GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE ability...7. Statement I : The Man Booker Inter¬ national Prize is...

22
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T . B .C. : U - GIA - JBOS TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE Test Booklet Series A Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 250 INSTRUCTIONS 1 . IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS , ETC . IF SO , GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET 2. Please note that it is the candidates responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A , B , C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission / discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection . 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4 . This Test Booklet contains 125 items ( questions ) . Each item is printed both in Hindi and English . Each item comprises four responses ( answers ) . You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet . In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider the best . In any case , choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided . See directions in the Answer Sheet . 6 . All items carry equal marks . 7 . Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet , you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate . 8 . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded , you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet . You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet . 9 . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS . ( i ) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question . For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one - third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty . ( ii ) If a candidate gives more than one answer , it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. ( iii ) If a question is left blank , i .e., no answer is given by the candidate , there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO EtTFT cj : ^ F>T ^ HI ^ cK W sSHI I ? |

Transcript of GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE ability...7. Statement I : The Man Booker Inter¬ national Prize is...

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : U-GIA-JBOS

TEST BOOKLETGENERAL ABILITY AND

INTELLIGENCE

Test Booklet Series

ATime Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 250

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN ORMISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST

BOOKLET2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and

Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at

the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission /discrepancy will render the

Answer Sheet liable for rejection.3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOTwrite anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 125 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English.

Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to

mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the

response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions

in the Answer Sheet.6. All items carry equal marks.7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,

you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your

Admission Certificate.8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet . You are permitted to take

away with you the Test Booklet.9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong Answers :THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which

a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to thatquestion will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one

of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to thatquestion.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty

for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

EtTFT cj : ^F>T ^HI ^cK W sSHI I? |

The following 7 (Seven ) items consist of twostatements, Statement I and Statement TTExamine these two statements carefully andselect the correct answer using the codegiven below :

Code :

(a) Both the statements arc individuallytrue and Statement II is the correctexplanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individuallytrue but Statement II is NOT thecorrect explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement IIis false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement IIis true

1. Statement I : Plantation farming hasmostly been practiced inhumid tropics

Statement II : The soil of humid tropicsis highly fertile

2. Statement I : Chameleon changes itsskin colour to match withthe colour of thesurroundings

Statement II : The skin of chameleonemits light of the colourof the surrounding throughfluorescence

3. Statement I : Occasionally we see tworainbows together, theprimary rainbow withanother less intensesecondary rainbow about10 degrees away

Statement II : The secondary rainbowappears due to refractionafter a reflection ofsunlight from the waterdroplets

4. Statement I : Nationalism in India, whichwas assigned a privilegedposition by its westerneducated political leader¬

ship, was a ‘different’, buta ‘derivative discourse’from the west

Statement II : Indian nationalism as aresponse to westernimperialism was ‘like allsuch responses, shaped bywhat it was respondingto’

5. Statement I : The British legal scholarsrelied on Indian Pandits andMaulavis for understandingof canons of authoritativetexts

Statement II : British codified the HinduLaws in 1783 and theMuslim Laws in 1785

6. Statement I : Dadabhai Naoroji arguedthat what was beingdrained out was ‘potentialsurplus’ that could generatemore economic develop¬

ment in India if investedin India

Statement II : Imperialists believed thatIndia was brought into thelarge capitalist worldmarket and that was initself a progress towardsmodernization

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7. Statement I : The Man Booker Inter¬

national Prize is nowunlikely to be won by anEnglish author

Statement II : The Booker Prize Founda¬

tion announced that theMan Rnnker InternationalPrize was to evolve from2016 onwards into a prizefor fiction in translation

8. Which one of the following statementsabout Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana isNOT correct ?

(a) It is a social welfare scheme toprovide LPG connections in BPLhouseholds

(b) The scheme was launched in theyear 2015

(c) The Government has set a target of5 crores LPG connections under theYojana

(d) The objective of the scheme is tosafeguard the health of womenand children by providing themwith clean cooking fuel

9. Which one of the following portals waslaunched on the 250th anniversary ofSurvey of India ?

(a) ServicePlus

(b) DigiMap

(c) Udaan

(d) Nakshc

10. Which one of die following countries hasbeen tanked as the least corrupt country'in the Corruption Perception Index 2016released by Transparency International ?

