8.

a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of 464

1)(

23

sss

ssX

7M

b) State and prove Initial and final value theorems of Laplace transform.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) a continuous time signal x(t) with Nyquist rate ѠN then determine the Nyquist rate of following

ttxty 0cos)()(

)()( 2 txty

8M

b) Find the Z-transform and ROC of )(3

12)(

7

53)( nununx

nn

7M

10.

a) State and prove the sampling theorem.

8M b) An LTI system is described by the equation y(n) = x(n) + 0.81x(n-1) – 0.81x(n-2)-0.45y(n-2).

Sketch the poles and zeros on z-plane. Assess the stability. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2419

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology &

Electronics and Communication Engineering) Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw and explain memory read cycle timing diagram in minimum mode. 8M b) What is addressing mode? Explain different addressing modes supported by 8086 with

suitable examples.

7M

2. a) Draw the register organization of 8086 and explain typical application of each register. 7M b) Explain the function of the following of 8086:

i. BHE

ii. DT/R iii. ALE iv. INTR

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain Instruction set classification in 8086? Discuss about arithmetic instructions with examples?

8M

b) Write an 8086 assembly language program to Sort numbers in ascending order.

7M

4. a) Differentiate macros and procedure. 7M b) Explain following instructions:

i. PUSH ii. POP iii. IN iv. OUT

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain mode 0 and mode 1 operation of 8255. 8M b) Write an assembly language program to interface Stepper motor to make 5 rotations

clockwise and 5 rotations anti clockwise with 8086.

7M

6. a) Sketch and Explain the Interfacing of 2x16 KB ROM and 2x8 KB RAM with 8086. 8M b) Sketch and explain the interface of 32K x 16 ROMs using a decoder with 8086.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the interrupt structure of 8086. 7M b) Write a program in assembly using 8086 INT 21 function to return the key closed on to the

display. Use suitable functions.

8M

8. a) Compare between asynchronous and synchronous data transfer. 8M b) Draw the interfacing diagram of RS232 with 8086 and explain its operation.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain memory organization of 8051. 8M b) Write An 8051-assembly program to interface 16*2 LCD segment to display WELCOME.

7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

10. a) Give two instruction examples in 8051 microcontroller for each of the following category:

i. Logical operation ii. Arithmetic operation iii. Branch operation

6M

b) Write necessary instructions to configure timers of 8051 in mode1 and thereby write an assembly language program to generate 10 KHz square wave.

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2417

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DIGITAL DESIGN THROUGH VERILOG HDL

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the Top-Down and Bottom-Up design methodology by taking 4-bit ripple carry counter as an example.

8M

b) Write the output for the following code and explain each operators mentioned in this program. module exp(a, b,out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7); input [3:0] a, b; output [3:0]out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7; initial begin a = 4'b0100; b = 4'b0101; end assign out1 = a && b; assign out2= (a || b); assign out3= (a & b); assign out4= (a | b); assign out5= ,a*0+, b*1+, 2’b01-; assign out6= (a == b); assign out7= &a; endmodule

7M

2. a) Briefly explain the typical design flow for designing VLSI IC circuit. 7M b) Define the following in Verilog:

i. Define three buses: busA, busB, and busC of 32-bit width each ii. Define a real variable called data iii. Define Array of 32 one-bit boolean register variables iv. Give the syntax for display statement in verilog

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the AND/OR and BUF/NOT pre defined primitives to model gate level description with example.

7M

b) Define Instance. Design 2×2 bit array multiplier using Half adders and suitable gates with structural verilog module and plot the simulated waveform.

8M

4. a) Implement 4 to 16 line decoder using 2 to 4 line decoders and write the structural verilog module.

8M

b) Write the gate level modeling for 4 to 1 line Multiplexer with stimulus block.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate blocking and non blocking assignments with suitable example. State the application of non-blocking statement with example.

8M

b) Write the behavioral verilog module for 4 to 2 line priority encoder with valid bit (LSB bit is having the highest priority) and plot the simulated waveform.

7M

Cont…2

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::2::

6. a) Describe the different types of loop statements used in verilog HDL with example. 7M b) Write behavioral verilog module for BCD up counter with stimulus block.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the different ways of specifying delays in continuous assignment statement? Give examples.

6M

b) Write the verilog code for negative edge triggered D FlipFlop with dataflow statements. 9M 8. a) Design verilog module for a CMOS switch connected parallel a pair of NMOS and PMOS

switches and write the test bench for the same. 7M

b) Write verilog code for 4:1 Multiplexer using conditional operators in dataflow modeling style and write the test bench for the same.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the verilog full adder module using half adder task. 7M b) List out the difference between combinational and sequential UDPs in verilog. Write the

verilog module for D-Latch using UDP.

8M

10. a) Explain the differences between tasks and functions used in verilog and also write the syntax for each.

10M

b) Briefly explain the sequential UDP by taking edge-triggered T-Flip-Flop with clear. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2418

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

INTEGRATED CIRCUITS APPLICATIONS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define and Explain the following: i. Total output offset voltage ii. Thermal Drift

8M

b) Define and explain the following: i. Input offset voltage ii. PSRR iii. Slew rate

7M

2. a) With the help of neat block diagram sketch and explain the different stages of an Op-Amp.

8M

b) Design a capacitor coupled voltage follower using a 741 operational amplifier. The lower cutoff frequency for the circuit is to be 50Hz and the load resistance is RL=3.9KΩ. Sketch the circuit with designed values.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the operation of INV Schmitt trigger with circuit diagram and necessary waveforms.

9M

b) For an Astable multivibrator, show that frequency of output waveform is f=1/2RC for a symmetric output square wave.

6M

4. a) Explain how the Op-Amp is used as current to voltage converter [Transresistance Amplifier] with suitable circuit diagram.

6M

b) An INV Schmitt trigger circuit is to have UTP = 1V and LTP = 0V. Design a suitable circuit using a Bi-polar Op-Amp and ±15V supply.

9M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages of active filters over passive filters? 6M b) Design a voltage regulator using IC 723 to get a voltage output of 3V. [Given: Vref =7V,

R1=10KΩ] 9M

6. a) List and Briefly explain the characteristics of three-terminal IC regulators what are the limitations of these regulators?

7M

b) Design a second order low pass filter circuit to have a cut-off frequency of 1KHz. [IB(MAX) =500nA for 741 Op-Amp]

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram explain the working Astable multivibrator using IC555.

7M

b) Briefly explain the Analog Phase Detector for PLL and draw the input and output waveforms of phase detector for: Ф = 00 Ф = 900 Ф = 1800

8M

Cont…2

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::2::

8. a) Sketch the circuit of inverting Schmitt trigger with hysteresis curve and explain. 7M b) Derive an expression for pulse period TP for 555 timer based Monostable Multivibrator.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With a neat sketch, Explain the working of R-2R ladder DAC. 9M b) A 12-bit DAC has a step size of 8mV. Determine the full scale output voltage. Also find the

output voltage for the input of 010101101101.

6M

10. a) With a block diagram explain dual slope ADC operation and also mention its advantages. 9M b) If the conversion time of a 8-bit flash ADC is 10uSec, find the maximum frequency of a

sinusoidal voltage that can be digitised. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2420

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat block diagram, explain the various elements of a digital communication system.

8M

b) Compare and comment on the performance of PCM and DM systems.

7M

2. a) With a neat sketch explain the principle and operation of DPCM. 7M b) Obtain the expression for output signal to quantization noise ratio in the case of DM

system.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the features and applications of Binary PSK. Also find the probability of error of coherent PSK.

9M

b) Binary data is transmitted at a rate of 106 bits/sec over a microwave link having a bandwidth of 3MHz. Assume that the noise power spectral density at the receiver input is

10/ 2 10 watts/Hz. Find the average carrier power required at the receiver input

for coherent PSK and DPSK signaling schemes to maintain 4

eP 10 .

6M

4. a) Illustrate the features, working and generation of Differentially Coherent PSK (DPSK) and its encoding process with a neat figure of DPSK modulator and Demodulator.

9M

b) Binary data is transmitted over an RF bandpass channel with a usable bandwidth of 10MHz at a rate of 4.8X106 bits/sec using an ASK signaling method. The carrier amplitude at the receiver antenna is 1 mv and the noise power spectral density at the receiver input is 10-15 watts/Hz: i. Find the error probability of a coherent receiver ii. Find the error probability of a non-coherent receiver

6M

Unit – III

5. a) What is Mutual Information? State and prove any three properties of it. 7M b) A channel has the following characteristics:

1/ 3 1/ 3 1/ 6 1/ 6

P Y/X 1/ 6 1/ 6 1/ 3 1/ 3

Find H X ,H Y ,H X,Y and channel capacity if r 1000 symbols/sec

8M

6. a) Apply Shannon’s encoding algorithm to the following set of messages and obtain code

efficiency and redundancy. Assume the probability of m1 m2 m3 m4 m5 are

1/ 8 1/16 3 /16 1/ 4 and 3 / 8.

9M

b) Given the messages x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 and x6 with respective probabilities

0.4, 0.2,0.2, 0.1 and 0.07 and 0.03. construct a binary code by applying Shannon-

fano encoding procedure. Determine code efficiency and redundancy of the code.

6M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

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Unit – IV

7. a) For a systematic (7,4) linear block code with parity check matrix p given by:

1 1 1

1 1 0

1 0 1

0 1 1

i. Draw the encoding circuit ii. Draw the syndrome calculation circuit iii. Draw the error correcting circuit

8M

b) For a (6,3) linear code whose generator matrix is G is:

1 0 0 1 0 1

0 1 0 1 1 0

0 0 1 0 1 1

Find all the hamming weights and distances.

7M

8.

a) The generator polynomial for a (15,7) cyclic code is 4 6 7 8g x 1 x x x x .

i. Find the code vector in systematic form for the message 2 3 4D x x x x .

ii. Assume that first and last bit of the code vector v x for

2 3 4D x x x x , suffers transmission errors find the syndrome v x

10M

b) If n 7 identify n,k values of cyclic codes generated by the following generator

polynomial:

i. 2 4g x 1 x x

ii. 2 3 4g x 1 x x x

5M

Unit – V

9. a) Illustrate the need, features and code tree for convolutional encoder with suitable figures and examples.

8M

b) Explain the Viterbi algorithm assuming a suitable convolutional coder and received bit stream.

7M

10. a) Illustrate the features, working and implementation details of Shannon’s-Fano algorithm with suitable figure and examples.

8M

b) Illustrate the need, features and working of Trellis coding with suitable figure and examples.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2421

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Starting from effective length of antenna, derive expression of maximum effective length of antenna with relevant diagram.

5M

b) With proper diagram and illustration, Explain Friis Transmission formula. A directional antenna carrying a current of 100A and having a radiation resistance of 200Ω. If gain of antenna is 10. Solve the power received by the antenna of gain 20 placed at a distance of 2kms from source.

10M

2. a) Derive expression for Beam area of an antenna with relevant diagram. 5M b) Derive the radiation resistance of short dipole antenna. Justify that maximum effective

aperture of a /2 dipole is 0.132.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Solve field pattern for linear antenna of n isotropic source with the case of end-fire array with increased directivity.

8M

b) Derive an expression for array factor for 2 Isotropic point source with identical amplitude

and phase constant and spaced one half 2

wavelength apart calculate the maxima,

minima, half power points, null points and show that in radiation pattern.

7M

4. a) Evaluate an expression for array factor of an array of N-isotropic sources. 5M

b) Show that the radiation resistance of circular loop is

2

280z

R

𝑜ℎ𝑚 and also for

short dipole

2

220z

R

𝑜ℎ𝑚

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the linear polarization property with a monofilar axial mode helical antenna. 7M b) Explain Resonant antenna? And list the different types.

8M

6. a) Explain broad band antenna and give example. 7M b) What is travelling wave wire antenna? Explain travelling wave long wire antenna with

neat diagram.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is aperture antenna? Give example. 7M b) Describe feed Antenna for Reflectors. 8M 8. a) Explain the working of Microstrip antenna. 7M b) Explain the working on Lens antenna. Also discuss on the non-metallic dielectric lens

antenna.

8M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Explain skip distance and derive the expression for skip distance for flat earth surface. 6M b) With a neat diagram, explain the atmospheric structure.

A radio wave of 1GHz frequency is making an angle of 60 in ionosphere of electron concentration 2x1020e/m3. Estimate critical frequency and MUF.

9M

10. a) A transmitting antenna at a height of ht above smooth perfectly conducting flat-earth surfaces ends a signal to a receiving antenna of height hr (ht>hr) with ground range between them equal to ‘d’. Estimate the path difference between the direct and reflected signals reaching the receiving antenna.

5M

b) Justify that FMUF is always greater than Fc. Derive the expression. Solve electron density in ionosphere with f= 50MHz and refractive index of 0.9.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2217

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SYSTEM TRANSMISSION

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive an expression for inductance of a single-phase transmission line. 9M b) Determine the Inductive reactance of a single phase 50hz 16km long Transmission line

which consists of a pair of conductors of diameter 1.2cm and spaced at 1.2m.

6M

2. a) Derive an expression for capacitance of three phase symmetrically spaced transmission line.

6M

b) A three phase, three wire 50kv, 50Hz overhead line conductor is placed in horizontal plane as shown in Fig.1. The conductor diameter is 1.5cm. If the line is 100km, calculate: i. Capacitance/ph/meter ii. Charging current/ph

Fig.1

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Distinguish between short, medium and long transmission lines. 5M b) Derive A, B, C, D constants of a medium length transmission line using nominal

method.

10M

4. a) A 220kV, 3-phase transmission line is 40km long. The resistance per phase is 0.15Ω per km and the inductance per phase is 1.5923mH per km. The line is supplying a 3-phase load of 381MVA at 0.8pf lagging. Find: i. The voltage and power factor at the sending end of the line ii. The voltage regulation and efficiency of the line

8M

b) Derive an expression for voltage regulation of a short transmission line with vector diagram.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain why skin effect is absent in a DC system. 5M b) A 3 phase, 50Hz, 132kV transmission line consists of conductors of 1.17cm diameter and

spaced equilaterally at a distance of 3m. The conductors have smooth surface with m0=0.96. The atmospheric pressure is 72cm of Hg and the temperature is 200C. Determine corona loss per km per phase under fair and foul weather conditions.

10M

6. a) Derive an expression for the sag of an overhead line supported at unequal levels. 10M b) An overhead transmission line has a span of 230m, the conductor weighing 650kg/km.

Calculate the maximum sag if the breaking stress is 4465kg/cm2 while the area of the conductor is 1.29cm2. Assume factor of safety is equal to 2.

5M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) What are the properties of insulating materials used for cables? 6M b) In a string of 3 units, the capacitance between each link pin to earth is 11% of the

capacitance of one unit. Calculate the voltage across each unit and the string efficiency when the voltage across the string is 33kV.

