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Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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1. (2)
2. (4)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (1)
6. (3)
7. (1)
8. (4)
9. (4)
10. (2)
11. (1)
12. (2)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (3)
16. (2)
17. (1)
18. (4)
19. (1)
20. (2)
21. (3)
22. (4)
23. (2)
24. (1)
25. (2)
26. (2)
27. (4)
28. (2)
29. (2)
30. (4)
31. (4)
32. (1)
33. (4)
34. (2)
35. (3)
36. (2)
Test Date : 27/01/2019
ANSWERS
TEST - 5 (Code-C)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
37. (4)
38. (1)
39. (3)
40. (1)
41. (2)
42. (2)
43. (2)
44. (2)
45. (3)
46. (3)
47. (4)
48. (1)
49. (4)
50. (2)
51. (2)
52. (3)
53. (1)
54. (2)
55. (4)
56. (1)
57. (3)
58. (4)
59. (2)
60. (3)
61. (1)
62. (3)
63. (2)
64. (4)
65. (3)
66. (1)
67. (4)
68. (4)
69. (3)
70. (2)
71. (3)
72. (2)
73. (1)
74. (3)
75. (2)
76. (2)
77. (3)
78. (4)
79. (4)
80. (3)
81. (3)
82. (4)
83. (3)
84. (1)
85. (4)
86. (1)
87. (2)
88. (3)
89. (1)
90. (2)
91. (4)
92. (4)
93. (3)
94. (4)
95. (3)
96. (1)
97. (4)
98. (4)
99. (3)
100. (4)
101. (2)
102. (2)
103. (3)
104. (3)
105. (2)
106. (4)
107. (1)
108. (3)
109. (1)
110. (1)
111. (4)
112. (4)
113. (1)
114. (1)
115. (4)
116. (3)
117. (4)
118. (2)
119. (4)
120. (3)
121. (3)
122. (4)
123. (2)
124. (1)
125. (2)
126. (4)
127. (1)
128. (2)
129. (2)
130. (4)
131. (4)
132. (4)
133. (2)
134. (2)
135. (3)
136. (4)
137. (4)
138. (4)
139. (3)
140. (2)
141. (3)
142. (3)
143. (1)
144. (3)
145. (1)
146. (1)
147. (4)
148. (4)
149. (2)
150. (1)
151. (4)
152. (1)
153. (3)
154. (1)
155. (4)
156. (2)
157. (2)
158. (3)
159. (4)
160. (4)
161. (3)
162. (4)
163. (4)
164. (2)
165. (4)
166. (4)
167. (4)
168. (4)
169. (4)
170. (4)
171. (2)
172. (3)
173. (3)
174. (2)
175. (4)
176. (3)
177. (2)
178. (4)
179. (3)
180. (4)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (2)
Hint: CO molecule is diatomic.
Sol.: CO molecule is diatomic. At moderate
temperature it will be having 7 degrees of freedom,
as vibrational mode is also excited.
2. Answer (4)
Hint: rms
v T
Sol.: As temperature increases, speed also
increases. Hence number of collision per second will
increase as well as momentum change per collision
will also increase. Hence force to the container wall
will increase so pressure will increase.
3. Answer (2)
Hint: Dalton’s law of partial pressure.
Sol.: 1 2
1 10.082 300
( ) 4 4
5
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ RT
PV
= 2.5 × 105 = 2.5 atm
4. Answer (3)
Hint: Q = CvT
Sol.: Q = CvT
2 330
20 2R 5
9K C F
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦∵
= 9 cal
5. Answer (1)
Hint: PV = constant
Sol.: As vessel is open pressure will be constant
and equal to the atmospheric pressure and
neglecting expansion of vessel so volume is also
constant
PV = RT
1T
1 =
2T
2
1
× 300 = 2
× 400
1
2
3
4
1Fraction of mass that will escape
4⇒
6. Answer (3)
Hint: Properties of solids
Sol.: Fluids have only Bulk modulus.
[ PHYSICS]
7. Answer (1)
Hint: Poisson's ratio = –�
�
dr
r
d
Sol.: V = r2 × �
2⇒ �
�
dV dr d
V r
–2×0.3 0.4⇒ � � �
� � �
dV d d d
V
100 0.4 100 0.4 1% 0.4%⇒ �
�
dV d
V
8. Answer (4)
Hint: Breaking stress (B.S.) F
A
Sol.: B.S. �
�F Mg A g
gA A A
B.S is independent of area of cross-section.
Hence, maximum length to be hung is �.
9. Answer (4)
Hint: Elongation in the wire is proportional to the
tension in the wire.
Sol.: In case A, T = Mg
2 2 3In case B, 2.4
2 3
M M g T Mg
M M
T �T �
2.42.4
Mg
Mg⇒ ⇒
�
� ��
10. Answer (2)
Hint: Air pressure decreases with increase in volume.
Sol.: P0 = hg + P
air
When tube will be pulled slightly the volume of air
above mercury column will increase hence pressure
will decrease.
So, height of mercury column will increase.
Hence slightly more than 70 cm.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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11. Answer (1)
Hint: Excess pressure inside soap bubble = T
r
4
Sol.: 4T
h gr
r
–3 34 0.033 10 0.9 10 10
2
24 3 10 410 m
3 9 9
r
Surface area = 4r2 × 2 = 496.2 × 10–6 m2
12. Answer (2)
Hint: By equation of continuity.
Sol.: A1v
1 = A
2v
2 + A
3v
3
4 × A = 1 × 2A + v × 3A
2v m/s
3
13. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Bernoulli's equation.
Sol.: 2
0 0
14 4
2P gh P v
2v gh
2 10 5
v = 10 m/s
14. Answer (1)
Hint: When anything lighter is unloaded no change
in the liquid level.
Sol.: Let mass of cork ball is M.
Mg = upthrust when ball is inside the boat.
Mg = Vin�g
Liquid displaced (Vin) =
M
�
...(i)
When ball is dropped in water, still Mg = upthrust
in
M
V�
...(ii)
Boat is floating in both cases. So total volume of
water displaced in both cases are same. Hence no
change in liquid level.
15. Answer (3)
Hint: PowerW P V
t t
Sol.: P = hg = 1.5 × 103 × 10 N/m2
–650 10 1.25
V
t
m3/s
Power = 15 × 103 × 50 × 1.25 × 10–6 = 0.94 W
16. Answer (2)
Hint: 1 2
1 2
mix
m md
V V
Sol.: 1 2 1 2 1 2
1
1 22
m m dV d V d d
V V V V
1 2 1 2
2
1 2 1 2
1 2
2m m d dm m
m mV V d d
d d
Now,
2
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1 2
1 2 1 2
2 ( ) 4
2 2( )
d d d d d d d d
d d d d
2
1 2
1 2
( )0
2( )
d d
d d
So, 1 >
2
17. Answer (1)
Hint: vD
R
Sol.: 2
4
D vQ Av
Or, 2
4Qv
D
So,2
4 4 D Q Q
RD D
18. Answer (4)
Hint: = 2
Sol.: 100 2% ⇒ L
L LL
100 2% ⇒ r
r rr
Area = r2
2100 100 4%
⇒ dA r
A r
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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19. Answer (1)
Hint: H = (m + w)c Sol.: H = (m + w)c = 150 × 1 × 50 = 7500 cal
= 7.5 kcal
20. Answer (2)
Hint: Heat current will be same as connected in
series.
Sol.: 0 0( – 100)2 (200 – )3
2 3
KA KAH
� �
0 – 100 = 200 –
0
20 = 300
0 = 150°C
21. Answer (3)
Hint: Q = mL
Sol.: Heat given by steam = Heat taken by ice
mLv + mc= mL
1
m × 540 + m × 1 × 100 = 80 × 80
80 80
10 g640
m
Mass of water present = 80 + 10 = 90 g
22. Answer (4)
Hint: For linear scale Y = mx + c
Sol.: ( C)º
�(cm)50 cm
– 10º C
80º C
0
9– 10
5 �
When � = 70 cm
970 –10
5
= 116ºC
23. Answer (2)
Hint: If CP & C
V are molar specific heats then
CP – C
V = R
Sol.: Molar specific heat = M × specific heat
McP – Mc
V = R
–P V
Rc c
M
For helium = 4
R p
For oxygen 32
R q
p = 8q
24. Answer (1)
Hint: V V
Sol.: – V P
V B
And V
V
P
B⇒
P
B⇒
25. Answer (2)
Hint: P = eAT4
Sol.: P = eAT4
Now as radius is doubled. Hence surface area will
become 4 times i.e. 4A.
P A
P 4A
P = 4P = 4 × 300 = 1200 W
26. Answer (2)
Hint: th
Temperature differenceHeat flow =
Thermal resistance
R
Sol.: Temperature difference remains same 30ºC,
but thermal resistance eq
1 1 1 R R R
eq2
RR
Hence heat flow will double i.e. 20 J/s
27. Answer (4)
Hint: Apply Newton’s law of cooling.
Sol.: 1 2 1 20
––
2
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
Kt
60 – 50 60 50– 20
9 2
⎡ ⎤⇒ ⎢ ⎥
⎣ ⎦K ...(i)
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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50 – 50– 20
9 2
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
K ...(ii)
10 35
50 –25 – 20
2
= 42.5ºC
28. Answer (2)
Hint: For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure
V T.
Sol.: V
T
For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure V T.