(a) Denmark

(b) Sweden

(c) Switzerland

(d) Norway

11. The Central Vigilance Commission wasset up on the recommendation of

(a) First Administrative Reforms Com¬

mission

(b) Gorwala Committee

(c) Kripalani Committee

(d) Santhanam Committee

12. The Ninth Schedule was added to theConstitution of India by the

(a) Fourteenth Amendment

(b) First Amendment

(c) Ninety-Third Amendment

(d) Ninety-Ninth Amendment

13. Which one of the following cases in theSupreme Court of India dealt with theissue of ‘creamy layer’ among thebackward classes ?

(a) K M Nanavati vs. State of Bombay

(b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India

(c) Madhu Limaye vs. Ved Murti

(d) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Punjab

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I

14. Which one of the following statementsabuut Ciipps Mission is NOT correct ?

(a) In March 1942, Cripps persuadedWar Cabinet to agree to a draftdeclaration

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patelrepresented Congress to negotiatewith the mission

(c) The mission offered Dominionstatus after the war

(d) The mission offered formation ofconstitution making body after thewar

15. Which one of the following statementsabout the Treaty of Allahabad is NOTcorrect ?

(a) It was signed in the year 1765

(b) The Mughal Emperor by a farmanformally granted the Diwani ofBengal, Bihar and Orissa to theEast India Company

(c) Awadh was restored to its Nawabon payment of Rs. 50 Lakhs

(d) Banaras and the Surrounding tractswere detached from Awadh andhanded over to Shah Alam II

16. Which among the following was NOTthe provision of the Gandhi-Irwin pact ?

(a) Immediate release of all politicalprisoners of the Civil DisobedienceMovement

(b) Clause 2 of the March 1931 pactdefined ‘reservations and safe¬

guards’ to cover financial credit ofIndia

(c) The return of confiscated landalready sold to third partioo

(d) Reservation of 18 per cent seatsfor Depressed classes

17. Which one of the following novels wonthe Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 inthe Fiction category ?

(a) The Goldfinch

(b) All the Light We Cannot See

(c) The Sympathizer

(d) The Underground Railroad

18. Which one of the following does NOTpass through the Kaziranga NationalPark ?

(a) The Brahmaputra river

(b) The Diphlu river

(c) National Highway No. 37

(d) Railway track of Indian Railway

19. The US President in 2017 has signed anexecutive order for US withdrawal froma trade organization of the Pacificregion. Identify the organization fromamong the following :

(a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC)

(b) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)

(c) Free-Trade Agreement of the Asia-Pacific (FTAAP)

(d) Regional Comprehensive EconomicPartnership (RCEP)

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20. Which one of the following judgmentsdeclared that the Parliament has NOpower to amend any of the provisions ofPart III of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State ofKerala

(b) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

(c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State ofMadras

(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Governmentof India

21. Who among the following leaders isassociated with the concept of party lessdemocracy ?

(a) J B Kripalani

(b) Jayprakash Narayan

(c) Acharya Narendra Dev

(d) Vinoba Bhave

22. Who among the following is empoweredto establish Inter State Council underArticle 263 of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Parliament

(b) Council of Ministers

(c) President of India

(d) Chief Justice of India

23. Which among the following was NOTthe recommendation of the NehruReport ?

(a) Dominion Status

(b) Separate Electorate

(c) Unitary and Democratic Centre

(d) Adult Suffrage

24. Which one of the following statementsabout the Indigo Revolt of 1859 iscorrect ?(a) It broke out at Poona and

Ahmadnagar

(b) It was directed against moneylenders

(c) It was supported by the intelligentsiaof Bengal

(d) It was directed against the pettyZamindars and ex-employees of theplanters

25. Which of the following active step(s)was/were taken by the Congress in 1823to eradicate untouchability from India ?

1. Effort to educate and mobilizeopinion among caste Hindus

2. Efforts to educate the ‘avamas’about the evils of untouchability

3. Forcibly open the doors of templesfor ‘avamas’

4. Petition the Government to passlaws that would declare untouch¬

ability unlawful

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

26. Which one of the following is NOT ariver covered under the Indus WaterTreaty 1960 ?(a) Ravi(b) Chenab(c) Teesta(d) Beas

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27. Who among the following are awardedwith the Special Breakthrough Prize inFundamental Physics for the year 2017 ?