9M

8. a) What is grading of cables. What are the different methods of grading cables? 9M b) Calculate the capacitance and charging current of a 3, single core 33kV, 50Hz, 2km long

cable having a core diameter of 2cm and a sheath diameter of 6cm. Relative permittivity of the insulation is 3.0.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) What are the advantages and dis-advantages of radial distribution system? 6M b) A DC two-wire distributor, 500m long and fed at one end is shown in Fig.2. The total

resistance of the distributor is 0.02Ω. Determine the voltage at the fed end F when the voltage at the far end R is 220V.

Fig.2

9M

10. a) What is ring distribution system? Mention the advantages of using interconnector. 7M b) A uniformly-loaded DC two-wire distributor 500m long is loaded at 3A/m run. Resistance

of the loop is 0.01Ω/km. determine the maximum voltage drop if the distributor is fed at both ends at the same voltage.

Fig.3

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2216

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly explain the classification of measuring instruments. 7M b) With a neat sketch, explain the construction and working of a single phase moving iron

power factor meter.

8M

2. a) What is damping torque? Explain different methods by which damping torque is produced.

8M

b) Explain different methods by which range of the Electrostatic voltmeters range can be extended.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write the circuit of electrodynamometer wattmeter and derive the expression for deflection toque, control torque and deflection.

10M

b) Write a brief note on Weston frequency meter.

5M

4. a) Explain how the range of a wattmeter can be extended using instrument transformers. 8M b) The meter constant of a 230V, 10A watt hour meter is 1800 revolutions per kWh. The

meter is tested at half load and rated voltage under upf and found to make 40 revolutions in 65s. Determine meter error at half load.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain in detail the principle and operation of DC Crompton’s potentiometer. 7M b) Compare and contrast the different standardization techniques in DC and AC

potentiometers.

8M

6. a) Compare and contrast the working of frequency selective analyzer and spectrum analyzer.

10M

b) Write a brief note on Q meter.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the measurement of capacitance using De Sauty’s Bridge with necessary equations.

7M

b) Draw a neat circuit diagram of Hey’s bridge. Obtain the expression for unknown inductance and Q factor. Mention its advantages and disadvantages.

8M

8. a) Write the circuit diagram of Wheatstone’s bridge and Derive the expression for unknown resistance in Wheatstone’s bridge. Mention the limitation of Wheatstone’s bridge.

7M

b) Derive the equation to measure an inductive impedance of a Maxwell’s bridge. Also find the series equivalent of the unknown impedance, if the bridge constants at balance condition are C1=0.01µF, R1=470KΩ, R2=5.1KΩ and R3=100KΩ.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is and LVDT? Explain its working principle with a neat diagram. Mention its applications.

8M

b) What is a strain gauge? Explain its working principle. Derive the expression for Gauge Factor.

7M

10. a) Differentiate between a resistor, inductor and capacitor transducer. 9M b) Write a brief note on piezo electric transducer. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2218

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SYSTEM DISTRIBUTION

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Why loads are classified in distribution systems and how they are classified? Also Explain their different characteristics?

8M

b) Explain briefly the relationship between load factor and loss factor along with their Characteristics.

7M

2. a) Explain Load factor and diversity factor. 7M b) Draw a schematic single line diagram of an electrical distribution system and explain its

main parts in detail.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With the help of a single line diagram explain loop type primary distributor. 7M b) Derive the equations for primary feeders for uniformly distributed load.

8M

4. a) What are the various benefits through optimal location of substation? 7M b) What is secondary distribution system? And explain design criterion.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages for adopting 3-phase, 4-wire distribution for LT supplies and 3-phase, 3- wire for high voltage distribution?

8M

b) Determine the voltage drop and power loss in a single phase two wire lateral with multi grounded common neutral.

7M

6. a) Why is voltage drop consideration important in distribution systems? How is it computed when line parameters and load density of an area are given?

8M

b) Derive the relation between 1-phase and 3-phase power loss for a two phases plus neutral system.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) List out the various objectives of distribution system protection. 7M b) Distinguish the common faults between a transmission system and a distribution system.

8M

8. a) In detail explain the General co ordination procedure. 7M b) Explain the co ordination between line sectionalizers and circuit breakers.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Compare and explain the role of shunt and series capacitors in P.F correction. 8M b) Explain the procedure to determine the best and optimum capacitor location in

Distribution System.

7M

10. a) With the help of a phasor diagram, show how a series capacitor boosts the voltage. What are the drawbacks of this method?

8M

b) An industrial plant has 300hp induction motor load that runs at 0.8pf lagging and efficiency 0.85. An synchronous motor of 150 HP and average efficiency 80% is available. If the motor is run on no load with some losses, determine the pf the motor make the overall power factor of the plant to 0.9.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2319

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. A disc of 5kg mass with radius of gyration 70mm is mounted at span on a horizontal shaft spins at 720rpm in clockwise direction when viewed from the right hand bearing. If the shaft precesses about the vertical axis at 30rpm in clockwise direction when viewed from the top, determine the reactions at each bearing due to mass of the disc and gyroscopic effect.

15M

2. a) Discuss different types of friction. 5M b) A vertical shaft 150 mm in diameter rotating at 100r.p.m. rests on a flat end foot step

bearing. The shaft carries a vertical load of 20kN. Calculate power lost in friction for uniform pressure and uniform wear. Take coefficient of friction is equal to 0.05.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain with neat sketch a centrifugal clutch. 7M b) The inner and the outer radii of a single plate clutch are 40mm and 80mm respectively.

Determine the maximum, minimum and the average pressure when the axial force is 3kN.

8M

4. a) What is Band brake? 3M b) Figure shows a two way band brake. It is so designed that it can operate equally well in

both clockwise and counter clockwise rotation of the brake drum. The diameter of the drum is 400mm and the coefficient of friction between the band and the drum is 0.3. The angle of contact of band brake is 270° and the torque absorbed in the band brake is 400N-m. Calculate: i. Force F required at the end of the lever ii. Width of the band if the allowable stress in the band is 70MPa

Fig.1

All dimensions are in mm

12M

Unit – III

5. a) State the applications of Flywheel. 3M b) The mass of flywheel of an engine is 6.5tonnes and the radius of gyration is 1.8m. It is

found from the turning moment diagram that the fluctuation of energy is 56kN-m. If the mean speed of the engine is 120rpm, find the maximum and minimum speeds.

12M

Cont…2

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6. a) What is Controlling Force? 3M b) A Porter governor has equal arms each 250mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation.

Each ball has a mass of 5kg and the mass of the central load on the sleeve is 15kg. The radius of rotation of the ball is 150mm when the governor begins to lift and 200mm when the governor is at maximum speed. Find the minimum and maximum speeds and range of speed of the governor.

12M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the causes of unbalance. 3M b) Four masses A, B, C and D are attached to a shaft and revolve in the same plane. The

masses are 12kg, 10kg, 18kg and 15kg respectively and their radii of rotations are 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 30mm. The angular position of the masses B, C and D are 600, 1350 and 2700 from mass A. Find the magnitude and position of the balancing mass at a radius of 100mm.

12M

8. Each crank and connecting rod of a four-crank in-line engine are 200mm and 800mm respectively. The outer cranks are set at 1200 to each other and each has a reciprocating mass of 200kg the spacing between adjacent planes of cranks are 400mm, 600mm, and 500mm. if the engine is in complete primary balance, determine the reciprocating masses of the inner cranks and their relative angular positions. Also find the secondary unbalanced force if the engine speed is 210rpm.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) State the causes of Vibration. 3M b) A vertical single stage air compressor having a mass of 500kg is mounted on springs

having a stiffness of 1.96×105N/m and a damping coefficient of 0.2. The rotating parts are completely balanced and the equivalent reciprocating parts have a mass of 20kg. The stroke is 0.2m. Determine the dynamic amplitude of vertical motion and the phase difference between the motion and excitation force if the compressor is operated at 200rpm.

12M

10. a) A shaft supported freely at the ends has a mass of 120kg placed 250mm from one end. The shaft diameter is 40mm. Determine the frequency of the natural transverse vibrations if length of the shaft is 700mm, E=200GN/m2.

8M

b) A shaft of 40mm diameter and 2.5m length has a mass of 15kg per meter length. It is simply supported at the ends and carries three masses of 90kg, 140kg and 60kg at 0.8m, 1.5m and 2m respectively from the left support. Taking E=200GN/m2, find the frequency of the transverse vibrations and whirling speed.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2320

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Highlight the Essential properties of cutting fluids. 8M b) Explain the types of cutting fluids and their application.

7M

2. a) Define Tool life and analyze Taylor’s tool life equation. 8M b) Tabulate the Compositions and types of popular high speed steels.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) List out the various types of taper turning methods and explain any one. 8M b) Discuss the tooling layout for the production of a Hexagonal nut in Turret lathe.

7M

4. a) Sketch a centre lathe and explain various parts. 10M b) Describe a typical single spindle automatic bar machine.

5M

Unit – III

5. a) Highlight the major parts of a standard shaper. 8M b) Explain with a diagram crank and slotted link quick return mechanism.

7M

6. a) Differentiate between shaper and planer. 8M b) With a neat sketch explain the major parts of a slotting machine.

7M

7. a) Explain the auto feed mechanism of a drilling machine. 8M b) Describe the nomenclature, definitions and functions of the different parts of a drill.

7M

8. a) Discuss double column vertical boring machine with a sketch. 8M b) Explain different types of boring tools.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the honing process and the honing tool. 8M b) List out the uses of jigs and fixtures.

7M

10. a) How does lapping differ from honing? 8M b) With neat sketch explain the operation of horizontal broaching machine. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2321

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the effect of boiler pressure on the performance of Rankine cycle. 4M b) In a simple Rankine cycle, dry saturated steam at 20bar expands to a pressure of 1

atmosphere. Determine: i. The pump work ii. Turbine work iii. Network output iv. Thermal efficiency v. Quality of steam entering the condenser vi. Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh What would be the Network output, Cycle efficiency, Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh and Quality of steam entering the condenser if the condenser pressure is reduced to 0.06 bar and compare the performance of the two cycles.

11M

2. a) Explain the working of ideal regenerative cycle. 6M b) Compare the performance of simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of

20 bar and dry saturated with that of another simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of 30 bar and dry saturated in terms of: i. Net work output ii. Heat supply iii. Thermal efficiency iv. Steam rate v. Quality of steam entering the condenser Assume the condenser pressure to be 0.06bar for both the cycles.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Differentiate between fire tube and water tube boilers. 8M b) Explain the working principle of super critical boilers

7M

4. a) What are the effects of friction on the flow through a steam nozzle? Explain with the help of h-s diagram.

7M

b) Dry saturated steam at 2.8bar is expanded through a convergent nozzle to 1.7bar. The exit area is 3cm2. Estimate the exit velocity and the mass flow rate, assuming: i. Isentropic expansion ii. Assuming super saturated flow exists

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a condenser? What are the requirements of steam condenser? 8M b) List the classification of condenser. Explain any one.

7M

6. a) What is the fundamental difference between the operation of impulse and reaction turbines? Explain the same with neat sketches.

8M

b) In a single stage impulse turbine the blade angles are equal and the nozzle angle is 200. The velocity coefficient for the blade is 0.83. Find the maximum blade efficiency possible. If the actual blade efficiency is 90% of maximum blade efficiency, find the possible ratio of blade speed to steam speed.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Prove that maximum diagram efficiency of a stage of a reaction steam turbine is given by the expression φ= 2 cos2α1/(1+ cos2α1).

7M

b) A 50% reaction turbine (with symmetrical velocity triangle) running at 400rpm has the exit angle of the blades as 200 and the velocity of steam relative to the blades at the exit is 1.35 times the mean blade speed. The steam flow rate is 8.33kg/s and at a particular stage the specific value is 1.381m3/kg. Calculate for this stage: i. A suitable blade height assuming the rotor mean diameter 12 times the blade height ii. The diagram work

8M

8. a) Describe with neat sketches the working of a simple constant pressure open cycle gas turbine. How does the actual cycle differ from the theoretical cycle?

6M

b) Air enters at 1 bar and 150C into the compressor of a constant pressure open cycle gas turbine plant and leaves the compressor at 6 bar. Using the following data: Temperature of the gases entering the turbine= 7000C, Pressure loss in the combustion chamber=0.1bar, ηc=80% and ηt=80% ηc(combustion)=90%.Take γ=1.4 Cp=1kj/kgK for air and gases. Find: i. The quantity of air circulation in the system if the plant develops 940KW ii. Heat supplied per kg of air circulation

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the working difference between propeller jet, turbo-jet and turbo-prop. 7M b) Differentiate between solid propellant and liquid propellant.

8M

10. a) What are the fundamental difference between the jet propulsion and rocket propulsion?

5M

b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of liquid propellant rocket. 10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2322

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the factors to be considered in machine Design? 7M b) A beam of uniform cross section is fixed at one end and carries an electric motor weighing

400N at a distance of 300mm from the fixed end. The maximum bending stress in the beam is 40MPa. Find the width and depth of the beam if the depth is twice that of the width.

8M

2. a) Explain Maximum principal stress theory stating its limitations. 7M b) A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 10kN and transverse shear force of 5kN. The yield

strength of the bolt material is 300MPa. Considering the factor of safety of 2. Determine the diameter of the shaft using: i. Maximum shear stress theory ii. Distortion energy theory

8M

Unit – II

3. a) List the Factors Considered While Designing Against Fatigue. 3M b) A circular bar is subjected to a completely reversed axial load of 150kN. Determine the

size of the bar for infinite life, if it is made of plain carbon steel having ultimate tensile strength of 800N/mm2 and yield point in tension of 600N/mm2. Assuming the surface finish factor as 0.80, size factor 0.85, reliability as 90%, and modifying factor for the stress concentration as 0.9.

12M

4. A shaft is subjected to a bending moment varying from 200Nm to 500Nm and a twisting moment varying from 50Nm to 175Nm. The material 30C8 steel has Su=600MPa, Se=300 MPa, Ka=0.76, Kb=0.85, Kc=0.897, Kd=1.85 and q=0.95. Find the diameter of the shaft using Von Mises Hencky theory. Factor of safety = 1.5.

15M

Unit – III

5. A welded connection, as shown in Fig.1, is subjected to an eccentric force of 60kN in the plane of the welds. Determine the size of the welds, if the permissible shear stress for the weld is 100N/mm2. Assume static conditions.

Fig.1

15M

Cont…2

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6. a) Differentiate between cold riveting and hot riveting. 5M b) A brake band attached to the hinge by means of a riveted joint is shown in Fig.2.

Determine the size of the rivets needed for the load of 10kN. Also determine the width of the band. The permissible stresses for the band and rivets in tension, shear and compression are 80, 60 and 120N/mm2 respectively. Assume: i. Margin(m) = 1.5d ii. Transverse pitch (pi) = p iii. Find the pitch of the rivets

Fig.2

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the advantages of bolted joints. 3M b) A bracket, as shown in Fig.3 below, supports a load of 30kN. Determine the size of bolts,

if the maximum allowable tensile stress in the bolt material is 60MPa. The distances are: L1 = 80mm, L2 = 250 mm, and L = 500 mm.