29. Answer (2)
Hint: AB is Lsothermal process.
Sol.: Work done = i
F
PRT
P102.303 log
= 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 log1
2
= – 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 × 0.3010
= – 3452 J
Negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.
30. Answer (4)
Hint: Change in internal energy is the function of
state only U1 = U
2 = U
3
Sol.: Q = U + W
W = area under P – V diagram
Hence W1 > W
2 > W
3
Q1 > Q
2 > Q
3
31. Answer (4)
Hint: Change in internal energy U = CVT
Sol.:
Since A A B B
A B
P V P V
T T
3 33 10 1 10 3
A BT T
TA = T
B
T = TB – T
A = 0
U = 0
32. Answer (1)
Hint: Q = U + W
Sol.: Q = U + W
–100 = U + 20
U = –120 J
33. Answer (4)
Hint and solution : If two bodies are in thermal
equilibrium then both the bodies are at same
temperature.
34. Answer (2)
Hint: V
V T
Sol.: PT = constant = K
Gas equation PV = RT
KV RT
T
V T2
dV 2T dT
dV dT
V T
2⇒
dV
VdT T
2
35. Answer (3)
Hint: For adiabatic process Q = 0
Sol.: 0 Q
ST
S will remain same.
36. Answer (2)
Hint: Conversion of P-V graph into V-T graph.
Sol.: A Carnot cycle consist of isothermal
expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal
compression and adiabatic compression respectively.
37. Answer (4)
Hint: Q = U + W
Sol.: Isobaric process
Q = Cv R
Q = 3RRQ = 4RW = R
4 :1Q
W⇒
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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46. Answer (3)
Hint: Basic character of oxide increases down the
group.
47. Answer (4)
Hint: For solubility, hydration energy > lattice energy
Sol.: The size of Ba2+ and 2
4SO
ions are very large
which leads to higher lattice enthalpy than that of
hydration enthalpy.
48. Answer (1)
Hint: Lattice enthalpy decreases with increase in the
size of cation.
[ CHEMISTRY]
Sol.: The order of thermal stability of hydrides is
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
49. Answer (4)
Hint: In Castner-Kellner cell mercury cathode and
graphite anode are used.
Sol.: Cathode: Hg
Na e Na Hg
Anode: 2
1Cl Cl e
2
Cl2 gas evolved at anode.
50. Answer (2)
Hint: Ga: [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1
38. Answer (1)
Hint: PVN = constant
Sol.: PVN = constant
Molar heat capacity of the gas.
5 9
11– 2 21–
2
v
R R R RC C
N
39. Answer (3)
Hint: Coefficient of performance 2QK
W
Sol.: 2
–
L
H L
T QK
T T W
P
273 2000
45
2000 45330 W
273
�P
40. Answer (1)
Hint: PV = nRT
Sol.: nR
P TV
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
P
T
V2
V1
P2
P1
0
For a given temperature, P2 > P
1
V2 < V
1
41. Answer (2)
Hint and solution : Isobaric process is at constant
pressure, isochoric process is at constant volume
and isothermal process is at constant temperature.
42. Answer (2)
Hint: For adiabatic Q = 0
Sol.: Q = U + W
U = –W
As in expansion W = Positive. Hence U =
Negative so temperature of the gas will decrease.
43. Answer (2)
Hint: Carnot
Sol.: Carnot
1–⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
L
H
T
T
max
3031– 0.284
423
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
= 28.4% maximum possible efficiency.
Efficiency may be 25%
44. Answer (2)
Hint: Boyle’s law.
Sol.: PV = constant.
P0V
0 = P × 2V
0
0
2
PP
45. Answer (3)
Hint: Isochoric process, i.e, V = 0
Sol.: From Ist law
Q = U + W
Q = U
All heat absorbed will be used in increasing the
internal energy of the gas.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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Sol.: In ‘Ga’ atom, 10 electrons are filled in d orbitals
hence size decreases due to poor shielding of d
electrons.
51. Answer (2)
Hint: Amphoteric oxides means which will react with
acid and as well as base.
Sol.: SnO2 + 2NaOH Na
2SnO
3 + H
2O
SnO2 + 4HCl SnCl
4 + 2H
2O
52. Answer (3)
Hint.: Blue colour turns to bronze colour by increasing
the metal concentration leading to the cluster formation
of metal.
53. Answer (1)
Hint: BeH2 becomes polymer due to its electron
deficient nature through multicentre bridge bonds.
Sol.:
3c - 2e bond
BeH
H
BeH
H
BeH
H
BeH
H
54. Answer (2)
Hint: 2 2
wt. of H O%strength= 100
V(ml) of solution
Sol.: 2H2O
2 2H
2O + O
2
22.4 L O2 from 2 34 g H
2O
2 (at NTP)
100 L O2 from
2 34100
22.4
= 303.57 g
= 30.35% H2O
2 solution.
55. Answer (4)
Hint: Galena is PbS.
Sol.: Mica, zeolite and feldspar are silicates.
56. Answer (1)
Hint: CH SiCl CH Si(OH) + HCl3 3 3 3
H O2
.
Sol.:
CH Si(OH) 3 3
polymeriseCH
3
– O – Si – O – Si – O
CH3
O O
– O – Si – O – Si – O
CH3
CH3
(cross link polymer)
57. Answer (3)
Hint: All reactive metal releases H2 gas with dil acid
or water.
Sol.: 2NaHCO3 + 2HCl 2NaCl + 2H
2O + 2CO
2
58. Answer (4)
Hint: Thermal stability order : MgCO3 < CaCO
3 < BaCO
3
59. Answer (2)
Hint: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)2
Sol.: Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick
lime (CaO)
CaO + H2O Ca(OH)
2
60. Answer (3)
Hint: Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Al
Cl
Cl
101°Al
61. Answer (1)
Hint: Al forms a protective layer of Al2O
3 with conc.
HNO3.
62. Answer (3)
Hint: Boron nitride has 2 dimensional sheet like
structure.
63. Answer (2)
Hint:
F
B
F F
Sol.: Acidic strength : BI3 > BBr
3 >BCl
3 > BF
3
64. Answer (4)
Hint: Mobility decreases with increase in the extent
of solvation.
Sol.: Order of size of hydrated ion
Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > Cs+(aq)
65. Answer (3)
Hint: Half filled and completely filled subshells are
more stable.
Sol.: IE1 order: Li < Be > B
IE2 order: Li >> Be > Mg
66. Answer (1)
Hint: Solubility order :
LiF < NaF < KF
LiCl > NaCl > KCl
67. Answer (4)
Hint: High hydration of Li+ compensates its high
ionisation enthalpy hence best reducing agent.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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68. Answer (4)
Hint: LiNO3 decomposes into oxide on heating.
Sol.: All group-2 nitrates decompose in their oxides
2M(NO3)
2 2MO + 4NO
2 + O
2
69. Answer (3)
Hint: Ca(OCl)2 is calcium hypochlorite
70. Answer (2)
Hint: Average composition of Portland cement
CaO : 50–60%
SiO2 : 20–25%
Al2O
3 : 5–10%
71. Answer (3)
Hint: NH3 + H
2O + CO
2 NH
4HCO
3
72. Answer (2)
Hint: Be can show four co-ordination number.
Sol.: Be(OH)2 + 2OH– [Be(OH)
4]2–
73. Answer (1)
Hint: For alkaline earth metal hydroxides,
decrease in lattice energy is more than decrease in
hydration energy down the group.
74. Answer (3)
Hint: Large size anion is more stabilized by large size
cation.
Sol.: K and Rb form stable superoxides.
75. Answer (2)
Hint: Order of density is
Rb > Na > K > Li
76. Answer (2)
Hint: All alkali metals impart colour in flame test.
Sol.: Due to small size and high nuclear charge, Be
and Mg do not show colour to the flame.
77. Answer (3)
Hint: Cs : [Xe] 6s1
Sol.: Cs has least ionisation energy in its group.
78. Answer (4)
Hint: 4H3BO
3 + Na
2CO
3 Na
2B
4O
7 + 6H
2O + CO
2
Sol.: Na B O 2 4 7
750°C
heat2NaBO + B O
2 2 3
Glassy bead
79. Answer (4)
Hint: Borax is Na2B
4O
7 10 H
2O
Sol.: In borax, two boron atoms are sp2 and two boron
atoms are sp3 hybridised.
80. Answer (3)
Hint: 4BCl + 3LiAlH 2B H + 3LiCl + 3AlCl3 4 2 6 3
[A] [B] [C]
ether
81. Answer (3)
Hint: Electrovalency of alkali metals and phosphide
ion respectively are +1 and –3.
Sol.: Formula of phosphide of alkali metal is M3P.
82. Answer (4)
Hint: H3BO
3 is a Lewis acid.
Sol.: HO B
HO
HO
B
OH
OH
–
OH
H+ H
+
HO
HO
+
83. Answer (3)
Hint: Inert pair effect
Sol.: Stability of +2 oxidation state (Si < Ge < Sn < Pb)
84. Answer (1)
Hint: 2n
3 n(SiO ) represent cyclic and chain silicates.
85. Answer (4)
Hint: Mixture of CO and N2 is called producer gas.
86. Answer (1)
Hint: Generally beryllium compounds are covalent in
nature.
87. Answer (2)
Hint: Graphite has 2D sheet like structure and has
unpaired electrons.
Sol.: Graphite is thermodynamically more stable than
diamond.