(a) Stephen W Hawking and RogerPenrose

(b) Ronald Drever, Kip S Thome andRamer Weiss

(c) Joseph Polchinski, AndrewStrominger and Cumrun Vafa

(d) J Michael Kosterlitz, DuncanHaldane and David J Thouless

28. Who among the following Mathematicianis the recipient of the Abel Prize for theyear 2017 ?

(a) John F Nash

(b) YveS Meyer

(c) SR Srinivasa Varadhan

(d) Andrew Wiles

29. Who among the following scholars hasconceptualized the Constitution of Indiaas a ‘seamless web’ ?

(a) MV Pylee

(b) DD Basu

2. Article 16 of the Constitution ofIndia i3 available to tho oitizono ofIndia only

3. Article 21 of the Constitution ofIndia is available to both citizens ofIndia and the foreigners alike withinthe territory of India

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Who among the following are entitled toget the benefits of equality before thelaw and the equal protection of the lawsas enshrined under Article 14 of theConstitution of India ?

1. All Indian citizens living in India

2. All Indian citizens living abroad

3. Foreigners living within the territoryof India

4. All citizens bom in India

(c) Granville Austin

(d) Subhash Kashyap

30. Which of the following statements is/arecorrect ?

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

1. Article 15 of the Constitution of (c) 1 and 3 onlyIndia is available to both citizens ofIndia and the foreigners (d) 4

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32. Which one of the following statementsabout the English Education Act of 1835is NOT correct ?(a) It was proposed by Governor

General William Bentinck on theadvice of Macaulay

(b) It made English the language ofinstruction in Indian educationsystem

(c) With the formal institutionalization ofEnglish as the language of instruc¬

tion, the stage was set for a newdirection to Indian education

(d) To the existing Oriental Institutionsfresh awards of stipends to studentsand the publication of classical textswere to continue

33. Which one of the following dynastiesruled under the suzerainty of Kingdom ofVijayanagar ?(a) Sangamas, Saluvas, Tuluvas and

Aravidus(b) Sangamas, Hoysalas, Aravidus and

Tuluvas(c) Hoysalas, Saluvas, Poligars and

Sangamas(d) Yadavas of Devagiri, Hoysalas,

Saluvas and Aravidus

34. Which one of the following statementsabout the Colonial economy is NOTcorrect ?(a) The British presence inhibited

indigenous capitalism(b) Laissez-faire actively promoted

indigenous capitalism(c) The ‘white collective monopoly’

came earliest and remained mostpronounced in Eastern India

(d) The Bombay hinterland was difficultto penetrate before the constructionof railways

35. Which of the following statement(s)about Eastcrinc Kirc is/are correct ?

1. Bom in Nagaland, she is a poet,novelist and children’s book writer

2. She is the recipient of the HinduPrize for the year 2015 for herpoetic novel ‘When the PaverSleeps’

3. ‘When the River Sleeps’ was anexploration of the Naga spirituniverse

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Which of the following statements aboutthe Paris Agreement on Climate Changeis NOT correct ?

(a) The agreement has been signed bymore than 190 countries (as ofMarch 2017)

(b) The agreement went into effect on4 November 2016

(c) The Intended Nationally DeterminedContribution (INDC) pledged duringthe 2015 Climate Change Confer¬

ence has been withdrawn in theParis Agreement

(d) Both USA and China joined theParis Agreement

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37. Akshay Kumar was chosen for the bestactor award for the 64th National FilmAwards (2017) for his role in the Hindifilm

(a) Mukti Bhawan

(b) Naam Shabana

(c) Rustom

'

(d) Airlift

38. Which one of the following statementsabout the provisions of the Constitutionof India is correct ?

(a) Minorities can establish andadminister educational institutions oftheir choice

(b) Only linguistic, ethnic and religiousminorities find mention underArticle 30

(c) Every religious denomination hasunfettered right to establish andmaintain institutions for religious andcharitable purposes

(d) An educational institution establishedby a religious minority loses itsminority status on receiving financialaid from the Government

39. Which of the following pair(s) is/arecorrectly matched ?

1. Rule of lapse : Part of grant thatcan be carried overto next year

2. Supplementary : An advance grant togrant meet expenditures

3. Vote on : Additional fundsaccount granted in the

course of financialyear

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

40. Who among the following has won theDadasaheb Phalke award for the year2016 ?

(a) K Viswanath

(b) Shashi Kapoor

(c) Gulzar

(d) v Manoj Kumar

41. Which one of the following had createdthe office of the Secretary of State forIndia ?

(a) The Councils Act 1861

(b) The Government of India Act 1858

(c) The Morley Minto Reforms

(d) Montague Chelmsford reforms

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42. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I List II(Author) (Book)

