Flt 2 Eng(Offline)

8/9/2019 Flt 2 Eng(Offline)

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FULL LENG TH TEST 2

JEE MAINDate:25-01-2014 Time: 3 Hours. Max. Marks:360

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper consists of '90'objective type questions. There are '30'questions each in

Chemistry, Mathematicsand Physics respectively. Please fill the OMR answer Sheet accordingly

and carefully.

2. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONEis correct.

3. You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding

to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)

markwill be awarded.

4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question

will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per

instruction 3 above.

5. Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen onlyfor filling particulars.

6. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobileis not allowed.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this purpose

in the Test Booklet only.

8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. However,

the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

USEFUL DATA

Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96

[Take : ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 1019, me= 9.1 1031kg ]Take

0= 8.85 1012 , g = 10 m/s2unless otherwise stated

ENGLISH


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Full Length Test-2 [JEE Main] Page # 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

C H E M I S T R Y

Q.1 to Q.30 has four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which ONLY ONEis correct.

Q.1 The variation of solubility(S) with temperature for Glauber's salt is given as :

S

TC

32.28C

(gm/100gof H O)2

Which of the following options correctlyexplain the above behaviour?

(1) Dissolution of Glauber salt is exothermic

(2) Dissolution of Glauber salt is endothermic

(3) At 32.28C Glauber salt looses water of crystallization due to which dissolution above 32.28C becomes exothermic and below 32.28C it is endothermic(4) Above 32.28 dissolution of Glauber salt is endothermic and below 32.28C it is exothermic.

Q.2 What is best reagent would you choose to convert !24MnO to

!4MnO ?

(1) Cl2water (2) O

3(3) (1) and (2) both (4) None of these

Q.3 "" #" ICH3 """" #" OH,OAg 22 "#"$ A isA is

(1) (2) (3) (4)


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Q.4 The wave function of any hydrogen like specie for the orbital '2s' is given by :

2/

2/3

0s2 e

a

Z)2(

22

1 %!&''(

)**+

,&%-. where % =

0a

Zr,

a0is 0.529

Hence the radius for nodal surface of '2s' orbital for He+is given by :

(1) 0.529 (2) 1.058 (3) 1.587 (4)2

829.0

Q.5 In Fe-extraction, the roasting is adopted though the ore is not having any sulphide because

(1) Haematite is to be decomposed (2) All FeO is to be converted into Fe2O

3

(3) All Fe2O

3is to be converted into FeO (4) Slag formation is encouraged.

Q.6 "" #" 22OH A$

"""" #" .ConcSOH 42 B

A & B are respectively:

(1) & (2) &

(3) & (4) &

Q.7 1.9 104gm of the metal having density 19 gm/ml is dispersed in one litre of water to give a sol havingspherical metal particles of radius 10 nm. The approximate number of metal sol particles per cm3of the

sol is given by :(1) 2.35 109 (2) 4 1010 (3) 1.9 109 (4) 2.8 109

Q.8 Unknown salt 'A' + K2Cr

2O

7+ conc. H

2SO

4"# Reddish brown fumes.

Which is the correct statement regarding the above observation

(1) It confirms the presence of Clion

(2) It confirms the presence of Brion

(3) It confirms the presence of both

(4) It neither confirms Clnor Brunless it is passed through NaOH solution


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Q.9 How many products having 12 carbon are obtained in following reaction.

Cl14 "#"Na

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 10 (4) 12

Q.10 Assuming ideal gas behaviour and only bimolecular collisions to be occuring which of the following gaseswill have longest mean free path under identical concentrations.

(1) H2

(2) N2

(3) Cl2

(4) F2

Q.11 (i) A + Na2CO

3"#B + C

(ii) A "" #" 2CO (Milky) CThe chemical formula of A and B are respectively

(1) NaOH & Ca(OH)2

(2) Ca(OH)2and NaOH

(3) NaOH and CaO (4) CaO & Ca(OH)2

Q.123AlCl

MeCl"" #" AA

A is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.13 Percentage of unoccupied volume in case of simple cubic arrangement and body centered arrangement

of metals is given by respectively.