88. Answer (3)
Hint: SiCl4 has tetrahedral structure
Sol.:
H
H
H HN
+
Tetrahedral
Cl
Cl
B,Cl
O–
Al–
Tetrahedral
Si
O–
O–
–
O ClCl
Cl
Cl
89. Answer (1)
Hint: Lewis acids are electron deficient species.
Sol.: B2H
6 acts as a Lewis acid
90. Answer (2)
Hint: 2Na + 2NH3
2NaNH
2 + H
2
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogen is not absorbed by the plants in the
gaseous form
Sol.: Plants absorb nitrogen in the form of 3
NO ,
2NO
and 4
NH only. The major absorption occurs in
the form of 3
NO .
92. Answer (4)
Hint: Macronutrients are found in plants in excess of
10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter.
Sol.: Macronutrients are nine in number (C, H, O, N,
P, K, Ca, Mg, S).
93. Answer (3)
Hint: Sulphur is not found in nucleosides and nucleic
acids.
Sol.: Deoxyadenosine is a nucleoside which does
not have sulphur.
94. Answer (4)
Hint: Element which activates carboxylases is also
required for synthesis of a growth hormone i.e.
auxin.
Sol.: Zn activates various enzymes especially
carboxylases. Nitrite reductase contains copper and
iron.
95. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements
appear first in young leaves.
Sol.: Ca is an immobile element which is required
for the formation of mitotic spindles.
96. Answer (1)
Hint: This element is an important component of cell
membrane.
Sol.: Phosphorus (P) does not help in maintaining
cation - anion balance in cells.
97. Answer (4)
Hint: Toxicity of Mn affects uptake of some other
elements & causes their deficiencies.
Sol.: Excess of Mn reduces uptake of Mg and Fe.
Its excess also inhibits translocation of Ca to shoot
apex and produces brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins.
98. Answer (4)
Hint: Symplast comprises cytoplasm and vacuole
Sol.: Metabolic phase involves movement of ions into
symplast. It is an active process and transmembrane
proteins are required for this phase of mineral
absorption.
99. Answer (3)
Hint: It is the first step of nitrification.
Sol.: Nitrification is carried out by a group of nitrifying
bacteria which are free living and chemoautotrophs.
100. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogenase is found in all those bacteria which
convert N2 into NH
3.
Sol.: Nitrococcus is a nitrifying bacterium whereas
rest of all are N2 fixing bacteria.
101. Answer (2)
Hint: Rhizobium is involved in nitrogen fixation for
which nitrogenase is required.
Sol.: Regions of nodule where nitrogen fixation
occurs have leghaemoglobin, nitrogenase, ATP and
lack molecular oxygen. Nitrogenase is highly
sensitive to molecular oxygen.
102. Answer (2)
Hint: Plants can assimilate both 4
NH and
3NO
.
Sol.: Rhizobium is aerobic and free living in soil but
fixes N2 in anaerobic condition symbiotically. Nodule
is formed by division of cells of inner cortex and
pericycle.
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Given conversion shows reductive amination.
Sol.: A - - ketoglutaric acid
B - NADPH
C - Glutamate dehydrogenase
D - NADP
104. Answer (3)
Hint: Amides have more nitrogen than amino acids.
Sol.: Hydroxyl part of amino acids is replaced by
another amino group to form amides. Asparagine &
Glutamine are two important amides.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Some plants transport nitrogen in other forms
which have high nitrogen to carbon ratio.
Sol.: Ureides have high N/C value thus high amount
of nitrogen is transported in this form.
106. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hydroponics is very useful technique but its
set up requires high cost to maintain.
107. Answer (1)
Hint: Death of tissue is known as necrosis.
Sol.: Necrosis is caused by deficiency of elements
such as Ca, Cu, Mg, K.
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108. Answer (3)
Sol.: Bacillus vulgaris converts organic nitrogen into
ammonia, called ammonification.
109. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are absorbed in the form of
cation and anion respectively.
Sol.: Fe and S are absorbed as Fe+3 and 2
4SO
respectively. These are constituents of ferredoxin.
110. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are either components of
chlorophyll or required for its synthesis.
Sol.: Mg is an important component of chlorophyll
while K & Fe are required for chlorophyll synthesis.
111. Answer (4)
Hint: First action spectrum was prepared by
measuring O2 evolution.
Sol.: T.W. Engelmann used a green alga Cladophora
and aerobic bacteria to measure O2
evolution and
prepared first action spectrum of photosynthesis
112. Answer (4)
Hint: Carotenoids are yellow-orange pigments found
in green plants.
Sol.: Carotenoids along with xanthophyll &
chlorophyll b are called accessory pigments. They
absorb wavelength between 400 - 700 nm (visible
spectrum) only and prevent photo-oxidation.
113. Answer (1)
Hint: PS II is found in grana lamellae only.
Sol.: PS I is found on the outer surface while PS II
towards inner surface of thylakoids.
Both are involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation
but only PS II is associated with release of O2.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: Reaction centre of PS I absorbs light at wave
length 700 nm.
Sol.: Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs at
1. Light wavelength beyond 680 nm.
2. Anaerobic condition
3. Low CO2 availability
115. Answer (4)
Hint: Chemiosmosis theory involves ATP synthesis
via ATP synthase.
Sol.: Only protons are diffused back to stroma to
break the proton gradient between lumen and stroma.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: Molecules which provide energy for CO2 fixation
are called assimilatory power
Sol.: ATP and NADPH are assimilatory power for
dark reaction.
117. Answer (4)
Hint: Calvin cycle involves three steps of CO2
fixation.
Sol.: Deamination is the process which involves
removal of amine group. It does not occur during C3
cycle.
118. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature also.
Sol.: C4 plants are adapted to dry tropical regions.
119. Answer (4)
Hint: C3 plants can show dual activity of RuBisCO.
Sol.: Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane are C4 plants
Wheat is a C3 plant which can show carboxylation
as well as oxygenation (during photorespiration) by
RuBisCO.
120. Answer (3)
Hint: Potato is a C3 plant, while Amaranthus is a C
4
plant
Sol.: C3 cycle in potato - Mesophyll cells
C3 cycle in Amaranthus - Bundle sheath cells.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme of the
world.
Sol.: RuBisCO is heat sensitive but has greater
affinity for CO2 than O
2 when CO
2 : O
2 is nearly
equal.
122. Answer (4)
Sol.: For each molecule of CO2 to be fixed via Calvin
cycle 3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules are required.
123. Answer (2)
Hint: PGA to PGAL conversion is a reduction
process.
Sol.: Reduction of PGA to PGAL requires ATP as
well as NADPH.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: C4 plants lose less water through transpiration
as compared to C3 plants.
Sol.: C4 plants have
High yield and productivity
C3 plants perform better at high CO
2
concentration as compared to C4 plants.
C4 plants show better water utilisation.
C4 plants lack photorespiration.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Bundle sheath cells are specialized cells in C4
plants, where RuBisCO is found.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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Sol.: Bundle sheath cells & mesophyll cells both
show CO2 fixation process.
Grana are absent in bundle sheath cells and primary
CO2 fixation product is different in both the cells.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: CAM pathway is also known as diurnal acid
cycle.
Sol.: CAM pathway is less efficient than C4
pathway. In CAM plants stomata open during night
(scotoactive). All chloroplasts are of same type.
127. Answer (1)
Hint: Photorespiration operates during light when
concentration of O2 > CO
2
Sol.: It consumes a part of light energy and prevents
plants from photooxidative damage.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: In C2 cycle, O
2 is used by RuBisCO in
chloroplast.
Sol.: Decarboxylation or release of CO2 occurs in
mitochondria.
129. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature.
Sol.: C4 plants have PEP synthetase which is cold
sensitive.
130. Answer (4)
Sol.: Pyruvic acid is a 3-carbon acid while rest all
are 4-carbon acids.
131. Answer (4)
Hint: Light rarely becomes a limiting factor except
plants found in shade or dense forest.
Sol.: Above 10% light intensity of the total sunlight,
light becomes damaging and there is no increase in
photosynthesis.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: At low light intensity photosynthesis rate does
not change.
Sol.: At low light intensity, no plant (C3 or C
4)
respond to high CO2 concentration.
133. Answer (2)
Hint: Optimum external and internal factors will
support maximum photosynthesis.
Sol.:
For C3 plants For C
4 plants
Green leaves Green leaves
Low temperature High temperature
CO2 = 450 IL–1 CO
2 = 360 IL–1
High light intensity High light intensity
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves PS I only.
Sol.: During cyclic photophosphorylation only ATP is
formed while non-cyclic photophosphorylation yields
ATP, NADPH as well as O2
135. Answer (3)
Hint: To form two molecules of hexose sugar Calvin
cycle operates 12 times.
Sol.: In maize both C3 and C
4 cycles operate. Thus
here 12 C3 & C
4 cycles will occur.
Since 1 C3 cycle requires = 3 ATP
12 C3 cycles require = 12 × 3 = 36 ATP
1 C4 cycle requires = 2 ATP
12 C4 cycles require = 12 × 2 = 24 ATP
136. Answer (4)
Hint: Endocrine glands release their secretion in
blood so that they can reach every cell.
Sol.: Neural system transmits messages through
impulses. This involves faster transmission of
information than endocrine system. Nervous system
is not connected directly to every cell while
endocrine glands release hormones in blood that
reach every cell of the body through blood. Neural
response is rapid and lasts for shorter duration as
compared to endocrine system.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is also known as somatotrophin.