A. Herman Kulke 1. The DelhiSultanate :

B. Brajadulal A Political andChattopadhyaya Military History

C. Peter Jackson Z The Emergence ofDelhi Sultanate :

D. Sunil Kumar AD 1192-1296

3. The State in India :1000-1700

4. The Making ofEarly MedievalIndia

Code :

A B C D

(a) 2 14 3

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 4 13

(d) 3 1 4 2

43. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I List II(Official) (Office held)

A. Samahartri 1. Chief of thePalace Guards

B. Samnidhatri2. Chief collector

C. Sansthadhyaksha 0f revenue

D. Antaravamshika 3. Treasurer

4. Superintendentof markets

Code :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

A

2

2

1

1

B

4

3

3

4

C

3

4

4

3

D

1

1

2

2

44. Which of the following most suitablycaptures the meaning and essence of‘globalization’ ?

1. It is about conducting externalrelations between two or moreStates of the world

2. It is a process of coming togetherof world-wide social relationsbypassing territories

3. It refers to thinking transterritoriallyabout global risks affecting people

4. It has a wishful vision of suprastategovernance

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

45. Who among the following is one of thesix winners of the Goldman Environ¬

mental Prize, for the year 2017 ?

(a) Jadav Payeng

(b) Anadish Pal

(c) Prafulla Samantra

(d) Sundcrlal Dahuguna

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46. Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is wellknown as a(a) novelist(b) golfer(c) classical dancer(d) sand artist

47. Which one of the following is the coirectsequence of different stages a budgethas to go through in the Parliament ?

1. Presentation of the Budget2. Scrutiny by Departmental Commit¬

tees3. Passing of Finance Bill4. Passing of Appropriation Bill

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :(a) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3(b) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4

(c) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4(d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1

48. Government of which one of thefollowing States has appointed theRajamannar Committee to study theCentre-State relations ?(a) Government of Andhra Pradesh(b) Government of Karnataka(c) Government of Maharashtra(d) Government of Tamil Nadu

49. Which one of the following was themandate of the Dhar Commission (1948) ?(a) To study the classification ofStates

(b) To recommend whether the Statescan be re-organized on linguisticbasis

(c) To study the Centre-State relations

(d) To examine whether Madras citycan be transferred to Andhra

50. Which one of the following pairs of termand meaning is NOT correctly matched ?

(a) Khalisa : Villages whose incomewent directly to the StateTreasury

(b) Mauza : Rebellious territory

(c) Inam : Land allotted to learnedand religious man

(d) Jagir : Territorial assignment givento Mansabdars in lieu ofsalary

51. In which one of the following buildingsthe first extant true arch is found ?

(a) Arhai din ka Jhonpra

(b) Quwwat ul Islam Mosque

(c) Tomb of Sultan Balban

(d) Alai Darwaza

52. Which one of the following statements isNOT correct ?

(a) Sharaf Qai was a minister ofAllauddin Khalji

(b) Under Giyasuddin Tughluq Muqtiswere warned not to ill-treat any oftheir officials for small amountstaken over and above their salaries

(c) The Arabic work masalik-i-Absargives description of the functioningof Iqta system under Muhammadbin Tughluq

(d) Marco Polo has not mentionedabout Pearl Fishery of Tuticorin inSouth India

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53. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the mde givenbelow the Lists :

List I List II(Book) (Author)

A. The World 1. APJ Abdul KalamAs I See It

B. How to Live 2. Stephen HawkingLonger andFeel Better 3 Albert Einstein

(a) Mrinalini Sarabhai

(b) Mogubai Kurdikar

(c) Kishori Amonkar

(d) MS Subbulakshmi

56. Which one of the following is the winnerof the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2017 ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

C. The Theoryof Everything 4. Linus Pauling

D. IndomitableSpirit

Code :A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 1 2 4 , 3

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 1 4 2 3

54. Which one of the following countries hasofficially recognized Bitcoin as a legalpayment method since 1st April 2017 ?

(a) Japan

(b) China

(c) USA(d) India

(b) Karnataka

(c) Assam

(d) Tamil Nadu

57. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I(Committee)

List II(Subject)

A. Rangarajan 1. Tax ReformCommittee

2. Insurance ReformB. Narsimhan

Committee . ~3. Disinvestment ofC. Kelkar shares in PSEs

Committee4. Banking Sector

D. Malhotra ReformCommittee

55. Consider the following passage andidentify the person :Born in April 1932, she was a renownedHindustani classical vocalist. She wasrecognized as an innovative exponent ofthe Jaipur Gharana. She was awardedPadma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan.She was also a Fellow of Sangeet NatakAkademy. She died in April 2017.