Fig.3

12M

8. a) What is Knuckle joint? 3M b) Design a knuckle joint to transmit tension 150kN. The design stresses may be taken as 75

MPa in tension 60MPa in shear and 150MPa in compression.

12M

Unit – V

9. A 15kW, 960r.p.m. motor has a mild steel shaft of 40mm diameter and the extension being 75mm. The permissible shear and crushing stresses for the mild steel key are 56MPa and 112 MPa. Design the keyway in the motor shaft extension. Check the shear strength of the key against the normal strength of the shaft.

15M

10. Two 35 mm shafts are connected by a flanged coupling. The flanges are fitted with 6 bolts on 125mm bolt circle. The shafts transmit a torque of 800N-m at 350r.p.m. For the safe stresses mentioned below Calculate: i. diameter of bolts ii. thickness of flanges iii. key dimensions iv. hub length v. power transmitted Safe shear stress for shaft material = 63 MPa Safe stress for bolt material = 56MPa Safe stress for cast iron coupling = 10 MPa Safe stress for key material = 46MPa

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2323

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

METROLOGY AND INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) As a manufacturing engineer, you are required to manufacture gauges. According to you, what are the desirable properties required in gauge materials during selection?

6M

b) Design the limits of shaft and hole for a Fit 50H7 g6 for a running fit given that 50 mm lies between 30-50 mm i=0.45 (D)1/3+0.001D in microns Fundamental Deviation of Hole is zero and Fundamental Deviation of shaft =-2.5D0.34 IT 7= 16i and IT6=10i.

9M

2. a) What is limit gauging? With neat sketches, explain plug and ring gauges. 8M b) Is it possible to drill a 25mm nominal hole to an accuracy of 0.02

0.0225

mm using standard

drill and drilling machine available. A shaft is to be machined to obtain a clearance fit in the above hole such that allowance should be 0.01 mm and maximum clearance should not be more than 0.08 mm. What should be the tolerance on the shaft?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain with a neat sketch the working mechanism of a gear and pinion type dial indicator.

7M

b) Describe in brief the construction and working of a sigma comparator with the help of a neat sketch. State its advantages and disadvantages.

8M

4. a) Explain the construction and working of Tool maker’s Microscope with a neat sketch. 7M b) Describe the construction and working of an optical projector.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe the parameters of surface roughness measurements as per ISI standards. 7M b) Explain the working principle of Surface roughness measurement using Profilometer.

8M

6. a) Explain the working principle of Parkinson Gear tester with a sketch. 7M b) With a neat sketch describe Alignment of both the centres in the vertical plane of a lathe.

8M

Unit – IV

7. With the help of neat sketch, explain the working principle of Piezoelectric transducer. Also

state the merits, demerits and applications Of them.

15M

8. With the help of a neat diagram explain the construction and working of mechanical type

tachometer.

15M

Unit – V

9. Explain the construction and working principle of bourdon pressure Guage.

15M

10. a) Discuss the laws of thermo electricity. 8M b) Explain seismic transducers with their applications. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2116

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I

(Civil Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive a relation between water content, degree of saturation, void ratio and specific gravity of solids.

7M

b) A sample of soil weighing 30.5 kg had a volume of 0.0190 m3. When dried out in an oven its weight was reduced to 26.90 kg. The specific gravity of solids was found to be 2.70. Determine the bulk density, dry density, water content, saturated density, percentage of air voids, void ratio and degree of saturation.

8M

2. a) What is a particle size distribution curve? How it is obtained in the laboratory for a given soil.

8M

b) A sample of clay has a natural water content of 50 %. Its liquid limit is 60 % and the plastic limit 32 %. Determine the plasticity index and liquidity index. How will you classify the soil as per the Indian Standard Classification system?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Permeability depends on properties of the soil as well as properties of pore fluid. Explain briefly.

7M

b) Calculate the coefficient of permeability of a soil sample, 6cm in height and 50cm2 in cross-sectional area, if quantity of water equal to 430ml passed down in 10 minutes, under an head of 40cm. On oven drying, the test specimen has mass of 498gm.Taking the specific gravity of soil solids as 2.65; calculate the seepage velocity of water during the test.

8M

4. a) Discuss the quick sand condition and characteristics of flow net. 7M b) At a construction site, a 3 m thick clay layer is followed by a 4m thick gravel layer, which is

resting on an impervious rock. A surcharge load of 25kN/m2 is applied suddenly at the surface. The saturated unit weights are 19kN/m3 and 20kN/m3, for the clay and the gravel layers, respectively. The water table is at the surface. Draw a diagram showing the variation of total, neutral and effective stress with depth.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe the procedure to determine the vertical stress below the corner of a rectangular footing.

8M

b) A ring foundation of 10m external diameter and 9m internal diameter carries a uniformly distributed load of 150kPa. Determine the vertical stress due to the load at a depth of 6m below the centre of the foundation.

7M

6. a) Discuss the factors affecting the compaction of a soil sample? 7M b) The undisturbed soil at a pit has a water content of 15%, void ratio 0.60 and specific

gravity of 2.70. The soil from the pit is to be used to construct a roll fill having a finished volume of 35000m3. The soil is to be transported from the pit to the construction site by trucks having a net carrying capacity of 6tons. After completion, the fill soil has a water content of 18% and dry density of 1.90g/cm3. Calculate the total number of trips the truck will have to make to construct the rolled fill.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain briefly the laboratory consolidation test. 7M b) In a consolidation test the pressure on a sample was increased from 150kPa to 300kN/m2.

The void ratio after 100% consolidation under 150kN/m2 was 0.945, and that under

300kN/m2 was 0.812. The coefficient of permeability of the soil was 25 x 10-6 mm/s, and the initial height of the sample was 20mm. Determine: i. The coefficient of compressibility ii. The coefficient of volume compressibility

8M

8. a) Explain spring analogy concept of one-dimensional consolidation, with neat sketches. 8M b) In a consolidation test, the void ratio of soil sample decreases from 1.20 to 1.10 when the

pressure is increased from 200 to 400kN/m2. Calculate the compression index, coefficient of volume change and the coefficient of consolidation if the coefficient of permeability is 8.0 x 10 – 7mm/sec.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the merits and demerits of triaxial shear test over the direct shear test. 7M b) Two samples of soil are tested in a triaxial shear test. The all-round pressure maintained

for the sample is 200kN/m2 and failure occurred at an additional axial stress of 770kN/m2. For the second sample, these values are 500kN/m2 and 1370kN/m2 respectively. Find the shear parameters for the soil.

8M

10. a) Explain the classification of shear tests based on drainage conditions prevailing during testing.

7M

b) The following results were obtained from undrained shear box tests on samples of silty clay:

Normal pressure (kN/m2) 55 105 145

Shear stress (kN/m2) 30 36 41

Determine the cohesion and angle of shearing resistance.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2117

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define hydrology. Briefly describe hydrologic cycle with the help of a neat sketch. 8M b) Illustrate Simon’s raingauge. Distinguish between AET and PET.

7M

2. a) Briefly describe the following: i. Evapotranspiration ii. Infiltrometers iii. Basin yield iv. Direct runoff due to a storm

8M

b) The shape of a catchment approximately resembles a square of side 12km. With reference to an x-y coordinate frame, The location of the four corners of the catchment are (0,0), (12,0), (12,12) and (0,12). There are four raingauges A, B, C and D whose positions are (3,3), (9,3), (9,9) and (3,9) respectively. The rainfall record over these raingauges during a storm is 75, 110, 80 and 98 mm respectively. Compare the average depths of rainfall estimated using Arithmetic mean method and Thiessen polygon method. Also calculate the volume of runoff generated at the outlet and comment on it.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is a Unit Hydrograph? State the assumptions of Unit Hydrograph Theory. 7M b) Find the ordinates of a storm hydrograph resulting from a 3 hour storm with rainfall of 2,

6.75 and 3.75 cm during subsequent 3 hours intervals. The ordinates of unit hydrograph are given in the table. Assume an initial loss of 5mm, infiltration index of 2.5mm/hour and base flow of 10 cumecs.

Time (h) 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24

UH ordinates 0 110 365 500 390 310 250 235 175 130 95 65 40 22 10 0

8M

4. a) Explain the different methods of baseflow separation in a hydrograph. 7M b) The ordinates of a 6hr UH for a particular basin are given below. Obtain the ordinates of a

9h UH for the basin using S–curve Technique.

Time (hr) 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 27 30 33 36 39 42 45

6 hr UGO (cumec)

0 9 20 35 49 43 35 28 22 17 12 9 6 3 0 0

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly discuss about the following with example: i. Aquiclude ii. Aquifuge iii. Aquitard iv. Aquifer

8M

b) A well of 0.3m diameter penetrates fully into a confined aquifer of thickness 15m and hydraulic conductivity 8X10-4m/s. The radius of influence is 220m and the drawdown in the well is not to exceed 3m. Sketch the given aquifer parameter. Also determine the transmissivity of the aquifer and maximum yield expected from the well.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Arrive at the equation for radial flow to unconfined aquifer. 8M b) With the help of neat sketch discuss the occurrence of groundwater

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) With the help of a neat sketch describe the vertical distribution of soil moisture. 8M b) The following data pertains to the healthy growth of a crop. Field capacity of soil=30%,

Permanent wilting point=11%, Density of soil=1300kg/m3, Effective depth of root zone is 700mm, Daily consumptive use of water for the given crop=12mm. For healthy growth, the water content must not fall below 25% of the water holding capacity between field capacity and permanent wilting point. Determine the watering interval in days.

7M

8. a) With a neat diagram explain the drip Irrigation system. 8M b) The left branch canal carrying a discharge of 20cumecs has culturable command area of

20,000hectares. The intensity of Rabi crop is 80%, and the base period is 120 days. The right branch carrying discharge of 8cumecs has culturable command area of 12,000 hectares, intensity of irrigation of Rabi crop is 50% and the base period is 120 days. Compare the efficiencies of the two canals.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Provide a detail classification of canals. 8M b) Define irrigation canal. Discuss the various drawbacks in Kennedy’s theory.

7M

10. a) Provide a detailed procedure to design unlined irrigation canal in alluvial soil according to Kennedy’s theory.

7M

b) Determine the dimensions for the irrigation canal for the following data: (B/D) ratio = 3.7 N = 0.0225 m = 1.0 S=(1/4000) Side slopes of the canal = 0.5H:1V Also determine the discharge in the canal.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2118

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Analyze the portal frame by moment distribution method.

Fig.1

15M

2. Analyze the continuous beam for three span by Kani’s method. Draw BMD.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – II

3. Analyze the portal frame by slope deflection method and draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.3

15M

4. A two hinged parabolic arch of span ‘l’ and rise ‘r’ carries a udl of w/metre run over the left hand half of the span. The moment of inertia of the arch rib varies as the secant of the slope of the rib axis. i. Obtain the expression for the horizontal thrust H ii. Calculate the horizontal thrust and bending moment at quarter span point on the right

half of the span if l=20m, r= 4m and w=20kN/m

15M

Cont…2

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Unit – III

5. Determine the shear forces and end moments in the column and the beams of the building frame shown in Fig.4 by portal method:

Fig.4

15M

6. Analyze the building frame using cantilever method of approximate analysis:

Fig.5

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.6 by using flexibility method. Draw bending moment diagram.

Fig.6

15M

8. Analyze the frame shown in Fig. 7 by stiffness method and draw BMD:

Fig.7

15M

Unit – V

9. Using Muller Breslau principle, draw the influence line for bending moment at the midpoint D of span AB of the continuous beam ABC shown in Fig.8 below. Determine the influence line ordinates at suitable intervals and plot them.

Fig.8

15M

10. Determine the forces in the members of the truss in Fig.9. Sectional areas of the members in sq.mm are indicated in brackets:

15M

Fig.9

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2115

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DESIGN OF REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Design an RC beam supported on wall of 250mm thick having a clear span of 8.75m. The beam carries a super imposed UDL of 26 kN/m and two concentrated load of 32kN each acting at 1/3rd distance from either supports. The size of the beam is restricted to

275475mm. Use M25 grade concrete and Fe500 grade steel. The beam is exposed to moderate environmental condition. Sketch the reinforcement details.

15M

2. a) Discuss the necessity of shear reinforcement in RC beams. 6M b) An Isolated T section has the following details

Width of flange = 800mm, Depth of Slab = 150mm Width of rib = 300mm, Overall depth = 750mm Reinforcement = 8#25@bottom, Grade of concrete = M25 & grade of steel = Fe 415. Assume moderate exposure condition and 8mm dia. Stirrups. Evaluate the flexural strength of the T section.

9M

Unit – II

3. A reinforced concrete beam of size 300 mm x 500 mm overall consists of 4 bars of 16 mm diameter in the tension zone. Take effective cover 40 mm. It also consists of 2L #8 @ 200 mm centre to centre near the supports. Use M20 and Fe 415. Estimate the shear strength of the support section. Also the UDL the beam can carry over a span of 5m.

15M

4. a) Explain the limit state method of design of RCC members. 4M b) Design a doubly reinforced beam of limited depth 440 mm. The beam is subjected to a

factored moment of 600 kNM. The stress is compression steel is 353 N/mm2 take effective depth of 50mm both at compression & tension. Draw the sketch showing reinforcement details M20 and Fe 415 grade.

11M

Unit – III

5. a) What is the function of providing distribution steel in slab? 4M b) Design a one way slab with a clear span of inner distance 3.5m X 8m simply supported

over a 230 mm thick supporting wall to support a live load of 4 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel . take l/d = 25 and dl = 20mm.

11M

6. A framed building consists of slabs supported on beams. Design a slab of panel size

65004500mm (c/c of beams) without any intermediate supports subjected to a LL = 4.0kN/m2, floor finish and light partitions =2.5kN/m2. Adopt moderate exposure with grade of concrete as M25 and grade of steel Fe500. The slab is discontinuous along one edge only. Sketch the details.

15M

Unit – IV 7. Design a short RC column of rectangular section subject to an ultimate load of 600 kN and

ultimate bending moment 100 kNm. A bends about major axis. Effective length of column 4.5 m. Assume width of column as 300 mm. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Design the laterals and sketch the details.

15M

8. Design a RC column 400 mm X 400 mm to carry a load of 1200 kN. Sketch the details. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.

15M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. Design a (‘waist slab’ type) dog-legged staircase for an office building, given the following data: Clear dimensions of stair case hall is (2.6 x 5.75m) Height between floors = 3.3m Rise = 150mm, Tread = 300mm Width of flight = landing width = 1.25m Assume the stairs to be supported on 230mm thick masonry walls at the outer edges of the landings, parallel to risers. Use M20 Concrete and Fe415 steel. Sketch the details of reinforcement. Assume moderate condition.

15M

10. A square footing has to transfer an axial load of 1600kN from a square column of 300mm×300mm. Assume M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. SBC of soil is 225kN/m2. Design the footing. Assume clear cover as 40mm and sketch the details.

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2119

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat sketch, explain the different zones of interior Earth. 8M b) Define weathering of rocks and explain types of weathering.