Sol.: GH hormone in muscles promotes protein
anabolism. Parathormone is related with Ca2+ level in
blood and thymosin helps in maturation of
T-lymphocytes. Cortisol is a stress hormone which
promotes protein catabolism in muscle.
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Somatotrophin is also known as growth
hormone.
Sol.: It regulates body growth by promoting protein
anabolism. Somatotrophin is released from
adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland which is
under the control of GHRH from hypothalamus.
139. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone requires iodine for its synthesis.
Sol.: Deficiency of thyroxine during intrauterine life
causes cretinism characterised by stunted growth,
mental retardation and deaf mutism.
140. Answer (2)
Hint: Endocrine gland present in neck region.
Sol.: Thyroid is the largest endocrine gland in
humans. It secretes mainly three hormones
thyroxine or T4, T
3 and thyrocalcitonin(TCT).
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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141. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone which increases Ca2+ level in blood.
Sol.: Hyposecretion of parathormone decreases the
Ca2+ level in blood that leads to tetany.
Hyposecretion of estrogen causes osteoporosis in
females. Hyposecretion of thyroxine causes
Myxedema in adults. Deficiency of vasopressin/ADH
causes diabetes insipidus.
142. Answer (3)
Hint: Zona reticularis is the innermost layer of
adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Zona reticularis layer secretes mainly
androgenic corticoids i.e., androstenedione,
dehydroepiandrosterone. Aldosterone is secreted from
zona glomerulosa and cortisol from zona fasciculata
of adrenal cortex. Epinephrine is secreted from
adrenal medulla.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids causes this disease.
Sol.: Addison’s disease occurs due to deficiency of
aldosterone and cortisol. Cushing’s disease is
caused due to hypersecretion from adrenal cortex.
Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hypersecretion
from thyroid gland. Conn’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of aldosterone.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes
mellitus.
Sol.: Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone in humans
which increases uptake of glucose into cells from
blood. Glucagon, thyroxine and growth hormone can
result in hyperglycemia.
145. Answer (1)
Hint: These cells are also known as interstitial cells.
Sol.: Sertoli cells are also known as sustentacular
cells. They release ABP and inhibin. Spermatozoa
formation requires testosterone.
146 Answer (1)
Hint: Hormone secreted by thymus gland.
Sol.: Thymosin is a peptide hormone secreted by
thymus gland. This hormone helps in development of
immunity. T3, T
4 and TCT are hormones of thyroid
gland. Catecholamines are released during
emergency from adrenal medulla.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Amylase is a carbohydrate digesting enzyme.
Sol.: Digestion of carbohydrates starts in mouth but
does not occur in stomach due to absence of gastric
amylase.
148. Answer (4)
Hint: These hormones are released by adrenal
medulla.
Sol.: Adrenal medulla is a sympathetic ganglia that
releases stress hormones. These hormones
produced by post ganglionic neurons are transported
through blood and are known as neurohormones. eg;
epinephrine and norepinephrine.
149. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the disease characterised by hirsutism
and masculinization in females.
Sol.: ACTH is a pituitary hormone which acts on
adrenal gland and increases secretion from adrenal
cortex that results in Cushing’s disease. Deficiency
of insulin results in Diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of
hormones of adrenal cortex causes Addison’s
disease while Grave’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of thyroid gland.
150. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is secreted by -cells of
pancreas.
Sol.: Glucagon is a peptide hormone that requires
membrane bound receptors, whereas estrogen,
iodothyronines and cortisol require intra-cellular
receptors.
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a neurohormone from hypothalamus.
Sol.: ADH is produced by hypothalamus and stored
in posterior pituitary. Pars distalis also known as
anterior pituitary secretes PRL, TSH and ACTH.
152. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is mainly responsible for
ovulation.
Sol.: After ovulation, remaining part of Graafian
follicle that changes into corpus luteum is maintained
by LH in a non-pregnant female. FSH is responsible
for growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone followed by
estrogen during luteal phase.
153. Answer (3)
Hint: This gland is attached to epithalamus.
Sol.: Pineal gland is present on the roof of third
ventricle. Hypothalamus is present at the base of
thalamus.
154. Answer (1)
Hint: Both gustatoreceptors and olfactory receptors
are chemoreceptors.
Sol.: The receptors which receive chemical stimuli are
known as chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
receive mechanical stimuli. Algesireceptors receive
stimulus that is perceived as pain.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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155. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is released from adrenal medulla.
Sol.: This hormone increases alertness and causes
pupillary dilation.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released by outer most layer
of adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Outer most layer of adrenal cortex called zona
glomerulosa releases aldosterone. This hormone
increases the reabsorption of Na+ in distal part of
nephron. Water is also reabsorbed following Na+
reabsorption. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) released
from atrial wall of heart affects water and electrolyte
balance but is not a corticoid. Melatonin and
testosterone are also not corticoids.
157. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released in response to
increase in blood pressure.
Sol.: Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasodilation and
increases natriuresis (increased excretion of Na+ in
urine), thereby lowering blood volume and blood
pressure.
158. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone increases thickness of
endometrium during proliferative phase of menstrual
cycle.
Sol.: Estrogen in females and testosterone in males
control secondary sexual characters. Progesterone
maintains pregnancy. FSH promotes gametogenesis.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Testosterone increases muscular growth during
adolescence.
Sol.: Testosterone in males controls secondary
sexual characters and has anabolic effect on
proteins and carbohydrates.
160. Answer (4)
Hint: Disc shaped receptor sensitive to touch.
Sol.: Merkel’s disc is a disc shaped receptor
present in epidermis of our skin. Receptors such as
Pacinian corpuscle, Meissner’s corpuscle and
Ruffini’s organ are found below epidermis.
161. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone is synthesised and released by
anterior pituitary.
Sol.: Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis and
secretion from cells of alveoli of mammary gland.
Oxytocin is responsible for ejection of milk (Milk let
down hormone).
162. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify eye related defects.
Sol.: In myopia, image is formed in front of retina.
This defect is corrected by concave lens.
163. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the gland that regulates diurnal rhythm.
Sol.: Melatonin released by pineal gland regulates
biological clock.
164. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a vasoconstrictor.
Sol.: ANF is released in response to increase in
blood pressure while vasopressin is released in
response to low blood pressure. Insulin increases
glucose absorption into cells and aldosterone
increases Na+ reabsorption in nephrons.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify hypothalamic hormone called GHIH.
Sol.: Pineal gland secretes melatonin and prolactin
is secreted by anterior pituitary. Erythropoietin is
secreted by JG cells of kidney. Somatostatin is also
called GHIH.
166. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is known as stress hormone.
Sol.: Adrenaline is derived from tyrosine and
functions during emergency conditions such as fear,
fight and flight
167. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a ductless gland.
Sol.: Parathyroid gland is situated on dorsal side of
thyroid gland while salivary, lacrimal and mammary
glands are exocrine glands.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: This molecule is called energy currency of the
cell.
Sol.: Hormones which are hydrophilic in nature bind
to extracytoplasmic receptors present on plasma
membrane and generates a second messenger
which leads to activation of enzyme cascade.
Common secondary messengers are Ca2+, cAMP
and cGMP. ATP is not a secondary messenger.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Sensory cells in ear
Sol.: Hair cells are present in organ of corti are
sensory in nature.
170. Answer (4)
Hint: Cochlea is composed of both bony and
membranous labyrinth.
Sol.: Scala media is filled with endolymph while
scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with
perilymph.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
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� � �
171. Answer (2)
Hint: This part of ear is involved in hearing.
Sol.: Utricle, saccule and cristae help in maintaining
body equilibrium.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: This membrane is found in scala media.
Sol.: Sensory hair cells are pressed against tectorial
membrane upon receiving stimulus. Reissner’s and
Basilar membrane form roof and floor of scala media
respectively.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: This pigment is also called rhodopsin.
Sol.: Rods are sensitive to dim light due to
presence of rhodopsin
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Part that gives white appearance to eye.
Sol.: Sclera is outermost layer, choroid is middle
layer and retina is innermost layer of eye.
175. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure connects middle ear to pharynx.
Sol.: Eustachian tube connects middle ear to
pharynx so that atmospheric pressure remains equal
on both sides of ear drum.
176. Answer (3)
Hint: This is the swollen part of a semicircular canal
Sol.: Cristae are associated with ampulla in inner ear
and help in maintaining equilibrium.
177. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a steroid hormone.
Sol.: Norepinephrine, oxytocin and TCT are lipid
insoluble hormones hence, they cannot cross the
lipid bilayer. They execute their action through
extracellular receptors. Estrogen is lipid soluble,
steroid hormone which acts through intracellular
receptors.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Some hormones are steroidal in nature or
derivative of an amino acid.
Sol.: Estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, etc are
steroidal in nature while catecholamines and
thyroxine are amino acid derivatives.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: This organ is associated with sense of smell
Sol.: Modified pseudostratified epithelium/
Schneidarian membrane is associated with roof of
nasal cavity
180. Answer (4)
Hint: This disease results from hyperthyroidism.
Sol.: Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hyper
secretion of thyroxine hormone. High secretion of
GH after puberty and before puberty causes
acromegaly and gigantism respectively.