(1) 52% & 68% (2) 52 % & 26% (3) 48% & 32 % (4) 48% & 26%

Q.14 HgI2(yellow) will be turned into HgI

2(red) variety on

(1) Heating (2) Cooling

(3) Application of mechanical stress (4) Subliming


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Q.15 Ease of oxidation in following will be

(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) I > III > II (4) II > III > I

Q.16 Which of the following options correctlyrepresent solubility of N2in water (in terms of millimoles/litre)

if N2is bubbled through water at 293 K at a pressure of 0.768 bar and Henry's contant is 76.8 K bar at

293 K.

(1) 105 (2) 5.56 104 (3) 102 (4) 4.3 104

Q.17 Which of the constitutent is / are responsible for continuous burning in Holme's signal (mixture of Ca3P

2

& CaC2)?

(1) C2

H2

(2) PH3

(3) P2

H4

(4) All

Q.18 The products of periodic acid oxidation of the above compound are

(1) + HCO2H (2) + HCHO

(3) + HCO2H (4) + HCHO


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Q.19 For the electrochemical cell : Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cl(aq) | Cl2(g) | Pt(s)

Given:0

1 Zn/Zn2E = 0.76 Volt,

0!

)g(Cl/Cl 2E = 1.36 Volt

From these data one can deduce that :

(1) Zn + Cl2 Zn2++ 2Clis a non-spontaneous reaction at standard conditions.

(2) Zn2++ 2Cl "# Cl2+ Zn is a spontaneous reaction at standard conditions with

0cellE = 2.12 volt .(3) Zn + Cl

2 "# Zn2++ 2Clis a spontaneous reaction at standard conditions with

0cellE = 2.12 volt

(4) Zn + Cl2 "# Zn2++ 2Clis a spontaneous reaction at standard conditions with

0cellE = 0.60 volt

Q.20 NH3+ Cl

2(excess) #Exlosive substance (X) """ #" )aq(HCl (Y) + (Z)

Blue

NiCl2

The products (Y) and (Z) are respectively:

(1) NH3& Cl

2(2) N

2& Cl

2(3) NH

2NH

2& Cl

2(4) HN = NH & Cl

2

Q.21

OH

OHHO $

"""" #" 42SOH.conc A

Final product A is

(1) OHO (2) CH2= C = CH2

(3)O

(4) HO

O


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Q.22 In the excess of NH3(aq.), Cu2+ions forms a deep blue complex ion [Cu(NH

3)4]2+which has

Kf= 1011the concentration of Cu2+ion in solution prepared by adding 5 103mole of CuSO

4to

0.5 L of 0.4 M NH3(aq) is

(1) 4

5

)36(

105 !&(2) 4

6

)36(

10!

(3) 4

5

)36(

10!

(4) 4

2

)39(

10!

Q.23 Which of following statement is true?

(1) Absolutely pure water does not contain any ions

(2) London forces is directly proportional to more number of loosely held electron

(3) Allene is polar due to its non planar structure

(4) CH3OCH

3is less volatile than C

2H

5OH due to higher molecular weight.

Q.24 CHO undergoes reaction in the presence of KCN to give

(1) CH

OK

CN

(2) NC CHO

(3) CH(OH)CO (4)O

CH

OH

CN

Q.25 For the reaction : 2NH3(g) #N

2(g) + 3H

2(g) if rate of disapperance of NH

3is 1.7 gm/ sec then rate

of appearance of N2should be :

(1) 0.85 gm/sec (2) 3.4 gm/sec (3) 1.4 gm / sec (4) 0.7 gm/sec


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Q.26 An ion M2+forms the complexes.

[M(H2O)

6]2+ [M(en)

3]2+ [MBr

6]4

Match the complex with the appropriate colour respectively

(1) Green, blue & red (2) Blue, red & green

(3) Green, red & blue (4) Red, blue & green

Q.27 Glycine has the structural formula NH2

CH2

COOH. Glycine has two dissociation constant forwhich Ka& K

bis 1.6 1010and K

bis 2.5 1012. Calculate the isoelectric point of glycine.

[Given : log 1.6 = 0.2041, log 2.5 = 0.3979 ]

(1) 2.8 (2) 4.8 (3) 6.09 (4) 7.8

Q.28 The enthalpy of solution, of sodium and sodium oxide in large volume of water, are 184and

238 kJ/mol,respectively. If the enthalpy of formation of water is286 kJ/mol, then what is the

enthalpy of formation of sodium oxide? All the enthalpies are at 298 K and 1 bar pressure.