7M

2. a) Analyze possible risk while construction of dam across the fault plane. 8M b) Explain the importance of geology in the field of civil engineering.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the identification of minerals using physical properties. 8M b) Explain the properties and uses of Granite and sand stone.

7M

4. a) Explain the formation of igneous rocks. 8M b) Write the physical properties of quartz and hematite.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the Civil Engineering significance of folds and faults. 8M b) Write the properties of seismic waves.

7M

6. a) Write the causes, effects and terminology of earth quakes. 8M b) Describe the types of ground water.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the ground water investigations by electrical resistivity method and mention other applications of electrical resistivity method.

8M

b) What are joints? Explain its types and add a note on engineering consideration dealing with jointed rocks.

7M

8. a) Define unconformity and add a descriptive note on classification of unconformity. 8M b) Explain the geological factors influencing the water tightness of reservoirs.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Interpret the impact of tunneling across folded strata. 8M b) What is a dam? Discuss briefly about the geological consideration in selecting suitable site

for the construction of dam.

7M

10. a) Describe briefly the geotechnical consideration for selecting site for the dam. 8M b) What is silting up of reservoir? Mention the remedial measures to prevent silting. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2120

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ESTIMATING AND COSTING (Civil Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is an Estimate? Write units of measurement of 8 items which are generally used in

buildings.

10M

b) Define the following terms: i. Revised estimate ii. L.S. item iii. Contingencies iv. Preliminary estimate v. Unit rate method

5M

2. Work out the quantities of the following items, as per the plan and section of the residential

building shown in Fig.1.

Fig.1

i. Excavation for foundation in ordinary soil ii. R.C.C (1:1⅟₂:3) for roof slab, lintels and sunshades

15M

Cont…2

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Unit – II

3. a) Define lead and lift. Explain the methods used for calculation of road quantities. 7M

b) Calculate the area of the side slopes of a portion of a bank for a length of 200m. The heights of the banks at the two ends are 2.50m and 3.50m. and the ratio of side slope 2:1. If the side slopes are to be provided with 15cm. thick stone pitching, calculate the cost of pitching at the rate of Rs. 200 per cu m.

8M

4. Calculate the quantities of the following items: i. Earthwork ii. Concrete work in foundation iii. Brickwork in foundation and plinth From the given plan and section in Fig.2 of 30cm thick wall by using long wall and short wall method and centerline method.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Calculate the rate per cu.m of lime concrete in foundation with 40mm for proportion of 1:2:4.

7M

b) Calculate rate for given work. 1st class brickwork in foundation and plinth with 20x10x10cm nominal bricks with cement sand mortar 1:6- Take total quantity required to be 10cu.m.

8M

6. a) What are different types of Estimation? Explain. 7M b) Calculate rate for unit of Reinforced brickwork on slabs with 1:3 Cement mortar.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define contract. Explain different types of contracts. 8M

b) Discuss about contract document. 7M

Cont…3

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8. a) What is bar bending schedule? Explain the process of calculating length and weights. 6M

b) Fig.3 shows the longitudinal section and cross-section of a simple beam of clear span of 5m. The thickness of wall is 30cm. Workout the total quantities of the reinforcement of the beam.

Fig.3

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the detailed specification for earth work excavation in foundation. 7M

b) Write the detailed specification stone masonry in C.M (1:6).

8M

10. a) Explain Rent statement given for a residential building. 8M

b) Calculate the standard rent for a residential building from the following data:

i. Cost of building Rs.10000 ii. Cost of construction Rs.40000 iii. Cost of roads within compound Rs.20000 iv. Cost of sanitary and water supply works=8% of total cost v. Cost of electric insulation=10% of total cost vi. Municipal tax=Rs.400 per annum vii. Water tax and property tax=Rs.250 and Rs.140 per annum respectively.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3519

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER NETWORKS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Which of the OSI layers handles each of the following: i. Dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames ii. Determining which route through the subnet to use What does ''negotiation'' mean when discussing network protocols? Give an example.

8M

b) The president of the Specialty Paint Corporation gets the idea to work together with a local beer brewer for the purpose of producing an invisible beer can (as an anti-litter measure). The president tells her legal department to look into it and they in turn ask engineering for help. As a result, the chief engineer calls his counterpart at the other company to discuss the technical aspects of the project. The engineers then report back to their respective legal departments, which then confer by phone to arrange the legal aspects. Finally, the two corporate presidents discuss the financial side of the deal. Is this an example of a multilayer protocol in the sense of the OSI model? Why or why not?

7M

2. a) What are the five layers in the Internet Protocol Stack? What are the principal responsibilities of each of these layers?

9M

b) Suppose two hosts, A and B, are separated by 10,000 kilometers and are connected by a

direct link of R=1 Gbps. Suppose the propagation speed over the link is 8105.2 meters/sec. Calculate the bandwidth-delay product, proptR

Consider sending a file of 400,000 bits from Host A to Host B. Suppose the file is sent continuously as one big message. What is the maximum number of bits that will be in the link at any given time?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the Ethernet Frame Structure in detail. 9M b) Explain Go Back N Protocol.

6M

4. a) Explain slotted ALOHA protocol in detail. 9M b) What’s the difference between error detection and error correction techniques? Explain in

detail.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain IPv6 datagram format with diagram in detail. 12M b) Describe how packet loss can occur at input ports. Describe how packet loss at input

ports can be eliminated (without using infinite buffers).

3M

6. a) Explain the concept of Link State Routing. 7M b) NAT violates a number of fundamental assumptions of Layered Network Architecture by

using TCP or UDP fields of transport layer header. Enumerate and very briefly discuss those violations.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the UDP Segment Structure in detail with diagram. 9M b) Is it possible from an application to enjoy reliable data transfer even when the

application runs over UDP? If so, how? 6M

Cont…2

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8. a) Discuss briefly TCP connection release. 8M b) Suppose that the clock-driven scheme for generating initial sequence numbers is used

with a 15-bit wide clock counter. The clock ticks once every 100msec, and the maximum packet lifetime is 60sec. How often need resynchronization take place: i. In the worst case? ii. When the data consumes 240 sequence numbers/min

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain in brief that how DNS works. 9M b) Explain how Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) works.

6M

10. a) Explain Simple Network Management Protocol in detail. 9M b) Write short notes on SMTP. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3520

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPILER DESIGN

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss two issues identified during Lexical Analysis. 8M b) Prove that the following grammar is ambiguous:

S --> A A --> A + A | <id> <id> --> a | b | c

7M

2. a) What are the three distinct terms identified during lexical analysis? Give Example for each.

7M

b) Check whether the given grammar is LL(1) or not.

S Sa | a

S aS | a

S aR |

R S |

S aRa

R S |

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Every SLR grammar is unambiguous, but not every unambiguous grammar is SLR. Prove this with example.

7M

b) Write the Yacc desk calculator program with the error production. lines : error ‘\n’

8M

4. a) Explain about error recovery in parsing. 8M b) Explain the schematic form of an LR parser with the help of block diagram.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain Syntax-directed definition for constructing a syntax tree for an expression and construct a syntax-tree for a-4+t.

8M

b) What is Three-Address Code in intermediate code generation and explain different forms of representing three-address code.

7M

6. a) Briefly discuss different methods for evaluating semantic rules. 8M b) Explain the Syntax-directed definition to produce syntax trees for assignment

statements.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain about activation record. 7M b) What is symbol table? Explain the different organization of symbol table.

8M

8. a) Account on overloading of functions and operators. 7M b) Discuss storage allocation for block structured languages.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain the following : i. Target machine ii. Input to the code generator iii. Register allocation

8M

b) What is machine dependent optimization? Explain how peephole techniques work in this.

7M

10. a) Illustrate the advantage of copy propagation in code optimization by taking an example. 7M b) Generate code for the following three-address sequence assuming that p and q are in

memory locations: y = *q q = q + 4 *p = y p = p + 4

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3508

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a block diagram explain the Von-Neuman architecture in detail. 8M b) A Program contains 1000 instructions out of that 25% instructions requires 4 clock cycles,

40% instructions requires 5 clock cycles and remaining require 3 clock cycles for execution. Find the total time required to execute the program running in a 1 GHz machine.

7M

2. a) With a suitable diagram, explain the construction of a bus system with three-state buffers.

6M

b) Design an arithmetic circuit with one selection variable S and two n-bit data inputs A and B. The circuit generates the following four arithmetic operations in conjunction with the input carry cin Draw the logic diagram for the first two stages:

S cin = 0 cin = 1

0 D = A+B (add) D = A+1 (Increment)

1 D = A-1 (Decrement) D = A+B’+1 (Subtract)

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the operation of timing and control unit during the execution of an instruction. 7M b) Explain how is the processor stack structure useful in handling subroutines or nesting of

the program?

8M

4. a) Explain various instruction formats with necessary examples. 8M b) Explain with example the various addressing modes used in computer architecture.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain micro program and micro instructions with help of a branching instruction. 8M b) Using Booth algorithm perform the multiplication of the signed numbers 010111 and

110110. Verify the answer in decimal.

7M

6. a) Represent -12.5 in hexadecimal systems according to IEEE single precision format. 8M b) Explain micro programmed control.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain a read and write operation for a dynamic RAM memory. 7M b) A Block Set-Associative cache consists of 64 blocks divided into 4 block sets. The main

memory contains 4096 blocks, each consists of 128 words of 16 bits length: i. How many bits are there in main memory ii. How many bits are there in each of the TAG, SET and WORD fields

8M

8. a) With a block diagram explain the virtual memory organization. 7M b) What are the factors on which the performance of a memory system depends? And

explain the Hit Rate and Miss Penalty with suitable equations. 8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain the system bus structure and multiport memory organization for the multiprocessor.

8M

b) Briefly explain the parallel bus arbitration technique with a diagram.

7M

10. a) Explain the scheme used to solve the cache coherence problem in shared memory multiprocessors.

8M

b) Construct a diagram for a 4X4 omega switching network. Show the switch setting required to connect input 3 to output1.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3601

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the different types of web pages with suitable examples. 8M b) Build a java script program to check whether the given number is palindrome or not.

7M

2. a) Explain the different ways in which CSS can be used in a Web page with suitable examples.

8M

b) Build a web application to illustrate nesting of tables.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain programming loops in php. 8M b) How do you define constants in php, give example. Also list all the datatypes in php, with

brief explanation.

7M

4. a) Define the following XML schema, XSL, XSLT and XML parser. 8M b) Give an example to parse a text string into an XML DOM object and extract the info from

it with JavaScript.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain how the methods of DriverManger Class and Connection Interface are useful in establishing database connectivity in java.

8M

b) Write a servlet program to set and read the cookies on any web browser.

7M

6. a) What is Bean Development Kit? Develop a simple bean using the BDK. 8M b) Explain the methods of a generic servlet with a simple example.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) How to access Java Beans from JSP? Explain. 5M b) What are JSP implicit objects? Name five implicit objects that JSP supports and explain

them briefly.

10M

8. a) Write a program to show MVC in JSP, use the following hints: i. index.jsp a page that gets input from the user ii. ControllerServlet.java a servlet that acts as a controller iii. login-success.jsp and login-error.jsp files acts as view components iv. web.xml file for mapping the servlet

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the steps required to create a new database using JDBC application with suitable example.

8M

b) Using Ajax, how do you send a request to a server? Explain.

7M

10. a) Name the groups of classes based on functionality in java.sql package and explain the same with suitable examples.

8M

b) What is AJAX? With a simple program explain the working of AJAX. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3602

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Give the applications of CG. Mention the CG standards. 7M b) With a neat diagram, explain the working of a CRT monitor.

8M

2. a) Discuss Random scan display with diagram. 8M b) With a neat diagram, explain Raster scan display architecture.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Let the given end points for the line be (30, 20) and (40, 28). Calculate and show each successive pixel positions using Bresenham’s line algorithm.

10M

b) Write Flood fill algorithm pseudocode.

5M

4. a) Illustrate the procedure to draw an ellipse using midpoint ellipse algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

8M

b) Illustrate the procedure to fill a polygon using Boundary fill algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the general two-dimensional fixed-point scaling with a suitable example. 8M b) Apply Sutherland–Hodgeman polygon clipping algorithm on the below given polygon and

trace the algorithm with the diagram.

Fig.1

7M

6. a) Illustrate the procedure to implement Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

8M

b) Define: i. World Window ii. Normalized Coordinates iii. View Port

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) With diagram, write the steps for general 3D rotation. 8M b) Explain any five properties of Bezier Curves.

7M

8. a) With a diagram, explain general 3D transformation pipeline. 5M b) With diagrams, explain two types of projections.

10M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss the classification of Visible-Surface Detection Algorithms. 9M b) Discuss the following:

i. General computer animation functions ii. Computer Animation Languages

6M

10. a) Discuss Back-Face detection algorithm. 7M b) Explain each step in the design of Animation Sequences. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3607

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

OBJECT ORIENTED ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the implementation and deployment views for modeling the system architecture. 8M b) Explain briefly how to model the distribution of responsibilities in a system.

7M

2. a) When UML provides association to represent the structural relationships between two objects why does UML support another kind of structural relationship called aggregation?

7M

b) Explain briefly the mechanisms provided by the UML to let you add new building blocks, create new properties, and specify new semantics.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) What do you mean by Package and Instance? Explain how to model Packages and Instances using UML?

8M

b) What is the application of Interaction Diagram? Explain the different elements of Sequence Diagram with example.

7M

4. a) What are constraints? Explain the different types of constraints with example. 8M b) Explain Multiple Inheritance and Generalization with example.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What is state diagram? Draw the state diagram for Online Shopping Account of a Customer.

8M

b) Prepare an activity diagram that elaborates the details of logging into an email system. Note that entry of the user name and password can occur in any order.

7M

6. a) Explain briefly signal and call events with suitable examples. 10M b) Write a state chart for an ATM’s overall activities.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) List the common modeling techniques for executables and libraries. Given an example for same.

8M

b) When you model the static implementation view of a system, component diagram can used in one of the four ways-Discuss them.

7M

8. a) When is the usage of deployment diagram mandatory and when can it’s usage be ignored? Explain briefly how deployment diagrams can be used in embedded systems.

8M

b) Design an UML component diagram for representing a Library Management System. The librarian says that “We need to maintain the record of news and retrieve the details of books available in the library which mainly focuses on basic operations in a library like adding new member, new books, and up new information, searching books and members and facility to borrow and return books. It features a familiar and well thought-out, an attractive user interface, combined with strong searching, insertion and reporting capabilities. The report generation facility of library system helps to get a good idea of which are borrowed by the members, makes users possible to generate hard copy”.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) What is a subsystem? What is the primary relationship among systems and subsystems? Can generalization be used between systems and subsystems?

7M

b) Unified Library Application System emphasizes on the online reservation, issue and return of books. This system globalizes the present library system. Using this application the member can reserve any book from anywhere in the world. Draw a use case diagram for this system.

8M

10. a) Explain briefly common modeling techniques for modeling the architecture of a system or subsystem.