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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1. (3)
2. (2)
3. (2)
4. (2)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (3)
8. (1)
9. (4)
10. (2)
11. (3)
12. (2)
13. (4)
14. (1)
15. (4)
16. (4)
17. (2)
18. (2)
19. (4)
20. (2)
21. (2)
22. (1)
23. (2)
24. (4)
25. (3)
26. (2)
27. (1)
28. (4)
29. (1)
30. (2)
31. (3)
32. (1)
33. (2)
34. (2)
35. (1)
36. (2)
Test Date : 27/01/2019
ANSWERS
TEST - 5 (Code-D)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
37. (4)
38. (4)
39. (1)
40. (3)
41. (1)
42. (3)
43. (2)
44. (4)
45. (2)
46. (2)
47. (1)
48. (3)
49. (2)
50. (1)
51. (4)
52. (1)
53. (3)
54. (4)
55. (3)
56. (3)
57. (4)
58. (4)
59. (3)
60. (2)
61. (2)
62. (3)
63. (1)
64. (2)
65. (3)
66. (2)
67. (3)
68. (4)
69. (4)
70. (1)
71. (3)
72. (4)
73. (2)
74. (3)
75. (1)
76. (3)
77. (2)
78. (4)
79. (3)
80. (1)
81. (4)
82. (2)
83. (1)
84. (3)
85. (2)
86. (2)
87. (4)
88. (1)
89. (4)
90. (3)
91. (3)
92. (2)
93. (2)
94. (4)
95. (4)
96. (4)
97. (2)
98. (2)
99. (1)
100. (4)
101. (2)
102. (1)
103. (2)
104. (4)
105. (3)
106. (3)
107. (4)
108. (2)
109. (4)
110. (3)
111. (4)
112. (1)
113. (1)
114. (4)
115. (4)
116. (1)
117. (1)
118. (3)
119. (1)
120. (4)
121. (2)
122. (3)
123. (3)
124. (2)
125. (2)
126. (4)
127. (3)
128. (4)
129. (4)
130. (1)
131. (3)
132. (4)
133. (3)
134. (4)
135. (4)
136. (4)
137. (3)
138. (4)
139. (2)
140. (3)
141. (4)
142. (2)
143. (3)
144. (3)
145. (2)
146. (4)
147. (4)
148. (4)
149. (4)
150. (4)
151. (4)
152. (2)
153. (4)
154. (4)
155. (3)
156. (4)
157. (4)
158. (3)
159. (2)
160. (2)
161. (4)
162. (1)
163. (3)
164. (1)
165. (4)
166. (1)
167. (2)
168. (4)
169. (4)
170. (1)
171. (1)
172. (3)
173. (1)
174. (3)
175. (3)
176. (2)
177. (3)
178. (4)
179. (4)
180. (4)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
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ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (3)
Hint: Isochoric process, i.e, V = 0
Sol.: From Ist law
Q = U + W
Q = U
All heat absorbed will be used in increasing the
internal energy of the gas.
2. Answer (2)
Hint: Boyle’s law.
Sol.: PV = constant.
P0V
0 = P × 2V
0
0
2
PP
3. Answer (2)
Hint: Carnot
Sol.: Carnot
1–⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
L
H
T
T
max
3031– 0.284
423
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
= 28.4% maximum possible efficiency.
Efficiency may be 25%
4. Answer (2)
Hint: For adiabatic Q = 0
Sol.: Q = U + W
U = –W
As in expansion W = Positive. Hence U =
Negative so temperature of the gas will decrease.
5. Answer (2)
Hint and solution : Isobaric process is at constant
pressure, isochoric process is at constant volume
and isothermal process is at constant temperature.
6. Answer (1)
Hint: PV = nRT
Sol.: nR
P TV
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
P
T
V2
V1
P2
P1
0
For a given temperature, P2 > P
1
V2 < V
1
[ PHYSICS]
7. Answer (3)
Hint: Coefficient of performance 2QK
W
Sol.: 2
–
L
H L
T QK
T T W
P
273 2000
45
2000 45330 W
273
�P
8. Answer (1)
Hint: PVN = constant
Sol.: PVN = constant
Molar heat capacity of the gas.
5 9
11– 2 21–
2
v
R R R RC C
N
9. Answer (4)
Hint: Q = U + W
Sol.: Isobaric process
Q = Cv R
Q = 3RRQ = 4RW = R
4 :1Q
W⇒
10. Answer (2)
Hint: Conversion of P-V graph into V-T graph.
Sol.: A Carnot cycle consist of isothermal
expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal
compression and adiabatic compression respectively.
11. Answer (3)
Hint: For adiabatic process Q = 0
Sol.: 0 Q
ST
S will remain same.
12. Answer (2)
Hint: V
V T
Sol.: PT = constant = K
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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Gas equation PV = RT
KV RT
T
V T2
dV 2T dT
dV dT
V T
2⇒
dV
VdT T
2
13. Answer (4)
Hint and solution : If two bodies are in thermal
equilibrium then both the bodies are at same
temperature.
14. Answer (1)
Hint: Q = U + W
Sol.: Q = U + W
–100 = U + 20
U = –120 J
15. Answer (4)
Hint: Change in internal energy U = CVT
Sol.:
Since A A B B
A B
P V P V
T T
3 33 10 1 10 3
A BT T
TA = T
B
T = TB – T
A = 0
U = 0
16. Answer (4)
Hint: Change in internal energy is the function of
state only U1 = U
2 = U
3
Sol.: Q = U + W
W = area under P – V diagram
Hence W1 > W
2 > W
3
Q1 > Q
2 > Q
3
17. Answer (2)
Hint: AB is Lsothermal process.
Sol.: Work done = i
F
PRT
P102.303 log
= 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 log1
2
= – 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 × 0.3010
= – 3452 J
Negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.
18. Answer (2)
Hint: For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure
V T.
Sol.: V
T
For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure V T.
19. Answer (4)
Hint: Apply Newton’s law of cooling.
Sol.: 1 2 1 20
––
2
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
Kt
60 – 50 60 50– 20
9 2
⎡ ⎤⇒ ⎢ ⎥
⎣ ⎦K ...(i)
50 – 50– 20
9 2
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
K ...(ii)
10 35
50 –25 – 20
2
= 42.5ºC
20. Answer (2)
Hint: th
Temperature differenceHeat flow =
Thermal resistance
R
Sol.: Temperature difference remains same 30ºC,
but thermal resistance eq
1 1 1 R R R
eq2
RR
Hence heat flow will double i.e. 20 J/s
21. Answer (2)
Hint: P = eAT4
Sol.: P = eAT4
Now as radius is doubled. Hence surface area will
become 4 times i.e. 4A.
P A
P 4A
P = 4P = 4 × 300 = 1200 W
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
4/14
22. Answer (1)
Hint: V V
Sol.: – V P
V B
And V
V
P
B⇒
P
B⇒
23. Answer (2)
Hint: If CP & C
V are molar specific heats then
CP – C
V = R
Sol.: Molar specific heat = M × specific heat
McP – Mc
V = R
–P V
Rc c
M
For helium = 4
R p
For oxygen 32
R q
p = 8q
24. Answer (4)
Hint: For linear scale Y = mx + c
Sol.: ( C)º
�(cm)50 cm
– 10º C
80º C
0
9– 10
5 �
When � = 70 cm
970 –10
5
= 116ºC
25. Answer (3)
Hint: Q = mL
Sol.: Heat given by steam = Heat taken by ice
mLv + mc= mL
1
m × 540 + m × 1 × 100 = 80 × 80
80 80
10 g640
m
Mass of water present = 80 + 10 = 90 g
26. Answer (2)
Hint: Heat current will be same as connected in
series.
Sol.: 0 0( – 100)2 (200 – )3
2 3
KA KAH
� �
0 – 100 = 200 –
0
20 = 300
0 = 150°C
27. Answer (1)
Hint: H = (m + w)c Sol.: H = (m + w)c = 150 × 1 × 50 = 7500 cal
= 7.5 kcal
28. Answer (4)
Hint: = 2
Sol.: 100 2% ⇒ L
L LL
100 2% ⇒ r
r rr
Area = r2
2100 100 4%
⇒ dA r
A r
29. Answer (1)
Hint: vD
R
Sol.: 2
4
D vQ Av
Or, 2
4Qv
D
So,2
4 4 D Q Q
RD D
30. Answer (2)
Hint: 1 2
1 2
mix
m md
V V
Sol.: 1 2 1 2 1 2
1
1 22
m m dV d V d d
V V V V
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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1 2 1 2
2
1 2 1 2
1 2
2m m d dm m
m mV V d d
d d
Now,
2
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1 2
1 2 1 2
2 ( ) 4
2 2( )
d d d d d d d d
d d d d
2
1 2
1 2
( )0
2( )
d d
d d
So, 1 >
2
31. Answer (3)
Hint: PowerW P V
t t
Sol.: P = hg = 1.5 × 103 × 10 N/m2
–650 10 1.25
V
t
m3/s
Power = 15 × 103 × 50 × 1.25 × 10–6 = 0.94 W
32. Answer (1)
Hint: When anything lighter is unloaded no change
in the liquid level.
Sol.: Let mass of cork ball is M.
Mg = upthrust when ball is inside the boat.
Mg = Vin�g
Liquid displaced (Vin) =
M
�
...(i)
When ball is dropped in water, still Mg = upthrust
in
M
V�
...(ii)
Boat is floating in both cases. So total volume of
water displaced in both cases are same. Hence no
change in liquid level.
33. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Bernoulli's equation.
Sol.: 2
0 0
14 4
2P gh P v
2v gh
2 10 5
v = 10 m/s
34. Answer (2)
Hint: By equation of continuity.
Sol.: A1v
1 = A
2v
2 + A
3v
3
4 × A = 1 × 2A + v × 3A
2v m/s
3
35. Answer (1)
Hint: Excess pressure inside soap bubble = T
r
4
Sol.: 4T
h gr
r
–3 34 0.033 10 0.9 10 10
2
24 3 10 410 m
3 9 9
r
Surface area = 4r2 × 2 = 496.2 × 10–6 m2
36. Answer (2)
Hint: Air pressure decreases with increase in volume.
Sol.: P0 = hg + P
air
When tube will be pulled slightly the volume of air
above mercury column will increase hence pressure
will decrease.
So, height of mercury column will increase.
Hence slightly more than 70 cm.
37. Answer (4)
Hint: Elongation in the wire is proportional to the
tension in the wire.
Sol.: In case A, T = Mg
2 2 3In case B, 2.4
2 3
M M g T Mg
M M
T �
T �
2.42.4
Mg
Mg⇒ ⇒
�
� ��
38. Answer (4)
Hint: Breaking stress (B.S.) F
A
Sol.: B.S. �
�F Mg A g
gA A A
B.S is independent of area of cross-section.
Hence, maximum length to be hung is �.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
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46. Answer (2)
Hint: 2Na + 2NH3
2NaNH
2 + H
2
47. Answer (1)
Hint: Lewis acids are electron deficient species.
Sol.: B2H
6 acts as a Lewis acid
48. Answer (3)
Hint: SiCl4 has tetrahedral structure
Sol.:
H
H
H HN
+
Tetrahedral
Cl
Cl
B,Cl
[ CHEMISTRY]
39. Answer (1)
Hint: Poisson's ratio = –�
�
dr
r
d
Sol.: V = r2 × �
2⇒ �
�
dV dr d
V r
–2×0.3 0.4⇒ � � �
� � �
dV d d d
V
100 0.4 100 0.4 1% 0.4%⇒ �
�
dV d
V
40. Answer (3)
Hint: Properties of solids
Sol.: Fluids have only Bulk modulus.
41. Answer (1)
Hint: PV = constant
Sol.: As vessel is open pressure will be constant
and equal to the atmospheric pressure and
neglecting expansion of vessel so volume is also
constant
PV = RT
1T
1 =
2T
2
1
× 300 = 2
× 400
1
2
3
4
1Fraction of mass that will escape
4⇒
42. Answer (3)
Hint: Q = CvT
Sol.: Q = CvT
2 330
20 2R 5
9K C F
⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦∵
= 9 cal
43. Answer (2)
Hint: Dalton’s law of partial pressure.
Sol.: 1 2
1 10.082 300
( ) 4 4
5
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ RT
PV
= 2.5 × 105 = 2.5 atm
44. Answer (4)
Hint: rms
v T
Sol.: As temperature increases, speed also
increases. Hence number of collision per second will
increase as well as momentum change per collision
will also increase. Hence force to the container wall
will increase so pressure will increase.
45. Answer (2)
Hint: CO molecule is diatomic.
Sol.: CO molecule is diatomic. At moderate
temperature it will be having 7 degrees of freedom,
as vibrational mode is also excited.
O–
Al–
Tetrahedral
Si
O–
O–
–
O ClCl
Cl
Cl
49. Answer (2)
Hint: Graphite has 2D sheet like structure and has
unpaired electrons.
Sol.: Graphite is thermodynamically more stable than
diamond.
50. Answer (1)
Hint: Generally beryllium compounds are covalent in
nature.
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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51. Answer (4)
Hint: Mixture of CO and N2 is called producer gas.
52. Answer (1)
Hint: 2n
3 n(SiO ) represent cyclic and chain silicates.
53. Answer (3)
Hint: Inert pair effect
Sol.: Stability of +2 oxidation state (Si < Ge < Sn < Pb)
54. Answer (4)
Hint: H3BO
3 is a Lewis acid.
Sol.: HO B
HO
HO
B
OH
OH
–
OH
H+ H
+
HO
HO
+
55. Answer (3)
Hint: Electrovalency of alkali metals and phosphide
ion respectively are +1 and –3.
Sol.: Formula of phosphide of alkali metal is M3P.
56. Answer (3)
Hint: 4BCl + 3LiAlH 2B H + 3LiCl + 3AlCl3 4 2 6 3
[A] [B] [C]
ether
57. Answer (4)
Hint: Borax is Na2B
4O
7 10 H
2O
Sol.: In borax, two boron atoms are sp2 and two boron
atoms are sp3 hybridised.
58. Answer (4)
Hint: 4H3BO
3 + Na
2CO
3 Na
2B
4O
7 + 6H
2O + CO
2
Sol.: Na B O 2 4 7
750°C
heat2NaBO + B O
2 2 3
Glassy bead
59. Answer (3)
Hint: Cs : [Xe] 6s1
Sol.: Cs has least ionisation energy in its group.
60. Answer (2)
Hint: All alkali metals impart colour in flame test.
Sol.: Due to small size and high nuclear charge, Be
and Mg do not show colour to the flame.
61. Answer (2)
Hint: Order of density is
Rb > Na > K > Li
62. Answer (3)
Hint: Large size anion is more stabilized by large size
cation.
Sol.: K and Rb form stable superoxides.
63. Answer (1)
Hint: For alkaline earth metal hydroxides,
decrease in lattice energy is more than decrease in
hydration energy down the group.
64. Answer (2)
Hint: Be can show four co-ordination number.
Sol.: Be(OH)2 + 2OH– [Be(OH)
4]2–
65. Answer (3)
Hint: NH3 + H
2O + CO
2 NH
4HCO
3
66. Answer (2)
Hint: Average composition of Portland cement
CaO : 50–60%
SiO2 : 20–25%
Al2O
3 : 5–10%
67. Answer (3)
Hint: Ca(OCl)2 is calcium hypochlorite
68. Answer (4)
Hint: LiNO3 decomposes into oxide on heating.
Sol.: All group-2 nitrates decompose in their oxides
2M(NO3)
2 2MO + 4NO
2 + O
2
69. Answer (4)
Hint: High hydration of Li+ compensates its high
ionisation enthalpy hence best reducing agent.
70. Answer (1)
Hint: Solubility order :
LiF < NaF < KF
LiCl > NaCl > KCl
71. Answer (3)
Hint: Half filled and completely filled subshells are
more stable.
Sol.: IE1 order: Li < Be > B
IE2 order: Li >> Be > Mg
72. Answer (4)
Hint: Mobility decreases with increase in the extent
of solvation.
Sol.: Order of size of hydrated ion
Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > Cs+(aq)
73. Answer (2)
Hint:
F
B
F F
Sol.: Acidic strength : BI3 > BBr
3 >BCl
3 > BF
3
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74. Answer (3)
Hint: Boron nitride has 2 dimensional sheet like
structure.
75. Answer (1)
Hint: Al forms a protective layer of Al2O
3 with conc.
HNO3.
76. Answer (3)
Hint: Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Al
Cl
Cl
101°Al
77. Answer (2)
Hint: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)2
Sol.: Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick
lime (CaO)
CaO + H2O Ca(OH)
2
78. Answer (4)
Hint: Thermal stability order : MgCO3 < CaCO
3 < BaCO
3
79. Answer (3)
Hint: All reactive metal releases H2 gas with dil acid
or water.
Sol.: 2NaHCO3 + 2HCl 2NaCl + 2H
2O + 2CO
2
80. Answer (1)
Hint: CH SiCl CH Si(OH) + HCl3 3 3 3
H O2
.
Sol.:
CH Si(OH) 3 3
polymeriseCH
3
– O – Si – O – Si – O
CH3
O O
– O – Si – O – Si – O
CH3
CH3
(cross link polymer)
81. Answer (4)
Hint: Galena is PbS.
Sol.: Mica, zeolite and feldspar are silicates.
82. Answer (2)
Hint: 2 2
wt. of H O%strength= 100
V(ml) of solution
Sol.: 2H2O
2 2H
2O + O
2
22.4 L O2 from 2 34 g H
2O
2 (at NTP)
100 L O2 from
2 34100
22.4
= 303.57 g
= 30.35% H2O
2 solution.
83. Answer (1)
Hint: BeH2 becomes polymer due to its electron
deficient nature through multicentre bridge bonds.
Sol.:
3c - 2e bond
BeH
H
BeH
H
BeH
H
BeH
H
84. Answer (3)
Hint.: Blue colour turns to bronze colour by increasing
the metal concentration leading to the cluster formation
of metal.
85. Answer (2)
Hint: Amphoteric oxides means which will react with
acid and as well as base.
Sol.: SnO2 + 2NaOH Na
2SnO
3 + H
2O
SnO2 + 4HCl SnCl
4 + 2H
2O
86. Answer (2)
Hint: Ga: [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1
Sol.: In ‘Ga’ atom, 10 electrons are filled in d orbitals
hence size decreases due to poor shielding of d
electrons.
87. Answer (4)
Hint: In Castner-Kellner cell mercury cathode and
graphite anode are used.
Sol.: Cathode: Hg
Na e Na Hg
Anode: 2
1Cl Cl e
2
Cl2 gas evolved at anode.