[Given : Reactions involved are

2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) 2NaOH(aq) + H

2(g)

Na2O(s) + H2O(l) 2NaOH(aq) ](1) +54 kJ /mol (2) 130 kJ/mol (3) 416 kJ /mol (4) +156 kJ/mol

Q.29 The ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2O)

4Cl(NO

2)]Cl is

(1) [Cr(H2O)

4Cl(NO

2)]Cl (2) [Cr(H

2O)

4Cl

2]NO

2

(3) [Cr(H2O)

4Cl(ONO)]Cl (4) [Cr(H

2O)

4Cl

2NO

2] H

2O

Q.30 Which of the following will not give blue colour during the test for 'N' in sodium extract

(1) NH2OH (2) NH

2CONH

2(3) CH

3NH

2(4)

NH2


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M A T H E M AT I C S


Q.31 The value of 23

1!

6

0

dxx2sin1

xsinxcosis

(1)12

tan3

(2)15

tan3

(3)3

tan3

(4)6

tan3

Q.32 The sum 45

- 110x2 4x5x

1is equal to

(1)90

37(2)

36

19(3)

18

11(4)

24

13

Q.33 Consider the region bounded by f(x) = x

3

, the x-axis, x = 0, and the line x = 4. If the line x = K dividesthis region into two parts of equal area, then the value of K2is

(1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 8 (4) 28

Q.34 Triangle ABC is inscribed in the parabola described by the equation y26x 4y + 10 = 0 so that A isthe vertex of the parabola and B and C are the end points of the latus rectum of the parabola. The area

of triangle ABC is

(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.25

Q.35 The median of a set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is

increased by 2, then the median of the new set(1) remains the same as that of the original set (2) is increased by 2

(3) is decreased by 2 (4) is 2 times the original median.

Q.36 Three distinct integers are randomly selected from the set of integers from 16 to 30 (inclusive).

Probability that their sum is even, is

(1)2

1(2)

65

32(3)

65

33(4)

5

3


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Q.37 Let p be the statementx is an irrational number, q be the statement y is a transcendental number, andr be the statement x is a rational number iff y is a transcendental number.Statement1: r is equivalent to either q or p.

Statement2: r is equivalent to ~ (p 6~ q).(1) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false.

(2) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

(3) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1.(4) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for Statement -1.

Q.38 The perpendicular bisector of the line segment with endpoints (2, 3, 2) and (4, 1, 4) passes through the

point (3, 6, 1) and has equation of the forma

3x 1=

b

6y !=

c

1z !where a, b and c are relatively

prime integers with a > 0. The value of abc (a + b + c) is equal to(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Q.39 Let a solution y = y(x) of the differential equation eydy(2 + cos x) dx = 0 satisfy y(0) = 0 then the value

of '()*

+,3

2f is equal to

(1) ln 3 (2) ln (2 + 3) (3) ln (1 + 3) (4) does not exist

Q.40 Let g(x) = 3|2x| !1 . If a denotes the number of relative minima, b denotes the number of relative

maxima and c denotes the product of the zeros. Then the value of (a + 2b c) is(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 9

Q.41 The radii of 2 circles are 7 and 2. If the distance between their centers is 13, then the length of their

common external tangent, is

(1) 10 3 (2)2

25(3) 12 (4)

2

23

Q.42 The smallest real value of K so that the system of equations has no solution,

x y + 2z = 13x y + 2z = 0x + 2y Kz = 0

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 7 (4) 2


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Q.43 Given that f '(x) = 7-

!101

1n

n)xn( . Number of relative maximum of f(x) is

(1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 50 (4) 51

Q.44 If the sum of first 23 terms of the series log x3+ ''(

)

**+

,2

4

y

xlog + ''(

)

**+

,4

5

y

xlog + .... can be expressed in the

form of log ''

(

)**+

,b

a

y

x, then (a + b) equals

(1) 805 (2) 828 (3) 851 (4) 854

Q.45

APB is a semi-circle in the first quadrant as shown in the figure where P is a fixed point on semi-circle.