10M

b) For the system mentioned in question 9b write a state chart for member of the unified library application.

5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3612

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

SOFTWARE TESTING METHODOLOGIES

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is software testing? Describe the life cycle of software testing. 8M b) What is path testing? Explain the applications of path testing.

7M

2. a) Explain the path predicate and achievable paths. 8M b) List and describe the taxonomy of bugs.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Define transaction. Write the transaction step for an online information retrieval system. 8M b) What is the difference between loop-free path segment and a simple path segment with

an example in terminologies of data flow testing?

7M

4. a) Write the schematic representation of domain testing and explain. 8M b) Explain double-zero representation and floating point zero check.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Discuss node reduction procedure in path, path expression and regular expression. 8M b) With suitable example explain the role of KV-charts in logic based testing.

7M

6. a) Define: Path predicate, Path expression, Loop and Path sum. 8M b) Discuss role of Decision table in logic based testing.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Discuss the principles of state testing and its advantages and disadvantages. 8M b) With suitable example explain matrix powers and products.

7M

8. a) Explicate in details of Unreachable states and Dead states. 8M b) Write the Algorithm for node reduction in graph matrix.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Describe bug life cycle and list defect template components. 8M b) Write the difference between Static and Dynamic Testing tools.

7M

10. a) What are the guidelines for selecting a testing tool? Discuss. 8M b) Discuss when to use Automated Test tools. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3604

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

OPEN SOURCE TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is open source software? What are the four important factors that led to the development of open source software?

7M

b) How to start and terminate SQL programs in MySQL?Write a MySQL statement to create a table named jobs including columns job_id, job_title, min_salary, max_salary and check whether the max_salary amount exceeding the upper limit 25000.

8M

2. a) What are the various joins in MySQL? Explain each with example 8M b) Discuss about meta data handling in MySQL.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write a PHP code to track previous visits of the users using sessions 7M b) An application presents the user with a form containing various pizza toppings and asks

the user to select via checkbox, his or her favorite toppings. Write a PHP script that gets all the toppings in the form of an array and display the selection in the form of a list.

8M

4. a) Write a PHP code for sending a mail, with the explanation of parameters. 7M b) Write a PHP script to remove all characters from a string except a-z A-Z 0-9

Sample string : abcde$ddfd @abcd )der] Sample Output: Old string : abcde$ddfd @abcd )der] New string : abcdeddfdabcdder Write the meaning for the following with respect to regular expressions i. pN ii. p2,3 iii. ^p iv. ^.2$

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Write a PHP program to retrieve the data from mysql Database based on the name accessed through html form and display the same on the browser.

8M

b) What is a stored procedure? How do you call stored procedure from PHP, demonstrate with a simple example.

7M

6. a) Write a PHP script to upload the a file to database checking the following: Limit the file type to only JPG, JPEG, PNG & GIF.

9M

b) What is prepared statement? Give its advantages.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain Input/output operations with Files in python 7M b) Give some of the rules and certain symbols used with regard to statements in Python.

8M

8. a) How to create, access, update and remove tuples? 7M b) Explain Python functions and modules with suitable examples. 8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) What is an event? Give two examples. With JQuery event model write an example for mouse click event and blur event.

7M

b) What is JQuery? Explain JQuery syntax, give example. Mention 2 selectors in JQuery.

8M

10. a) Demonstrate with an example, the built in directives. Also demonstrate how to create your own directive.

10M

b) What is a controller in AngularJS? Write an example to demonstrate controllers. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3605

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

E-COMMERCE (Information Technology)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) How do media converge with E-Commerce? Explain in detail. 7M b) What is Electronic Commerce? Explain in details of Generic framework for electronic

commerce. 8M

2. a) What are the different layers of services in the architecture of the E-commerce Application? Discuss the functionality of each layer.

7M

b) How does WWW work? Discuss the functionalities of HTTP and HTML.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain in details of Advanced services and home banking. 8M b) Account on the major risks on electronic payment system.

7M

4. a) List and explain the desirable Characteristics of an Electronic Marketplace. 8M b) What are the three types of Electronic tokens? Discuss.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) How the information flow without EDI? Discuss. 8M b) Compare Push based supply chain versus pull based supply chain.

7M

6. a) Explain EDI Layered Architecture. 8M b) Discuss the Structure of EDI Transactions.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the various types of Digital documents? Describe each. 8M b) What are the different types of data warehouses? Discuss.

7M

8. a) Discuss the Digital document management issues and concerns. 7M b) Write the guidelines for Internet advertising.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss multimedia data compression methods. 9M b) Discuss Information filtering.

6M

10. a) Explain in detail about WAIS Engine. 10M b) List the categories of third party directories. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3419

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

MICROPROCESSORS AND MICROCONTROLLERS (Common to Information Technology & Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly explain the 8086 Flag register bit pattern and also explain the significance of each flag.

9M

b) Explain the following addressing modes of 8086 with examples: i. Direct addressing mode ii. Register indirect addressing mode iii. Indexed addressing mode

6M

2. a) Explain the operations of the following pins of 8086 processor:

i. RESET

ii. READY

iii. TEST

iv. BHE

v. CLK

8M

b) Draw and explain the memory read timing diagram for 8086 operating in Maximum mode.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write the 8086 Assembly Language Program to find sum of N numbers in the array. 7M b) Write an ALP in 8086 to add two 8-bytes of data available in memory location array1 and

array2. Store the result in array3.

8M

4. a) Differentiate between MACROS and PROCEDURES. Explain with an example passing parameters in MACRO.

8M

b) Explain the following address decoding techniques: i. Absolute decoding ii. Linear decoding

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain different types of interrupts supported in 8086 microprocessor. 7M b) Draw and explain the interfacing of 8259 with 8086 and also list the features of 8259.

8M

6. a) With the help of Interrupt Vector Table explain interrupt structure of 8086 microprocessor.

8M

b) Mention the difference between asynchronous and synchronous data transfer schemes.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Briefly discuss the solution for the problem to double the number in register R2 and put the result in R3 and R4.

6M

b) With the help of block diagram explain the programming model of 8051 showing 8 and 16bit registers and 8 bit memory locations.

9M

8. a) List and briefly explain different Timer Control Special function registers. 8M b) Write the program to add the unsigned numbers found in internal RAM locations 25h,

26h, and 27h together and put the result in RAM location 30h and 31h. 7M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Write a brief note on Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI) IC 8255 and its modes of operation.

8M

b) Draw and explain the interfacing of LCD module to 8051.

7M

10. a) Interface stepper motor to the 8051 microcontroller and explain the working of normal 4-step sequence for stepper motor.

8M

b) Explain the 4x4 Matrix Keyboard Interface of 8051 microcontroller. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3416

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

DIGITAL DESIGN THROUGH VERILOG HDL

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the Top-Down and Bottom-Up design methodology by taking 4-bit ripple carry counter as an example.

8M

b) Write the output for the following code and explain each operators mentioned in this program. module exp(a, b,out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7); input [3:0] a, b; output [3:0]out1,out2,out3,out4,out5,out6,out7; initial begin a = 4'b0100; b = 4'b0101; end assign out1 = a && b; assign out2= (a || b); assign out3= (a & b); assign out4= (a | b); assign out5= ,a*0+, b*1+, 2’b01-; assign out6= (a == b); assign out7= &a; endmodule

7M

2. a) Briefly explain the typical design flow for designing VLSI IC circuit. 7M b) Define the following in Verilog:

i. Define three buses: busA, busB, and busC of 32-bit width each ii. Define a real variable called data iii. Define Array of 32 one-bit boolean register variables iv. Give the syntax for display statement in verilog

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the AND/OR and BUF/NOT pre defined primitives to model gate level description with example.

7M

b) Define Instance. Design 2×2 bit array multiplier using Half adders and suitable gates with structural verilog module and plot the simulated waveform.

8M

4. a) Implement 4 to 16 line decoder using 2 to 4 line decoders and write the structural verilog module.

8M

b) Write the gate level modeling for 4 to 1 line Multiplexer with stimulus block.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the different ways of specifying delays in continuous assignment statement? Give examples.

6M

b) Write the verilog code for negative edge triggered D FlipFlop with dataflow statements. 9M

Cont…2

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::2::

6. a) Design verilog module for a CMOS switch connected parallel a pair of NMOS and PMOS

switches and write the test bench for the same. 7M

b) Write verilog code for 4:1 Multiplexer using conditional operators in dataflow modeling style and write the test bench for the same.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Illustrate blocking and non blocking assignments with suitable example. State the application of non-blocking statement with example.

8M

b) Write the behavioral verilog module for 4 to 2 line priority encoder with valid bit (LSB bit is having the highest priority) and plot the simulated waveform.

7M

8. a) Describe the different types of loop statements used in verilog HDL with example. 7M b) Write behavioral verilog module for BCD up counter with stimulus block.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the verilog full adder module using half adder task. 7M b) List out the difference between combinational and sequential UDPs in verilog. Write the

verilog module for D-Latch using UDP.

8M

10. a) Explain the differences between tasks and functions used in verilog and also write the syntax for each.

10M

b) Briefly explain the sequential UDP by taking edge-triggered T-Flip-Flop with clear. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3418

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

INTEGRATED CIRCUITS ANALYSIS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define and Explain the following: i. Total output offset voltage ii. Thermal Drift

8M

b) Define and explain the following: i. Input offset voltage ii. PSRR iii. Slew rate

7M

2. a) With the help of neat block diagram sketch and explain the different stages of an Op-Amp.

8M

b) Design a capacitor coupled voltage follower using a 741 operational amplifier. The lower cutoff frequency for the circuit is to be 50Hz and the load resistance is RL=3.9KΩ. Sketch the circuit with designed values.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the operation of INV Schmitt trigger with circuit diagram and necessary waveforms.

9M

b) For an Astable multivibrator, show that frequency of output waveform is f=1/2RC for a symmetric output square wave.

6M

4. a) Explain how the Op-Amp is used as current to voltage converter [Transresistance Amplifier] with suitable circuit diagram.

6M

b) An INV Schmitt trigger circuit is to have UTP = 1V and LTP = 0V. Design a suitable circuit using a Bi-polar Op-Amp and ±15V supply.

9M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages of active filters over passive filters? 6M b) Design a voltage regulator using IC 723 to get a voltage output of 3V. [Given: Vref =7V,

R1=10KΩ] 9M

6. a) List and Briefly explain the characteristics of three-terminal IC regulators what are the limitations of these regulators?

7M

b) Design a second order low pass filter circuit to have a cut-off frequency of 1KHz. [IB(MAX) =500nA for 741 Op-Amp]

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram explain the working Astable multivibrator using IC555.

7M

b) Briefly explain the Analog Phase Detector for PLL and draw the input and output waveforms of phase detector for: Ф = 00 Ф = 900 Ф = 1800

8M

Cont…2

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8. a) Sketch the circuit of inverting Schmitt trigger with hysteresis curve and explain. 7M b) Derive an expression for pulse period TP for 555 timer based Monostable Multivibrator.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With a neat sketch, Explain the working of R-2R ladder DAC. 9M b) A 12-bit DAC has a step size of 8mV. Determine the full scale output voltage. Also find the

output voltage for the input of 010101101101.

6M

10. a) With a block diagram explain dual slope ADC operation and also mention its advantages. 9M b) If the conversion time of a 8-bit flash ADC is 10uSec, find the maximum frequency of a

sinusoidal voltage that can be digitised. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3415

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat block diagram, explain the various elements of a digital communication system.

8M

b) Compare and comment on the performance of PCM and DM systems.

7M

2. a) With a neat sketch explain the principle and operation of DPCM. 7M b) Obtain the expression for output signal to quantization noise ratio in the case of DM

system.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the features and applications of Binary PSK. Also find the probability of error of coherent PSK.

9M

b) Binary data is transmitted at a rate of 106 bits/sec over a microwave link having a bandwidth of 3MHz. Assume that the noise power spectral density at the receiver input is

10/ 2 10 watts/Hz. Find the average carrier power required at the receiver input

for coherent PSK and DPSK signaling schemes to maintain 4

eP 10 .

6M

4. a) Illustrate the features, working and generation of Differentially Coherent PSK (DPSK) and its encoding process with a neat figure of DPSK modulator and Demodulator.

9M

b) Binary data is transmitted over an RF bandpass channel with a usable bandwidth of 10MHz at a rate of 4.8X106 bits/sec using an ASK signaling method. The carrier amplitude at the receiver antenna is 1 mv and the noise power spectral density at the receiver input is 10-15 watts/Hz: i. Find the error probability of a coherent receiver ii. Find the error probability of a non-coherent receiver

6M

Unit – III

5. a) What is Mutual Information? State and prove any three properties of it. 7M b) A channel has the following characteristics:

1/ 3 1/ 3 1/ 6 1/ 6

P Y/X 1/ 6 1/ 6 1/ 3 1/ 3

Find H X ,H Y ,H X,Y and channel capacity if r 1000 symbols/sec

8M

6. a) Apply Shannon’s encoding algorithm to the following set of messages and obtain code

efficiency and redundancy. Assume the probability of m1 m2 m3 m4 m5 are

1/ 8 1/16 3 /16 1/ 4 and 3 / 8.

9M

b) Given the messages x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 and x6 with respective probabilities

0.4, 0.2,0.2, 0.1 and 0.07 and 0.03. construct a binary code by applying Shannon-

fano encoding procedure. Determine code efficiency and redundancy of the code.

6M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) For a systematic (7,4) linear block code with parity check matrix p given by:

1 1 1

1 1 0

1 0 1

0 1 1

i. Draw the encoding circuit ii. Draw the syndrome calculation circuit iii. Draw the error correcting circuit

8M

b) For a (6,3) linear code whose generator matrix is G is:

1 0 0 1 0 1

0 1 0 1 1 0

0 0 1 0 1 1

Find all the hamming weights and distances.

7M

8.

a) The generator polynomial for a (15,7) cyclic code is 4 6 7 8g x 1 x x x x .

i. Find the code vector in systematic form for the message 2 3 4D x x x x .

ii. Assume that first and last bit of the code vector v x for

2 3 4D x x x x , suffers transmission errors find the syndrome v x

10M

b) If n 7 identify n,k values of cyclic codes generated by the following generator

polynomial:

i. 2 4g x 1 x x

ii. 2 3 4g x 1 x x x

5M

Unit – V

9. a) Illustrate the need, features and code tree for convolutional encoder with suitable figures and examples.

8M

b) Explain the Viterbi algorithm assuming a suitable convolutional coder and received bit stream.

7M

10. a) Illustrate the features, working and implementation details of Shannon’s-Fano algorithm with suitable figure and examples.

8M

b) Illustrate the need, features and working of Trellis coding with suitable figure and examples.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3417

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Starting from effective length of antenna, derive expression of maximum effective length of antenna with relevant diagram.

5M

b) With proper diagram and illustration, Explain Friis Transmission formula. A directional antenna carrying a current of 100A and having a radiation resistance of 200Ω. If gain of antenna is 10. Solve the power received by the antenna of gain 20 placed at a distance of 2kms from source.