Code :

A B C D

(a) 214 3

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 3 1 4 ?

21 A - U-GIA-JBOS

58. To which of the following sectors of theeconomy, the activity of agriculture andservices belong to ?

(a) Primary and Tertiary respectively

(b) Primary and Secondary respec¬

tively

(c) Tertiary and Secondary respec¬

tively

(d) Secondary and Quaternary respec¬

tively

59. Which one of the following statementsabout Allahabad Prashasti is correct ?

(a) It clearly presents the Gupta empireas the epicenter of a complex webof varied political relationships

(b) Line 15 of it refers to the capturinga king of the Kota family

(c) Line 23 refers to Samudraguptaviolently exterminating a number ofkings of Aryavarta

(d) Line 20 refers to rulers offeringtribute, obeying the orders of theGupta King

60. Which one of the following statementsabout the Gupta period is NOT correct ?

(a) Forced labour (Vishti) became morecommon than before in this period

(b) A passage in the Vishnu Puranarefers to the Guptas enjoying all theterritories along the Ganga up toPrayciga

(c) The Mehrauli inscription suggeststhat Chandragupta fought against aconfederacy of enemies in Bengaland also led a campaign into thePunjab

(d) Saurashtra was not a part of theGupta Empire

61. Which one of the following statementsabout the Sukanya Samridhi Scheme isNOT correct ?

(a) Only parents of girls up to the ageof 10 years can open such accountsin their daughters name

(h) Contributions are eligible for taxbenefits under Section 80C of theIncome Tax Act

(c) Interest earned thereon is exemptedup to Rs. 1500 per annum

(d) A maximum of Rs. 1 -50 lakh perannum can be invested in thisaccount

62. Which of the following are the reformsintroduced in Budget 2017-2018 ?

1. Presentation of Budget advanced to1st February to enable theMinistries to operationalise allactivities from the commencementof the financial year

2. Merger of Railway Budget withGeneral Budget to bring Railwaysto the centre stage of Government’sFiscal Policy

3. Removal of plan and non-planclassification of expenditure tofacilitate a holistic view ofallocations for Sectors andMinistries

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

23 A - U-GIA-JBOS

63. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ is a joint militaryexercise between India and(a) China(b) Mongolia(c) Vietnam(d) Bhutan

64. Which one of the following artificialsweeteners is modified sugar ?

(a) Aspartame(b) Saccharin(c) Sucralose(d) Alitame

65. Which one of the following polymers ismade of protein ?(a) Rubber

(b) Cotton(c) Wool(d) Jute

66. Which of the following diseases arecaused by the consumption of watercontaminated by mercury and nitrate ?(a) Minamata disease and Osteoporosis(b) Osteoporosis and Blue Baby

Syndrome(c) Minamata disease and Blue Baby

Syndrome

(d) Osteoporosis and Minamata disease

67. Leakage of which one of the followinggases had caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy inthe year 1984 ?(a) Methyl isocyanate

(b) Hexamethylene diisocyanate(c) Isophorone diisocyanate(d) Isothiocyanate

68. The difference between the compoundinterest and the simple interest for2 years on a sum of money is Rs. 60.If the simple interest for 2 years isRs. 1440, what is the rate of interest ?

(a) 4i%

(b) 6{%

(c) 8%

(d) 8l%

69. A, B, C, D, E and F compared theirmarks in an examination and found thatA obtained the highest marks, B obtainedmore marks than D, C obtained morethan at least two others and E had notobtained the lowest marks.

Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 : At least two membersobtained less marks thanC

Statement 2 : E and F obtained thesame marks

Which of the above statement(s) is/aresufficient to identify the one with thelowest marks ?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

25

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70. Two men set out at the same time towalk towards each other from point3A and B\ 72 km apart. The first manwalks at the speed of 4 kmph while thesecond walks 2 km in the first hour,2 - j km in the second hour, 3 km in thethird hour, and so on. The two men willmeet

List I(Vegetation)

A. Chaparrals

B. Maquis

C. Fynbos

D. Malle scrubs

Code :

List II(Region)

1. North America2. Southern Europe3. South Africa4. Australia

(a) in 8 hours

(b) nearer to A than B

(c) nearer to B than A

(d) midway between A and B

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4(b) 1 3 2 4(c) 4 3 2 1(d) 4 2.3 1

71. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I(Hydro power

project)

A. Maithon project

B. Salal project

C. Rana PratapSagar project

D. Tehri project

Code :

A B

(a) 2 1

(b) 2 4

(c) 3 1

(d) 3 4

List II(River)

1. Chambal river

2. Bhagirathi river

3. Barakar river

4. Chenab river

C D

4 3

1 3

4 2

1 2

72. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

73. Which one of the following tigerreserves of India has ‘Bhoorsingh theBarasingha’ as its official mascot ?(a) Nameri tiger reserve(b) Ranthambhore tiger reserve(c) Panna tiger reserve(d) Kanha tiger reserve

74. Which one of the following elements ispresent in the green pigment of leaves ?(a) Magnesium(b) Iron(c) Calcium(d) Copper

75. Which one of the following is NOTcorrect about organic farming ?(a) It does not use genetically modified

seeds(b) Synthetic pesticides or fertilizers are

not used(c) It uses minimal crop rotation(d) It uses ecologically protective prac¬

tices

27 A - U-GIA-JBOS

76. Which one of the following instrumentsis used for measuring moisture contentof air ?

(a) Hydrometer

(b) Hygrometer

(c) Hypsometer

(d) Pycnometer

77. Bronze is an alloy of copper and

(a) nickel

(b) iron

(c) tin

(d) aluminium

78. The length of a rectangle is increased by60%. By what per cent would the widthhave to be decreased to maintain thesame area ?

(a) 37-5 %

(b) 60%

(c) 75%

(d) 120%

79. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively.If both the pipes are opened together,then after how much time, B shouldbe closed so that the tank is full in9 minutes ?

(a) min

(b) 4 min

(c) 4 -- min

(d) 4 -|min

80. One year ago, a father was four timesas old us his son. After six years his ageexceeds twice his son’s age by 9 years.The ratio of their present age is

(a) 9 : 2

(b) 11 : 3

(c) 12 : 5

(d) 13 : 4

81. Which one of the following pairs ofIsland and Sea /Ocean is NOT correctlymatched ?

(a) Cyprus : Mediterranean Sea

(b) Falkland : Atlantic Ocean

(c) Chagos : North Pacific Ocean

(d) Islas Cocos : Indian Ocean

82. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I List II(Mineral) (Mine)

A. Zinc 1. Amjhore

B. Gold 2. Sukinda

C. Chromite 3. Zawar

D. Pyrite 4. Hutti

Code :

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 1 4 2 3

29 A - U-GIA-JBOS

83. As per Census 2011, which one of thefollowing is the correct descending orderof States in India in respect of sex ratio(female per thousand of males) ?

(a) West Bengal - Madhya Pradesh -Uttarakhand - Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Madhya Pradesh - West Bengal -Jammu and Kashmir - Uttarakhand

(c) Uttarakhand - West Bengal -Madhya Pradesh - Jammu andKashmir

(d) West Bengal - Uttarakhand -Madhya Pradesh - Jammu andKashmir

84. Liquid water is denser than ice due to

(a) higher surface tension

(b) hydrogen bonding

(c) van der Waals forces

(d) covalent bonding

85. Which one of the following is thechemical name of heavy water ?

(a) Hydrogen oxide

(b) Deuterium dioxide

(c) Deuterium oxide

(d) Heavy hydrogen oxide

86. Who among the following has coined ,theterm ‘Quark’, the fundamental particlesthat make up protons and neutrons in anatomic nucleus ?

(a) Richard Feynman

(b) Murray Gell-Mann

(c) Albeit Einstein

(d) Niels Bohr

87. The mass number of an element is NOTchanged when it emits

(a) Alpha and Beta radiations only

(b) Alpha and Gamma radiations only

(c) Beta and Gamma radiations only

(d) Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations

88. Which one of the following is thesmallest number by which 2880 must bedivided in order to make it a perfectsquare ?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

89. A 3 digit number 4X3 is added to 984to get a 4 digit number 13Y7. If 13Y7is divisible by 11, then what is the valueof (X+Y) ?