If semi-circle slide on coordinate axes along diameter AB then the locus of P will be (P is not corner point

of semi-circle)

(1) Straight line (2) Circle (3) Parabola (4) Ellipse

Q.46 The set of points P(x, y) in the complex plane such that 2yi2x2 !11 = 13 , is

(where i2= 1)

(1) 2y,x13y|R)y,x( 22 :!-; (2) 2y,13xy|R)y,x( 22 :1-;

(3) 2y,13xy|R)y,x( 22 :!-; (4) 2y,x13y|R)y,x( 22 :!-;


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Q.47 The foci of an ellipse are located at the points (2, 4) and (2, 2). The points (4, 2) lies on the ellipse.If a and b represent the lengths of the semi-major and semi-minor axes respectively, then the value of

(ab)2is equal to

(1) 68 + 22 10 (2) 6 + 22 10 (3) 26 + 10 10 (4) 6 + 10 10

Q.48 Let f : X #R, g : Y #R where X and Y are non-empty subsets of R. Suppose also that for all x ;X,

the compositions are defined and (f o g) (x) = (g o f) (x). How many of the following five statements mustbe true?

(i) X ?

@

2xif2x

)bx(b

2xif82xifa

22

x

A!!

-B

If fis continuous at x = 2 then the locus of the pair of perpendicular tangents to the ellipse 1b

y

a

x2

2

2

2

-1 ,is

(1) x2+ y2= 8 (2) x2+ y2= 10 (3) x2+ y2= 12 (4) x2+ y2= 68

Q.51 Statement1: If )BA(n C = 3 then 8 9)AB()BA(n &C& = 9Statement2:If A and B have n elements in common, then A B and B A have 3n elements in

common.

(1) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false.

(2) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

(3) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1.

(4) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for Statement -1.


13/22



Q.52 The position vector of a point in which a line through the origin perpendicular to the plane

2x yz = 4 meets the plane 6)k2j5i3(.r -1!!

, is

(1) (1, 1, 1) (2) (1, 1, 2) (3) (4, 2, 2) (4) '(

)*+

, !!

3

2,

3

2,

3

4

Q.53 The angle between pair of tangents drawn to the curve 7x212y2= 84 from M(1, 2) is

(1) 2 tan12

1(2) 2 tan12

(3) '(

)*+

, 1 !!2

1tan

3

1tan2

11(4) 2 tan13

Q.54 If the complex number z = x + iy moves in argand plane such that 1 D | x + iy | D 2 andx y D 0 where x, y ;R, determines a region with area k then the value of the definite integral

8 923

k2

0

dxxsin , is equal to

[Note: {k} denotes fractional part of k. ]

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

Q.55 If (1 + x)10= a0+ a

1x + a

2x2+ ................+a

10x10, then

(a0a

2+ a

4a

6+ a

8a

10)2+ (a

1a

3+ a

5a

7+ a

9)2is equal to

(1) 310 (2) 210 (3) 29 (4) none

Q.56 If the curves f(x) = exand g (x) = kx2 touches each other then the value of k is equal to

(1) 2 (2)4

e2

(3)2

e2

(4)2

e


14/22



Q.57 The set of points (x, y) whose distance from the line y = 2x + 2 is the same as the distance from (2, 0) is

a parabola. This parabola is congruent to the parabola in standard form y = Kx2for some K which is

equal to

(1)12

5(2)

4

5(3)

5

4(4)

5

12

Q.58 The value of

E FG H

E FG H7

7

-

-

0!

0!

45

1n

45

1n

)1n2(2cisIm

)1n2(cisRe

is equal to

(1) cos 1 (2) 21/2 (3) 21/2 (4) none

Q.59 If u!

and v!

are two non-collinear unit vectors such that2

vuvu

!!!! !

-& , then the value of

E F 2vuu !!!

&& is equal to

(1)4

1(2)

2

1(3)

3

2(4)

4

3

Q.60 Supposef(x) = x23x + 1. If c1and c

2are the two values of 'c' for which the tangent line to the graph

of f(x) at the point E F)c(f,c intersects at the point (3, 0) then (c1+ c2) equals

(1) 6 (2) 6 (3) 192 (4) 102


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P H Y S I C S


Q.61 A man of mass 60 kg can throw a stone of mass 1 kg upto a height 5m. If he is standing on ice on stakes

of negligible mass, the maximum velocity that he can generate in same stone if he throws it with same

impulse in the horizontal direction is

(1) vmax= 9.9 ms

1 (2) vmax= 12 ms

1 (3) vmax= 7 ms

1 (4) 10 ms

1

Q.62 Two bodies of equal mass are projected horizontally with equal velocity V to move along the paths AB

and A' B' as shown in the figure. The path AB and A' B' are frictionless and lie in a vertical plane. Let

the time taken by body in making displacement 'd' be t1and t

2for path AB and A' B' respectively.