10M

2. a) Derive expression for Beam area of an antenna with relevant diagram. 5M b) Derive the radiation resistance of short dipole antenna. Justify that maximum effective

aperture of a /2 dipole is 0.132.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Solve field pattern for linear antenna of n isotropic source with the case of end-fire array with increased directivity.

8M

b) Derive an expression for array factor for 2 Isotropic point source with identical amplitude

and phase constant and spaced one half 2

wavelength apart calculate the maxima,

minima, half power points, null points and show that in radiation pattern.

7M

4. a) Evaluate an expression for array factor of an array of N-isotropic sources. 5M

b) Show that the radiation resistance of circular loop is

2

280z

R

𝑜ℎ𝑚 and also for

short dipole

2

220z

R

𝑜ℎ𝑚

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the linear polarization property with a monofilar axial mode helical antenna. 7M b) Explain Resonant antenna? And list the different types.

8M

6. a) Explain broad band antenna and give example. 7M b) What is travelling wave wire antenna? Explain travelling wave long wire antenna with

neat diagram.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is aperture antenna? Give example. 7M b) Describe feed Antenna for Reflectors. 8M 8. a) Explain the working of Microstrip antenna. 7M b) Explain the working on Lens antenna. Also discuss on the non-metallic dielectric lens

antenna.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Explain skip distance and derive the expression for skip distance for flat earth surface. 6M b) With a neat diagram, explain the atmospheric structure.

A radio wave of 1GHz frequency is making an angle of 60 in ionosphere of electron concentration 2x1020e/m3. Estimate critical frequency and MUF.

9M

10. a) A transmitting antenna at a height of ht above smooth perfectly conducting flat-earth surfaces ends a signal to a receiving antenna of height hr (ht>hr) with ground range between them equal to ‘d’. Estimate the path difference between the direct and reflected signals reaching the receiving antenna.

5M

b) Justify that FMUF is always greater than Fc. Derive the expression. Solve electron density in ionosphere with f= 50MHz and refractive index of 0.9.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3420

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS AND INTEGRATED CIRCUITS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat block diagram explain the typical feedback amplifier. 8M b) Find the value of RC for an RC phase shift oscillator for a frequency of oscillation of

1000Hz. A transistor with hfe = 200 and R= 2.7k . Will this circuit oscillates?

7M

2. a) Obtain an expression for Rif input resistance for the voltage series feedback amplifier with a circuit diagram.

7M

b) With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of Hartley Oscillator.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With a neat sketch explain the working of the high pass RC circuit. Obtain the expression

for gain A and phase angle of an RC high pass filter for a sinusoidal input.

9M

b) Explain the following with respect to clamping circuit: i. DC restorer ii. DC reinserter iii. DC inserter

6M

4. a) Mathematically prove the clamping circuit theorem. 5M b) An ideal 1sec pulse is fed to an amplifier. Calculate and plot the output waveform under

the following conditions: the upper 3dB frequency is: i. 10MHz ii. 1MHz iii. 0.1MHz

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Design a fixed-bias bistable multivibrator using Ge transistors having hFE (min)= 50, VCC=10V and VBB = 10 V, VCE(sat) = 0.1 V, VBE(sat) = 0.3 V, IC(sat) = 5 mA and assume IB(sat) = 1.5 IB(min)

12M

b) Why OFF - OFF and ON - ON states are not possible in a collector coupled bistable multivibrator? Explain briefly.

3M

6. a) With a neat sketch and waveform explain the working of Astable multivibrator. 10M b) A monostable multivibrator is used as a voltage-to-time converter. Find the time period

if R = 10 kΩ, C = 0.01 μF, VBB/VCC = 0.5.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Mention the Ideal characteristics of an Op-Amp. 7M b) With circuit diagram explain the operation of practical non inverting comparator and also

draw the transfer characteristics.

8M

8. a) With a neat block diagram explain the basic operational amplifier internal circuit. 9M b) When a 741 op-amp having a typical CMRR of 90dB, is used in a non-inverting amplifier

with a voltage gain of 100, the output voltage was measured to be 15.8mV with some common mode input. Determine the common mode input voltage.

6M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. a) Briefly explain the Schmitt trigger circuit using a IC 555 timer. 8M b) Explain the analog phase detector for PLL and also draw the input and output waveforms

of phase detector for Ф = 00 , 900 , 1800 .

7M

10. a) With a help of a basic block diagram explain the voltage controlled oscillator [IC 566]. 8M b) What are the features of IC 555 timer and also mention its applications? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3412

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive the expression for single tone AM with relevant waveforms. 10M b) Consider the message signal m(t)=20cos2pit Volts and the carrier wave

c(t)= 50cos(100pit) volts. Give the time domain expression for the resulting conventional AM wave for 75% modulation. Find the power developed across a load of 100Ω due to this wave.

5M

2. a) Explain the coherent detection of DSBSC wave. 6M b) With a neat block diagram, explain the balanced modulator of DSBSC waves.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive the time domain expression for VSB modulated wave. 6M b) Explain and analyze with suitable block diagram how a single carrier frequency can be

used to send two signals simultaneously over the same channel.

9M

4. a) Explain the coherent detection of VSBSC waves. 7M b) The two stage SSB modulator has input frequency range of 0.3 to 3.4KHz.The two

oscillator frequencies have valuesf1= 50kHz and f2= 500kHz. Specify the following: Sidebands of DSBSC modulated waves appearing at the outputs of the product modulator, Sidebands of SSB modulated waves appearing at two BPF outputs. The pass bands and guard bands of the BPFs.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain with relevant mathematical equations and block diagram the generation of WBFM using Armstrong’s method.

7M

b) The equation for an FM wave is S(t) = 10 cos ((2π×106t )+5sin (6.28×103t)) volts. Calculate: i. Carrier frequency ii. Modulating frequency iii. Modulation index iv. Frequency deviation v. Power dissipated in 100Ω resistor vi. Carrier swing

8M

6. a) Describe FM Demodulation using Phase Locked Loop. 7M b) In a block diagram of an indirect FM transmitter, compute maximum frequency deviation

of the output and carrier frequency fc if f1 = 200kHz, fLO = 10.8MHz, f1 = 25Hz, n1 = 64 and n2 = 48.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the generation and de-modulation of pulse amplitude modulation with waveforms.

7M

b) With neat diagrams, explain pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in FM wave. 8M

Cont…2

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8. a) Explain the generation and de-modulation of pulse position modulation with waveforms. 7M b) Explain the model of DSBSC receiver using coherent detection and derive the expression

for figure of merit.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What are the three basic functions of super heterodyne receiver? Explain how these functions are achieved.

7M

b) Define Image frequency. Explain the solution to image frequency problem with an example.

8M

10. a) Compare AM transmitter with FM transmitter. 7M b) In a broadcast super heterodyne receiver having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the

antenna coupling circuit (at input the mixer) is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455KHz, calculate: i. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 1000KHz ii. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 25MHz

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3212

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

CONTROL SYSTEMS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define open loop and closed loop systems – and provide a few examples of each. In which conditions is a closed loop system preferable to an open loop system?

8M

b) List, in a table, different electrical quantities and their mechanical analogues. Describe the general procedure to perform a conversion from an electrical system to a mechanical system – with a simple illustrative example.

7M

2. a) Consider the simple mechanical mass spring damper as shown in Fig.1 here.

Fig.1

x t is the displacement, m is the mass, k is the spring constant and b is the damping

coefficient. F is the force applied on the mass. Compute) the transfer function

.

X s

F s

8M

b) Compute the transfer function between input and output voltages:

Fig.2

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss on constructing a block diagram for AC Servo motor 9M

b) Determine

C s

R s ratio for the system shown below Fig.3. Use block diagram reduction

technique.

Fig.3

6M

4.

a)

Find the transfer function and construct block diagram for a DC servomotor.

9M

b)

Obtain the transfer function

C s

R s using Mason’s gain reduction formula.

Fig.4

7

6M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5.

a) Starting from expression of C t for unit step input of typical under damped second

order system, derive the expression for settling time.

7M

b) Sketch root locus for the system

2

k s 1G s H s

s s 1 s 5s 20

8M

6. a) Using RH criteria Determine the stability S6+2s5+5s4+8s3+8s2+8s+4

8M

b) For a feedback system with G(s)= 10(s+2)/s (s+3) (s+4) and H(s)= 1 .Determine Steady state errors due to step, ramp and parabolic inputs.

7M

Unit – IV

7.

a) A unity feedback control system has

10G s

S s 1 s 2

. Draw nyquist plot and

comment on closed loop stability.

8M

b) The bode plot of unity feedback system is shown in below Fig.4, obtain its open loop transfer function:

Fig.5

7M

8.

a) A unity feedback control system has

80G S

s s 2 s 20

Draw the bode plot

determine G.M ,P.M .Comment on the stability.

7M

b) Consider a system with open loop transfer function as 10

G s H s ,s

obtain its

polar plot

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Compute the state transition matrix of the following system:

1 1

2 2

0 1

2 3

x x

x x

8M

b) Check whether the following system is controllable:

1 0 0 1 1 0

2 2 3 0 2 2

3 0 2 3 3 0

x x

x x u

x x

Y x1

7M

10. a) Check whether following system observable:

3 2

Y s 10

U s s 4s 2s 1

8M

b) Define State and state variables. Mention the advantages of state space techniques.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3217

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

POWER SYSTEM TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive an expression for inductance of a single-phase transmission line. 9M b) Determine the Inductive reactance of a single phase 50hz 16km long Transmission line

which consists of a pair of conductors of diameter 1.2cm and spaced at 1.2m.

6M

2. a) Derive an expression for capacitance of three phase symmetrically spaced transmission line.

6M

b) A three phase, three wire 50kv, 50Hz overhead line conductor is placed in horizontal plane as shown in Fig.1. The conductor diameter is 1.5cm. If the line is 100km, calculate: i. Capacitance/ph/meter ii. Charging current/ph

Fig.1

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Distinguish between short, medium and long transmission lines. 5M b) Derive A, B, C, D constants of a medium length transmission line using nominal

method.

10M

4. a) A 220kV, 3-phase transmission line is 40km long. The resistance per phase is 0.15Ω per km and the inductance per phase is 1.5923mH per km. The line is supplying a 3-phase load of 381MVA at 0.8pf lagging. Find: i. The voltage and power factor at the sending end of the line ii. The voltage regulation and efficiency of the line

8M

b) Derive an expression for voltage regulation of a short transmission line with vector diagram.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain why skin effect is absent in a DC system. 5M b) A 3 phase, 50Hz, 132kV transmission line consists of conductors of 1.17cm diameter and

spaced equilaterally at a distance of 3m. The conductors have smooth surface with m0=0.96. The atmospheric pressure is 72cm of Hg and the temperature is 200C. Determine corona loss per km per phase under fair and foul weather conditions.

10M

6. a) Derive an expression for the sag of an overhead line supported at unequal levels. 10M b) An overhead transmission line has a span of 230m, the conductor weighing 650kg/km.

Calculate the maximum sag if the breaking stress is 4465kg/cm2 while the area of the conductor is 1.29cm2. Assume factor of safety is equal to 2.

5M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) What are the properties of insulating materials used for cables? 6M b) In a string of 3 units, the capacitance between each link pin to earth is 11% of the

capacitance of one unit. Calculate the voltage across each unit and the string efficiency when the voltage across the string is 33kV.

9M

8. a) What is grading of cables. What are the different methods of grading cables? 9M b) Calculate the capacitance and charging current of a 3, single core 33kV, 50Hz, 2km long

cable having a core diameter of 2cm and a sheath diameter of 6cm. Relative permittivity of the insulation is 3.0.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) What are the advantages and dis-advantages of radial distribution system? 6M b) A DC two-wire distributor, 500m long and fed at one end is shown in Fig.2. The total

resistance of the distributor is 0.02Ω. Determine the voltage at the fed end F when the voltage at the far end R is 220V.

Fig.2

9M

10. a) What is ring distribution system? Mention the advantages of using interconnector. 7M b) A uniformly-loaded DC two-wire distributor 500m long is loaded at 3A/m run. Resistance

of the loop is 0.01Ω/km. determine the maximum voltage drop if the distributor is fed at both ends at the same voltage.

Fig.3

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3216

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly explain the classification of measuring instruments. 7M b) With a neat sketch, explain the construction and working of a single phase moving iron

power factor meter.

8M

2. a) What is damping torque? Explain different methods by which damping torque is produced.

8M

b) Explain different methods by which range of the Electrostatic voltmeters range can be extended.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write the circuit of electrodynamometer wattmeter and derive the expression for deflection toque, control torque and deflection.

10M

b) Write a brief note on Weston frequency meter.

5M

4. a) Explain how the range of a wattmeter can be extended using instrument transformers. 8M b) The meter constant of a 230V, 10A watt hour meter is 1800 revolutions per kWh. The

meter is tested at half load and rated voltage under upf and found to make 40 revolutions in 65s. Determine meter error at half load.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain in detail the principle and operation of DC Crompton’s potentiometer. 7M b) Compare and contrast the different standardization techniques in DC and AC

potentiometers.

8M

6. a) Compare and contrast the working of frequency selective analyzer and spectrum analyzer.

10M

b) Write a brief note on Q meter.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the measurement of capacitance using De Sauty’s Bridge with necessary equations.

7M

b) Draw a neat circuit diagram of Hey’s bridge. Obtain the expression for unknown inductance and Q factor. Mention its advantages and disadvantages.

8M

8. a) Write the circuit diagram of Wheatstone’s bridge and Derive the expression for unknown resistance in Wheatstone’s bridge. Mention the limitation of Wheatstone’s bridge.

7M

b) Derive the equation to measure an inductive impedance of a Maxwell’s bridge. Also find the series equivalent of the unknown impedance, if the bridge constants at balance condition are C1=0.01µF, R1=470KΩ, R2=5.1KΩ and R3=100KΩ.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is and LVDT? Explain its working principle with a neat diagram. Mention its applications.

8M

b) What is a strain gauge? Explain its working principle. Derive the expression for Gauge Factor.

7M

10. a) Differentiate between a resistor, inductor and capacitor transducer. 9M b) Write a brief note on piezo electric transducer. 6M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3218

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the potential of solar energy sources with reference to the present energy scenario. Also explain the environmental impact of solar power.

12M

b) What is meant by the solar constant?

3M

2. a) Discuss on radiation measurements. 7M b) Explain in detail solar radiation on tilted surface.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain Fixed Dome Biogas Plant with the help of a labeled diagram. 8M b) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of fixed Dome Biogas plants.

7M

4. a) Write comprehensive notes on Anaerobic Digestors. 8M b) Discuss biogas utilitiy for cooking and small domestic system biogas plant.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) ‘Ocean thermal energy conversion produces energy from temperature differences in ocean waters’- Justify this statement

8M

b) What is the cost of geothermal energy? Summarize the applications of geothermal energy.