88. Answer (1)
Hint: Lattice enthalpy decreases with increase in the
size of cation.
Sol.: The order of thermal stability of hydrides is
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
89. Answer (4)
Hint: For solubility, hydration energy > lattice energy
Sol.: The size of Ba2+ and 2
4SO
ions are very large
which leads to higher lattice enthalpy than that of
hydration enthalpy.
90. Answer (3)
Hint: Basic character of oxide increases down the
group.
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[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3)
Hint: To form two molecules of hexose sugar Calvin
cycle operates 12 times.
Sol.: In maize both C3 and C
4 cycles operate. Thus
here 12 C3 & C
4 cycles will occur.
Since 1 C3 cycle requires = 3 ATP
12 C3 cycles require = 12 × 3 = 36 ATP
1 C4 cycle requires = 2 ATP
12 C4 cycles require = 12 × 2 = 24 ATP
92. Answer (2)
Hint: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves PS I only.
Sol.: During cyclic photophosphorylation only ATP is
formed while non-cyclic photophosphorylation yields
ATP, NADPH as well as O2
93. Answer (2)
Hint: Optimum external and internal factors will
support maximum photosynthesis.
Sol.:
For C3 plants For C
4 plants
Green leaves Green leaves
Low temperature High temperature
CO2 = 450 IL–1 CO
2 = 360 IL–1
High light intensity High light intensity
94. Answer (4)
Hint: At low light intensity photosynthesis rate does
not change.
Sol.: At low light intensity, no plant (C3 or C
4)
respond to high CO2 concentration.
95. Answer (4)
Hint: Light rarely becomes a limiting factor except
plants found in shade or dense forest.
Sol.: Above 10% light intensity of the total sunlight,
light becomes damaging and there is no increase in
photosynthesis.
96. Answer (4)
Sol.: Pyruvic acid is a 3-carbon acid while rest all
are 4-carbon acids.
97. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature.
Sol.: C4 plants have PEP synthetase which is cold
sensitive.
98. Answer (2)
Hint: In C2 cycle, O
2 is used by RuBisCO in
chloroplast.
Sol.: Decarboxylation or release of CO2 occurs in
mitochondria.
99. Answer (1)
Hint: Photorespiration operates during light when
concentration of O2 > CO
2
Sol.: It consumes a part of light energy and prevents
plants from photooxidative damage.
100. Answer (4)
Hint: CAM pathway is also known as diurnal acid
cycle.
Sol.: CAM pathway is less efficient than C4
pathway. In CAM plants stomata open during night
(scotoactive). All chloroplasts are of same type.
101. Answer (2)
Hint: Bundle sheath cells are specialized cells in C4
plants, where RuBisCO is found.
Sol.: Bundle sheath cells & mesophyll cells both
show CO2 fixation process.
Grana are absent in bundle sheath cells and primary
CO2 fixation product is different in both the cells.
102. Answer (1)
Hint: C4 plants lose less water through transpiration
as compared to C3 plants.
Sol.: C4 plants have
High yield and productivity
C3 plants perform better at high CO
2
concentration as compared to C4 plants.
C4 plants show better water utilisation.
C4 plants lack photorespiration.
103. Answer (2)
Hint: PGA to PGAL conversion is a reduction
process.
Sol.: Reduction of PGA to PGAL requires ATP as
well as NADPH.
104. Answer (4)
Sol.: For each molecule of CO2 to be fixed via Calvin
cycle 3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules are required.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme of the
world.
Sol.: RuBisCO is heat sensitive but has greater
affinity for CO2 than O
2 when CO
2 : O
2 is nearly
equal.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
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106. Answer (3)
Hint: Potato is a C3 plant, while Amaranthus is a C
4
plant
Sol.: C3 cycle in potato - Mesophyll cells
C3 cycle in Amaranthus - Bundle sheath cells.
107. Answer (4)
Hint: C3 plants can show dual activity of RuBisCO.
Sol.: Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane are C4 plants
Wheat is a C3 plant which can show carboxylation
as well as oxygenation (during photorespiration) by
RuBisCO.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature also.
Sol.: C4 plants are adapted to dry tropical regions.
109. Answer (4)
Hint: Calvin cycle involves three steps of CO2
fixation.
Sol.: Deamination is the process which involves
removal of amine group. It does not occur during C3
cycle.
110. Answer (3)
Hint: Molecules which provide energy for CO2 fixation
are called assimilatory power
Sol.: ATP and NADPH are assimilatory power for
dark reaction.
111. Answer (4)
Hint: Chemiosmosis theory involves ATP synthesis
via ATP synthase.
Sol.: Only protons are diffused back to stroma to
break the proton gradient between lumen and stroma.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Reaction centre of PS I absorbs light at wave
length 700 nm.
Sol.: Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs at
1. Light wavelength beyond 680 nm.
2. Anaerobic condition
3. Low CO2 availability
113. Answer (1)
Hint: PS II is found in grana lamellae only.
Sol.: PS I is found on the outer surface while PS II
towards inner surface of thylakoids.
Both are involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation
but only PS II is associated with release of O2.
114. Answer (4)
Hint: Carotenoids are yellow-orange pigments found
in green plants.
Sol.: Carotenoids along with xanthophyll &
chlorophyll b are called accessory pigments. They
absorb wavelength between 400 - 700 nm (visible
spectrum) only and prevent photo-oxidation.
115. Answer (4)
Hint: First action spectrum was prepared by
measuring O2 evolution.
Sol.: T.W. Engelmann used a green alga Cladophora
and aerobic bacteria to measure O2
evolution and
prepared first action spectrum of photosynthesis
116. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are either components of
chlorophyll or required for its synthesis.
Sol.: Mg is an important component of chlorophyll
while K & Fe are required for chlorophyll synthesis.
117. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are absorbed in the form of
cation and anion respectively.
Sol.: Fe and S are absorbed as Fe+3 and 2
4SO
respectively. These are constituents of ferredoxin.
118. Answer (3)
Sol.: Bacillus vulgaris converts organic nitrogen into
ammonia, called ammonification.
119. Answer (1)
Hint: Death of tissue is known as necrosis.
Sol.: Necrosis is caused by deficiency of elements
such as Ca, Cu, Mg, K.
120. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hydroponics is very useful technique but its
set up requires high cost to maintain.
121. Answer (2)
Hint: Some plants transport nitrogen in other forms
which have high nitrogen to carbon ratio.
Sol.: Ureides have high N/C value thus high amount
of nitrogen is transported in this form.
122. Answer (3)
Hint: Amides have more nitrogen than amino acids.
Sol.: Hydroxyl part of amino acids is replaced by
another amino group to form amides. Asparagine &
Glutamine are two important amides.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Given conversion shows reductive amination.
Sol.: A - - ketoglutaric acid
B - NADPH
C - Glutamate dehydrogenase
D - NADP
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124. Answer (2)
Hint: Plants can assimilate both 4
NH and
3NO
.
Sol.: Rhizobium is aerobic and free living in soil but
fixes N2 in anaerobic condition symbiotically. Nodule
is formed by division of cells of inner cortex and
pericycle.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Rhizobium is involved in nitrogen fixation for
which nitrogenase is required.
Sol.: Regions of nodule where nitrogen fixation
occurs have leghaemoglobin, nitrogenase, ATP and
lack molecular oxygen. Nitrogenase is highly
sensitive to molecular oxygen.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogenase is found in all those bacteria which
convert N2 into NH
3.
Sol.: Nitrococcus is a nitrifying bacterium whereas
rest of all are N2 fixing bacteria.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: It is the first step of nitrification.
Sol.: Nitrification is carried out by a group of nitrifying
bacteria which are free living and chemoautotrophs.
128. Answer (4)
Hint: Symplast comprises cytoplasm and vacuole
Sol.: Metabolic phase involves movement of ions into
symplast. It is an active process and transmembrane
proteins are required for this phase of mineral
absorption.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: Toxicity of Mn affects uptake of some other
elements & causes their deficiencies.
Sol.: Excess of Mn reduces uptake of Mg and Fe.
Its excess also inhibits translocation of Ca to shoot
apex and produces brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins.
130. Answer (1)
Hint: This element is an important component of cell
membrane.
Sol.: Phosphorus (P) does not help in maintaining
cation - anion balance in cells.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements
appear first in young leaves.
Sol.: Ca is an immobile element which is required
for the formation of mitotic spindles.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: Element which activates carboxylases is also
required for synthesis of a growth hormone i.e.
auxin.
Sol.: Zn activates various enzymes especially
carboxylases. Nitrite reductase contains copper and
iron.
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Sulphur is not found in nucleosides and nucleic
acids.
Sol.: Deoxyadenosine is a nucleoside which does
not have sulphur.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: Macronutrients are found in plants in excess of
10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter.
Sol.: Macronutrients are nine in number (C, H, O, N,
P, K, Ca, Mg, S).
135. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogen is not absorbed by the plants in the
gaseous form
Sol.: Plants absorb nitrogen in the form of 3
NO ,
2NO
and 4
NH only. The major absorption occurs in
the form of 3
NO .
136. Answer (4)
Hint: This disease results from hyperthyroidism.
Sol.: Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hyper
secretion of thyroxine hormone. High secretion of
GH after puberty and before puberty causes
acromegaly and gigantism respectively.
