Exam 3 Content Review
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Transcript of Exam 3 Content Review
BY 123 CONTENT
REVIEWExam Three
QUESTION 1 A mother and father are
phenotypically normal, but their child has an inherited metabolic disorder. What is the chance that their next child will have this disorder?
a) 0b) ½c) ¾d) ¼e) 1
QUESTION 2 What does the law of segregation say?
What does the law of independent assortment say?
QUESTION 3 If you have a single gene that affects
more than one trait, this is an example of…
a) polygenic inheritanceb) epistasisc) pleiotropyd) nondisjunctione) a and c
QUESTION 4Distinguish between complete
dominance, codominance, and incomplete dominance. What is the phenotypic ratio for each if I cross Tt x Tt?
QUESTION 5 A plant that is true-breeding for a
dominant trait is crossed with a plant that is true breeding for a recessive trait. The offspring plant is then allowed to self-pollinate. What is the phenotypic ratio of this new cross?
a) 1:2:1b) 3:1c) 9:3:3:1d) 1:1e) None of the above
QUESTION 6 Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a
defective allele that…
a) causes hemoglobin molecules to malfunction
b) encodes a dysfunctional enzyme that fails to break down brain lipids
c) encodes a neurotoxind) encodes an enzyme that breaks down
muscle fiberse) none of the above
QUESTION 7 A TTFF individual will produce ______
types of gametes, but a TtFf individual will produce ______ types of gametes.
a) one, fourb) four, onec) two, oned) three, twoe) two, three
QUESTION 8 Which of the following would be the
first/fastest to allow us to get genetic information about the fetus?
a) chorionic villus samplingb) amniocentesisc) ultrasoundd) a or be) a and c
QUESTION 9 If my brother has thalassemia, but I
don’t, and neither of our parents have thallassemia, what is the chance that I am a carrier of the disease?
a) ¼b) 1/3c) ½d) 2/3e) ¾
QUESTION 10 We do not know the genotype of one
parent. Assume white is recessive to red(red= R, white = r). If a test cross is done with the unknown parent resulting in half red offspring and half white offspring, what is the genotype of the unknown parent?
a) RRb) Rrc) rrd) any of these are possiblee) a or c are possible
QUESTION 11 If a species shows incomplete
dominance for a single trait, the genotype and phenotype will be
a) differentb) equalc) indeterminantd) none of the abovee) a and b
QUESTION 12 If two tall parents give birth to a child
with achondroplasia, it is most likely the result of…
a) both parents passing a recessive geneb) both parent passing a dominant genec) a new mutationd) new expression of a previously dormant
genee) none of the above
QUESTION 13 What is the chance of having an
offspring that has blood type A if the parents are type AB and O.
a) ½b) ¼c) 1/3d) Nonee) All will be A
QUESTION 14 If the couple in question 13 (parents
have type AB and O blood) had a second offspring what is the chance that it will have blood type A?
a) ½b) ¼c) 1/3d) 0e) 1
QUESTION 15 If 56 offspring are red-green, 456 are
red-red, 44 are red-blue, and 444 are blue-blue; what is the recombination frequency?
a) 15%b) 24%c) 20%d) 5%e) 10%
QUESTION 16 If the cheek cells from an individual
with Klinefelter’s were viewed under a microscope, the person would appear to be
a) maleb) femalec) indeterminated) a or ce) none of the above
QUESTION 17 The chromosomes in mitochondria
are most like
a) the somatic chromosomes of the fatherb) the somatic chromosomes of the motherc) the chromosomes of a bacteriad) a and ce) b and c
QUESTION 18If my phenotypic ratio is 9:7 or 9:3:4 following
the cross of BbCc x BbCc, which of the following is most likely happening?
a) Codominanceb) Complete dominancec) Epistasisd) Polygenic inheritance e) Incomplete dominance
QUESTION 19 If a father has an x-linked recessive
disorder, but the mother does not have the disease and is not a carrier, what is the possibility that a son will have this disorder?