7M

6. a) Write elaborately on micro hydel project design. 8M b) Write notes on types of geothermal power plants.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Discuss in detail the different storage mechanism for solar energy. 10M b) Explain photo voltaic energy conversion.

5M

8. a) Explain the application of solar heating. 8M b) Discuss the working principle of non convective type solar ponds.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the limitations of converting energy directly. 5M b) Mentioning the Principle write about the construction and working of Thermionic Power

Generator (TPG) as a device of direct energy conversion.

10M

10. a) Write an explanatory notes on energy conversion. 8M b) Discuss energy conservation and its principles. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3219

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

ADVANCED CONTROL SYSTEMS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 09 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive a state space model for the system shown in Fig.1. The input is ia and output is e2.

Fig.1

7M

b) Determine the state transition matrix for the system described by:

2 1

2 3x t x t

and find its homogenous response to the initial condition

1x 0 1 and 2x 0 2

8M

2.

a) System matrix A is given as

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 2

Obtain the modal matrix, find AM and

comment on its nature.

7M

b) A feedback system has a closed loop transfer function:

Y s 10 s 4

U s s s 1 s 3

construct

state space model of the system.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Check the controllability and observability of the following representation using Kalman’s test.

1 0 0 1

0 2 0 0 ; 1 1 0 .

0 0 1 1

x t x t u y x t

7M

b) Discuss the following non-linearities as applied to physical systems: i. Saturation ii. Friction iii. Backlash iv. Relay nonlinearity

8M

4. a) Explain the property of duality for controllability and obervability. 5M b) Define observability of a system. Also prove that for a system

x =Ax +Bu , yt t t t Cx t Du t to be completely observable the rank of

the observability matrix is n.

10M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) Describe Lyapunov’s stability and instability theorems. 8M b) Draw the phase plane trajectory using isocline method, given x+x+x=0 and

x 0 =0; x 0 =6

7M

6. a) Write the slope equations of phase trajectories. What are the methods for constructing phase trajectories? Explain one of them briefly.

7M

b) A linear second order servo is described by the equation

2

n n 2 w w u 0

where n0.15, w 1 u 0 1.5 and 0 0.ύ

Determine

the singular point. Construct the phase trajectory, using the method of isoclines.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw the block diagram of a system with state feedback. List the necessary condition to be satisfied for design using state feedback.

5M

b) Consider a linear system described by the transfer function:

Y s 10

U s s s 1 s 2

design

a feedback controller with state back so that closed loop poles are placed at: 2, 1 j

10M

8. a) How control system design is carried in state space. What are the advantages of control system in state space?

5M

b) A single input system is described by the following state equation: 1 1 0 0 1 10

2 1 2 0 2 1

3 2 1 3 3 0

x x

x x u

x x

Design a state feedback controller which will give a closed –loop poles at: 1 j2, 6

10M

Unit – V

9. a) Take a standard regulator problem and explain aspects of optimal control in it. 8M b) What is meant by linear optimal control? Explain its significance. 7M 10. a) Explain optimal control with three important steps. 7M b) Define the following statements with necessity diagram if required:

i. Tracking problem ii. Continuous-Time Linear Regulators iii. Linearity of functional

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3319

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. A disc of 5kg mass with radius of gyration 70mm is mounted at span on a horizontal shaft spins at 720rpm in clockwise direction when viewed from the right hand bearing. If the shaft precesses about the vertical axis at 30rpm in clockwise direction when viewed from the top, determine the reactions at each bearing due to mass of the disc and gyroscopic effect.

15M

2. A turbine rotor of a ship has a mass of 3500kg and rotates at a speed of 2000rpm. The rotor has a radius of gyration of 0.5m and rotates in clockwise direction when viewed from the stern (rear) end. Determine the magnitude of gyroscopic couple and its direction for the following conditions: i. When the ship runs at a speed of 12 knots and steers to the left in a curve of 70m radius ii. When the ship pitches 6° above and 6° below the horizontal position and the bow (Front)

end is lowered. The pitching motion is simple harmonic with periodic time 30sec iii. When the ship rolls and at a certain instant, it has an angular velocity of 0.05rad/s

clockwise when viewed from the stern iv. Also find the maximum angular acceleration during pitching

15M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain with neat sketch a centrifugal clutch. 7M b) The inner and the outer radii of a single plate clutch are 40mm and 80mm respectively.

Determine the maximum, minimum and the average pressure when the axial force is 3kN.

8M

4. a) What is Band brake? 3M b) Figure shows a two way band brake. It is so designed that it can operate equally well in

both clockwise and counter clockwise rotation of the brake drum. The diameter of the drum is 400mm and the coefficient of friction between the band and the drum is 0.3. The angle of contact of band brake is 270° and the torque absorbed in the band brake is 400N-m. Calculate: i. Force F required at the end of the lever ii. Width of the band if the allowable stress in the band is 70MPa

Fig.1

All dimensions are in mm

12M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) State the applications of Flywheel. 3M b) The mass of flywheel of an engine is 6.5tonnes and the radius of gyration is 1.8m. It is

found from the turning moment diagram that the fluctuation of energy is 56kN-m. If the mean speed of the engine is 120rpm, find the maximum and minimum speeds.

12M

6. a) What is Controlling Force? 3M b) A Porter governor has equal arms each 250mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation.

Each ball has a mass of 5kg and the mass of the central load on the sleeve is 15kg. The radius of rotation of the ball is 150mm when the governor begins to lift and 200mm when the governor is at maximum speed. Find the minimum and maximum speeds and range of speed of the governor.

12M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the causes of unbalance. 3M b) Four masses A, B, C and D are attached to a shaft and revolve in the same plane. The

masses are 12kg, 10kg, 18kg and 15kg respectively and their radii of rotations are 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 30mm. The angular position of the masses B, C and D are 600, 1350 and 2700 from mass A. Find the magnitude and position of the balancing mass at a radius of 100mm.

12M

8. Each crank and connecting rod of a four-crank in-line engine are 200mm and 800mm respectively. The outer cranks are set at 1200 to each other and each has a reciprocating mass of 200kg the spacing between adjacent planes of cranks are 400mm, 600mm, and 500mm. if the engine is in complete primary balance, determine the reciprocating masses of the inner cranks and their relative angular positions. Also find the secondary unbalanced force if the engine speed is 210rpm.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) State the causes of Vibration. 3M b) A vertical single stage air compressor having a mass of 500kg is mounted on springs

having a stiffness of 1.96×105N/m and a damping coefficient of 0.2. The rotating parts are completely balanced and the equivalent reciprocating parts have a mass of 20kg. The stroke is 0.2m. Determine the dynamic amplitude of vertical motion and the phase difference between the motion and excitation force if the compressor is operated at 200rpm.

12M

10. a) Define Logarithmic decrement. 3M b) A mass of 2kg is supported on an isolator having a spring scale of 2940 N/m and viscous

damping. If the amplitude of free vibration of the mass falls to one half its original value in 1.5 seconds, determine the damping coefficient of the isolator.

12M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3320

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Highlight the Essential properties of cutting fluids. 8M b) Explain the types of cutting fluids and their application.

7M

2. a) Define Tool life and analyze Taylor’s tool life equation. 8M b) Tabulate the Compositions and types of popular high speed steels.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) List out the various types of taper turning methods and explain any one. 8M b) Discuss the tooling layout for the production of a Hexagonal nut in Turret lathe.

7M

4. a) Sketch a centre lathe and explain various parts. 10M b) Describe a typical single spindle automatic bar machine.

5M

Unit – III

5. a) Highlight the major parts of a standard shaper. 8M b) Explain with a diagram crank and slotted link quick return mechanism.

7M

6. a) Differentiate between shaper and planer. 8M b) With a neat sketch explain the major parts of a slotting machine.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the auto feed mechanism of a drilling machine. 8M b) Describe the nomenclature, definitions and functions of the different parts of a drill.

7M

8. a) Discuss double column vertical boring machine with a sketch. 8M b) Explain different types of boring tools.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the honing process and the honing tool. 8M b) List out the uses of jigs and fixtures.

7M

10. a) How does lapping differ from honing? 8M b) With neat sketch explain the operation of horizontal broaching machine. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3321

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the effect of boiler pressure on the performance of Rankine cycle. 4M b) In a simple Rankine cycle, dry saturated steam at 20bar expands to a pressure of 1

atmosphere. Determine: i. The pump work ii. Turbine work iii. Network output iv. Thermal efficiency v. Quality of steam entering the condenser vi. Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh What would be the Network output, Cycle efficiency, Specific steam consumption in kg/kWh and Quality of steam entering the condenser if the condenser pressure is reduced to 0.06 bar and compare the performance of the two cycles.

11M

2. a) Explain the working of ideal regenerative cycle. 6M b) Compare the performance of simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of

20 bar and dry saturated with that of another simple Rankine cycle with boiler exit steam conditions of 30 bar and dry saturated in terms of: i. Net work output ii. Heat supply iii. Thermal efficiency iv. Steam rate v. Quality of steam entering the condenser Assume the condenser pressure to be 0.06bar for both the cycles.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Differentiate between fire tube and water tube boilers. 8M b) What is a condenser? What are the requirements of steam condenser?

7M

4. a) Explain the working principle of super critical boilers 8M b) List the classification of condenser. Explain any one.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the effects of friction on the flow through a steam nozzle? Explain with the help of h-s diagram.

7M

b) Dry saturated steam at 2.8bar is expanded through a convergent nozzle to 1.7bar. The exit area is 3cm2. Estimate the exit velocity and the mass flow rate, assuming: i. Isentropic expansion ii. Assuming super saturated flow exists

8M

6. a) What is the fundamental difference between the operation of impulse and reaction turbines? Explain the same with neat sketches.

8M

b) In a single stage impulse turbine the blade angles are equal and the nozzle angle is 200. The velocity coefficient for the blade is 0.83. Find the maximum blade efficiency possible. If the actual blade efficiency is 90% of maximum blade efficiency, find the possible ratio of blade speed to steam speed.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Prove that maximum diagram efficiency of a stage of a reaction steam turbine is given by the expression φ= 2 cos2α1/(1+ cos2α1).

7M

b) A 50% reaction turbine (with symmetrical velocity triangle) running at 400rpm has the exit angle of the blades as 200 and the velocity of steam relative to the blades at the exit is 1.35 times the mean blade speed. The steam flow rate is 8.33kg/s and at a particular stage the specific value is 1.381m3/kg. Calculate for this stage: i. A suitable blade height assuming the rotor mean diameter 12 times the blade height ii. The diagram work

8M

8. a) Describe with neat sketches the working of a simple constant pressure open cycle gas turbine. How does the actual cycle differ from the theoretical cycle?

6M

b) Air enters at 1 bar and 150C into the compressor of a constant pressure open cycle gas turbine plant and leaves the compressor at 6 bar. Using the following data: Temperature of the gases entering the turbine= 7000C, Pressure loss in the combustion chamber=0.1bar, ηc=80% and ηt=80% ηc(combustion)=90%.Take γ=1.4 Cp=1kj/kgK for air and gases. Find: i. The quantity of air circulation in the system if the plant develops 940KW ii. Heat supplied per kg of air circulation

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the working difference between propeller jet, turbo-jet and turbo-prop. 7M b) Differentiate between solid propellant and liquid propellant.

8M

10. a) What are the fundamental difference between the jet propulsion and rocket propulsion?

5M

b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of liquid propellant rocket. 10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3322

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the factors to be considered in machine Design? 7M b) A beam of uniform cross section is fixed at one end and carries an electric motor weighing

400N at a distance of 300mm from the fixed end. The maximum bending stress in the beam is 40MPa. Find the width and depth of the beam if the depth is twice that of the width.

8M

2. a) Explain Maximum principal stress theory stating its limitations. 7M b) A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 10kN and transverse shear force of 5kN. The yield

strength of the bolt material is 300MPa. Considering the factor of safety of 2. Determine the diameter of the shaft using: i. Maximum shear stress theory ii. Distortion energy theory

8M

Unit – II

3. a) List the Factors Considered While Designing Against Fatigue. 3M b) A circular bar is subjected to a completely reversed axial load of 150kN. Determine the

size of the bar for infinite life, if it is made of plain carbon steel having ultimate tensile strength of 800N/mm2 and yield point in tension of 600N/mm2. Assuming the surface finish factor as 0.80, size factor 0.85, reliability as 90%, and modifying factor for the stress concentration as 0.9.

12M

4. A shaft is subjected to a bending moment varying from 200Nm to 500Nm and a twisting moment varying from 50Nm to 175Nm. The material 30C8 steel has Su=600MPa, Se=300 MPa, Ka=0.76, Kb=0.85, Kc=0.897, Kd=1.85 and q=0.95. Find the diameter of the shaft using Von Mises Hencky theory. Factor of safety = 1.5.

15M

Unit – III

5. A welded connection, as shown in Fig.1, is subjected to an eccentric force of 60kN in the plane of the welds. Determine the size of the welds, if the permissible shear stress for the weld is 100N/mm2. Assume static conditions.

Fig.1

15M

Cont…2

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6. a) Differentiate between cold riveting and hot riveting. 5M b) A brake band attached to the hinge by means of a riveted joint is shown in Fig.2.

Determine the size of the rivets needed for the load of 10kN. Also determine the width of the band. The permissible stresses for the band and rivets in tension, shear and compression are 80, 60 and 120N/mm2 respectively. Assume: i. Margin(m) = 1.5d ii. Transverse pitch (pi) = p iii. Find the pitch of the rivets

Fig.2

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the advantages of bolted joints. 3M b) A bracket, as shown in Fig.3 below, supports a load of 30kN. Determine the size of bolts,

if the maximum allowable tensile stress in the bolt material is 60MPa. The distances are: L1 = 80mm, L2 = 250 mm, and L = 500 mm.

Fig.3

12M

8. a) What is Knuckle joint? 3M b) Design a knuckle joint to transmit tension 150kN. The design stresses may be taken as 75

MPa in tension 60MPa in shear and 150MPa in compression.

12M

Unit – V

9. A 15kW, 960r.p.m. motor has a mild steel shaft of 40mm diameter and the extension being 75mm. The permissible shear and crushing stresses for the mild steel key are 56MPa and 112 MPa. Design the keyway in the motor shaft extension. Check the shear strength of the key against the normal strength of the shaft.

15M

10. Two 35 mm shafts are connected by a flanged coupling. The flanges are fitted with 6 bolts on 125mm bolt circle. The shafts transmit a torque of 800N-m at 350r.p.m. For the safe stresses mentioned below Calculate: i. diameter of bolts ii. thickness of flanges iii. key dimensions iv. hub length v. power transmitted Safe shear stress for shaft material = 63 MPa Safe stress for bolt material = 56MPa Safe stress for cast iron coupling = 10 MPa Safe stress for key material = 46MPa

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3323

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

INSTRUMENTATION AND CONTROL SYSTEMS (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With suitable example, explain direct measurement system. 7M b) With neat sketch explain the working principle of photo electric transducer.