(Assume that body does not lose contact at any point). Then

B

BI

d

v

vA

AI

(1) t1= t

2(2) t

1< t

2(3) t

1> t

2(4) cannot be predicted

Q.63 Calculate the time period of a pendulum whose length of string is 2r and a solid ball of radius 5r is

connected to one end.

(1) g/r223 (2) g19/r523 (3) g9/r823 (4) g7/r5923


16/22



Q.64 A force F acts for 1 sec on a body of mass 1kg moving with initial velocity u in a direction perpendicular

to its initial velocity

(1) distance covered by the body is '(

)*+

, 12

Fu (2) displacement of the body is

2

2

2

Fu '

(

)*+

,1

(3) change in kinetic energy of the body is )Fu(21 22 1

(4) momentum of the body is increased by F/2.

Q.65 A sledge car of mass m fitted with rocket boosters is moving on a frictionless horizontal ice surface with

initial velocity u!

parallel to the x-axis at a distance d. Rocket boosters are fired for 1 sec producing a

velocity v!

in the sledge car parallel to the x-axis. The magnitude of the torque which acted about the

origin of co-ordinates is

(1) zero (2) m(v u)d (3) mud (4) mvd

Q.66 A sphere of radius 1 m is rolling on a rough horizontal surface. The magnitude of velocity of A w.r.t. B is

60#vcm

A

B

(1) vcm

(2) vcm

/2 (3) 1.73 vcm

(4) zero

Q.67 A disc of mass m, radius R is set rol ling with angular velocity J, up on a rough inclined plane of inclination30 to the horizontal and is in rolling motion always. The distance it will move up on the inclined plane will

be

(1)g

R

4

3 22J(2)

g

R

2

3 22J(3)

g

R3 22J(4)

g

R

8

9 22J


17/22



Q.68 Moment of inertial of a system made from three uniform rods each of mass m and length "joined to each

other, as shown in the figure about one end O and perpendicular to its plane will be

O

90# #

1)

12

m

2

2)

6

m

2

3) m

2

4) 3m

2

Q.69

Statement 1 :

When a stationary object is observed from rotating frame of reference, the object is

seen to rotate in the reverse direction with the same angular velocity as that of the frame.

Statement 2 : Rotating frame of reference is non-inertial frame and from this frame we have to apply a

centrifugal force which balances the centripetal force.

1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.

2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.

3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.

4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.70 Ball A moving at 12 m/s collides elastically with ball B as shown. If both balls have the same mass, what

is the final velocity of ball A ?

1) 3 m/s 2) 6 m/s 3) 9 m/s 4) 12 m/s

Q.71 A particle is executing SHM with period T and amplitude 13 cm, its equilibrium position being O. Its

velocity at a distance of x cm from O is 96 cm/s. Then T in seconds and x in cm may be

T x T x

1) 5

/48 12 2)

/4 6

3) 2/15 8 4) 3/20 10


18/22



Q.72 Two insects P and Q are firmly sitting at the ends of a massless semicircular wire of radius R and two

more insects A and B are firmly sitting at the bottom of the wire. The wire is given an angular velocityJ0

about a vertical axis through its centre as shown in the figure. Mass of each insect is M. Now A and B

crawl to the opposite ends to meet P and Q. Final angular velocity attained by the rod is equal to

(1) 4

0J(2) 2

0J(3) J0 (4) 2 J0

Q.73 A sphere of mass m is given some angular velocity about a horizontal axis through its centre, and gently

placed on a plank of mass m. The coefficient of friction between the two is . The plank rests on a

smooth horizontal surface. The initial acceleration of centre of mass of the sphere relative to the plank

will be

m

m

(1) zero (2)g (3)5

7g (4) 2g

Q.74 In the graph shown below, the displacement (y) versus (x) along the line transmission of a longitudinal

wave, at a given instant, is plotted. The positive y-axis represents displacement to the right and the

negative y-axis displacement to the left. Then the pressure maxima occur at :

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S


19/22



Q.75 In the standing waves that form as a result of reflection of waves from an obstacle, the ratio of the

amplitude at an antinode to the amplitude at a node is s. The fraction of the energy that passes past the

obstacle is

(1) 2s

4(2)

1s

1s

!1

(3)

2

1s

1s'

(

)*+

,1!