(a) 15

(b) 12

(c) 11

(d) 10

31 A - U-GIA-JBOS

90. If all students are boys and all boys aredancers, then which one of the followingstatements is definitely true ?

(a) All dancers are boys

(b) All boys are students

(c) All dancers are students

(d) All students are dancers

91. In March 2017, a High Court in Indiahad accorded the status of living humanentities to which two of the followingrivers ?

(a) Brahmaputra and Ganga

(b) Ganga and Yamuna

(c) Yamuna and Godavari

(d) Krishna and Kaveri

92. Which one of the following statementsabout land tenure system is NOTcorrect ?

(a) During the British rule in Indiathree categories of land tenuresystem, viz. Zamindari, Mahalwariand Ryotwari were introduced

(b) Under Zamindari system, land washeld by one person or at the mostby a few joint owners who wereresponsible for the payment of landrevenue

(c) Under the Mahalwari system, theagricultural lands belonged to theGovernment

(d) Under Ryotwari system, theindividual holders had the permanentrights over land and were directlyresponsible for payment of landrevenue

93. Which of the following are the necessaryconditions for the growth of coral reefs ?

1. Photic conditions

2. Clean and sediment free water

3. Sea salinity of 6%

4. Tropical sea water with temperatureof 20°C to 21°C

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Which one of the following diseases iscaused by Cadmium pollution ?

(a) Minamata

(b) Itai-itai

(c) Fluorosis

(d) Blue baby syndrome

95. Presence of ozone in the atmosphere isimportant because it absorbs

(a) ultraviolet-A and ultraviolet-Bradiations

(b) ultraviolet-B radiations only

(c) infrared-B radiations only

(d) outgoing ultraviolet-B radiations andincoming ultraviolet-A radiations

A - U-GIA-JBOS

96. NPP (Net Primary Productivity) is highestfor

(a) tropical forests

(b) swamps

(c) reefs

(d) woodland and shrub land

97. Study of a single species and theenvironmental factors in its habitat iscalled

(a) Genecology

(b) Synecology

(c) Autecology

(d) Ethology

98. In an examination, 25% of thecandidates failed in Mathematics and12% failed in English. If 10% of thecandidates failed in both the subjectsand 292 candidates passed in both thesubjects, which one of the following isthe number of total candidates appearedin the examination ?

(a) 300

(b) 400

(c) 460

(d) 500

99. 5% of income of A is equal to 15% ofincome of B and 10% income of B isequal to 20% of income of C. If theincome of C is Rs. 2,000, then what isthe total income of A, B and C ?

(a) Rs. 20,000

(b) Rs. 18,000

(c) Rs. 14,000

(d) Rs. 6,000

100. If the product of n positive numbers isunity, then their 3um is

(a) a positive integer

(b) divisible by n

(c) equal to n+ ^(d) never less than n

101. Which of the following statements aboutthe Equatorial region are correct ?

1. It is a megathermal region

2. It is a sclerophyll region

3. It is a region of high development

4. It is a region of aerial streamlets

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

102. Which one of the following statementsabout the Himalayas is NOT correct ?

(a) They are young fold mountains

(b) They have geosynclinal rocks

(c) Himalayan frontal faults (HFF)separates Himalaya from Tibet

(d) Indus and Sutlej rivers formantecedent drainage in Himalaya

35 A - U-GIA-JBOS

103. Which one of the following is NOT afavourable condition for occurrence of athunderstorm ?(a) Conditional and convective instability(b) Adequate supply of moisture in the

lower atmosphere(c) Advection of cold dry air in the

lower troposphere and warm moistair in the upper troposphere

(d) A synoptic situation of low levelconvergence and upper leveldivergence

104. The ecological niche of an organismrelates to(a) specific habitat of the organism(b) symbiotic relationship with other

organisms(c) diverse occurrence of a species

under different conditions(d) its interaction with all other

organisms

105. Free swimming macroscopic animals inan aquatic environment are referred toas(a) Plankton(b) Periphyton(c) Benthos(d) Nekton

106. The term Biomagnifications is referred toas(a) increase in the body weight(b) uncontrolled growth of harmful

organisms(c) accumulation of increasing amount

of non-degradable pollutant throughfood chain

(d) increase in the number of bacteriain a culture medium

107. Which one of the following statementsabout air pollution caused by dieselengines is correct ?

(a) It produces large quantity of carbonmonoxide at lower and hightemperatures

(b) It piuduces huge quantity of nitro¬

gen oxides at lower and hightemperatures

(c) It produces large quantity of carbonmonoxide at lower temperature andnitrogen oxides at high temperature

(d) It produces large quantity of nitro¬

gen oxides at lower temperatureand carbon monoxide at hightemperature

108. In an election which was contested bytwo candidates, X and Y, 4000 voteswere polled. Suppose that every votewas polled in favour of either of the twocandidates. Candidate Y got 40% of votepolled and was defeated. What was themargin of defeat ?