8M

2. a) Discuss the sources of errors in measurement system. 7M b) Illustrate how variable capacitance device is used to measure displacement in industries.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With help of neat diagram derive an equation for rotameter. 9M b) List out the different types of direct level measurements and explain any two of them.

6M

4. a) Explain the working of bubler level indicator with a neat sketch. 8M b) Illustrate the principle and working of ionization pressure gauges.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Write short notes on: i. Vibrometer ii. Mechanical Tachometer

9M

b) Discuss the working principle of electrical tachometer.

6M

6. a) Briefly explain accelerometer. 8M b) Explain the working principle of non contact type tachometer.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the principle of electrical resistance strain gauge. 8M b) Explain the principle of temperature measurement using pyrometer.

7M

8. a) Explain the working of sling psychrometer. 8M b) Explain the temperature resistance relation of NTC thermistors.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Give a brief classification of control system. 7M b) Explain the different elements of speed control of turbine driven generator and also draw

the block diagram representing the functional elements.

8M

10. a) With suitable example, explain open loop and closed loop control system. 9M b) Explain important characteristics of control system. 6M

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(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

OPERATIONS RESEARCH (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) List the major phases involved in operations research. 6M b) A company owns 2 oil mills A and B which have different production capacities for low,

High and medium grade oil. The company enters into a contract to supply oil to a firm every week with 12, 8, 24 barrels of each grade respectively. It costs the company Rs 1000 and Rs 800 per day to run the mills A and B. On a day A produces 6, 2, 4 barrels of each grade and B produces 2, 2, 12 barrels of each grade. Formulate an LPP to determine number of days per week each mill will be operated in order to meet the contract Economically.

9M

2. a) State the applications of Linear Programming Problem. 3M b) Solve by Simplex Method:

1 2Maximize Z=80x +55x

Subject to 1 24x +2x 40, 1 22x +4x 32, and 1 2x 0, x 0

12M

Unit – II

3. a) What is the difference between transportation problem and assignment problem? 8M b) Three jobs A B C are to be assigned to three machines X Y Z. The processing costs are as

given in the matrix shown below. Find the allocation which will minimize the overall processing cost:

Jobs

X Y Z

A 19 28 31

B 11 17 16

C 12 15 13

7M

4. a) Four different jobs can be done on four different machines and take down time costs are prohibitively high for change overs. The matrix below gives the cost in rupees of producing job on machine j. How the jobs should be assigned to the various machines so that the total cost is minimized.

Jobs Machine

M1 M2 M3 M4

J1 5 7 11 6

J2 8 5 9 6

J3 4 7 10 7

J4 10 4 8 3

8M

b) Job shop needs to assign 4 jobs to 4 workers. The cost of performing a job is a function of the skills of the workers. Table summarizes the cost of the assignments. Worker1 cannot do job3, and worker 3 cannot do job 4. Determine the optimal assignment using the Hungarian method:

Job

Worker

1 2 3 4

1 Rs. 50 Rs. 50 -- Rs. 20

2 Rs. 70 Rs. 40 Rs. 20 Rs. 30

3 Rs. 90 Rs. 30 Rs. 50 --

4 Rs. 70 Rs. 20 Rs. 60 Rs. 70

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – III

5. a) Explain characteristics of queuing models. 5M b) In a self service store with one cashier, 8 customers arrive on an average of every 5 mins.

and the cashier can serve 10 in 5mins. If both arrival and service time are exponentially distributed, then determine: i. Average number of customer waiting in the queue for average ii. Expected waiting time in the queue iii. What is the probability of having more than 6 customers In the system

10M

6. a) State the principal assumptions made in sequencing problems. 5M b) There are five jobs (namely 1,2,3,4 and 5), each of which must go through machines A, B

and C in the order ABC. Processing Time (in hours) are given below:

Jobs 1 2 3 4 5

Machine A 5 7 6 9 5

Machine B 2 1 4 5 3

Machine C 3 7 5 6 7

Find the optimum sequence to complete the jobs.

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the effects of deterioration on the performance of the equipment. 3M b) A fleet owner finds from his past experience records that the cost of the machine is Rs

6000/- and the running cost are given below. At what age the replacement is due:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Maintenance Cost 1000 1200 1400 1800 2300 2800 3400 4000

Resale Value 3000 1500 750 375 200 200 200 200

12M

8. a) A television manufacturing company produces its own speakers, which are used in the production of its television sets. The television sets are assembled on a continuous production line at rate of 8,000 per month. The company is interested in determining when and how much to procure, given the following information: Each time a batch is produced, a set-up cost of Rs.12,000 is incurred. The cost of keeping a speaker in stock is Rs. 0.30 per month. The production cost of a single speaker is Rs.10.00 and can be assumed to be a unit cost. Shortage of a speaker, (if there exists) costs Rs. 1.10 per month.

12M

b) State the reasons for holding inventory.

3M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain significance of game theory? State its applications. 7M b) Solve the following game:

B

A

5 20 -10

10 6 2

20 15 18

8M

10. a) What is pure and mixed strategy? Explain 5M b) Solve the following game graphically.

1 2 3 4 5

A1 -5 5 0 -1 8

A2 8 -4 -1 6 -5

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3116

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Classify arches according to their shape and support condition. 5M b) A parabolic arch hinged at the ends has a span of 60m and a rise of 12m. A concentrated

load of 8kN acts at 15m from the left hinge. The second moment of area varies as the secant of the inclination of the arch axis. Calculate the horizontal thrust and the reactions at the hinge. Also calculate the bending moment at the section 23m from the right hinge.

10M

2. A two hinged parabolic arch of span ‘l’ and rise ‘r’ carries a udl of w/metre run over the left hand half of the span. The moment of inertia of the arch rib varies as the secant of the slope of the rib axis. i. Obtain the expression for the horizontal thrust H ii. Calculate the horizontal thrust and bending moment at quarter span point on the right

half of the span if l=20m, r= 4m and w=20kN/m

15M

Unit – II

3. Analyze the portal frame by moment distribution method.

Fig.1

15M

4. Analyze the continuous beam for three span by Kani’s method. Draw BMD.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – III

5. Analyze the portal frame by slope deflection method and draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.3

15M

Cont…2

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6. Analyze the frame shown in Fig.4 by using slope deflection method. Draw bending moment diagram.

Fig.4

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.5 by using flexibility method. Draw bending moment diagram.

Fig.5

15M

8. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.6 by using stiffness method. Draw bending moment diagram.

Fig.6

15M

Unit – V

9. Using Muller Breslau principle, draw the influence line for bending moment at the midpoint D of span AB of the continuous beam ABC shown in Fig.7 below. Determine the influence line ordinates at suitable intervals and plot them.

Fig.7

15M

10. Analyze the truss shown in Fig.8 by method of joints and indicate the values.

Fig.8

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3119

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define hydrology. Briefly describe hydrologic cycle with the help of a neat sketch. 8M b) Illustrate Simon’s raingauge. Distinguish between AET and PET.

7M

2. a) Briefly describe the following: i. Evapotranspiration ii. Infiltrometers iii. Basin yield iv. Direct runoff due to a storm

8M

b) The shape of a catchment approximately resembles a square of side 12km. With reference to an x-y coordinate frame, The location of the four corners of the catchment are (0,0), (12,0), (12,12) and (0,12). There are four raingauges A, B, C and D whose positions are (3,3), (9,3), (9,9) and (3,9) respectively. The rainfall record over these raingauges during a storm is 75, 110, 80 and 98 mm respectively. Compare the average depths of rainfall estimated using Arithmetic mean method and Thiessen polygon method. Also calculate the volume of runoff generated at the outlet and comment on it.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is a Unit Hydrograph? State the assumptions of Unit Hydrograph Theory. 7M b) Find the ordinates of a storm hydrograph resulting from a 3 hour storm with rainfall of 2,

6.75 and 3.75 cm during subsequent 3 hours intervals. The ordinates of unit hydrograph are given in the table. Assume an initial loss of 5mm, infiltration index of 2.5mm/hour and base flow of 10 cumecs.

Time (h) 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24

UH ordinates 0 110 365 500 390 310 250 235 175 130 95 65 40 22 10 0

8M

4. a) Explain the different methods of baseflow separation in a hydrograph. 7M b) The ordinates of a 6hr UH for a particular basin are given below. Obtain the ordinates of a

9h UH for the basin using S–curve Technique.

Time (hr) 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 27 30 33 36 39 42 45

6 hr UGO (cumec)

0 9 20 35 49 43 35 28 22 17 12 9 6 3 0 0

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly discuss about the following with example: i. Aquiclude ii. Aquifuge iii. Aquitard iv. Aquifer

8M

b) A well of 0.3m diameter penetrates fully into a confined aquifer of thickness 15m and hydraulic conductivity 8X10-4m/s. The radius of influence is 220m and the drawdown in the well is not to exceed 3m. Sketch the given aquifer parameter. Also determine the transmissivity of the aquifer and maximum yield expected from the well.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Arrive at the equation for radial flow to unconfined aquifer. 8M b) With the help of neat sketch discuss the occurrence of groundwater

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) With the help of a neat sketch describe the vertical distribution of soil moisture. 8M b) The following data pertains to the healthy growth of a crop. Field capacity of soil=30%,

Permanent wilting point=11%, Density of soil=1300kg/m3, Effective depth of root zone is 700mm, Daily consumptive use of water for the given crop=12mm. For healthy growth, the water content must not fall below 25% of the water holding capacity between field capacity and permanent wilting point. Determine the watering interval in days.

7M

8. a) With a neat diagram explain the drip Irrigation system. 8M b) The left branch canal carrying a discharge of 20cumecs has culturable command area of

20,000hectares. The intensity of Rabi crop is 80%, and the base period is 120 days. The right branch carrying discharge of 8cumecs has culturable command area of 12,000 hectares, intensity of irrigation of Rabi crop is 50% and the base period is 120 days. Compare the efficiencies of the two canals.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Provide a detail classification of canals. 8M b) Define irrigation canal. Discuss the various drawbacks in Kennedy’s theory.

7M

10. a) Provide a detailed procedure to design unlined irrigation canal in alluvial soil according to Kennedy’s theory.

7M

b) Determine the dimensions for the irrigation canal for the following data: (B/D) ratio = 3.7 N = 0.0225 m = 1.0 S=(1/4000) Side slopes of the canal = 0.5H:1V Also determine the discharge in the canal.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3115

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

DESIGN OF REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Design an RC beam supported on wall of 250mm thick having a clear span of 8.75m. The beam carries a super imposed UDL of 26 kN/m and two concentrated load of 32kN each acting at 1/3rd distance from either supports. The size of the beam is restricted to

275475mm. Use M25 grade concrete and Fe500 grade steel. The beam is exposed to moderate environmental condition. Sketch the reinforcement details.

15M

2. a) Discuss the necessity of shear reinforcement in RC beams. 6M b) An Isolated T section has the following details

Width of flange = 800mm, Depth of Slab = 150mm Width of rib = 300mm, Overall depth = 750mm Reinforcement = 8#25@bottom, Grade of concrete = M25 & grade of steel = Fe 415. Assume moderate exposure condition and 8mm dia. Stirrups. Evaluate the flexural strength of the T section.

9M

Unit – II

3. A reinforced concrete beam of size 300 mm x 500 mm overall consists of 4 bars of 16 mm diameter in the tension zone. Take effective cover 40 mm. It also consists of 2L #8 @ 200 mm centre to centre near the supports. Use M20 and Fe 415. Estimate the shear strength of the support section. Also the UDL the beam can carry over a span of 5m.

15M

4. a) Explain the limit state method of design of RCC members. 4M b) Design a doubly reinforced beam of limited depth 440 mm. The beam is subjected to a

factored moment of 600 kNM. The stress is compression steel is 353 N/mm2 take effective depth of 50mm both at compression & tension. Draw the sketch showing reinforcement details M20 and Fe 415 grade.

11M

Unit – III

5. a) What is the function of providing distribution steel in slab? 4M b) Design a one way slab with a clear span of inner distance 3.5m X 8m simply supported

over a 230 mm thick supporting wall to support a live load of 4 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel . take l/d = 25 and dl = 20mm.

11M

6. A framed building consists of slabs supported on beams. Design a slab of panel size

65004500mm (c/c of beams) without any intermediate supports subjected to a LL = 4.0kN/m2, floor finish and light partitions =2.5kN/m2. Adopt moderate exposure with grade of concrete as M25 and grade of steel Fe500. The slab is discontinuous along one edge only. Sketch the details.

15M

Unit – IV 7. Design a short RC column of rectangular section subject to an ultimate load of 600 kN and

ultimate bending moment 100 kNm. A bends about major axis. Effective length of column 4.5 m. Assume width of column as 300 mm. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Design the laterals and sketch the details.

15M

8. Design a RC column 400 mm X 400 mm to carry a load of 1200kN. Sketch the details. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.

15M

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Unit – V

9. Design a (‘waist slab’ type) dog-legged staircase for an office building, given the following data: Clear dimensions of stair case hall is (2.6 x 5.75m) Height between floors = 3.3m Rise = 150mm, Tread = 300mm Width of flight = landing width = 1.25m Assume the stairs to be supported on 230mm thick masonry walls at the outer edges of the landings, parallel to risers. Use M20 Concrete and Fe415 steel. Sketch the details of reinforcement. Assume moderate condition.

15M

10. A square footing has to transfer an axial load of 1600kN from a square column of 300mm×300mm. Assume M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. SBC of soil is 225kN/m2. Design the footing. Assume clear cover as 40mm and sketch the details.

15M

Page 139: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1515 …...b) Create your own exception which handles for age exception (if less than 18 years) in voting system. 7M 6. a) Write a program which

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3012

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018

(Regulations: VCE-R15)

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES (Common for All Branches)

Date: 29 May, 2018 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define Engineering ethics. Explain various subdivisions of Engineering ethics. 8M b) Practicing human values is utmost important in a technical profession. Discuss.

7M

2. a) Explain various models of professional roles. 8M b) Explain various steps/procedures in resolving moral dilemmas.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write a short note on the following values in engineering profession: i. Work ethic ii. Cooperation iii. Self confidence

7M

b) Explain the importance of imbibing certain human values in engineering profession.

8M

4. a) Write a short on the following values in engineering profession: i. Civic Virtue ii. Valuing time iii. Character

8M

b) A technically efficient Engineer without human values is detrimental to the society. Explain.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Mention how risk minimization could be achieved. 8M b) Explain the concept of Conflicts of Interest.

7M

6. a) What is meant by collective bargaining? 8M b) What is the meaning of risk-benefit analysis and risk management?

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) State various employee rights. 8M b) Justify, “Loyalty is a team play virtue; An employee has to be loyal to his organization”.

Explain types of loyalty.

7M

8. a) Define Collegiality. Explain various techniques for achieving collegiality. 7M b) How WIPO originated? Mention the functions WIPO.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Present a concise explanation on Environmental Ethics. 8M b) Write about engineer’s involvement in weapons work.

7M

10. a) Discuss the role of professionals as manager, expert witnesses and advisors. 8M b) What are some key principles of moral leadership? 7M