(4) 2)1s(

s4

1

Q.76 A certain mass of gas is taken from an initial thermodynamic state A to another state B by process I and

II. In process I the gas does 5 joules of work and absorbs 4 joules of heat energy. In process II, the gas

absorbs 5 joules of heat. The work done by the gas in process II (see figure) is

P

V

B

A II

I

(1) +6 joules (2)

6 joules (3) +4 joules (4)

4 joules

Q.77 A bullet strike the dielectric slab of a parallel plate capacitor. Neglecting friction in any contacting

surfaces which of the following is correct ? The slab starts moving and comes out of the capacitor. The

capacitor and battery remain fixed.

(1) Linear momentum of bullet + dielectric slab is conserved(2) The current flows from the battery to the capacitor

(3) the energy stored in capacitor remains the same.

(4) Battery will draw some charge from the capacitor


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Q.78 A charge q is moving with a velocity s/mi1v1-!

at a point in a magnetic field and experiences a force

]k1j1[qF1 1!-!

N. If the charge is moving with a velocity s/mj1v2-!

at the same point, it experiences

a force ]k1i1[qF2 !-!

N. The magnetic induction B!

at that point is

(1) kji 11 Wb/m2 (2) kji 1! Wb/m2

(3) E Fkji !1! Wb/m2 (4) E Fkji !1 Wb/m2

Q.79 A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting

hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the

outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of 3Q, the new potentialdifference between the same two surfaces is:

(1) V (2) 2 V (3) 4 V (4) 2 V

Q.80 A current I is flowing through the loop. The direction of the current and the shape of the loop are as

shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is (MA = R, MB = 2R, angle DMA =

90)

M ABI

D

C

I

(1)R16

i7 0K , but out of the plane of the paper.. (2)R16

i5 0K , but out of the plane of the paper..

(3)R16

i7 0K , but into the plane of the paper.. (4)R16

i5 0K , but into the plane of the paper..


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Q.81 In the circuit shown below, the potential of A with respect to B of the capacitor C is

20L1.0V

0.5V

2.5V10L

A B

C

(1) 2.00 volt (2) 2.00 volt (3) 1.50 volt (4) +1.50 volt

Q.82 You measure the capacitor and inductor voltages in a driven RLC circuit, and find 10V for the rms

capacitor voltage and 15V for the rms inductor voltage.

(1) J= Jres

(2) J< Jres

(3) J> Jres

(4) Can't be said

Q.83 Which of the following graph correctly represents variation of emf developed in the rectangular conducting

loop as it enters a uniform magnetic field with constant acceleration astarting from rest at t = 0 asshown in the diagram.

(1)

E

tM2b/a

(2)

E

tM2b/a

(3)

E

tM2b/a

(4)

E

tM2b/a


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Q.84 A capacitor of capacitance C has initial charge Q0is connected to a inductor of inductance L as shown.

At t = 0 switch S is closed. Then the current though the inductor when energy in the capacitor is three

times energy of inductor is

(1)LC2

Q0(2)

LC

Q0

S

+ + +Q0

CL

(3)LC

Q2 0(4)

LC4

Q0

Q.85 An optical system consists of a thin convex lens of focal length 30 cm and a plane mirror 15 cm behind

the lens. An object is placed 15 cm in front of the lens. The distance of the final image formed from the

lens is

(1) 60 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 35 cm (4) 40 cm

Q.86 If the ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV then the wavelength of the radiation required to

excite the electron in Li++from first to third Bohr orbit is approximately

(1) 1140 (2) 114 (3) 11.4 (4) 134

Q.87 The angular magnification of a simple microscope can be increased by increasing

(1) focal length of lens (2) size of object (3) aperture of lens (4) power of lens

Q.88 A vessel is quarter filled with a liquid of refractive indexK. The remaining parts of the vessel is filled withan immiscible liquid of refractive index 3K/2 . The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actualdepth. The value of Kis(1) 1 (2) 3/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 4/3

Q.89 The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is32h3

. Here h is Plancks constant. The

kinetic energy of this electron is:(1) 4.53 eV (2) 1.51 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV

Q.90 Zener diodes have higher dopant densities as compared to ordinary p-n junction diodes. This

(1) Decreases the width of depletion layer as well as junction field

(2) Increases the width of depletion layer as well as junction field

(3) Decreases the width of depletion layer but increases the junction field

(4) Increases the width of depletion layer but decreases the junction field

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