100%25%50%0%None of these
QUESTION 20Describe the following conditions and then
classify all the following (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked recessive, etc.):
a) Color blindnessb) Cystic fibrosisc) Huntington’s diseased) Polydactyly e) Albinism f) Duchenne muscular dystrophyg) Thalassemia h) Tay-Sachs disease
QUESTION 21 Cells that have more than two
complete sets of chromosomes are called….
a) aneuploidb) trisomyc) polyploidd) tetrasomye) none of these
QUESTION 22 If alleles are 5% recombinant, then
they are _____ map units apart.
a) 50b) 25c) 10d) 100
e) None of the above
QUESTION 23T/F The most common phenotype is referred to as the
dominant type.
QUESTION 24 In werewolves, pointy ears (P) are dominant
over round ears (p). The gene is on the X chromosome. Werewolves use the same sex determining system as humans. A female werewolf has pointy ears even though her father has round ears. What percentage of her sons will have round ears if she marries a werewolf with round ears?
a) 0%b) 25%c) 50%d) 75%e) 100%
QUESTION 25 Okazaki fragments are eventually
joined by
a) DNA polymeraseb) primasec) topoisomrased) helicasee) None of the above
QUESTION 26What is nuclease?
QUESTION 27 If there is 23 % adenine in a double
helix of DNA, how much cytosine is there?
a) 23%b) 46%c) 27%d) 54%e) None of the above
QUESTION 28 Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
a) double-stranded DNA is helical.b) DNA contains phosphodiester linkages.c) Double-stranded DNA has two
complementary strandsd) Adenine and uracil are present in equal
amounts in double-stranded DNA.e) All are true.
QUESTION 29 Which of these is the correct
sequence of enzymes used in the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA?
a) primase, helicase, polymerase, ligaseb) helicase, primase, ligase, polymerasec) helicase, primase, polymerase, ligased) helicase, polymerase, primase, ligasee) ligase, primase, polymerase, helicase
QUESTION 30 T/F The replication fork is also known as the origin
of replication.
QUESTION 31 In RNA, ______ are removed so that
transcription can occur.
a) intronsb) exonsc) errorsd) a and ce) none of the above
QUESTION 32The codons AAA, CCC, GGG, and UUU
specify the amino acids lysine, praline, glycine, and phenylalanine, respectively. Which of the following DNA sequences would specify the peptide pro-gly-lys-phe if present in the template strand?
a) 3’-CCCGGGAAATTT-5’b) 3’-CCCGGGAAAUUU-5’c) 5’-GGGCCCUUUAAA-3’d) 5’-GGGCCCTTTAAA-3’e) None of these
QUESTION 33 When a single base pair is either
inserted or deleted from DNA it results in a ______.
a) nonsense mutationb) frame-shift mutationc) inversion mutationd) translocation mutation
e) missense mutation
QUESTION 34 How many amino acids would be
present in the polypeptide created from the mRNA sequence AUGCCCAUUGCUUGAGGGAUGUAA.
a) 4b) 5c) 6d) 7e) 8
QUESTION 35 The fact that GGU, GGC, GGA, and
GGG all code for the same amino acid is a good example of
a) transcriptionb) wobblec) nonsense codonsd) a or ce) all of these
QUESTION 36 Protein synthesis requires all of the
following except ______.
a) ribosomesb) mRNAc) tRNAd) amino acidse) endoplasmic reticulum
QUESTION 37 The central dogma of genetics is
a) DNA to amino acids to RNAb) DNA to transcription to RNAc) Protein to RNA to DNAd) DNA to RNA to Proteine) None of the above
QUESTION 38 A group of 1200 nucleotides could
code for _____ amino acids.
a) 200b) 600c) 400d) 300e) None of the above
QUESTION 39 What is the proper order of these events?
translation RNA processing transcription modification of protein
a) 1,2,3,4b) 3,2,1,4c) 4,2,3,1d) 2,3,4,1e) 1,2,4,3
QUESTION 40 T/F The poly-A tail binds to the small
ribosomal subunit to allow the codons to be read from the proper starting point.