137. Answer (3)
Hint: This organ is associated with sense of smell
Sol.: Modified pseudostratified epithelium/
Schneidarian membrane is associated with roof of
nasal cavity
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Some hormones are steroidal in nature or
derivative of an amino acid.
Sol.: Estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, etc are
steroidal in nature while catecholamines and
thyroxine are amino acid derivatives.
139. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a steroid hormone.
Sol.: Norepinephrine, oxytocin and TCT are lipid
insoluble hormones hence, they cannot cross the
lipid bilayer. They execute their action through
extracellular receptors. Estrogen is lipid soluble,
steroid hormone which acts through intracellular
receptors.
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140. Answer (3)
Hint: This is the swollen part of a semicircular canal
Sol.: Cristae are associated with ampulla in inner ear
and help in maintaining equilibrium.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure connects middle ear to pharynx.
Sol.: Eustachian tube connects middle ear to
pharynx so that atmospheric pressure remains equal
on both sides of ear drum.
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Part that gives white appearance to eye.
Sol.: Sclera is outermost layer, choroid is middle
layer and retina is innermost layer of eye.
143. Answer (3)
Hint: This pigment is also called rhodopsin.
Sol.: Rods are sensitive to dim light due to
presence of rhodopsin
144. Answer (3)
Hint: This membrane is found in scala media.
Sol.: Sensory hair cells are pressed against tectorial
membrane upon receiving stimulus. Reissner’s and
Basilar membrane form roof and floor of scala media
respectively.
145. Answer (2)
Hint: This part of ear is involved in hearing.
Sol.: Utricle, saccule and cristae help in maintaining
body equilibrium.
146. Answer (4)
Hint: Cochlea is composed of both bony and
membranous labyrinth.
Sol.: Scala media is filled with endolymph while
scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with
perilymph.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Sensory cells in ear
Sol.: Hair cells are present in organ of corti are
sensory in nature.
148. Answer (4)
Hint: This molecule is called energy currency of the
cell.
Sol.: Hormones which are hydrophilic in nature bind
to extracytoplasmic receptors present on plasma
membrane and generates a second messenger
which leads to activation of enzyme cascade.
Common secondary messengers are Ca2+, cAMP
and cGMP. ATP is not a secondary messenger.
149. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a ductless gland.
Sol.: Parathyroid gland is situated on dorsal side of
thyroid gland while salivary, lacrimal and mammary
glands are exocrine glands.
150. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is known as stress hormone.
Sol.: Adrenaline is derived from tyrosine and
functions during emergency conditions such as fear,
fight and flight
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify hypothalamic hormone called GHIH.
Sol.: Pineal gland secretes melatonin and prolactin
is secreted by anterior pituitary. Erythropoietin is
secreted by JG cells of kidney. Somatostatin is also
called GHIH.
152. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a vasoconstrictor.
Sol.: ANF is released in response to increase in
blood pressure while vasopressin is released in
response to low blood pressure. Insulin increases
glucose absorption into cells and aldosterone
increases Na+ reabsorption in nephrons.
153. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the gland that regulates diurnal rhythm.
Sol.: Melatonin released by pineal gland regulates
biological clock.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify eye related defects.
Sol.: In myopia, image is formed in front of retina.
This defect is corrected by concave lens.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone is synthesised and released by
anterior pituitary.
Sol.: Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis and
secretion from cells of alveoli of mammary gland.
Oxytocin is responsible for ejection of milk (Milk let
down hormone).
156. Answer (4)
Hint: Disc shaped receptor sensitive to touch.
Sol.: Merkel’s disc is a disc shaped receptor
present in epidermis of our skin. Receptors such as
Pacinian corpuscle, Meissner’s corpuscle and
Ruffini’s organ are found below epidermis.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Testosterone increases muscular growth during
adolescence.
Sol.: Testosterone in males controls secondary
sexual characters and has anabolic effect on
proteins and carbohydrates.
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
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158. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone increases thickness of
endometrium during proliferative phase of menstrual
cycle.
Sol.: Estrogen in females and testosterone in males
control secondary sexual characters. Progesterone
maintains pregnancy. FSH promotes gametogenesis.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released in response to
increase in blood pressure.
Sol.: Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasodilation and
increases natriuresis (increased excretion of Na+ in
urine), thereby lowering blood volume and blood
pressure.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released by outer most layer
of adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Outer most layer of adrenal cortex called zona
glomerulosa releases aldosterone. This hormone
increases the reabsorption of Na+ in distal part of
nephron. Water is also reabsorbed following Na+
reabsorption. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) released
from atrial wall of heart affects water and electrolyte
balance but is not a corticoid. Melatonin and
testosterone are also not corticoids.
161. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is released from adrenal medulla.
Sol.: This hormone increases alertness and causes
pupillary dilation.
162. Answer (1)
Hint: Both gustatoreceptors and olfactory receptors
are chemoreceptors.
Sol.: The receptors which receive chemical stimuli are
known as chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
receive mechanical stimuli. Algesireceptors receive
stimulus that is perceived as pain.
163. Answer (3)
Hint: This gland is attached to epithalamus.
Sol.: Pineal gland is present on the roof of third
ventricle. Hypothalamus is present at the base of
thalamus.
164. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is mainly responsible for
ovulation.
Sol.: After ovulation, remaining part of Graafian
follicle that changes into corpus luteum is maintained
by LH in a non-pregnant female. FSH is responsible
for growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone followed by
estrogen during luteal phase.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a neurohormone from hypothalamus.
Sol.: ADH is produced by hypothalamus and stored
in posterior pituitary. Pars distalis also known as
anterior pituitary secretes PRL, TSH and ACTH.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is secreted by -cells of
pancreas.
Sol.: Glucagon is a peptide hormone that requires
membrane bound receptors, whereas estrogen,
iodothyronines and cortisol require intra-cellular
receptors.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the disease characterised by hirsutism
and masculinization in females.
Sol.: ACTH is a pituitary hormone which acts on
adrenal gland and increases secretion from adrenal
cortex that results in Cushing’s disease. Deficiency
of insulin results in Diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of
hormones of adrenal cortex causes Addison’s
disease while Grave’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of thyroid gland.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: These hormones are released by adrenal
medulla.
Sol.: Adrenal medulla is a sympathetic ganglia that
releases stress hormones. These hormones
produced by post ganglionic neurons are transported
through blood and are known as neurohormones. eg;
epinephrine and norepinephrine.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Amylase is a carbohydrate digesting enzyme.
Sol.: Digestion of carbohydrates starts in mouth but
does not occur in stomach due to absence of gastric
amylase.
170 Answer (1)
Hint: Hormone secreted by thymus gland.
Sol.: Thymosin is a peptide hormone secreted by
thymus gland. This hormone helps in development of
immunity. T3, T
4 and TCT are hormones of thyroid
gland. Catecholamines are released during
emergency from adrenal medulla.
171. Answer (1)
Hint: These cells are also known as interstitial cells.
Sol.: Sertoli cells are also known as sustentacular
cells. They release ABP and inhibin. Spermatozoa
formation requires testosterone.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
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172. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes
mellitus.
Sol.: Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone in humans
which increases uptake of glucose into cells from
blood. Glucagon, thyroxine and growth hormone can
result in hyperglycemia.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids causes this disease.
Sol.: Addison’s disease occurs due to deficiency of
aldosterone and cortisol. Cushing’s disease is
caused due to hypersecretion from adrenal cortex.
Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hypersecretion
from thyroid gland. Conn’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of aldosterone.
174. Answer (3)
Hint: Zona reticularis is the innermost layer of
adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Zona reticularis layer secretes mainly
androgenic corticoids i.e., androstenedione,
dehydroepiandrosterone. Aldosterone is secreted from
zona glomerulosa and cortisol from zona fasciculata
of adrenal cortex. Epinephrine is secreted from
adrenal medulla.
175. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone which increases Ca2+ level in blood.
Sol.: Hyposecretion of parathormone decreases the
Ca2+ level in blood that leads to tetany.
Hyposecretion of estrogen causes osteoporosis in
females. Hyposecretion of thyroxine causes
Myxedema in adults. Deficiency of vasopressin/ADH
causes diabetes insipidus.
176. Answer (2)
Hint: Endocrine gland present in neck region.
Sol.: Thyroid is the largest endocrine gland in
humans. It secretes mainly three hormones
thyroxine or T4, T
3 and thyrocalcitonin(TCT).
177. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone requires iodine for its synthesis.
Sol.: Deficiency of thyroxine during intrauterine life
causes cretinism characterised by stunted growth,
mental retardation and deaf mutism.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Somatotrophin is also known as growth
hormone.
Sol.: It regulates body growth by promoting protein
anabolism. Somatotrophin is released from
adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland which is
under the control of GHRH from hypothalamus.
179. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is also known as somatotrophin.
Sol.: GH hormone in muscles promotes protein
anabolism. Parathormone is related with Ca2+ level in
blood and thymosin helps in maturation of
T-lymphocytes. Cortisol is a stress hormone which
promotes protein catabolism in muscle.
180. Answer (4)
Hint: Endocrine glands release their secretion in
blood so that they can reach every cell.
Sol.: Neural system transmits messages through
impulses. This involves faster transmission of
information than endocrine system. Nervous system
is not connected directly to every cell while
endocrine glands release hormones in blood that
reach every cell of the body through blood. Neural
response is rapid and lasts for shorter duration as
compared to endocrine system.