(a) 500 votes

(b) 800 votes

(c) 1200 votes

(d) 1600 votes

109. The average of 7 consecutive oddnumbers is M. If the next 3 oddnumbers are also included, the average

(a) remains unchanged

(b) increases by 1-5(c) increases by 2

(d) increases by 3

A - U-GIA-JBOS

Direction :The next three items are based on theinformation provided below :

Investment in various industries/sectors acrossfive years (in Rupees Hundred Crore)

Type ufindustry/sector 2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10

MimiftctminQ 740 son 470 440 «10Electrical 500 520 600 650 800

Services 420 480 500 600 750

Mining 440 500 550 600 660

Others 800 900 980 1110 1080

110. What is the percentage increase ininvestment in the Electrical sector from2005-06 to 2009-10 ?

(a) 30%

(b) 40%

(c) 50%

(d) 60%

111. During the given years, what is theaverage investment per year for theservices sector (in Rupees HundredCrore) ?

(a) 490

(b) 550

(c) 580

(d) 670

112. During which one of the following years,was the total investment maximum ?

(a) 2006-07

(b) 2007-08

(c) 2008-09

(d) 2009-10

113. Which one of the following is a majoreffect of long term consumption ofdrinking water containing little (less than0-5 ppm) or no fluoride ?

(a) Cavity of tooth

(b) Erosion of nail

(c) Deformation of bone

(d) Mottling of tooth

114. Carborundum is used as an abrasive,because it

(a) has high thermal conductivity

(b) has low coefficient of expansion

(c) has high chemical stability

(d) is extremely hard

115. Which one of the following is NOTdecomposed by bacterial action ?

(a) Vegetable remains

(b) Plastic materials

(c) Animal carcasses

(d) Wastes of flowers

116. Two positions of a dice with 1 to 6 dotson its side are shown below :

If the dice is resting on the side withthree dots, what will be the number ofdots on the side at the top ?

(a) 1

(b) 1 or 5

(c) 5

(d) 7 nr 5

39 A - U-GIA-JBOS

117. Consider the following figure :

A E B

H F

D G C

What is the number of rectangles whichare not squares in the above figure ?(Given that ABCD is a square andE, F, G, H are mid-points of its sides)

(a) 14

(b) 16

(c) 20

(d) 21

118. Consider the following number :

n = [(6374)1793x(625)317x(313)49]

Which one of the following is the digit atthe unit place of n ?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 5

119. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe Lists :

List I(Bird Sanctuary)

A. Sultanpur

B. Kulik

C. Nawabganj

D. Attiveri

List II(State)

1. West Bengal

2. Haryana

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Karnataka

Code :

(a)

(b)(c)(<1)

A

2

244

B

1

33

1

C3

11

3

D4

4

2

2

120. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code givenbelow the Lists :

List I(National Park)A. CorbettB. Neora Valley

C. Betla

D. Kanha

List II(Location in map)

A B C D

4

4

41 A - U-GIA-JBOS

121. Consider the following statements :

1. Areas where rainfall exceeds250 cm

2. Annual temperature 25°C-27°C

3. Average humidity exceeds 75%

4. Trees do not shed the leaves

To which one of the following types ofvegetation does the above represent ?

(a) Tropical wet evergreen

(b) Tropical semi evergreen

(c) Tropical moist deciduous

(d) Tropical dry evergreen

122. Which of the following statementsrelated to tribes in India are correct ?

1. Tharu tribes are found in UttarPradesh and Uttarakhand

2. Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribesare found in Kerala

3. Garasia tribes are found in Goa

4. Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders ofJammu & Kashmir and HimachalPradesh

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

123. Consider the following statements about‘Ring of Fire’ :

1. It is also known as circum-Pacificbelt of volcanoes

2. It is an active seismic zone

3. It is a zone of divergent plate margin

Select the correct answer using the codegiven below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

124. The Bum La Pass is located in

(a) Sikkim

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

125. Which one of the following is located atthe southernmost latitude ?

(a) South Africa

(b) Australia1

(c) Chile

(d) Polynesia

43 A - U-GIA-JBOS