QUESTION 41 The sex determining system where
the female is heterozygous and the male is homozygous is referred to as the _____ system.
a) ZWb) XYc) XOd) Haplo-diploide) None of these
QUESTION 42 Vampires can have a widows peak (W) or a
continuous hairline(w), and can have red (r) or white eyes (R). Widows peak and red eyes are the most common. Cross a vampire that is homozygous for both wild types with a vampire that is heterozygous for both traits. How many offspring will be continuous hairline white eyes?
a) Noneb) Allc) 1d) 8e) 12
QUESTION 43 Use the cross from number 42. How
many offspring show traits for widows peak and white eyes?
a) Noneb) Allc) 1d) 8e) 12
QUESTION 44 If a plant this is heterozygous for
flower position and stem length (AaTt) self-pollinates, and 800 seeds are planted, how many plants should be Tall with Axial flowers?
a) 450b) 150c) 50d) 100e) None of the above
QUESTION 45 A family of 15 people with genes for
brown eyes only has 11 family members with brown eyes. What is the penetrance of brown eyes in this family?
a) 27%b) 33%c) 92%d) 73%e) 12%
QUESTION 46Describe RNA processing in as much
detail as Dr. Cusic did in lecture.
QUESTION 47 If two parents are both carriers of an
autosomal recessive disease how likely is it that they would have a male offspring with the disease?
a) ½b) ¼c) 1/3d) 2/3e) None of the above
QUESTION 48 If the P generation crosses a true
breeding brown haired (B) person with a true breeding blond(b), what will the genotypic ration of the F2 generation be?
a) 3:1b) 1:2:1c) 9:3:3:1d) A or ce) None of these
QUESTION 49 DNA replication is a:
a) Dispersive processb) Conservative processc) Semi-conservative process
QUESTION 50 Transcription is initiated when RNA
polymerase binds to
a) A promoterb) An initiator c) A transcriptord) A codone) None of the above
QUESTION 51 The promoter sequence in eukaryotes is
(included) in which of the following:
a) TAATAAb) TATAAAc) TTGACAd) GTTAAAe) None of the above are correct
QUESTION 52 The direct result of transcription is
a) A duplicate DNA moleculeb) nRNAc) A proteind) mRNAe) None of the above
QUESTION 53 The direct result of translation is
a) A duplicate DNA moleculeb) nRNAc) A proteind) mRNAe) All of the above
QUESTION 54 In messenger RNA, the nucleotide series
UAG specifies
a) Arginineb) Serinec) Startd) Stope) Proline
QUESTION 55Base-pair substitutions involving the third
base of a codon are unlikely to result in an error in the polypeptide. This is because:
a) Substitutions are corrected before transcription begins.
b) Substitutions are restricted to introns.c) The base-pairing rules are less strict for the
third base of codons and anticodons. d) A signal-recognition particle corrects coding
errors.e) Transcribed errors attract snRNPs, which then
stimulate splicing and correction.
QUESTION 56The anticodon of a particular tRNA
molecule is
a) Complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon
b) Complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA
c) The part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid
d) Changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA
e) Catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme
QUESTION 57If a particular operon encodes enzymes for
making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then
a) The amino acid inactivates the repressorb) The enzymes produced are called inducible
enzymesc) The repressor is active in the absence of
the amino acidd) The amino acid acts as a co-repressore) The amino acid turns on transcription of the
operon
QUESTION 58What would occur if the repressor of an
inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?
a) Continuous transcription of the operon’s genes
b) Reduced transcription of the operon’s genesc) Buildup of a substrate for the pathway
controlled by the operond) Irreversible binding of the repressor to the
promotere) Overproduction of catabolite activator protein
(CAP)
QUESTION 59In E. coli, tryptophan switches off the trp
operon by
a) Inactivating the repressor proteinb) Inactivating the gene for the first enzyme
in the pathway by feedback inhibition c) Binding to the repressor and increasing
the latter’s affinity for the operatord) Binding to the operatore) Binding to the promoter
QUESTION 60Inducible enzymes
a) Are usually involved in anabolic pathwaysb) Are produced when a small molecule
inactivates the repressor proteinc) Are produced when an activator molecule
enhances the attachment of RNA polymerase with the operator
d) Are regulated by inherently inactive repressor molecules
e) Are regulated almost entirely by feedback inhibition
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